00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Where is secretin secreted from? ...

    Correct

    • Where is secretin secreted from?

      Your Answer: S cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Secretin is a peptide hormone produced in the S cells of the duodenum, which are located in the intestinal glands. In humans, the secretin peptide is encoded by the SCT gene.
      Secretin helps regulate the pH of the duodenum by
      1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and
      (2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate from the ductal cells of the pancreas.
      G cells in the antrum of the stomach release gastrin
      I cells in upper small intestine release CCK
      D cells in the pancreas & stomach secrete somatostatin
      K cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide, an incretin, which also promotes triglyceride storage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old retired firefighter with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old retired firefighter with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents due to the sensation of light flashes in his right eye. These symptoms have been present for the past 2 days and seem to occur more at the peripheral part of vision. There is no redness or pain in the affected eye. Corrected visual acuity is measured as 6/9 in both eyes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      Flashes and floaters are symptoms of vitreous detachment. The patient is at risk of retinal detachment and should be referred urgently to an ophthalmologist.

      The most common causes of a sudden painless loss of vision are as follows:
      – Ischaemic optic neuropathy (e.g. temporal arteritis or atherosclerosis)
      – Occlusion of central retinal vein
      – Occlusion of central retinal artery
      – Vitreous haemorrhage
      – Retinal detachment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27 year old female has been taken to A&E from a cinema...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old female has been taken to A&E from a cinema after complaining of sudden severe pain in the eyes. This is followed by seeing coloured halos and vomiting. She has a history of reoccurring headaches which used to resolve themselves. She is examined and is found to have a fixed, dilated ovoid pupil. Choose the most appropriate first investigation from the list.

      Your Answer: Applanation tonometry

      Explanation:

      The darkness of the cinema room will have caused halfway dilation of the pupil. This can cause an acute attack of angle closure glaucoma. The appropriate test to diagnose this is applanation tonometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes mellitus, complains of difficulty walking and trouble with his hands. It began with a tingling sensation in his soles, which later extended up to his ankles. He now feels unsteady when walking, and more recently, has noticed numbness and tingling in the fingers of both hands. On examination, he has absent ankle reflexes, a high steppage gait, and altered sensation to his mid-calves. What is the underlying pathological process?

      Your Answer: Axonal degeneration

      Explanation:

      This case presents with sensorimotor neuropathy secondary to his DM. The progression of the neuropathy, known dying-back neuropathy, is a distal axonopathy or axonal degeneration as where the sensorimotor loss begins distally and travels proximally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 49 year old man states that he is feeling down and has...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old man states that he is feeling down and has not been sleeping well. An assessment is done using a validated symptom measure which indicates that he is moderately depressed. He is currently taking Ramipril, Simvastatin and Aspirin for ischaemic heart disease. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop aspirin, start sertraline

      Correct Answer: Start sertraline + lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      Results of a randomized trial confirm that the antidepressant sertraline can be used safely in patients with recent MI or unstable angina and is effective in relieving depression in these patients.

      There are theoretical reasons for believing that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), widely used to treat depression, might increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Gastroprotective drugs are advocated for high risk patients taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, another class of drug that causes gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Serotonin is released from platelets in response to vascular injury and promotes vasoconstriction and a change in the shape of the platelets that leads to aggregation. Platelets cannot themselves synthesise serotonin. SSRIs inhibit the serotonin transporter, which is responsible for the uptake of serotonin into platelets. It could thus be predicted that SSRIs would deplete platelet serotonin, leading to a reduced ability to form clots and a subsequent increase in the risk of bleeding.

      The well established association between nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and upper gastrointestinal bleeding is estimated to result in 700-2000 deaths/year in the UK. This has led to the recommendation that patients in high risk groups should receive gastroprotection in the form of an H2 antagonist, proton pump inhibitor (lansoprazole), or misoprostol.

