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  • Question 1 - You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student....

    Incorrect

    • You are observing the repair of an inguinal hernia as a medical student. The consultant asks you what structures form the roof of the inguinal canal.

      What forms the roof of the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: The union of the transversalis fascia with the inguinal ligament

      Correct Answer: The arched fibres of internal oblique and transversus abdominis

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Inguinal Canal: Structures and Functions

      The inguinal canal is a passage located in the abdominal wall that extends from the abdominal inguinal ring to the subcutaneous inguinal ring. It is about 4 cm long, slanting downwards and medially, and is situated just above the medial part of the inguinal ligament. The canal contains important structures such as the spermatic cord and the ilioinguinal nerve in males, and the round ligament of the uterus and the ilioinguinal nerve in females.

      The roof of the inguinal canal is formed by the arched fibres of the internal oblique muscle and transversus abdominis, along with the transversalis fascia. The floor of the canal is formed by the union of the transversalis fascia with the inguinal ligament, along with the lacunar ligament at the medial third. The medial third of the floor is also formed by the lacunar ligament, while the posterior wall is formed by the reflected inguinal ligament, also known as the conjoint tendon, and the transversalis fascia.

      Understanding the anatomy of the inguinal canal is important for medical professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions such as hernias and nerve entrapment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and a painful lump near his anus. Upon examination, a 4 cm peri-anal swelling is observed, accompanied by surrounding erythema. The swelling is very tender and fluctuant.
      What is the most effective treatment option?

      Your Answer: Incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Incision and Drainage for Abscess Treatment

      When it comes to treating an abscess, the most appropriate course of action is always incision and drainage of the pus. This procedure can typically be done with local anesthesia and involves sending a sample of the pus to the lab for cultures and sensitivities. While severe abscesses may require additional medication like flucloxacillin after the incision and drainage, a biopsy is not necessary in most cases. It’s important to note that simply taking pain medication and waiting for the abscess to resolve is unlikely to be effective. Instead, seeking prompt medical attention for incision and drainage is crucial for successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are asked to see an elderly patient who has not opened their...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see an elderly patient who has not opened their bowels for several days. Their abdomen is distended, and they describe cramping abdominal pain that comes and goes. A supine abdominal X-ray is performed to identify features of bowel obstruction and suggest the location of the obstruction.
      Which of the following is more characteristic of the large bowel, rather than the small bowel, on an abdominal X-ray?

      Your Answer: Haustral folds

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Small and Large Bowel Anatomy

      The human digestive system is composed of various organs that work together to break down food and absorb nutrients. Two important parts of this system are the small and large bowel. Here are some characteristics that differentiate these two structures:

      Haustral Folds and Valvulae Conniventes
      Haustral folds are thick, widely separated folds that are characteristic of the large bowel. In contrast, valvulae conniventes are thin mucosal folds that pass across the full width of the small bowel.

      Location
      The small bowel is located towards the center of the abdomen, while the large bowel is more peripheral and frames the small bowel.

      Diameter
      The normal maximum diameter of the small bowel is 3 cm, while the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm. The caecum, a part of the large bowel, can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.

      Air-Fluid Levels in Obstruction
      The appearance of air-fluid levels is characteristic of small bowel obstruction.

      Remembering the 3/6/9 Rule
      To help remember the normal diameters of the small and large bowel, use the 3/6/9 rule: the small bowel has a diameter of 3 cm, the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm, and the caecum can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.

      Understanding the Differences Between Small and Large Bowel Anatomy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of left groin pain, associated...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man presents with a 3-week history of left groin pain, associated with a lump that seems to come and go.
      Following examination, the clinician deduces that the swelling is most likely to be an indirect inguinal hernia.
      Indirect inguinal hernias can be controlled at:

      Your Answer: 1.3 cm above the mid-point of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias: Key Landmarks and Assessment Techniques

      Inguinal hernias are a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Understanding the key landmarks and assessment techniques can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

      Deep Inguinal Ring: The location of the deep inguinal ring is 1.3 cm above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament. Indirect hernias originate from this area.

      Pubic Tubercle: The pubic tubercle is a landmark that distinguishes between inguinal hernias and femoral hernias. Inguinal hernias emerge above and medial to the tubercle, while femoral hernias emerge below and lateral.

      Hasselbach’s Triangle: This is the area where direct hernias protrude through the abdominal wall. The triangle consists of the inferior epigastric vessels superiorly and laterally, the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly.

      Inferior Epigastric Vessels: Direct hernias are medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, while indirect hernias arise lateral to these vessels. However, this assessment can only be carried out during surgery when these vessels are visible.

      Scrotum: If a lump is present within the scrotum and cannot be palpated above, it is most likely an indirect hernia.

      By understanding these key landmarks and assessment techniques, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage inguinal hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents with severe left lower abdominal pain, his third attack in the past 2 years. He admits to intermittent dark red blood loss per rectum (PR) and diarrhoea. He generally has a poor diet and dislikes fruit and vegetables. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2 °C and a tachycardia of 95 bpm, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg; his body mass index is 32. There is well-localised left iliac fossa tenderness.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l (N 11.0) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 145 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 64 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Diverticulitis from Other Colonic Conditions in Older Adults

      Diverticulitis is a common condition in older adults, characterized by recurrent attacks of lower abdominal pain, fever, and tenderness in the left lower quadrant. It is associated with increasing age and a diet poor in soluble fiber. Left-sided involvement is more common due to increased intraluminal pressures. Management is usually conservative with antibiotics, but surgery may be necessary in 15-25% of cases. Complications include bowel obstruction, perforation, fistula formation, and abscess formation.

      Colonic cancer, on the other hand, presents with insidious symptoms such as loss of appetite, weight loss, and rectal bleeding, especially if left-sided. Late presentations may cause bowel obstruction or disseminated disease. Inflammatory bowel disease is less common in older adults and would present differently. Irritable bowel syndrome does not cause periodic fevers and has a different pattern of pain. Gastroenteritis is usually viral and self-limiting, unlike diverticulitis. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman who has recently seen her GP for a change in bowel habit towards constipation arrives in the Emergency Department with a tender, distended abdomen. She has also been suffering with a chest infection recently and has known chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 4. Bowel sounds are absent. The rectum is empty on examination. Abdominal X-ray reveals distended loops of large bowel, consistent with large bowel obstruction.
      Which one of these investigations should be performed next?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin®

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Diagnostic Procedures for Bowel Obstruction in CKD Patients

      Computed tomography (CT) scan with Gastrografin® is a safe and effective diagnostic tool for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who present with bowel obstruction. This oral contrast medium provides crucial diagnostic information without posing a significant risk of renal injury. It is important to differentiate between large bowel obstruction and pseudo-obstruction, which can be achieved through imaging studies. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage is not indicated in the absence of trauma. Gastroscopy is not necessary as the issue is bowel obstruction, and an ultrasound would not provide the level of detail needed. While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can provide quality images, a CT scan is more readily available and can be organized faster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      105
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes emergency surgery involving resection of a portion of his bowel. At the clinico-pathological conference, the histological findings of the operative sample are discussed.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of Crohn’s disease?

      Your Answer: Transmural inflammation

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis: Histopathological Features

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a term used to describe two conditions: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. While both conditions share some similarities, they have distinct differences that can be identified through histopathological examination of surgical specimens.

      Transmural inflammation, which affects all layers of the intestinal wall, is a hallmark feature of Crohn’s disease. This type of inflammation is not typically seen in ulcerative colitis. Additionally, Crohn’s disease often presents as skip lesions, meaning that affected areas are separated by healthy tissue. In contrast, ulcerative colitis typically presents as continuous disease limited to the large bowel.

      Crypt abscesses, which are collections of inflammatory cells within the crypts of the intestinal lining, are more commonly seen in ulcerative colitis. Mucosal inflammation, which affects only the surface layer of the intestinal lining, is more typical of ulcerative colitis as well.

      Other histopathological features that can help distinguish between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis include the presence of rose thorn ulcers (deep ulcers with a characteristic appearance) in Crohn’s disease and lymphoid aggregates in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis.

      In summary, while Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis share some similarities, histopathological examination of surgical specimens can help differentiate between the two conditions based on the presence or absence of certain features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an...

    Correct

    • You are called to see an 80-year-old man who was admitted for an anterior resection for sigmoid cancer. His operation was uncomplicated, and he is now three days post operation. He has hypercholesterolaemia and hypertension, but was otherwise fit before diagnosis. You find that the man is in atrial fibrillation. Nursing staff report that he is increasingly confused and appears to be in pain despite postoperative pain relief. They also report decreased urine output and tachycardia when they last took observations.
      What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anastomotic leak

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Signs of Sepsis Post-Abdominal Surgery

      When a patient presents with signs of sepsis post-abdominal surgery, it is important to consider the possible causes. While anastomotic leak is a common complication, hospital-acquired pneumonia, consequences of surgery, pulmonary embolus, and pre-existing cardiac conditions can also be potential factors. However, it is crucial to note that each condition presents with distinct symptoms and signs. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and investigation are necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      86.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor on your general surgical rotation,...

    Incorrect

    • You are a Foundation Year 2 (FY2) doctor on your general surgical rotation, and the consultant has asked you to scrub in to help assist. He informs you that it will be a fantastic learning opportunity and will ask you questions throughout. He goes to commence the operation and the questions begin.
      When making a midline abdominal incision, what would be the correct order of layers through the abdominal wall?