      Proton pump inhibitors have been shown to reduce endoscopically diagnosed mucosal damage and heal ulcers induced by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs but not to reduce the incidence of severe gastrointestinal bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 33-year-old lady who is known hepatitis C positive comes to your clinic....

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old lady who is known hepatitis C positive comes to your clinic. She is 28 weeks pregnant and her obstetrician wants you to assess her and provide medical advice for the mother and child. Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis C are most accurate in her case?

      Your Answer: Breast-feeding does not increase the risk of transmission

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding has not been shown to increase the risk of transmission of HCV from mother to baby. This is simply a fact to memorize. The other answer choices are not the most accurate as there is no evidence-proven way to decrease the chance that baby will get HCV from the mother during the birth. About 5 out of every 100 infants born to HCV infected mothers become infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia after presenting with lethargy and easy bruising. Which of the following is a marker of a bad prognosis in this disease?

      Your Answer: Philadelphia chromosome positive

      Explanation:

      Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22), is a marker of poor prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      ALL is the malignancy of lymphoid progenitor cells affecting B or T cell lineage. This results in the arrest of lymphoid cell maturation and proliferation of immature blast cells (lymphoblasts), leading to bone marrow and tissue infiltration.

      ALL is the most common type of childhood cancers. Its peak incidence is between two to three years of age.

      Acute B lymphoblastic leukaemia (B-ALL) is the most common type of ALL, involving overproduction of B-cell lymphoblasts. It is manifested by low initial WCC and is associated with a good prognosis.

      Poor prognostic factors for ALL include:
      1. Pre-B cell or T-cell ALL (T-ALL)
      2. Philadelphia translocation, t(9;22)
      3. Age <2 years or >10 years
      4. Male sex
      5. CNS involvement
      6. High initial WBC (e.g. >100 x 10^9/L)
      7. non-Caucasian

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the blood, despite several courses of antibiotics. His full blood count done (FBC) today shows: Hb: 9.1 g/dL, Plts: 250 x 10^9/L, WCC: 32.2 x 10^9/L, Neutrophils: 28.1 x 10^9/L. However, he has at no point shown signs of any infection. The consultant suggests contacting the haematology department for ascertaining the leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score. Out of the following, which related condition would have a high LAP score?

      Your Answer: Leukemoid reaction

      Explanation:

      Leukemoid reaction has a high LAP score.

      Leukemoid reaction refers to leucocytosis occurring as a physiological response to stress or infection which may be mistaken for leukaemia, especially chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). Leucocytosis occurs, initially, because of accelerated release of cells from the bone marrow and is associated with increased count of more immature neutrophils in the blood (left-shift). In order to differentiate, LAP score is used. Leukocytic alkaline phosphatase (ALP) activity is high in a leukemoid reaction but low in CML.

      LAP score is high in:
      1. Leukemoid reaction
      2. Infections
      3. Myelofibrosis
      4. Polycythaemia rubra vera
      5. Steroids, Cushing’s syndrome
      6. Pregnancy, oral contraceptive pill

      LAP score is low in:
      1. CML
      2. Pernicious anaemia
      3. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
      4. Infectious mononucleosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 62 year old patient presents to the ophthalmology OPD with progressive deterioration...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old patient presents to the ophthalmology OPD with progressive deterioration of vision and dazzling of view in well lit environments. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis leading to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Cataracts

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cataract is a condition characterized by clouding of the lens of the eye. This condition most frequently occurs due to age-related degenerative processes in the lens, but can also be associated with ocular trauma, metabolic disorders, side-effects of drugs, or congenital infections. The clouding causes distortion of light, as it passes through the lens, resulting in visual impairment and glare. Initially, a cataract presents discretely and may even go unnoticed, but the visual impairment worsens as the cataract grows larger.