      Your Answer: Skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, posterior rectus sheath, extraperitoneal fat and peritoneum

      Correct Answer: Skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, peritoneum

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Abdominal Incisions and Their Layers

      Abdominal incisions are commonly used in surgical procedures. There are different types of abdominal incisions, each with its own set of layers. Here are some of the most common types of abdominal incisions and their layers:

      1. Midline Incision: This incision is made in the middle of the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. This incision is versatile and can be used for most abdominal procedures.

      2. Transverse Incision: This incision is made horizontally across the abdomen and involves the following layers: skin, fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus muscle, transversus abdominis, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.

      3. Paramedian Incision above the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline above the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, posterior rectus sheath, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.

      4. Paramedian Incision below the Arcuate Line: This incision is made to the side of the midline below the arcuate line and involves the following layers: skin, Camper’s fascia, Scarpa’s fascia, anterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.

      Knowing the different types of abdominal incisions and their layers can help surgeons choose the best approach for a particular procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      82.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 71-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding. The blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding. The blood is not mixed in with the stool and is noticed on the paper after defecation. She has been becoming more constipated over the last 6 months; however, she reports no weight loss or change in dietary habits. There is a past medical history of haemorrhoids 10 years ago, which were treated with creams. On examination, she appears well. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, without organomegaly. Rectal examination reveals two third-degree haemorrhoids. She is anxious because her father died 15 years ago from colorectal cancer.
      What is the gold standard investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Colorectal Cancer Investigations: Colonoscopy, CT Colonography, Barium Enema, Flexible Sigmoidoscopy, and Proctoscopy

      When a patient has a first-degree relative with colorectal carcinoma or reports persistent and progressive changes in bowel habits, investigations are necessary to detect any malignancy. While haemorrhoids may be the cause of bleeding, the presence of a coexisting lesion cannot be excluded without further investigation.

      Colonoscopy is the gold standard investigation for suspected colorectal cancer, allowing for examination of the large bowel and removal of suspicious lesions. CT colonography is a second-line alternative for patients unable to undergo a full colonoscopy, while a barium enema may be considered for those unable to complete colonoscopy.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy views the rectum, sigmoid colon, and distal descending colon, but does not provide information about the more proximal colon. Proctoscopy allows views of the rectum but does not provide information about lesions found further along the bowel.

      In summary, early detection of colorectal cancer is crucial, and these investigations play a vital role in identifying and treating the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of lower abdominal pain. He reports that the pain began 6 hours ago as a vague discomfort around his belly button, but has since become a sharp pain in the right iliac fossa, which worsens when he walks or coughs. He has lost his appetite and has vomited twice. The examining surgeon suspects that he may have appendicitis.
      Which dermatome level in the spinal cord receives afferent signals from the periumbilical pain in this condition?

      Your Answer: T6

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Sensory Levels and Pain Localization in Appendicitis

      Appendicitis is a common condition that causes inflammation of the appendix. The initial pain associated with this condition is vague and poorly localized, and it is felt in the periumbilical region. However, as the inflammation progresses and the parietal peritoneum adjacent to the appendix becomes inflamed, the pain becomes sharp and localizes to the right iliac fossa.

      The sensory level for visceral afferents from the appendix is at the 10th thoracic segment, which is the same level as the somatic afferents from the anterior abdominal wall in the region of the umbilicus. This is why the initial pain is felt in the periumbilical region.

      The hip girdle and groin area are innervated by the cutaneous dermatome representing L1 spinal cord. However, T6 to T12 affect abdominal and back muscles, and T8 and T12 are not the correct sensory levels for appendicitis pain localization. Understanding the sensory levels and pain localization in appendicitis can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A teenager makes an uneventful recovery post-appendicectomy, and three months later is back...

    Correct

    • A teenager makes an uneventful recovery post-appendicectomy, and three months later is back at school when he gets a sharp pain in the right inguinal region and notices a bulge just above his groin on the right. His GP diagnoses an inguinal hernia.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged during the teenager's appendicectomy?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      Nerve Damage during Appendicectomy: Understanding the Ilioinguinal, T10, Femoral, Genitofemoral, and Obturator Nerves

      During an appendicectomy, it is possible for nerves to be damaged if the surgeon performs overzealous sharp dissection of the musculature within the incision. One of the nerves that can be affected is the ilioinguinal nerve, which is a branch from the first lumbar nerve. This nerve passes between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles, supplying these muscles that form the roof of the inguinal canal in the groin region. Damage to the ilioinguinal nerve can lead to the development of an indirect inguinal hernia.

      It is important to note that the T10 nerve, which originates from below the thoracic vertebra 10, is too high to be damaged during an appendicectomy. The femoral nerve, which supplies the thigh and arises from the second, third, and fourth lumbar nerves, is also unlikely to be damaged during the procedure. The genitofemoral nerve and obturator nerve are also not typically affected during an appendicectomy.

      In summary, understanding the potential nerve damage that can occur during an appendicectomy is important for both patients and surgeons. By being aware of the nerves that are at risk, surgeons can take appropriate precautions to minimize the risk of complications and ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the clinic with three positive faecal occult blood specimens. He has had no significant symptoms, apart from mild fatigue over the past few months.
      On examination, he has pale conjunctiva, but there are no other specific findings.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 79 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 275 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 11 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 46 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Flexible colonoscopy: abnormal vessels visualised on the right side of the colon
      Which of the following is the initial therapy of choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels

      Explanation:

      Management of Angiodysplasia of the Colon

      Angiodysplasia of the colon is a condition that commonly affects individuals over the age of 60 and presents with chronic hypochromic microcytic anemia or massive bleeding with hemodynamic instability in 15% of patients. The treatment of choice for this condition is endoscopic ablation of abnormal vessels. Surgery may be considered for those who do not respond to ablation therapy. A review colonoscopy in 6 months would not be appropriate as management is required for the observed angiodysplasia. Blood transfusion is not indicated unless there are signs of acute large-volume blood loss. Iron sulfate supplementation may not be necessary if the underlying condition is treated, as the iron deficiency should correct itself with adequate dietary intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman who is 21 weeks pregnant presents with abdominal pain associated with a loss of appetite and nausea. On examination, the patient is apyrexial, with a blood pressure of 122/80 mmHg and a heart rate of 92 bpm. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness at McBurney’s point. Urine dip reveals a trace of glucose.
      What would be the most appropriate investigation to diagnose the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound abdomen

      Explanation:

      Imaging and Blood Tests for Suspected Appendicitis in Pregnancy

      Appendicitis is a common surgical problem during pregnancy, often presenting with non-specific symptoms and a positive McBurney’s sign. Pregnant women may not exhibit the classic low-grade fever and may experience loss of appetite and nausea. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the preferred imaging study for suspected appendicitis, with MRI used when ultrasound is inconclusive. Blood tests, including FBC, urea and electrolytes, and LFTs, may show a raised white cell count but are not definitive for diagnosis. CT scan is a last resort and not preferred in pregnancy. Ultrasound KUB is useful for renal causes of abdominal pain but not for diagnosing appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended abdomen. The pain started 4 days ago and was initially colicky in nature but is now continuous. She has vomited several times and only emptied her bowels once in the last 3 days, which is unusual for her. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks ago, from which she made a rapid recovery. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, she appears unwell. The abdomen is tender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are reduced. Observations: pulse rate 119 bpm, blood pressure 130/90 mmHg, temperature 38.7 °C.
      What is the single most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preoperative preparation and consideration for surgery

      Explanation:

      Preoperative Preparation and Consideration for Bowel Obstruction Surgery

      When a patient presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, recent abdominal surgery, a distended abdomen, and reduced bowel sounds, the most likely diagnosis is bowel obstruction. If the patient appears unwell, as in the case of tachycardia and fever, urgent investigation and/or intervention is necessary.

      While an urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis would be ideal, the patient in this scenario requires immediate surgery. Keeping the patient nil by mouth and providing intravenous fluids are important, but they do not treat or investigate the underlying cause. Placing a nasogastric tube can help relieve symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not enough on its own.

      In summary, preoperative preparation and consideration for bowel obstruction surgery involve urgent investigation and/or intervention, keeping the patient nil by mouth, providing intravenous fluids, and potentially placing a nasogastric tube. Conservative management is not suitable for an unwell patient with bowel obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man with a chronic bowel condition presents with severe pain on...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a chronic bowel condition presents with severe pain on defecation, which has lasted over two months despite increasing fluid intake and stool softeners. He has had anal fissures in the past, as well as a previous perianal abscess. On examination, the anal area is inflamed, with evidence of a deep anal fissure with an associated large sentinel tag.
      The doctor explains that this is a symptom of active perianal disease secondary to this patient’s chronic bowel condition.
      With which of the following conditions is perianal disease most commonly associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Explanation:

      Perianal Manifestations in Inflammatory Bowel Disease: A Comparison

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition that affects the digestive tract. Two main types of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Both conditions can cause perianal manifestations, but the prevalence and severity differ.

      Crohn’s disease is commonly complicated by perianal abscesses, fistula-in-ano, anal fissures, and skin tags. Up to 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease may suffer from perianal disease, which can significantly impair their quality of life. In contrast, perianal disease is far less common in patients with ulcerative colitis.

      Coeliac disease, another digestive disorder, is not associated with perianal disease. However, it is linked to an increased risk of other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease.

      Diverticular disease, which causes abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, and diarrhea, is also not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a functional disorder that causes symptoms such as bloating, cramping, abdominal pain, and constipation or diarrhea. Unlike IBD, IBS is not associated with an increased risk of perianal disease.