      Diagnosis is typically established on the basis of a thorough history and direct visualization of the cataract (by means of slit-lamp microscopy). Surgery is indicated with significant visual impairment and involves lens extraction and implantation of an artificial lens. Untreated cataracts eventually lead to complete blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 24-year-old female presents with generalised irritation and erythematous skin after sunbathing on...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old female presents with generalised irritation and erythematous skin after sunbathing on the beach. Which is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Emollient cream

      Explanation:

      Sun burn reactions usually occur after individuals with a light skin tone have prolonged exposure to the sun. The usual symptoms are redness and itching of the skin. The best treatment plan would be further avoidance of sun exposure and the topical application of emollients. These are Ist degree burns and aggressive therapy is not required in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old male patient, who is otherwise healthy and without a significant family...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male patient, who is otherwise healthy and without a significant family history, presents with a history of early morning headache and visual field defects, When asked, he said that he has been having these complaints for three months now. What is the most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Correct Answer: Pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      The most possible diagnosis is a pituitary tumour. Pituitary tumours compress the optic chiasm inferiorly and can cause visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia or quadrantanopia). Temporal arteritis usually develops in older people and acute glaucoma usually requires a family history. Amaurosis fugax is classed as a stroke and usually leads to reversible unilateral vision loss. A subconjunctival haemorrhage does not typically produce the symptoms described.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show: Sodium 115 mmol/L...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show: Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Urine sodium 2 mmol/L, Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
      – In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
      – In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding interleukin 1 (IL-1) is true?

      Your Answer: It is released mainly by macrophages/monocytes

      Explanation:

      Interleukin 1 alpha and interleukin 1 beta (IL1 alpha and IL1 beta) are cytokines that participate in the regulation of immune responses, inflammatory reactions, and hematopoiesis. It is secreted mainly by macrophages and monocytes and acts as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old man who has had two episodes of pneumonia in succession and an episode of haemoptysis is observed to have paroxysms of coughing and increasing wheezing. A single lesion which is well-defined is seen in the lower right lower lobe on a chest x-ray. There is no necrosis but biopsy shows numerous abnormal cells, occasional nuclear pleomorphism and absent mitoses. Which diagnosis fits the clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoid

      Explanation:

      Bronchial carcinoids are uncommon, slow growing, low-grade, malignant neoplasms, comprising 1-2% of all primary lung cancers.
      It is believed to be derived from surface of bronchial glandular epithelium. Mostly located centrally, they produce symptoms and signs of bronchial obstruction such as localized wheeze, non resolving recurrent pneumonitis, cough, chest pain, and fever. Haemoptysis is present in approximately 50% of the cases due to their central origin and hypervascularity.
      Central bronchial carcinoids are more common than the peripheral type and are seen as endobronchial nodules or hilar/perihilar mass closely related to the adjacent bronchus. Chest X-ray may not show the central lesion depending on how small it is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 58-year-old lady was admitted to hospital with increasing thirst and generalised abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old lady was admitted to hospital with increasing thirst and generalised abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with breast carcinoma three years previously and treated with a radical mastectomy.   Investigations showed: Serum corrected calcium 3.5 mmol/L (NR 2.2-2.6) Serum alkaline phosphatase 1100 IU/L   Her serum calcium was still elevated following 4 litres of 0.9% saline intravenous infusion.   Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Pamidronate 60 mg intravenously

      Explanation:

      This case has hypercalcaemia most likely associated with the bony metastases from her pre-existing breast carcinoma. The most appropriate next step is to give Pamidronate 60mg intravenously, a bisphosphonate, to immediately inhibit bone resorption and formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state. He tells you that he consumed two bottles of antifreeze. On examination, his pulse is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. An arterial blood gas analysis shows uncompensated metabolic acidosis. He is transferred to the high dependency unit and ethanol is given via a nasogastric tube. How does ethanol help this patient?

      Your Answer: Competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
      Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
      Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
      Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
      Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failure

      Management has changed in recent times:
      Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
      Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
      Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old patient, previously fit and well, is admitted with fluctuating confusion and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old patient, previously fit and well, is admitted with fluctuating confusion and frank haematuria. He has recently been complaining of generalised malaise and joint pains. Examination reveals jaundice, splenomegaly, and petechiae. His blood pressure is 155/84 mmHg, temperature 37.9oC.   Initial investigations reveal: Haemoglobin 9.5 g/dL, White cell count 12 × 109/L, Platelets 40 × 109/L, Creatinine 142 μmol/L, Sodium 139 mmol/L, Potassium 4.5 mmol/L, Urea 9.2 mmol/L, Lactate dehydrogenase 495 U/l (10–250) Urinalysis Protein ++, blood +++ Blood film shows schistocytes   What treatment should NOT be given to this patient?

      Your Answer: Fresh frozen plasma infusion

      Correct Answer: Platelet transfusion

      Explanation:

      There is a strong suspicion of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) in this patient as he presents with neurological changes (from confusion to convulsions and coma), fever, haemolysis, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. Additionally, TTP cases may present with jaundice, splenomegaly, and hypertension as seen in this patient. With a diagnosis of TTP, recent studies have shown that platelet transfusion is not recommended in this case because it has been shown to increase the risk for arterial thrombosis and mortality possibly due to increased aggregations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 26-year-old lawyer presents to the gastroenterology clinic with weight loss, intermittent oily...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old lawyer presents to the gastroenterology clinic with weight loss, intermittent oily diarrhoea and malaise. Blood testing reveals folate and iron deficiency. There is also mild hypocalcaemia on biochemistry screening. She has type-1 diabetes of 10 years’ duration and is stable on a basal bolus insulin regime, otherwise her past medical history is unremarkable. Which of these antibody tests is most specific for making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies

      Explanation:

      The prompt is suggestive of celiac disease as an aetiology. The antibody that is used primarily to suggest this diagnosis is anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody. You can also check anti-gliadin and anti-endomyseal antibodies, although anti-TTG antibodies are now the preferred test. To get an official diagnosis you must have a tissue diagnosis (biopsy). Anti-smooth muscle antibodies would be seen in autoimmune hepatitis. Anti-thyroid antibodies are not at all related to this, and are associated with thyroid. Anti-nuclear antibodies are non-specific.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old student has been brought to the emergency department in a confused state. His friends report that he has been complaining of headaches for the past few weeks. He has a low-grade fever and on examination is noted to have abnormally pink mucosa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning

      Explanation:

      Confusion and pink mucosae are typical features of CO poisoning.
      The patient often presents, most commonly with headaches, and other symptoms like malaise, nausea, and dizziness.

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.

      Features of carbon monoxide toxicity
      – Headache: 90% of cases
      – Nausea and vomiting: 50%
      – Vertigo: 50%
      – Confusion: 30%
      – Subjective weakness: 20%
      – Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death

      Treatment:
      Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treating mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
      The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
      • COHb levels > 20-25%
      • COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
      • Loss of consciousness
      • Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
      • Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is referred to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. A trial of bladder retraining is unsuccessful. It is therefore decided to use a muscarinic antagonist. Which one of the following medications is an example of a muscarinic antagonist?

      Your Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      A muscarinic receptor antagonist (MRA) is a type of anticholinergic agent that blocks the activity of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. There are six antimuscarinic drugs currently marketed for the treatment of urge incontinence: oxybutynin, tolterodine, propiverine, trospium, darifenacin, and solifenacin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values: Hb 7.9 g/dL, Plt 97*109/l, WBC 2.7*109/l. Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50 yr. old smoker with a history of hypertension presented with acute...

    Correct

    • A 50 yr. old smoker with a history of hypertension presented with acute severe chest pain and acute myocardial infarction was diagnosed. Which of the following is a contraindication for thrombolysis?

      Your Answer: History of likely ischaemic stroke within the past month

      Explanation:

      Absolute contraindications for fibrinolytic use in STEMI

      Prior intracranial haemorrhage (ICH)
      Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
      Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
      Ischemic stroke within 3 months
      Suspected aortic dissection
      Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis (excluding menses)
      Significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within 3 months
      Intracranial or intraspinal surgery within 2 months
      Severe uncontrolled hypertension (unresponsive to emergency therapy)
      For streptokinase, prior treatment within the previous 6 months

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent attacks of Meniere’s disease?