      In summary, perianal manifestations are more commonly seen in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis or other digestive disorders. A multidisciplinary approach may be required to manage severe cases of perianal Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man presents to the General Surgical Outpatient Clinic with a 4-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the General Surgical Outpatient Clinic with a 4-week history of altered bowel habit. There is no history of rectal bleeding, although faecal occult blood testing is positive. He denies any other symptoms from the abdominal point of view, and his general examination is otherwise unremarkable.
      You discuss this case with the patient and agree that the next best step would be to undergo a colonoscopy and some blood tests. The results are shown below:
      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 205 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Urea 4.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 71 mmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 135 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Endoscopy Report:
      The endoscope was passed to the caecum without complication. The caecum was identified with confidence as the ileocaecal valve and appendicular orifice were seen and also confirmed with transillumination. There are multiple diverticulae seen in the sigmoid colon. A large ulcerated and haemorrhagic lesion resembling a tumour was found at the splenic flexure. Multiple biopsies were taken and sent for histology. Small polyp found in ascending colon, snared without complication.
      Follow-up with histology results in General Surgery Clinic in one week. Histology to be discussed at the next gastrointestinal multidisciplinary meeting.
      The histology results come back as adenocarcinoma of the colon involving the splenic flexure. Further staging reveals no initial metastatic disease.
      Which of the following is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proceed to left hemicolectomy

      Explanation:

      Surgical Options for Bowel Carcinoma: Choosing the Right Procedure

      When it comes to resecting bowel carcinoma, the location of the tumor and the blood supply to the bowel are the primary factors that determine the appropriate operation. It’s crucial to ensure that the remaining bowel has a good blood supply after the resection.

      For tumors in the splenic flexure or descending colon, a left hemicolectomy is the most suitable procedure. This operation involves removing part of the transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid up to the upper rectum, which are supplied by the left colic artery and its branches.

      If the tumor is located in the transverse colon, a transverse colectomy may be performed. An extended right hemicolectomy is necessary for tumors in the hepatic flexure.

      For non-metastatic bowel cancer, surgical removal of the tumor and a portion of the bowel is the primary treatment. However, if the patient refuses surgery, chemotherapy alone can be used, but the prognosis may vary.

      Preoperative neoadjuvant chemotherapy and surgery are not recommended at this point since there are no identifiable metastases, and the histology results are not yet available to determine the grade of the tumor and the number of mesenteric lymph nodes affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa. Upon examination, local peritonitis is observed. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count. He has no prior history of abdominal disease, but he does have a history of atrial fibrillation. Pain worsens after eating and is alleviated by defecation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Localised Peritonitis and Left Iliac Fossa Pain

      Diverticular Disease:
      Diverticular disease is a common cause of localised peritonitis and left iliac fossa pain, especially in the elderly. It occurs due to the herniation of the intestinal mucosa through the muscle, forming an outpouching. Patients with diverticulitis present with slow-onset, constant pain, usually in the left iliac fossa, exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation. Acute diverticulitis can cause severe sepsis by rupture of a diverticulum and abscess formation or obstruction of the bowel. Diverticular disease can also cause bleeding per rectum. Conservative management includes increasing fluid intake, fibre in the diet, bulk-forming laxatives, and paracetamol to ease the pain.

      Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm:
      A ruptured aortic aneurysm presents with central abdominal pain, a pulsatile abdominal mass, and shock due to the volume of blood loss. It is associated with 100% mortality if not treated promptly.

      Splenic Infarct:
      A splenic infarct presents with acute pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, referred to the shoulder, and is more commonly seen in patients with haematological conditions such as sickle-cell disease.

      Ureteric Colic:
      Ureteric colic presents with characteristic loin-to-groin pain that has an intermittent colicky nature, with acute exacerbations. It can present in either iliac fossa, but it would not cause localised peritonitis.

      Acute Small Bowel Ischaemia:
      Acute small bowel ischaemia presents with an acute central or right-sided abdominal pain that is increasingly worsening, has no localising signs, and presents as generalised abdominal tenderness or distension. The patient is very unwell, with varying symptoms, including vomiting, diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, sepsis, and confusion. A highly raised serum/blood gas lactate level that does not drop following initial resuscitation attempts is a clue. It requires prompt treatment due to its high mortality risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fresh blood per rectum. He had previously received treatment for haemorrhoids, including dietary advice, rectal analgesics, and haemorrhoid banding, but his symptoms have persisted. What is the next step in managing this man before conducting an examination under anaesthesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexible sigmoidoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Procedures for Haemorrhoidal Disease

      Haemorrhoidal disease is a common condition that can be managed with dietary changes, analgesia, and anti-inflammatory agents. However, if symptoms persist, outpatient interventions such as banding or injection may be necessary. In some cases, further investigation is required to rule out colorectal cancer.

      Flexible sigmoidoscopy is a useful tool for young patients with low risk of cancer, while older patients or those with a family history of colorectal cancer may require a full colonoscopy. If sigmoidoscopy is normal, an examination under anaesthesia can be performed to diagnose and treat any haemorrhoids, fissures, fistulas, or abscesses.

      A barium follow-through is not necessary in the absence of suspicion of malignancy. Similarly, a CT scan or MRI of the abdomen and pelvis is not the best choice for direct visualisation of the bowel mucosa.

      In summary, a range of diagnostic procedures are available for haemorrhoidal disease, depending on the patient’s age, risk factors, and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 20 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to the paediatrics department with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to the paediatrics department with a 2-day history of worsening abdominal pain, accompanied by fever, nausea and vomiting. The pain initially started in the middle of her abdomen but has now become focused on the right lower quadrant.
      What is the most frequent surgical diagnosis in children of this age group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain in Children

      Acute abdominal pain is a common complaint among children, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. Among the most common surgical diagnoses in children with acute abdominal pain is appendicitis, which typically presents with central colicky abdominal pain that localizes to the right iliac fossa. However, over half of children with abdominal pain have no identifiable cause.

      Intussusception is another common surgical diagnosis in children under two years of age, characterized by the telescoping of one portion of bowel over another. Symptoms include loud crying, drawing up of the knees, vomiting, and rectal bleeding that resembles redcurrant jelly.

      Mesenteric adenitis is a self-limiting condition that can present similarly to appendicitis but is not a surgical diagnosis. Cholecystitis, a common cause of abdominal pain in adults, is rare in children. Ovarian torsion is also a rare cause of acute abdominal pain in children, accounting for less than 5% of cases.

      Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial for conditions like appendicitis and intussusception, as delays can increase the risk of complications. However, it is important to consider a range of potential causes for acute abdominal pain in children and to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has come in with acute appendicitis and is currently undergoing surgery to have her appendix removed. The peritoneal cavity has been opened using the appropriate approach and the caecum is visible. What would be the most appropriate feature to follow in order to locate the appendix?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taeniae coli

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Large Bowel: Taeniae Coli, Appendices Epiploicae, Haustrations, Ileocolic Artery, and Right Colic Artery

      The large bowel is composed of various structures that play important roles in digestion and absorption. Among these structures are the taeniae coli, which are three bands of longitudinal smooth muscle found on the outside of the large bowel. These bands produce haustrations or bulges in the colon when they contract. Additionally, the appendices epiploicae, or epiploic appendages, are protrusions of subserosal fat that line the surface of the bowel. The large bowel also contains the ileocolic artery, which runs over the ileocaecal junction, and the right colic artery, which supplies the ascending colon. Understanding the anatomy of the large bowel is crucial in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 22 - A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and distension. He reports not having a bowel movement in 4 days and is now experiencing vomiting. An abdominal X-ray reveals enlarged loops of the large intestine. The patient has no history of surgery and a physical examination shows a soft, tender abdomen without palpable masses. A rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. What is the probable cause of the obstruction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of Large Bowel Obstruction: Differential Diagnosis

      Large bowel obstruction can be caused by various conditions, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate management. The following are some possible causes of large bowel obstruction and their distinguishing features:

      1. Sigmoid Carcinoma: Colorectal cancer is a common cause of large bowel obstruction, with the sigmoid colon being the most commonly affected site. Patients may present with abdominal pain, distension, and constipation. Treatment usually involves emergency surgery.

      2. Sigmoid Volvulus: This occurs when the sigmoid colon twists on itself, leading to obstruction. The classic coffee bean sign may be seen on abdominal X-ray. Treatment involves endoscopic or surgical decompression.

      3. Incarcerated Inguinal Hernia: This occurs when a portion of the intestine protrudes through the inguinal canal and becomes trapped. Patients may present with a palpable mass in the groin, which is not described in the case history above. Treatment involves surgical repair.

      4. Adhesions: Adhesions are bands of scar tissue that can form after abdominal surgery. They can cause bowel obstruction by kinking or compressing the intestine. Adhesions usually affect the small bowel, but they can also involve the large bowel. Treatment involves surgery.

      5. Constipation: Chronic constipation can cause pseudo-obstruction, which mimics mechanical obstruction. However, the finding of an empty rectum on digital rectal examination makes constipation unlikely as the sole cause of large bowel obstruction.

      In conclusion, large bowel obstruction can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 23 - A 17-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a lump in his groin that he noticed while lifting weights. Upon examination, a soft palpable mass is found in the scrotum that can be reduced with gentle massage. What structure is most likely ascending along the deep inguinal ring through which this mass has passed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric artery and vein

      Explanation:

      Anatomy Landmarks in Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are a common condition that occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the inguinal canal. Understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for diagnosis and treatment. Here are some important landmarks to consider:

      1. Inferior epigastric artery and vein: These vessels lie immediately medial to the deep inguinal ring and are important landmarks when performing laparoscopic indirect inguinal hernia repair.

      2. Rectus abdominis muscle: This muscle forms the medial border of a spigelian hernia and also a direct inguinal hernia.

      3. Inguinal ligament: This represents the inferior limit of the deep inguinal ring.

      4. Femoral artery and vein: These vessels lie inferior to the inguinal ligament which forms the inferior boundary on the deep inguinal ring.

      5. Superficial inguinal ring: This lies medial to the deep inguinal ring but is not considered to form its medial border. Indirect hernias then travel through the inguinal canal after passing through the deep inguinal ring.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy landmarks involved in inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 24 - A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man has been diagnosed with colon cancer and is a candidate for an extended left hemicolectomy. The tumour is located in the descending colon and the surgery will involve ligating the blood vessel that supplies it. What is the name of the artery that provides the primary blood supply to the descending colon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Arteries of the Abdomen: Supplying the Digestive System

      The digestive system is supplied by several arteries in the abdomen. The inferior mesenteric artery provides blood to the colon from the splenic flexure to the upper part of the rectum. On the other hand, the superior mesenteric artery branches into several arteries, including the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery, intestinal arteries, ileocolic artery, and right and middle colic arteries. It supplies up to the splenic flexure. The cystic artery, as its name suggests, supplies the gallbladder. Lastly, the ileocolic artery supplies the caecum, ileum, and appendix, while the middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon up to the splenic flexure. These arteries play a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of the digestive system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with a 24-hour history of pain in the right iliac fossa. A pregnancy test is negative and bloods show a raised white cell count. Her parents tell you she has had a ‘cold’ for the past week. She also began to suffer from headaches two days before the pain.
      The girl is taken to theatre for a laparoscopic appendicectomy. However, during the operation, the appendix is found to be completely normal.
      How should the surgical team proceed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remove the appendix anyway

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric Lymphadenitis and the Role of Appendicectomy

      Mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition in children and adolescents that causes inflammation of the lymph nodes in the mesentery. It is typically associated with a recent cold or infection, and can present with abdominal pain, fever, and a raised white cell count. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics.

      In some cases, mesenteric lymphadenitis can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. In such cases, even if the appendix appears normal, it may be beneficial to remove it anyway. This can prevent the patient from developing acute appendicitis in the future, which can be life-threatening if it ruptures prior to hospitalization. Additionally, removing the appendix can protect the patient from certain cancers that originate in the appendix.

      While a laparotomy may be necessary to explore the rest of the abdomen in some cases, a skilled surgeon can often rule out other causes of pain laparoscopically. It is important to consider the possibility of mesenteric lymphadenitis when working through the differential diagnosis of right iliac fossa pain.

      In conclusion, mesenteric lymphadenitis is a common condition that can mimic the symptoms of acute appendicitis. While it can be difficult to diagnose, it responds well to antibiotics. In cases where the appendix appears normal, it may still be beneficial to remove it to prevent future complications. A skilled surgeon can often explore the abdomen laparoscopically to rule out other causes of pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gardener who is typically healthy and in good shape visits his doctor complaining of worsening abdominal pain that has been present for two days. He also reports feeling nauseous and experiencing loose bowel movements. During the examination, the patient's temperature is found to be 37.9 °C, and he has a heart rate of 90 bpm and a blood pressure of 118/75 mmHg. The doctor notes that the patient's abdomen is tender to the touch and that he has a positive Rovsing sign. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Appendicitis

      Explanation:

      Physical Signs and Symptoms of Abdominal Conditions

      Abdominal conditions can present with a variety of physical signs and symptoms that can aid in their diagnosis. Here are some common signs and symptoms associated with different abdominal conditions:

      Appendicitis: A positive Rovsing sign, psoas sign, and obturator sign are less commonly found symptoms of appendicitis. More common signs include rebound tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.

      Splenic rupture: A positive Kehr’s sign, which is acute shoulder tip pain due to irritation of the peritoneum by blood, is associated with a diagnosis of splenic rupture.

      Pyelonephritis: Positive costovertebral angle tenderness, also known as the Murphy’s punch sign, may indicate pyelonephritis.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm: A large abdominal aortic aneurysm may present with a pulsatile abdominal mass on palpation of the abdomen. However, the Rovsing sign is associated with appendicitis, not an abdominal aneurysm.

      Pancreatitis: A positive Grey Turner’s sign, which is bruising/discoloration to the flanks, is most commonly associated with severe acute pancreatitis. Other physical findings include fever, abdominal tenderness, guarding, Cullen’s sign, jaundice, and hypotension.

      Knowing these physical signs and symptoms can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of abdominal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 27 - A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright red blood during bowel movements. The patient experiences severe pain each time they open their bowels, which has been ongoing for the past two weeks. The patient is now very anxious and avoids opening their bowels whenever possible, but this seems to worsen the pain symptoms. Rectal examination is not possible due to the patient's inability to tolerate the procedure because of pain.
      What is the recommended treatment for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitroglycerin ointment

      Explanation:

      Anal Fissure: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      An anal fissure is a common condition that can occur at any age, but is most common in individuals aged 15-40. It can be primary, without underlying cause, or secondary, associated with conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease or constipation. Symptoms include severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, bleeding, and itching.

      Treatment options include managing pain with simple analgesia and topical anesthetics, regular sitz baths, increasing dietary fiber and fluid intake, and stool softeners. Topical glyceryl trinitrate ointment may also be used to promote relaxation of the anal sphincter and aid healing. If the fissure remains unhealed after 6-8 weeks, surgical management options such as local Botox injection or sphincterotomy may be considered.

      Antibiotic therapy does not have a role in the management of anal fissures, and band ligation is a secondary care option for the treatment of hemorrhoids, not anal fissures. Incision and drainage would only be indicated if the patient presented with a perianal abscess. Simple analgesia can be offered to manage pain symptoms, but opioid-containing preparations should be avoided to prevent further constipation and worsening of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 28 - A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery....

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman with a history of diverticular disease undergoes emergency abdominal surgery. When examining this patient after her surgery, you notice she has an end colostomy.
      What feature in particular will suggest that this patient has had a Hartmann’s procedure and not an abdominoperineal (AP) resection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of rectum

      Explanation:

      The patient has a presence of rectum, indicating that they have undergone a Hartmann’s procedure, which is commonly performed for perforated diverticulitis or to palliate rectal carcinoma. This involves resecting the sigmoid colon and leaving the rectal stump, which is oversewn. An end colostomy is created in the left iliac fossa, which can be reversed later to restore intestinal continuity. The midline scar observed is not exclusive to a Hartmann’s procedure, as AP resections and other abdominal surgeries can also be carried out via a midline incision. The presence of an end colostomy confirms that a Hartmann’s procedure has been performed. The Rutherford-Morison scar, a transverse scar used for colonic procedures and kidney transplants, is not unique to either an AP resection or a Hartmann’s procedure. The presence of solid faeces in the stoma bag is expected for a colostomy, while ileostomies typically contain liquid faeces and are usually located in the right lower quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain. The pain started yesterday and is increasing in intensity. She has had loose stools for a few days and has been feeling nauseated. She has not vomited. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, there is tenderness and guarding in the left iliac fossa. Bloods: haemoglobin (Hb) 116 g/l; white cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Diverticulitis is a condition where small pouches in the bowel wall become inflamed, often due to blockages. This is more common in older individuals and can cause symptoms such as fever, nausea, and abdominal pain. Treatment typically involves antibiotics and rest, but surgery may be necessary in severe cases. It is important to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions, such as colorectal cancer, with lower gastrointestinal endoscopy. In contrast, Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are less likely diagnoses in a 75-year-old patient without prior gastrointestinal history. Diverticulosis, the presence of these pouches without inflammation, is often asymptomatic and more common in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense abdominal pain. She is currently receiving peritoneal dialysis, and the physician suspects that she may be suffering from peritonitis.
      What is the most indicative sign or symptom of peritonitis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peritonitis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Peritonitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the serosa that lines the abdominal cavity and viscera. It is commonly caused by the introduction of an infective organism, perforation of an abdominal organ, trauma, or collection formation. Patients may also present with sterile peritonitis due to irritants such as bile or blood. Risk factors include existing ascites, liver disease, or peritoneal dialysis.

      Symptoms of peritonitis include abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, with reduced or absent bowel sounds. Movement and coughing can worsen pain symptoms. Patients may have a fever and become tachycardic as the condition progresses due to intracapsular hypovolemia, release of inflammatory mediators, and third space losses. As the condition worsens, patients may become hypotensive, indicating signs of sepsis.

      Treatment for peritonitis involves rapid identification and treatment of the source, aggressive fluid resuscitation, and targeted antibiotic therapy.

      It is important to note that hyperactive tinkling bowel sounds are suggestive of obstruction, whereas patients with peritonitis typically present with a rigid abdomen and increased abdominal guarding. Pain tends to worsen with movement, as opposed to conditions such as renal colic where the patient may writhe around in pain.

      In severe cases, patients with peritonitis may become hypothermic, but this is not a common presentation. Understanding the symptoms and treatment of peritonitis is crucial for prompt and effective management of this serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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Colorectal (7/12) 58%
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