      Your Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Correct Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      Betahistine is a histamine analogue that has been the mainstay treatment drug for Meniere’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease which is characterized by patches of abnormal skin. These skin patches are typically red, itchy, and scaly commonly on the extensor surfaces. Psoriasis is associated with an increased risk of psoriatic arthritis, lymphomas, cardiovascular disease, Crohn’s disease, and depression. Psoriatic arthritis affects up to 30% of individuals with psoriasis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response, rather than type 2 helper T cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is at increased risk of cancer. Which one of the following cancers is NOT increased in HIV positive people?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer has a lower incidence in HIV positive patients. Seminoma, Hodgkin’s disease, anal cancer, and non-small cell lung cancer are all increased incidence. Memorize this breast cancer fact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30 yr. old male, who is the brother of a patient with...

    Correct

    • A 30 yr. old male, who is the brother of a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy has come for the screening. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of screening?

      Your Answer: Echocardiography

      Explanation:

      12-lead electrocardiography and transthoracic echocardiography are recommended as a screening method for family members of patients with HCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old office worker presents with a 3 year history of epigastric pain, especially 30 minutes after eating. This is associated with nausea and belching. She also describes constipation with occasional explosive diarrhoea. The stools are normally hard with mucus and she needs to strain with every motion. Abdominal pain is relieved after defecation but abdominal bloating persists. She wakes up an hour earlier each morning to finish her breakfast in order to prevent vomiting. She has missed work on a few occasions and feels that her weight has fluctuated. Past medical history includes scarlet fever. She is not on any regular medications except intermittent laxatives over the counter. Abdominal examination is normal. Rectal examination reveals an anal fissure. Investigation results: Haemoglobin (Hb 13.1 g/dL, White blood count (WBC) 6.0 × 109/L, Platelets 180× 109/L, Mean cell volume (MCV) 87 fL, International normalised ratio (INR) 1.0, Na+ 136 mmol/L, K+ 3.9 mmol/L, Urea 3.7 mmol/L, Creatinine 70 μmol/L, Albumin 39 glL. Liver function test normal. Anti-endomysial antibody negative. Thyroid function test normal. Gastroscopy normal. Flexible sigmoidoscopy and biopsy normal. Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scans are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis to account for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Overlap irritable bowel syndrome and functional dyspepsia

      Explanation:

      This is most likely describing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Symptoms are either diarrhoea, constipation, or both, abdominal pain, bloating, of varying duration. It is a functional, not an organic problem, as far as research shows at this point. It is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion. Treatment is a high fibre diet with fluids. Caffeine should be avoided as this can worsen symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Where is the site of action of spironolactone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the site of action of spironolactone?

      Your Answer: Ascending loop of Henle

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist which acts in the distal convoluted tubule. It is a potassium-sparing diuretic that prevents the body from absorbing too much salt and keeps the potassium levels from getting too low. Spironolactone is used to treat heart failure, high blood pressure (hypertension), or hypokalaemia (low potassium levels in the blood).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that his partner is being unfaithful. When asked if he has any evidence to prove that this is true, he says no. However, he appears to be distressed and believes that he is right. Which condition could this be a symptom of?

      Your Answer: de Clérambault' s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Othello syndrome (OS) is a type of paranoid delusional jealousy, characterized by the false absolute certainty of the infidelity of a partner, leading to preoccupation with a partner’s sexual unfaithfulness based on unfounded evidence. OS has been associated with psychiatric and neurological disorders including stroke, brain trauma, brain tumours, neurodegenerative disorders, encephalitis, multiple sclerosis, normal pressure hydrocephalus, endocrine disorders, and drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/4) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (2/3) 67%
Haematology & Oncology (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed