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  • Question 1 - A patient in their early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their early 50s with type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic heart failure (NYHA class II) presents for a check-up. Their diabetes is currently managed through diet, but their HbA1c has increased to 64 mmol/mol (8.0%). Which of the following medications should be avoided due to contraindication?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management of medications. Some medications can exacerbate heart failure and should be avoided. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil has a negative inotropic effect and should be used with caution. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids can also cause fluid retention and should be used with caution. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin easily outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect and should be avoided. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and to carefully consider their use in patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of progressive...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of progressive difficulty in swallowing over the past 4 months. Upon further inquiry, he reports a weight loss of approximately 2.5 kilograms, which he attributes to a decreased appetite. He denies any pain with swallowing or regurgitation of food. During the interview, you observe a change in his voice quality. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient experiences progressive dysphagia along with weight loss, it is important to investigate for possible oesophageal carcinoma as this is a common characteristic. Laryngeal nerve damage can also cause hoarseness in patients with this type of cancer. Although achalasia may present with similar symptoms, patients typically have difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids equally and may experience intermittent regurgitation of food. On the other hand, patients with oesophageal spasm usually experience pain when swallowing.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are requested to evaluate a 27-year-old male who is currently admitted to...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 27-year-old male who is currently admitted to an adult psychiatric ward.

      Upon asking him how he is feeling, his speech seems to be rapid and difficult to interrupt. It is challenging to follow his train of thought, although the content of each sentence appears to be loosely connected. He talks about having money, but says, I've got cash, dash for cash, dash of alcohol, thank you very much.

      It is suspected that he has a formal thought disorder.

      What is the best way to describe his presentation?

      Your Answer: Flight of ideas

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.

      Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.

      Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.1
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents to the ED with acute onset of numbness on the right side of his body. He denies any other symptoms. A CT scan of the head was performed and revealed no evidence of hemorrhage or mass. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lacunar infarct

      Explanation:

      If a patient has a lacunar stroke, they may experience a purely motor, purely sensory, or mixed motor and sensory deficit. A total anterior circulation infarct would cause unilateral weakness in the face, arm, and leg, as well as a homonymous hemianopia and symptoms of higher cerebral dysfunction. A posterior circulation infarct could result in a cerebellar or brainstem syndrome, loss of consciousness, or an isolated homonymous hemianopia. A partial anterior circulation infarct would lead to two of the following: unilateral weakness, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cerebral dysfunction. The absence of hemorrhage on a CT scan suggests that this is most likely a lacunar infarct, as there is only a purely sensory deficit.

      Lacunar stroke is a type of ischaemic stroke that accounts for approximately 20-25% of all cases. It occurs when a single penetrating branch of a large cerebral artery becomes blocked, leading to damage in the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia. The symptoms of lacunar stroke can vary depending on the location of the blockage, but they typically involve either purely motor or purely sensory deficits. Other possible presentations include sensorimotor stroke, ataxic hemiparesis, and dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome. Unlike other types of stroke, lacunar syndromes tend to lack cortical findings such as aphasia, agnosia, neglect, apraxia, or hemianopsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A feature of a severe acute asthma exacerbation in an adult is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A feature of a severe acute asthma exacerbation in an adult is:

      Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) 29% predicted

      Correct Answer: Cannot complete full sentences

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Indicators of Acute Asthma Exacerbations

      Acute asthma exacerbations can range from mild to life-threatening, and it is important to recognize the indicators of each level of severity. In a severe exacerbation, the individual may not be able to complete full sentences, have a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of ≥25 breaths/min, a heart rate of ≥110 beats/min, use of accessory muscles, and oxygen saturation of ≥92%. A life-threatening exacerbation is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness. A moderate exacerbation may include talking in full sentences, a peak expiratory flow rate of >50-75% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of <25 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of <110 beats/min. Finally, a life-threatening exacerbation may also include a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness, as well as exhaustion and poor respiratory effort. It is important to understand these indicators in order to properly assess and treat acute asthma exacerbations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      14.1
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  • Question 6 - The cardiac arrest team is summoned to the bedside of a 68-year-old male...

    Correct

    • The cardiac arrest team is summoned to the bedside of a 68-year-old male patient, 3 days post-myocardial infarction. Two nurses are currently administering chest compressions and a manual defibrillator has just been connected. Chest compressions are momentarily halted to analyze the rhythm, which reveals pulseless electrical activity. What actions should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline should be commenced immediately

      Explanation:

      In the case of a non-shockable rhythm, it is crucial to administer adrenaline as soon as possible according to the ALS protocol. This should be done immediately and during alternate cycles. However, if the rhythm is shockable, adrenaline should be given after the third shock and then during alternate cycles. Amiodarone should be administered after the third shock, and a second dose may be considered after five shocks. Therefore, the other options are not appropriate.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      34
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and the postpartum period. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral medication. She has expressed a desire to breastfeed her baby once it is born.

      What recommendations should be given to this patient?

      Your Answer: She should not breastfeed

      Explanation:

      In the UK, it is recommended that all women who are HIV-positive should not breastfeed their babies. This advice remains the same even if the mother’s viral load is undetectable. The decision should not be left to the HIV consultant as the national guidelines are clear on this matter. Although breastfeeding may reduce the risk of transmission if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml, there is still a risk involved. Therefore, the advice remains not to breastfeed. Continuing with antiretroviral therapy is expected regardless of the decision not to breastfeed as it significantly reduces the risk of vertical transmission during pregnancy. Babies born to HIV-positive mothers are given antiretroviral therapy, either zidovudine alone if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml or triple-therapy if it is higher. However, this does not change the advice to avoid breastfeeding.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody stool and pain during defecation. She denies any recent travel and has not experienced any vomiting episodes.

      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Infections: Differential Diagnosis

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common cause of morbidity worldwide. When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of an STI, it is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis. Here are some common STIs and their clinical presentations:

      Gonorrhoea: This is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A diagnosis can be made by identifying typical Gram-negative intracellular diplococci after a Gram stain.

      Crohn’s disease: This is an inflammatory bowel disease that presents with prolonged diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and weight loss. It is not consistent with a typical STI presentation.

      Candidiasis: This is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida. It is associated with balanitis, presenting with penile pruritus and whitish patches on the penis.

      Salmonella infection: This is often transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages. Symptoms include a severe non-specific febrile illness, which can be confused with typhoid fever. There is nothing in this clinical scenario to suggest Salmonella infection.

      Chancroid: This is a bacterial STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It is characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, a thorough differential diagnosis is important when evaluating patients with symptoms suggestive of an STI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You assess a patient's eye and discovered that both pupils constrict when focusing...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient's eye and discovered that both pupils constrict when focusing on a nearby object but fail to narrow when exposed to bright light. What is the most frequent reason for this pupillary response in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Neurosyphilis

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      In the UK, diabetes mellitus is now the most frequent cause of Argyll-Robertson pupil, as neurosyphilis is no longer commonly observed due to effective antibiotic treatment. This condition is not caused by sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia or gonorrhoea, nor is it associated with optic neuritis, which instead causes a Marcus Gunn pupil or Relative afferent pupillary defect.

      Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome

      The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).

      The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old smoker presents with non-healing sores on his lower lip that have...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old smoker presents with non-healing sores on his lower lip that have been gradually enlarging for several months. Upon examination, a lesion is found at the vermilion border of the lower lip. What is the most probable type of lesion?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Cancers: Characteristics and Clinical Presentations

      Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), actinic keratosis, Bowen’s disease, cold sores, and leukoplakia are common skin lesions and cancers that have distinct characteristics and clinical presentations.

      SCC is a malignant tumour that commonly affects the backs of the hands and forearms, the upper part of the face, and the lower lip and pinna in men. The first clinical sign is induration, which may take on nodular, plaque-like, verrucous, or ulcerated characteristics. The limits of induration are not sharp and usually extend beyond the visible margins of the lesion. The surrounding tissue is often inflamed. SCCs rarely metastasize.

      Actinic keratosis is a sun-induced scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion that has the potential to become malignant. It is characterized by multifocal, scaly, hyperpigmented or scaly lesions, usually brown with a scaly base, occurring on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.

      Bowen’s disease is an intraepidermal (in situ) squamous cell carcinoma that arises in sun-exposed sites, especially the lower legs in women. It is characterized by well-defined pink and scaly patches or plaques that may become crusty, fissured, or ulcerated as lesions grow.

      Cold sores are recurrent infections of orofacial herpes simplex that present as grouped vesicles, especially of the lips and perioral skin. The eruption is often preceded by a tingling, itching, or burning sensation. Over a few days, the vesicles form a crust, and the eruption resolves within 7–10 days.

      Leukoplakia is a white patch or plaque of the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other condition.

      A non-healing lesion is also of concern, especially in patients with a history of smoking and advanced age, as it may indicate a malignant cause. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing the progression of these skin lesions and cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.6
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  • Question 11 - A 57-year-old male presents to eye casualty with a one-day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents to eye casualty with a one-day history of a painful red eye. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus. He wears glasses for his hypermetropia.

      Upon examination of the right eye, a ciliary injection accompanies a fixed mid-dilated pupil. The pain is exacerbated when assessing pupillary reaction, which is non-reactive. His visual acuity is markedly reduced in his right eye compared to his left.

      Gonioscopy was performed, and the trabecular meshwork was not visualised. What is the first-line management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Administer prednisolone eye drops

      Correct Answer: Administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for a patient with acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is to administer pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine eye drops. This condition is characterized by ocular pain, decreased visual acuity, worsened symptoms with mydriasis, and haloes around lights. AACG is more common in individuals with hypermetropia. The presence of a fixed mid-dilated pupil and inability to visualize the trabecular meshwork are consistent with AACG. Pilocarpine, timolol, and brimonidine are all used to reduce intra-ocular pressure (IOP) and protect the optic nerve.

      Administering gentamicin eye drops is not appropriate for this patient as it is an antibiotic used to treat eye infections such as microbial keratitis. The patient does not have risk factors for an eye infection and the examination findings are more consistent with AACG.

      Prescribing prednisolone eye drops is also not appropriate as it is a steroid used to manage inflammatory eye diseases such as anterior uveitis. While anterior uveitis may present with a painful red eye, the examination findings for this patient are more suggestive of angle closure.

      Similarly, prescribing cyclopentolate eye drops is not appropriate as it is a mydriatic eye drop that may worsen the patient’s symptoms by reducing the angle. Mydriatic eye drops may be used in the management of anterior uveitis, but the examination findings for this patient are more consistent with AACG.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36.4
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  • Question 12 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient in the renal clinic who has been...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient in the renal clinic who has been undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease for the last 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality in this patient population?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to gradually lose their ability to function properly. There are several common causes of this condition, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease.

      Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that occurs when high blood sugar levels damage the small blood vessels in the kidneys. Chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition in which the glomeruli, the tiny filters in the kidneys, become inflamed and damaged over time. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can cause scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also damage the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition in which cysts form in the kidneys, causing them to enlarge and lose function.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage the condition and prevent further damage to the kidneys. Treatment may involve medications, lifestyle changes, and in some cases, dialysis or kidney transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      11.4
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  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old woman with COPD has been recommended an inhaled corticosteroid. What is...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman with COPD has been recommended an inhaled corticosteroid. What is the primary advantage of using inhaled corticosteroids for treating COPD patients?

      Your Answer: Reduced frequency of exacerbations

      Explanation:

      Inhaled corticosteroids are used to decrease the frequency of exacerbations in patients with COPD.

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      24.5
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  • Question 14 - A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives with preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. What...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives with preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. What is the primary intervention to prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer: Administer dexamethasone to the mother

      Explanation:

      Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS) is a condition that primarily affects premature newborns due to a lack of surfactant. This deficiency causes an increase in alveolar surface tension, leading to reduced compliance and increased breathing effort. The production of surfactant in the fetus is aided by natural maternal glucocorticosteroids, and synthetic steroids are the first-line treatment for preventing NRDS in high-risk pregnancies. Tocolytics, which can delay preterm labor, are not typically used, but may be considered in certain cases to allow time for maternal steroids to take effect. While curosurf, continuous positive airway pressure, and extracorporeal membrane oxygenation can be effective treatments for NRDS, they are not used as preventative measures.

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.5
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  • Question 15 - A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern that her uterus is small for this stage of pregnancy. Upon ultrasound, she is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. What could be a potential cause of oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: Trisomy 21

      Correct Answer: Renal agenesis

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is a condition that occurs during pregnancy when there is a shortage of amniotic fluid. This can result in a smaller symphysiofundal height.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      30.7
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  • Question 16 - A 63-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She completed a 6 month course of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She completed a 6 month course of warfarin a year ago after being diagnosed with an unprovoked, proximal deep vein thrombosis. Over the past few weeks, she has been experiencing a sensation of heaviness and aching in the same leg, accompanied by itching and some swelling that subsides each night. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, there are prominent varicose veins on the affected leg, and the skin above the medial malleolus is discolored. The calves have no difference in circumference. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.9ºC, pulse 78/min, and blood pressure 108/82 mmHg. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Recurrence of deep vein thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Post-thrombotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of pruritus and pain that gradually worsen, along with the results of the examination, indicate a high likelihood of post-thrombotic syndrome.

      Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.

      In the past, compression stockings were offered to patients with DVT to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome. However, current recommendations state that elastic graduated compression stockings should not be used to prevent post-thrombotic syndrome or VTE recurrence after a proximal DVT. This recommendation does not cover the use of elastic stockings for the management of leg symptoms after DVT.

      Once post-thrombotic syndrome has developed, compression stockings are a recommended treatment. Other recommendations include keeping the leg elevated. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize the potential complications of DVT and to provide appropriate management to prevent the development of post-thrombotic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      68.6
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  • Question 17 - Fragile X is commonly associated with all of the following symptoms except? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fragile X is commonly associated with all of the following symptoms except?

      Your Answer: Learning difficulties

      Correct Answer: Small, firm testes

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.

      Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old female visits her GP 4 days after undergoing cataract surgery in...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old female visits her GP 4 days after undergoing cataract surgery in her left eye. She reports that the procedure went smoothly and she was discharged on the same day. However, she is currently experiencing pain in the operated eye and notes that it appears redder than before. Her right eye has a corrected visual acuity of 6/6, while her left eye has a corrected visual acuity of 6/18. There are no abnormalities in her pupillary reactions or eye movements. What is the most appropriate course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmological referral

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences redness in the eye, pain, and a decrease in vision after intraocular surgery, it is important to seek urgent ophthalmic evaluation as these symptoms may indicate endophthalmitis, a serious infection within the eye. Treatment options include antibiotics administered systemically or directly into the eye.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man with a history of lung cancer presents with a three-week...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of lung cancer presents with a three-week history of loss of appetite, nausea, and fatigue. He appears mildly dehydrated on examination. You order some blood tests and the results are as follows:
      Calcium 3.12 mmol/l
      Albumin 40 g/l
      Glucose (random) 6.7 mmol/l
      Urea 10.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 115 µmol/l
      Which medication that he is currently taking is most likely contributing to his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is caused by thiazides.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      57.8
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of cognitive decline. Her daughter mentions that she has difficulty remembering basic tasks and is becoming more confused and forgetful than usual. Her daughter noticed a change in her personality and has caught her leaving the stove on and wandering outside alone on multiple occasions.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer: Start treatment with an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor agent

      Correct Answer: Stop drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion (anticholinergics, central nervous system drugs)

      Explanation:

      Managing Frontotemporal Dementia: Treatment Options and Referrals

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects behavior, language, and executive function. While there is no cure for FTD, management strategies can help alleviate symptoms and provide support for patients and their families.

      One important step in managing FTD is to stop any drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion, such as anticholinergics or central nervous system drugs. Multidisciplinary health and social care is also crucial, involving referrals to geriatric medicine, psychiatry, psychology, social work, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy, physiotherapy, and community nursing.

      However, certain treatment options should be avoided or used with caution in FTD patients. Benzodiazepines, for example, are associated with cognitive worsening and fall-related injuries. Anticholinesterase inhibitors, typically used in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease, have shown disappointing results in FTD patients who do not have cholinergic loss. Memantine, used in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, has not been shown to be effective in FTD and may even have a detrimental effect on cognition in some individuals.

      Antipsychotics should only be used cautiously and when other options have failed, as FTD patients are at higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Overall, a personalized and coordinated approach to FTD management is essential for optimizing patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      85.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following causes Scarlet fever? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes Scarlet fever?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus species (group A haemolytic)

      Explanation:

      Scarlet Fever: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection caused by toxin-producing strains of the group A streptococcal bacterium (Streptococcus pyogenes). It is a notifiable disease to Public Health England. The symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and a rash with a red strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, fine papular rash, tonsillitis, tiredness, headache, nausea, and vomiting.

      The condition is treated with fluids, an antipyretic, and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Other causes such as Influenza pneumoniae, Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, and Parvovirus B19 are not related to scarlet fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or your child has scarlet fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      4.9
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  • Question 22 - You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing an elderly patient with difficult-to-treat angina and consider that a trial of treatment with nicorandil may be appropriate.
      Which of the following statements is true about the anti-anginal drug nicorandil?

      Your Answer: Oral ulceration is an unwanted effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Effects and Side Effects of Nicorandil

      Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina pectoris, a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. While it is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the less common side effects of nicorandil is stomatitis and oral ulceration. This can be uncomfortable and may require medical attention. However, most patients do not experience this side effect.

      Nicorandil works by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, which reduces ventricular filling pressure and myocardial workload. This can be beneficial for patients with angina, but it can also cause hypotension (low blood pressure) in some cases.

      Another mechanism of action for nicorandil is its ability to activate ATP-dependent potassium channels in the mitochondria of the myocardium. This can help to improve cardiac function and reduce the risk of ischemia (lack of oxygen to the heart).

      The most common side effect of nicorandil therapy is headache, which affects up to 48% of patients. This side effect is usually transient and can be managed by starting with a lower initial dose. Patients who are susceptible to headaches should be monitored closely.

      Finally, it is important to note that concomitant use of sildenafil (Viagra) with nicorandil should be avoided. This is because sildenafil can significantly enhance the hypotensive effect of nicorandil, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      In summary, nicorandil is a useful medication for treating angina, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and should always follow their doctor’s instructions for use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      24.3
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman with established epilepsy has recently had her medication changed at...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with established epilepsy has recently had her medication changed at her epilepsy clinic. She now reports abdominal pain, weight loss and feeling anxious all the time.
      Which of the following medications is likely to have been started?

      Your Answer: Levetiracetam (Keppra®)

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Anticonvulsants: A Comparison of Five Medications

      Anticonvulsants are commonly used to treat seizures and other neurological conditions. However, they often come with side effects that can impact a patient’s quality of life. Here, we compare the common side effects of five anticonvulsant medications: levetiracetam, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin, and sodium valproate.

      Levetiracetam (Keppra®) is known for causing gastrointestinal symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, dyspepsia, nausea, and vomiting. It can also lead to anorexia and anxiety.

      Carbamazepine is rarely associated with abdominal pain and anorexia, but it can cause other gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, or diarrhea. It is not known to cause anxiety.

      Lamotrigine (Lamictal®) can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, but it is not known to cause abdominal pain, weight loss, or anxiety.

      Phenytoin is commonly associated with anorexia, constipation, nausea, and vomiting. It is not known to cause abdominal pain or anxiety, but it can lead to serious blood disorders such as aplastic anemia and megaloblastic anemia.

      Sodium valproate (Epilim®) is commonly associated with diarrhea, dyspepsia, nausea, and weight gain. It can also cause aggression and behavioral changes, ataxia and tremors, and transient hair loss.

      It is important to note that these are not the only side effects associated with these medications. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider about the potential risks and benefits of any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 67-year-old man attending the respiratory clinic receives a suspected diagnosis of chronic...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man attending the respiratory clinic receives a suspected diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to confirm diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spirometry

      Explanation:

      Investigations for COPD: Spirometry is Key

      COPD is a chronic obstructive airway disease that is diagnosed through a combination of clinical history, signs, and investigations. While several investigations may be used to support a diagnosis of COPD, spirometry is the most useful and important tool. A spirometer is used to measure functional lung volumes, including forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). The FEV1:FVC ratio provides an estimate of the severity of airflow obstruction, with a normal ratio being 75-80%. In patients with COPD, the ratio is typically <0.7 and FEV1 <80% predicted. Spirometry is essential for establishing a baseline for disease severity, monitoring disease progression, and assessing the effects of treatment. Other investigations, such as echocardiography, chest radiography, ECG, and peak flow, may be used to exclude other pathologies or assess comorbidities, but spirometry remains the key investigation for diagnosing and managing COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman is in week 32 of her pregnancy. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is in week 32 of her pregnancy. She has been experiencing itching for two weeks and is worried. She now has mild jaundice. Her total bilirubin level is elevated at around 85 μmol/l (reference range <20 μmol/), and her alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is elevated at 78 iu/l (reference range 20–60 iu/l); her alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level is significantly elevated. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Liver Disorders in Pregnancy

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP), hyperemesis gravidarum, cholecystitis, acute fatty liver of pregnancy (AFLP), and HELLP syndrome are all potential liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy.

      ICP is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder and is characterised by generalised itching, jaundice, and elevated total serum bile acid levels. Maternal outcomes are good, but fetal outcomes can be devastating.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterised by persistent nausea and vomiting associated with ketosis and weight loss. Elevated transaminase levels may occur, but significantly elevated liver enzymes would suggest an alternative aetiology.

      Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly due to gallstones. The most common presenting symptom is upper abdominal pain, which localises to the right upper quadrant.

      AFLP is characterised by microvesicular steatosis in the liver and can present with malaise, nausea and vomiting, right upper quadrant and epigastric pain, and acute renal failure. Both AST and ALT levels can be elevated, and hypoglycaemia is common.

      HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening condition that can potentially complicate pregnancy and is characterised by haemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels, and low platelet levels. Symptoms are non-specific and include malaise, nausea and vomiting, and weight gain. A normal platelet count and no evidence of haemolysis are not consistent with a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.

      Early recognition, treatment, and timely delivery are imperative for all of these liver disorders in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother....

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother. She is concerned that he has had consistently delayed motor milestones and that he has severe behavioural difficulties. To stand up from a sitting position, he first kneels on all fours and then uses his hands to ‘walk himself up’. The GP notices that the child has hypertrophy of his calf muscles.
      Which of the following tests is useful in the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
      Select the SINGLE most useful test from the list below.

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Wilson’s Disease

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Wilson’s disease are two conditions that can present with non-specific symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic tests used to identify these conditions.

      DMD is an X-linked recessive condition that predominantly affects males. Diagnosis is usually made by significantly elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing. Muscle biopsy may also be required. Symptoms usually present by age three and include delayed walking, muscle weakness, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and learning difficulties. An MRI spine or head is not helpful in diagnosis as DMD is not caused by a central nervous system or spinal pathology.

      Wilson’s disease often presents with signs of liver failure and non-specific symptoms such as tiredness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Neurological symptoms such as tremors, loss of motor skills, and behavioural problems are more common in teenagers and adults. Diagnosis is made by measuring serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing.

      In summary, elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose DMD, while serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease. MRI scans are not helpful in the diagnosis of either condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with difficulty breathing during physical...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with difficulty breathing during physical activity and feeling excessively tired. Upon further inquiry, he reports experiencing frequent respiratory infections. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (AATD).
      What test should be arranged to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood test for alpha-1-antitrypsin levels

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency

      Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (AATD) is a genetic disorder that can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) at a young age, especially in non-smokers with a family history of the condition. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify AATD:

      Blood Test: A simple blood test can measure the levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood. Low levels of this protein can indicate AATD, especially in patients with symptoms of COPD or a family history of the condition.

      CT Chest: A computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest can reveal the extent and pattern of emphysema in the lungs, which is a common complication of AATD. However, a CT scan alone cannot diagnose AATD.

      Chest X-Ray: A chest X-ray (CXR) can also show signs of emphysema or bronchiectasis in patients with AATD, but it is not a definitive test for the condition.

      Genetic Testing: Once AATD has been diagnosed, genetic testing can identify the specific variant of the condition that a patient has. However, genetic testing is not useful as an initial diagnostic test without first confirming low levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood.

      Pulmonary Function Testing: This test measures lung function and can help assess the severity of lung disease in patients with AATD. However, it is not a diagnostic test for the condition.

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests can help identify AATD in patients with symptoms of COPD, a family history of the condition, or low levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except for: ...

    Correct

    • Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except for:

      Your Answer: Sudden onset of visual loss

      Explanation:

      It is rare for optic neuritis to cause sudden visual loss, as the typical progression of visual loss occurs over a period of days rather than hours.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old man who smokes visits your GP clinic and inquires about potential...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man who smokes visits your GP clinic and inquires about potential complications associated with surgical resection of his malignant parotid gland tumour. What is the classic complication linked to parotid gland surgery?

      Your Answer: Lower motor neurone facial palsy

      Explanation:

      A lower motor neurone facial palsy can be caused by parotid pathology.

      After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve passes through the parotid gland and divides into five branches: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical. If there is any pathology within the parotid gland, it can lead to a lower motor neurone facial palsy. Additionally, surgery to the parotid gland can also result in this complication.

      Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes and Path

      Facial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, which supplies the muscles of facial expression, digastric muscle, and glandular structures. It can be caused by various factors, including sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, acoustic neuromas, and Bell’s palsy. Bilateral facial nerve palsy is less common and can be caused by the same factors as unilateral palsy, but it can also be a result of neurofibromatosis type 2.

      The facial nerve has two paths: the subarachnoid path and the facial canal path. The subarachnoid path originates from the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. It has three branches: the greater petrosal nerve, the nerve to stapedius, and the chorda tympani. The facial nerve then passes through the stylomastoid foramen and gives rise to the posterior auricular nerve and a branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

      It is important to differentiate between lower motor neuron and upper motor neuron lesions in facial nerve palsy. An upper motor neuron lesion spares the upper face, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. Multiple sclerosis and diabetes mellitus can also cause an upper motor neuron palsy. Understanding the causes and path of facial nerve palsy can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      23.4
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  • Question 30 - Membranous nephropathy is associated with which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Membranous nephropathy is associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Elevated anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) levels

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the stomach

      Explanation:

      Understanding Membranous Nephropathy: Causes, Symptoms, and Prognosis

      Membranous nephropathy is a kidney disease that affects the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste from the blood. The disease is characterized by the thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, which can lead to proteinuria, or the presence of excess protein in the urine. Here are some key points to understand about membranous nephropathy:

      Causes: The majority of cases of membranous nephropathy are idiopathic, meaning that the cause is unknown. However, secondary forms of the disease can be caused by underlying conditions such as solid organ malignancy, autoimmune diseases, infectious diseases, and certain medications.

      Symptoms: Membranous nephropathy can present with symptoms such as edema (swelling), hypertension (high blood pressure), and proteinuria. Elevated levels of anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) may also be present.

      Proteinuria: Glomerular proteinuria can be classified as selective or non-selective. Selective proteinuria is characteristic of childhood minimal change disease, while membranous nephropathy typically presents with non-selective proteinuria.

      Prognosis: The course of membranous nephropathy can vary, with some patients experiencing spontaneous remission and others progressing to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Successful treatment of the underlying cause may be curative in secondary forms of the disease, while immunosuppressive therapy may be appropriate for selected patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy.

      In conclusion, membranous nephropathy is a complex kidney disease that requires careful diagnosis and management. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and prognosis of the disease, patients and healthcare providers can work together to develop an effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      32
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  • Question 31 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and epistaxis. She had a cold 6 weeks ago and has no known family history of bleeding disorders. Her lab results show a platelet count of 80 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400). What is the recommended first-line treatment for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults

      Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.

      To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.

      In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 58-year-old woman visits her GP urgently, reporting a 10-minute episode where she...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman visits her GP urgently, reporting a 10-minute episode where she experienced vision loss in her right eye. The GP suspects a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and prescribes 300mg aspirin while referring her to the TIA clinic. The diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. Which area of the brain anatomy is impacted by this type of stroke?

      Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: Retinal/ophthalmic artery

      Explanation:

      It is unlikely that the patient experienced a stroke as her symptoms resolved completely after 10 minutes and there were no ongoing symptoms. Different types of strokes affect different arteries in the brain. For example, a lesion in the anterior cerebral artery would result in contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a lesion in the posterior cerebral artery would cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. If the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is affected, the patient may experience ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, as well as contralateral limb and torso pain and temperature loss, along with ataxia and nystagmus. A middle cerebral artery stroke would cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.

      When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.

      If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.

      Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.

      Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      31.2
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  • Question 33 - A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating that has been going on for 10 days. He recently returned from a trip to India and his symptoms started 3 days after his return. Upon examination, he has dry mucous membranes but normal skin turgor and no fever. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      The symptoms experienced by the patient, such as bloating and watery diarrhoea lasting for an extended period, suggest that the cause of their illness is Giardiasis rather than the more typical culprit, Escherichia coli, which is commonly associated with travellers’ diarrhoea.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.7
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  • Question 34 - A 65-year-old man presented to the GP surgery multiple times with a persistent...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presented to the GP surgery multiple times with a persistent conjunctivitis in one eye. Despite being treated with chloramphenicol and steroid eye drops, the symptoms did not improve. After three weeks, he visited the eye casualty with a constantly teary, painless, and red right eye. Upon examination, it was found that he had decreased visual acuity and mild proptosis in the affected eye. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Orbital lymphoma

      Explanation:

      If a patient has chronic unilateral conjunctivitis that is not responding to treatment, it could be a sign of orbital lymphoma.

      Orbital lymphoma typically has a slow onset of symptoms, which is why it is the most appropriate answer in this situation. If the red eye persists despite treatment, it is important to investigate further to rule out any serious underlying conditions. The other options listed are not applicable as they are associated with a painful red eye.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      28.6
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  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic anaemia. The patient is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with macrocytic anaemia. The patient is suspected to have a folate deficiency.
      Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding folate deficiency?

      Your Answer: It increases the risk of a neural tube defect in the foetus.

      Explanation:

      Understanding Folic Acid Deficiency: Causes and Effects

      Folic acid deficiency is a serious condition that can have detrimental effects on fetal development and overall health. In this article, we will explore the causes and effects of folic acid deficiency.

      Causes of Folic Acid Deficiency

      Reduced intake is the most common cause of folic acid deficiency. This can occur due to an inadequate diet or malabsorption. Excessive urinary production, drugs, and excessive requirements can also contribute to folic acid deficiency.

      Effects of Folic Acid Deficiency

      Folic acid deficiency is associated with neural tube defects in the fetus, which can lead to serious developmental issues. It can also increase the risk of abruption of the placenta and spontaneous abortion. In severe cases, megaloblastic anemia can develop, but this typically takes more than two years after complete cessation of folic acid intake.

      Treatment of Folic Acid Deficiency

      Methotrexate-induced folic acid deficiency can be corrected with concomitant folic acid therapy. Folinic acid is also effective in treating toxicity caused by methotrexate. Intestinal bacterial overgrowth is not a common cause of folic acid deficiency.

      Distinguishing Folic Acid Deficiency from Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Abnormal neurological findings are associated with vitamin B12 deficiency, but not necessarily with folic acid deficiency. Patients with megaloblastic anemia typically do not exhibit neurological symptoms, which suggests that folic acid deficiency is the cause.

      In conclusion, folic acid deficiency is a serious condition that can have significant effects on fetal development and overall health. It is important to understand the causes and effects of this condition in order to prevent and treat it effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      15.9
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  • Question 36 - A 6-year-old girl's normal heart rate is which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl's normal heart rate is which of the following?

      Your Answer: 80 – 120 bpm

      Explanation:

      Normal Heart Rate Range for Children

      The normal heart rate for a 6-year-old child would be between 80-120 beats per minute (bpm). It’s important to note that the normal heart rate range varies depending on the child’s age. For instance, a heart rate of 110-160 bpm would be normal for a child aged less than 1 year, while a heart rate of 60-100 bpm would be normal for a child aged over 12 years. For children aged between 1 and 2 years, a heart rate of 100-150 bpm is considered normal, while for those aged between 2 and 5 years, a heart rate of 95-140 bpm is normal. For children aged between 5 and 12 years, a heart rate of 80-120 bpm is normal. Knowing the normal heart rate range for children is essential in monitoring their health and detecting any abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. His symptoms have come on quickly over the last three weeks. A full blood count is ordered and is suggestive of acute lymphoblastic myeloid leukaemia (AML).
      What Is the next most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow. To diagnose AML, several diagnostic tests may be performed. The most common tests include a bone marrow biopsy, ultrasound scan of the abdomen, chest X-ray, computerised tomography (CT) scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis, and lumbar puncture.

      Bone Marrow Biopsy: This is the most important test for diagnosing AML. It involves extracting cells from the bone marrow and examining them under a microscope. AML is characterised by the presence of primitive myeloblasts and Auer rods in the bone marrow.

      Ultrasound Scan of the Abdomen: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the abdomen or spleen. If any enlarged lymph nodes are found, they may be biopsied to determine the extent of the leukaemia.

      Chest X-ray: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the mediastinum.

      CT Scan of Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis: This test is not usually used as a first-line investigation for AML. However, once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan may be used to assess for the presence of enlarged lymph nodes or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.

      Lumbar Puncture: This test is not usually used in the diagnosis of AML unless it is suspected that the leukaemia cells are also present in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      In conclusion, a bone marrow biopsy is the most important test for diagnosing AML. Other tests may be used to determine the extent of the leukaemia or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon examination, an irregularly irregular heart rate is detected and confirmed to be atrial fibrillation on an ECG. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician is worried about preventing stroke. What medication would be the most appropriate for this concern?

      Your Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      For reducing the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF), the first-line anticoagulation should be a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban. This recommendation is based on a scenario where a patient is found to have AF during a wellbeing check and requires anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Aspirin is not the correct choice as it is an antiplatelet and not an anticoagulant. While dalteparin and enoxaparin are low molecular weight heparins that are often used for VTE prophylaxis, DOACs are preferred first-line for stroke risk reduction in AF. Patients often prefer DOACs as they are available in tablet form.

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.8
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  • Question 39 - A 42-year-old man is worried about his chances of developing heart disease due...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man is worried about his chances of developing heart disease due to his family history. His father passed away from a heart attack at the age of 45. During his medical check-up, his lipid profile is as follows:

      HDL: 1.4 mmol/l
      LDL: 5.7 mmol/l
      Triglycerides: 2.3 mmol/l
      Total cholesterol: 8.2 mmol/l

      Upon clinical examination, the doctor notices tendon xanthomata around his ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia can be diagnosed when there are tendon xanthomata and elevated cholesterol levels present.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected. The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes total cholesterol and LDL-C levels, tendon xanthoma, and family history of myocardial infarction or raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate for FH. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by age 10 if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

      Overall, early diagnosis and management of FH are crucial in preventing cardiovascular disease and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      20.7
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  • Question 40 - A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his left eye upon waking up this morning. He reports no pain in his eye. His medical history includes diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Upon fundoscopic examination, the right eye appears normal, but the left eye shows multiple retinal haemorrhages. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      The sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages observed on fundoscopy in this patient are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion. Amaurosis fugax, which is caused by atheroembolism from the carotid arteries, results in temporary vision loss that resolves within a few minutes. In contrast, this patient’s vision loss is persistent. While central retinal artery occlusion also causes acute painless vision loss, it is characterized by a loss of relative afferent pupillary defect, a cherry-red macula, and a white/pale retina on fundoscopy. Hypertensive retinopathy may cause flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton wool spots on the retina, but it does not result in sudden vision loss.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      18.4
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  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with diarrhea and abdominal pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with diarrhea and abdominal pain. She has a history of depression and takes citalopram, smokes 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 20 units of alcohol per week. During ileocolonoscopy, Crohn's disease is diagnosed, and she is treated with glucocorticoid therapy. What is the most crucial step to decrease the likelihood of future episodes?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.

      To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 16-year-old girl presents with heavy menstrual bleeding since her first period at...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with heavy menstrual bleeding since her first period at age 13. She has a history of frequent nosebleeds in childhood. After a normal physical exam and ultrasound, what is the most crucial next step?

      Your Answer: Blood test for coagulation disorder

      Explanation:

      Women who have experienced heavy menstrual bleeding since their first period and have indications of a coagulation disorder in their personal or family medical history should undergo testing for such disorders, including von Willebrand’s disease. This recommendation is made by NICE CG44.

      Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition

      Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient who is a vegan and very active has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past two months. During examination, she appears to be anaemic.
      What is the most probable vitamin deficiency causing her anaemia?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Vegan Nutrition: Understanding the Availability of Vitamins

      As a vegan, it is important to understand the availability of vitamins in your diet. One vitamin that vegans are at risk of deficiency in is vitamin B12, which is primarily found in animal products such as meat, fish, eggs, and milk. However, there are vegan-friendly sources of vitamin B12 such as fortified cereals and plant-based milks.

      Contrary to popular belief, vitamin B6, vitamin A, vitamin B1, and vitamin C are all readily available in vegan-friendly foods. Vitamin B6 can be found in bread, whole grains, vegetables, peanuts, and potatoes. Vitamin A can be found in yellow, red, and green vegetables as well as yellow fruits. Vitamin B1 can be found in peas, fruit, whole grain bread, and fortified cereals. Vitamin C is predominantly found in fruits and vegetables such as oranges, peppers, strawberries, broccoli, potatoes, and Brussels sprouts.

      By understanding the availability of vitamins in vegan-friendly foods, vegans can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs and maintaining a healthy diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and left-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain had begun, she had noted that her right eyelid was ‘drooping’ and that she had developed weakness and altered sensation in her left arm and leg. She had recently visited a physiotherapist for neck pain after a fall. Examination reveals right Horner syndrome, and weakness and sensory disturbance on the left-hand side, with a left extensor plantar response.
      Which of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral medullary infarction

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Neck Pain and Stroke Syndrome

      Carotid artery dissection, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and venous sinus thrombosis are all potential causes of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient. Carotid artery dissection is a tear in one of the carotid arteries that can occur spontaneously or following trauma. Symptoms may include vague headache, facial and neck pain, meiosis, ptosis, focal limb weakness, and cranial nerve palsies. Lateral medullary infarction is usually due to occlusion of the intracranial vertebral artery or the posterior inferior cerebellar artery and may present with vestibulocerebellar symptoms, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, sensory symptoms, and ipsilateral bulbar muscle weakness. Posterior fossa space-occupying lesions are more common in children and may cause symptoms due to raised intracranial pressure and brainstem/cerebellum compression. Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with a sudden-onset, severe headache, while venous sinus thrombosis usually presents with progressive headache, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Hemiplegia may occur in both posterior fossa space-occupying lesions and venous sinus thrombosis, but Horner syndrome does not occur in either. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      55.3
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  • Question 45 - A 32-year-old engineer attended a business trip in France last weekend and developed...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old engineer attended a business trip in France last weekend and developed a fever of up to 39°C that lasted for three days. He had associated shortness of breath and dry cough. In addition, he had loose motions for a day. His blood results showed deranged LFTs and hyponatraemia. His WBC count was 10.2 × 109/l. Bibasal consolidation was seen on his radiograph.
      Which of the following would be the most effective treatment for his condition?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease

      Legionnaires’ disease is a common cause of community- and hospital-acquired pneumonia, caused by Legionella pneumophila. The bacterium contaminates water containers and distribution systems, including air-conditioning systems, and can infect individuals who inhale it. Symptoms include fever, cough, dyspnoea, and systemic symptoms such as myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting and neurological signs. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by urinary antigen testing. Treatment options include macrolides, such as clarithromycin, which is the preferred choice, and quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, which are used less frequently due to a less favourable side-effect profile. Amoxicillin, cefuroxime, and flucloxacillin are not effective against Legionella pneumophila. It is important to remember that the organism does not show up on Gram staining. Outbreaks are seen in previously fit individuals staying in hotels or institutions where the shower facilities and/or the cooling system is contaminated with the organism. The incubation period is 2–10 days. A clinical clue is the presence of otherwise unexplained hyponatraemia and deranged liver function tests in a patient with pneumonia. A chest radiograph can show bibasal consolidation, sometimes with a small pleural effusion.

      Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      42.9
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  • Question 46 - As a foundation doctor in general practice, you have a patient who is...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in general practice, you have a patient who is a sexually active sixteen-year-old seeking advice about her contraceptive patch. She typically changes the patch on Saturday mornings but forgot to do so this week. What guidance should you provide?

      Your Answer: Change the patch now, use barrier contraceptives for seven days and consider emergency contraception

      Explanation:

      To ensure the effectiveness of the contraceptive patch, it should be applied to clean, dry skin on a weekly basis for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week to stimulate a withdrawal bleed. However, if the patch change is delayed for more than 48 hours, it is important to change it immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next 7 days. In case of unprotected intercourse, emergency contraceptives should be considered.

      The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.

      If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

      If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      46.6
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  • Question 47 - A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb, and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus. Joint position sense is impaired at her left great toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal.
      Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate site of the lesion from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Midline mid-thoracic cord

      Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest Brown-Séquard syndrome, which is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord. This results in ipsilateral pyramidal weakness and loss of joint position/vibration sense, along with contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation. The patient’s lesion is located in the left mid-thoracic cord. A lesion in the left lumbosacral plexus would only affect the left lower limb. A cervical cord lesion would affect the upper limbs. A central lesion would produce bilateral symmetrical defects, which is not the case here. A right mid-thoracic cord lesion would produce similar symptoms, but on the right side instead. Other spinal cord syndromes include complete cord transection, anterior cord syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, syringomyelia, and cauda equina syndrome. Each of these has a distinct set of symptoms and affected areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      77.7
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  • Question 48 - A 26-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and chooses to...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and chooses to have a physiological third stage of labor. She experiences a blood loss of 800 ml shortly after delivery. The medical team follows an ABCDE approach and starts a warmed crystalloid infusion. There is no history of medical issues or delivery-related trauma.

      What should be the next course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Compress the uterus and catheterise her

      Explanation:

      To manage a postpartum haemorrhage, an ABCDE approach should be taken, with initial steps including compressing the uterus and catheterising the patient. This is known as ‘mechanical management’ and is appropriate for a primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) where uterine atony is the most common cause. IV warmed crystalloid should also be given. Medical management options such as IV oxytocin or IM/IV carboprost should only be considered if mechanical methods fail. It is important to note that IV carboprost should not be administered as it can lead to serious side effects.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 49 - A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old patient visits the GP clinic seeking a sexual health examination. He engages in sexual activity with men and practices unprotected anal intercourse as both the insertive and receptive partner. He has never undergone any HIV testing and desires a prompt result. What is the most suitable test to request for this patient?

      Your Answer: HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody test

      Explanation:

      The current standard for HIV diagnosis and screening involves a combination of p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests. This is because the HIV antibody may not be detectable until 4-6 weeks after infection, while the p24 antigen can show up as early as 1 week after infection. By using both tests, a more accurate assessment of infectious status can be made, allowing for discussions about pre-exposure prophylaxis and safe sexual practices. HIV viral load levels are not used for diagnosis, but can be helpful in assessing treatment efficacy after diagnosis has been confirmed. It is important to note that viral load testing should not be used alone, but rather in conjunction with the antibody and antigen tests.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      18.6
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  • Question 50 - A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia on Chest X-Ray. He appears unwell to you. His urea level is 8 mmol/l, and respiratory rate is 38 breaths per minute. His pulse rate is 89, and blood pressure is 120/58 mmHg.

      What is the patient's CURB 65 score?

      Your Answer: 4

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      33.1
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  • Question 51 - A 60-year-old man had a left mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man had a left mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. He has now presented with a 4-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computerised tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) microscopy are normal.
      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of his ataxia?

      Your Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with subacute cerebellar dysfunction and normal imaging

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, multiple sclerosis, cerebellar metastasis, malignant meningitis, and Wernicke’s encephalopathy are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with subacute onset of cerebellar signs and normal imaging.

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome is a rare immune-mediated complication of many cancers, which may be diagnosed before the underlying tumour. Symptoms develop rapidly and include dizziness, nausea, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, oscillopsia, dysarthria, tremor, dysphagia, and blurry vision. MRI may be normal, but CSF may show raised protein and anti-neuronal antibodies.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women and usually presents with transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness/paraesthesiae, as well as bladder and cerebellar dysfunction. MRI may visualise plaques of demyelination, and CSF shows oligoclonal bands.

      Cerebellar metastasis could occur in breast cancer, but it would be visualised on MRI.

      Malignant meningitis occurs when cancer spreads to the meninges and presents with confusion, headaches, and weakness. Imaging and CSF would be abnormal.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, typically seen in alcoholics, and presents with acute confusional state, ophthalmoplegia, and gait ataxia. Dysarthria is not usually a feature. Thiamine deficiency is not suggested by this patient’s history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      70.4
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 27-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner seeking information on emergency contraception....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner seeking information on emergency contraception. She engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a male partner a week ago. The patient has a consistent 28-day menstrual cycle and believes that today is the 17th day of her current cycle. What options are available for emergency contraception in this case?

      Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      The copper intrauterine device is the only suitable method for this patient as it can be used as emergency contraception if inserted within 5 days of unprotected sexual intercourse or within 5 days of the estimated ovulation date, whichever is later. As the patient has a regular 28-day cycle and is currently at day 17, she is within the 5-day window for fitting of the IUD. Levonorgestrel, a tablet used for emergency contraception, would not be suitable as it must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. The Mirena intrauterine system is a hormonal device used for regular contraception but cannot be used as emergency contraception. Norethisterone is a drug used for dysfunctional uterine bleeding and period delay but not for emergency contraception.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been radiating to his neck and left arm for the past 3 hours. An ECG reveals ST depression in the inferior leads, and a troponin test is ordered. The patient is given aspirin and sublingual nitrates, and a non-ST elevated myocardial infarction is suspected. The physician conducts a risk assessment to determine the patient's 6-month mortality.

      What factors are taken into account by the doctor during this calculation?

      Your Answer: Age, ECG, troponin, renal function

      Explanation:

      To determine the management of NSTEMI, doctors use a risk assessment score such as GRACE. This score takes into account various factors such as age, ECG, troponin, and renal function, as well as blood pressure, heart rate, and whether the patient experienced a cardiac arrest upon presentation. Renal function is particularly important to consider as it is often affected during an AMI. However, lactate and liver function tests are not included in the GRACE score as they are not typically affected by an MI.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 3a with proteinuria has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 3a with proteinuria has hypertension which is not controlled with amlodipine.
      Which of the following other agents should be added?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Medications: Guidelines and Recommendations

      Current guidelines recommend the use of renin-angiotensin system antagonists, such as ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril), ARBs (e.g. candesartan), and direct renin inhibitors (e.g. aliskiren), for patients with CKD and hypertension. β-blockers (e.g. bisoprolol) are not preferred as initial therapy, but may be considered in certain cases. Loop diuretics (e.g. furosemide) should only be used for clinically significant fluid overload, while thiazide-like diuretics (e.g. indapamide) can be offered as second line treatment. Low-dose spironolactone may be considered for further diuretic therapy, but caution should be taken in patients with reduced eGFR due to increased risk of hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - You have just received a 70-year-old man into the resuscitation room who had...

    Correct

    • You have just received a 70-year-old man into the resuscitation room who had a witnessed collapse after complaining of chest pain. There was no pulse, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) was performed at the scene. CPR is ongoing upon patient arrival in the Emergency Department. Pulse check demonstrates no palpable central pulse, and there is no respiratory effort. A 3-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates no coordinated electrical activity or recognisable complexes, looking very much like a wandering flat line.
      What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: 1 mg of adrenaline 1 : 10 000 intravenously (IV), and continue CPR

      Explanation:

      Managing Cardiac Arrest: Correct and Incorrect Approaches

      When dealing with a patient in cardiac arrest, it is crucial to follow the correct management protocol. In the case of a patient in asystole, CPR 30:2 (compressions: ventilations) should be initiated, along with 1 mg of adrenaline 10 ml of 1:10 000 IV every other cycle of CPR. Direct current (DC) shock is not indicated for asystole. Adrenaline 1:1000 IM is not appropriate for cardiac arrest situations, as it is used in anaphylaxis. External pacing is unlikely to be successful in the absence of P-wave asystole. Atropine is indicated in severe bradycardia, not asystole. It is essential to follow the correct approach to manage cardiac arrest effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - When visiting a 60-year-old patient at home to do a wound dressing, the...

    Correct

    • When visiting a 60-year-old patient at home to do a wound dressing, the District Nurse wants to confirm if the patient has received complete tetanus vaccination. What is the number of tetanus vaccine doses required for life-long protection?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

      Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 45-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of leg weakness. Other...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of leg weakness. Other than a recent cold 1 month ago, he has been feeling well and has no significant medical history. On examination, it is noted that he has reduced power in his legs as well as reduced knee and ankle reflexes. His lower peripheral sensation was intact. What investigation can be done to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Guillain-Barré Syndrome

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system. To confirm a diagnosis of GBS, several diagnostic tests may be performed.

      Lumbar puncture (LP) is often done to confirm GBS and rule out an infection in the meninges. An LP in GBS would show a rise in protein with a normal white-blood-cell count, found in 66% of patients with GBS.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the whole spine is unlikely to show GBS-specific abnormalities in the early stages of the disease, as it starts in the peripheral nervous system.

      Blood cultures are not diagnostic of GBS, as the presence of Campylobacter jejuni (often the trigger for GBS) is unlikely to be detected four weeks after the infection.

      Computed tomography (CT) of the head is not useful in diagnosing GBS, as the pathology is in the peripheral nervous system, and an abnormality in the brain would not be seen on imaging.

      Electromyography (EMG) is not typically performed in GBS diagnosis. Instead, nerve conduction studies may be performed, which could show decreased motor nerve-conduction velocity (due to demyelination), prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F-wave latency.

      In conclusion, a combination of clinical presentation, lumbar puncture, and nerve conduction studies can help diagnose Guillain-Barré syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - What is one of the most important functions of the proximal convoluted tubule...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of the most important functions of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?

      Your Answer: Urine concentration

      Correct Answer: Sodium reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Proximal Convoluted Tubule in the Nephron

      The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is a crucial part of the nephron, responsible for several important functions. One of its primary roles is the reabsorption of sodium, which occurs through active transport facilitated by the numerous mitochondria in the epithelial cells. This creates a concentration gradient that allows for the passive reabsorption of water. Glucose is also reabsorbed in the PCT through secondary active transport, driven by the sodium gradient. The PCT also regulates the pH of the filtrate by exchanging hydrogen ions for bicarbonate ions. Additionally, the PCT is the primary site for ammoniagenesis, which involves the breakdown of glutamine to α-ketoglutarate. Finally, the regulation of urine concentration occurs in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct under the influence of vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that has been slowly progressing over the years. She has had dry patches of skin that eventually turned into plaques, which have been treated as psoriasis. However, the lesions have continued to worsen and now have nodules. Some of these nodules have become painful and have discharged fluid. A biopsy is taken to further assess the lesions, and the pathology report shows lymphocytic and atypical T-cell infiltrates in the dermis and epidermis, with some Pautrier microabscesses. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Harlequin ichthyosis

      Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides

      Explanation:

      Mycosis fungoides, a severe form of T-cell lymphoma that mimics eczema or psoriasis, is a rare but concerning skin condition. The patient’s atypical medical history, previous diagnostic uncertainty, and laboratory results suggest that they may have cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Biopsy results showing Pautrier microabscesses are a common feature of mycosis fungoides. Harlequin ichthyosis is a genetic disorder that manifests from birth, making it an unlikely diagnosis. Although syphilis can cause various skin symptoms, the biopsy findings do not support this diagnosis. Discoid eczema, also known as nummular dermatitis, has a different clinical course than the patient’s condition, and the biopsy results do not indicate it.

      Understanding Mycosis Fungoides

      Mycosis fungoides is a rare type of T-cell lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is characterized by the presence of itchy, red patches that may appear in different colors, unlike eczema or psoriasis where the lesions are more uniform in color. These patches may progress to form plaques, which can be seen in the later stages of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      69.8
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 32-year-old male presents with vomiting and central abdominal pain that radiates to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents with vomiting and central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The following laboratory result is obtained:
      Amylase 1,245 u/dl. Which medication is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Pizotifen

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 72-year-old man has been admitted to the orthopaedic ward following a left...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man has been admitted to the orthopaedic ward following a left hemiarthroplasty. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes and chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML).

      The nurse has requested an urgent review of the patient as he is displaying signs of confusion. His blood pressure is 96/54 mmHg and his heart rate is 135 bpm. The patient has been passing 10 ml of urine an hour through his catheter and the nurse has observed that the urine in the catheter bag is bright red.

      Upon examination, the patient has petechial bruising over his arms and blood is slowly oozing from his peripheral cannula. What blood test results would you anticipate?

      Your Answer: Low platelets, low fibrinogen, raised APTT and PT and raised D-dimer

      Explanation:

      The typical blood picture for DIC includes a decrease in platelets and fibrinogen levels, as well as an increase in PT and APTT, and fibrinogen degradation products. DIC can be triggered by trauma, malignancies, and other factors. The patient’s symptoms, such as oliguria, hypotension, and tachycardia, suggest circulatory collapse due to DIC. Bleeding at multiple sites, including haematuria, petechial bruising, and bleeding from a peripheral cannula, is also common in DIC. The release of procoagulants in DIC leads to widespread clotting activation, which consumes platelets and clotting factors, resulting in a low platelet count and prolonged bleeding times. Fibrinolysis is also activated, leading to low fibrinogen levels and high D-dimer levels. Additionally, haemoglobin levels may be low due to bleeding and lysis caused by fibrin strands in small blood vessels.

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis

      Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.

      To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      46.2
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 32-year-old construction worker visits his doctor complaining of hay fever symptoms. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old construction worker visits his doctor complaining of hay fever symptoms. He is experiencing frequent sneezing and a runny nose and is seeking medication to alleviate his discomfort. Considering his job, which antihistamine would be safe for him to use?

      Your Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      Loratadine is an antihistamine that does not cause drowsiness. It works by targeting histamine H1 receptors to relieve allergy symptoms like sneezing and runny nose. As the patient is a heavy goods vehicle driver, it is advisable to recommend a non-sedating antihistamine like loratadine. Chlorphenamine, on the other hand, is a sedating antihistamine used in anaphylaxis treatment and is not suitable for the patient’s occupation. Cimetidine inhibits stomach acid production and does not help with allergy symptoms. Cinnarizine is a sedating antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting and may not be effective for the patient’s condition. Diphenhydramine is also a sedating antihistamine and not recommended for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of heartburn, nausea and a metallic taste in her mouth. She has a good appetite and has lost 2kg in the last month. She has a past medical history of hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. She takes amlodipine 5mg OD, risedronate 35 mg OD and lansoprazole 30 mg OD.

      On examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender and there are no palpable masses. Her observations are normal.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient from the following options?

      Your Answer: Add alginic acid (Gaviscon) PRN

      Correct Answer: Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral is warranted when weight loss is a prominent symptom in dyspepsia.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 35-year-old man attends his cousin's bachelor party where they go to a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man attends his cousin's bachelor party where they go to a seafood buffet. After consuming eight plates of food, he finally feels full and they head to a nearby bar.

      Four hours later, he is at a dart tournament when he suddenly feels sick and starts vomiting uncontrollably. He goes home and the vomiting stops overnight. The next day, he feels better and is relieved that he did not experience any diarrhea.

      What is the probable organism responsible for his illness?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?

      Your Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiac Biomarkers: Importance of BNP in Heart Failure Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing heart failure, healthcare professionals rely on various cardiac biomarkers to aid in their assessment. Among these biomarkers, B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is considered the primary investigation according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      Unlike other biomarkers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), BNP is specific to heart failure and is not affected by inflammation. On the other hand, troponin T is useful in diagnosing acute coronary syndromes, while creatine phosphokinase is primarily used to detect muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis.

      It is important to note that certain factors such as obesity and medications like angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can falsely lower BNP levels. Therefore, if BNP levels are elevated, patients should be referred for an echocardiogram to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure.

      In summary, understanding the role of cardiac biomarkers such as BNP in heart failure diagnosis is crucial in providing accurate and timely treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 50-year-old male presents for a routine check-up and his blood pressure is...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents for a routine check-up and his blood pressure is found to be 170/100 mmHg (and high blood pressure is confirmed during home blood pressure readings.) He is investigated for secondary causes, none are found, and a diagnosis of primary hypertension is made. His GP starts him on 5mg lisinopril. Two weeks later, his kidney function results show:
      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the improvement in his renal function?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis can lead to significant renal impairment after starting an ACE inhibitor. This condition is commonly caused by atherosclerosis, but young females may also develop it due to fibromuscular dysplasia. As it often lacks symptoms, it can go unnoticed. While ACE inhibitors may cause a slight rise in serum creatinine, they usually only mildly affect renal function. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function two weeks after initiating ramipril and other ACE inhibitors. Glomerulonephritis, which refers to inflammation of the glomeruli, has multiple causes and typically results in gradual renal function decline, not rapid worsening after ACE inhibitor initiation. Although renal calculi and renal artery thrombosis can cause acute kidney injury, the patient in this question lacks pain and thrombosis risk factors. Chronic, untreated hypertension can also affect renal function, but it progresses slowly over years, and the patient’s renal function was normal before starting ramipril.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      62.8
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Which of the following interventions is most likely to improve survival in individuals...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following interventions is most likely to improve survival in individuals with COPD?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary rehabilitation

      Correct Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      Long-term oxygen therapy is one of the few interventions that has been proven to enhance survival in COPD following smoking cessation.

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 70-year-old man with a 25 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a 25 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for a check-up. He was diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (secondary to diabetes) 7 years ago and has experienced a gradual decline in renal function since. His current medications include lisinopril 20 mg daily, amlodipine 5mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, and NovoRapid insulin twice daily.

      His most recent renal function tests reveal the following results:
      - Sodium: 140 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 5.1 mmol/L
      - Urea: 9.8 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 130 µmol/L
      - eGFR: 38 mL/min/1.73m²

      During his clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 154/90 mmHg and this is confirmed on a second reading. What adjustments should be made to his blood pressure medication?

      Your Answer: Add doxazosin

      Correct Answer: Add indapamide

      Explanation:

      When hypertension is poorly controlled despite taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, adding a thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In patients with diabetic nephropathy, achieving tight blood pressure control is crucial. Although ACE inhibitors are the most evidence-based treatment, if blood pressure remains high, the NICE guidelines suggest adding a thiazide-based diuretic such as indapamide. It is important to avoid spironolactone and angiotensin II receptor blockers as they may increase the risk of hyperkalemia.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 69 - A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge for ten days. He describes how he initially felt 'okay' with milder symptoms, but noticed a sudden deterioration in his symptoms a few days ago.
      Which of the following treatments would be the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Sinusitis: Antibiotics, Decongestants, and Antihistamines

      Acute bacterial sinusitis is a common condition that can cause severe symptoms such as discolored or purulent discharge, severe localized pain, and fever. Antibiotics are prescribed only if the patient has a co-morbidity or if acute bacterial sinusitis is clinically suspected. The antibiotics of choice include amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, or erythromycin. Second-line treatments include co-amoxiclav and azithromycin.

      Decongestants such as ephedrine can be used to relieve nasal congestion, but they should not be used for more than seven days to avoid rebound congestion. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are not recommended unless there is a coexisting allergic rhinitis.

      It is important to note that flucloxacillin and metronidazole are not the antibiotics of choice for acute sinusitis. Doxycycline or erythromycin are acceptable alternatives. Treatment should be used only for persistent symptoms or purulent nasal discharge lasting at least 7 days, or if the symptoms are severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      33.6
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  • Question 70 - A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
      Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?

      Your Answer: Renal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas

      Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:

      Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.

      Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.

      Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.

      Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      27
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  • Question 71 - A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents at the clinic for a review. He is currently asymptomatic but his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests. The results are as follows:
      - Bilirubin: 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP: 104 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT: 53 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT: 58 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)

      A liver ultrasound was conducted and reported fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits. What is the most appropriate next test to perform?

      Your Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test

      Explanation:

      For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease who exhibit characteristics such as obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to conduct an enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test to aid in the diagnosis of liver fibrosis. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered incidentally, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of more advanced liver disease.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 72 - Which one of the following statement regarding the 1977 Abortion Act is true?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statement regarding the 1977 Abortion Act is true?

      Your Answer: It states that an abortion may be performed if the pregnancy presents a risk to the physical or mental health of any existing children

      Explanation:

      Termination of Pregnancy in the UK

      The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.

      The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progestogen) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.

      The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.5
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  • Question 73 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painful, red left thigh....

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painful, red left thigh. She denies feeling unwell and reports no shortness of breath or haemoptysis. Her medical history includes obesity (BMI 32 kg/m2) and no past surgeries. She takes no regular medications. On examination, she appears healthy, and all her vital signs are normal. She has erythema on the medial aspect of her left thigh. Palpation of the left long saphenous vein reveals tenderness and hardening over a 6 cm length, starting 10cm distal to the sapheno-femoral junction. The Wells score for DVT is 1. What is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

      Your Answer: Venous ultrasound of the legs

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with superficial thrombophlebitis in the long saphenous vein should undergo an ultrasound scan to rule out the possibility of an underlying DVT. While this condition is typically harmless and can be treated with NSAIDs and compression, it carries a risk of DVT and subsequent PE. Therefore, it is recommended that patients with proximal long saphenous vein thrombophlebitis undergo an ultrasound to exclude DVT.

      In this case, there are no indications of PE or respiratory symptoms, so a CTPA or chest X-ray is not necessary. While a D-dimer test is typically used to diagnose DVT, it is not useful in the presence of superficial thrombophlebitis. As a result, the guideline is to proceed directly to venous ultrasound.

      The risk factors for superficial thrombophlebitis are the same as those for DVT/PE, such as female sex, prolonged immobility, obesity, and cancer. While checking blood lipid levels may be relevant, it is not a primary concern as this is a thrombotic rather than an atherosclerotic process.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the sapheno-femoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      45.2
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  • Question 74 - A 35-year-old woman experiences a seizure while in the emergency department. The seizure...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences a seizure while in the emergency department. The seizure began suddenly with an abrupt loss of consciousness and an initial period of stiff muscle contraction, followed by intermittent jerky movements. She has a history of epilepsy and takes carbamazepine, but has been noted to have poor adherence in the past. The seizure persists for more than five minutes despite a dose of IV lorazepam. What is the next best pharmacological approach?

      Your Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Convulsive status epilepticus should be initially managed with IV lorazepam, with a repeat dose given 10 minutes later if the seizure persists or recurs. Buccal midazolam may be used if IV access is not available or if the seizure occurs outside of a hospital setting. It is important to note that a maximum of two doses of IV benzodiazepines should be administered during convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous carbamazepine is not appropriate for acute seizure management, as it is primarily used for preventing tonic-clonic seizures. Intravenous phenytoin should not be given until two doses of benzodiazepines have been administered, and at this point, critical care and anesthesia should also be involved. Rectal diazepam is typically not used unless there is no IV access or the emergency occurs outside of a hospital setting.

      Status epilepticus is a medical emergency that occurs when a person experiences a single seizure lasting more than five minutes or two seizures within a five-minute period without returning to normal between them. It is crucial to terminate seizure activity as soon as possible to prevent irreversible brain damage. The first step in managing status epilepticus is to ensure the patient’s airway is clear and provide oxygen while checking their blood glucose levels. The first-line treatment is IV benzodiazepines, such as diazepam or lorazepam, with PR diazepam or buccal midazolam given in the prehospital setting. In the hospital, IV lorazepam is typically used and may be repeated once after 10-20 minutes. If the status epilepticus persists, a second-line agent such as phenytoin or phenobarbital infusion may be administered. If there is no response within 45 minutes, induction of general anesthesia is the best way to achieve rapid control of seizure activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.2
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  • Question 75 - An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with consolidation, there seems to be a moderate-sized pleural effusion on the same side. A pleural fluid aspiration is performed under ultrasound guidance, and the fluid's appearance is clear, sent off for culture. While waiting for the culture results, what is the most crucial factor in deciding whether to place a chest tube?

      Your Answer: LDH of the pleural fluid

      Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid

      Explanation:

      According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), chest tube placement in pleural infection is mainly indicated for patients with purulent or cloudy pleural fluid, positive Gram stain and/or culture results from non-purulent pleural fluid, and pleural fluid pH below 7.2. Among these indications, pleural fluid pH is considered the most valuable test.

      Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.

      Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterioranterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.

      Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.

      For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      40.2
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  • Question 76 - A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at a nearby restaurant. What organism is the most probable cause of this reaction?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis can be inferred as a result of the short incubation period and intense vomiting.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 77 - A 65-year-old man is prescribed amitriptyline for his neuropathic pain. After ten days,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is prescribed amitriptyline for his neuropathic pain. After ten days, he reports experiencing frequent urinary leakage. Which type of urinary incontinence is most commonly associated with amitriptyline use?

      Your Answer: Overflow incontinence

      Explanation:

      Overflow incontinence can be caused by tricyclic antidepressants due to their anticholinergic effects.

      The drug class of tricyclic antidepressants, which includes Amitriptyline, can lead to urinary retention and frequent leaking due to their anticholinergic effects. Antimuscarinic drugs can be used to treat urge incontinence, which is caused by detrusor over-activity, while stress incontinence, which occurs when the bladder is under pressure, can result in urine leakage when coughing or laughing.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants for Neuropathic Pain

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were once commonly used for depression, but their side-effects and toxicity in overdose have led to a decrease in their use. However, they are still widely used in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. TCAs such as low-dose amitriptyline are commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headache, while lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. It is important to note that some TCAs, such as amitriptyline and dosulepin, are considered more dangerous in overdose than others.

      Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of the QT interval. When choosing a TCA for neuropathic pain, the level of sedation may also be a consideration. Amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone are more sedative, while imipramine, lofepramine, and nortriptyline are less sedative. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate TCA and dosage for the individual’s specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.1
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  • Question 78 - A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques on her scalp that are causing itching and redness, especially around the occipital region. She has a past medical history of chronic plaque psoriasis that is typically managed well with topical treatment and emollients. The dermatologist confirms a diagnosis of scalp psoriasis. What is the best course of action for treating her recent diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Topical betamethasone valerate

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing scalp psoriasis, the approach is slightly different from managing plaque psoriasis. The first-line treatment typically involves using potent corticosteroids topically. Among the options, betamethasone valerate is the best answer as it is a potent corticosteroid that can be prescribed as a shampoo or mousse for easier application. For severe and extensive psoriasis, oral methotrexate may be recommended, but this is not applicable to the patient in question. Phototherapy is also an option for extensive psoriasis, but not for this patient who has well-controlled chronic plaque psoriasis. If no improvement is seen after 8 weeks of using a topical potent corticosteroid, second-line treatment may involve using topical vitamin D.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 79 - Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women. What is true about...

    Incorrect

    • Breast cancer is a disease that affects many women. What is true about breast cancer? Choose one statement from the options provided.

      Your Answer: Treatment with tamoxifen has no effect on the risk of a breast cancer recurrence.

      Correct Answer: The cumulative risk of dying of breast cancer between 5 and 14 years after first diagnosis is improved 10-15% by tamoxifen with oestrogen-receptor-positive tumours.

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer is the second most common cancer in women and the leading cause of cancer death among women worldwide. Tamoxifen is a drug that can be used to treat breast cancer that requires estrogen to grow. It works by either blocking estrogen receptors or blocking the production of estrogen. For women with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, continuing tamoxifen for 10 years instead of stopping at 5 years can further reduce the risk of recurrence and mortality. However, tamoxifen does not affect the risk of breast cancer recurrence. The risk of endometrial cancer is slightly increased with tamoxifen treatment. Screening modalities include breast self-examination, clinical breast examination, mammography, ultrasonography, and magnetic resonance imaging. Early detection is crucial in preventing breast cancer, and screening intervals may need to be shortened to prevent more deaths. Physical examination and biopsy are also important diagnostic approaches. Treatment for breast cancer typically involves surgery, radiation therapy, and adjuvant hormone or chemotherapy when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      42.9
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  • Question 80 - A 23-year-old female patient visits the ophthalmologist complaining of painful red eyes. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female patient visits the ophthalmologist complaining of painful red eyes. Upon examination, the ophthalmologist diagnoses her with bilateral anterior uveitis. During the medical history, the patient reveals that she has been experiencing a persistent dry cough and has visited her GP several times. The ophthalmologist orders blood tests and a chest x-ray, which reveal elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the underlying cause of uveitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis may present as bilateral anterior uveitis in young adults, making it an important early consideration. Recurrent uveitis in both eyes, along with a history of pulmonary issues, should prompt investigation for sarcoidosis. The other options, which do not involve a dry cough, are not relevant. Rheumatoid arthritis affects small joints in the hands, feet, and wrists, while ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects the spine with symptoms of back pain and stiffness, neither of which are mentioned in this scenario.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 81 - At a coffee shop, you observe a young woman beginning to cough and...

    Incorrect

    • At a coffee shop, you observe a young woman beginning to cough and wheeze. Approaching her, you inquire if she is choking. She replies that she believes a sip of hot coffee went down the wrong way. What should be your initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Give up to 5 abdominal thrusts

      Correct Answer: Encourage him to cough

      Explanation:

      Dealing with Choking Emergencies

      Choking is a serious medical emergency that can be life-threatening. It occurs when the airway is partially or completely blocked, often while eating. The first step in dealing with a choking victim is to ask them if they are choking. If they are able to speak and breathe, it may be a mild obstruction. However, if they are unable to speak or breathe, it is a severe obstruction and requires immediate action.

      According to the Resus Council, mild airway obstruction can be treated by encouraging the patient to cough. However, if the obstruction is severe and the patient is conscious, up to five back-blows and abdominal thrusts can be given. If these methods are unsuccessful, the cycle should be repeated. If the patient is unconscious, an ambulance should be called and CPR should be started.

      It is important to note that choking can happen to anyone, so it is important to be prepared and know how to respond in an emergency. By following these steps, you can help save a life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 82 - A 26-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in one calf. Upon Doppler...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with swelling and pain in one calf. Upon Doppler ultrasound scan, an unprovoked DVT is discovered. She expresses a strong desire to start a family with her partner within the next year. Which medication would be the most appropriate choice?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is not recommended for treating VTE in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. LMWH is the first-line treatment with below-knee compression stockings as an adjunct. Aspirin is not a suitable treatment for VTE.

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant used to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. It inhibits epoxide reductase, preventing the reduction of vitamin K and the carboxylation of clotting factors. Warfarin is monitored using the INR and may take several days to achieve a stable level. Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, and NSAIDs. Side effects include haemorrhage, teratogenicity, skin necrosis, and purple toes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      23.1
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  • Question 83 - A 26 year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, presents to her GP...

    Correct

    • A 26 year-old woman, who is 36 weeks pregnant, presents to her GP with a blood pressure reading of 170/110 mmHg. She is feeling well otherwise and is currently taking 250 mg labetalol. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Fetal monitoring is normal. Her blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 135 g/l, platelet count of 280 * 109/l, white blood cell count of 6.0 * 109/l, sodium level of 142 mmol/l, potassium level of 4.0 mmol/l, urea level of 2.8 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 24 µmol/l. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to hospital as an emergency

      Explanation:

      Despite the absence of symptoms, the patient’s blood pressure remains elevated at a level exceeding 160/100 mmHg, and there is also significant proteinuria, despite receiving labetalol treatment. As a result, emergency admission is necessary to monitor and manage the hypertension in a controlled setting. If there is no improvement, delivery may be considered as an option.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 84 - A 45-year-old woman has been using diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for allergy relief. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been using diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for allergy relief. She reports using it frequently and her doctor suspects she may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome (ACS).
      Which of the following statements accurately describes the anticholinergic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment

      Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is an inhibition of cholinergic neurotransmission at muscarinic receptor sites. It can be caused by the ingestion of various medications, intentional overdose, inadvertent ingestion, medical non-compliance, or geriatric polypharmacy. The syndrome produces central nervous system effects, peripheral nervous system effects, or both, resulting in a range of symptoms.

      Symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome include flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis with loss of accommodation, altered mental status, fever, sinus tachycardia, decreased bowel sounds, functional ileus, urinary retention, hypertension, tremulousness, and myoclonic jerking. Hot, dry skin and constricted pupils are also common manifestations.

      Treatment for anticholinergic syndrome involves stabilizing the patient in A&E and removing the toxin from the gastrointestinal tract. This can be done with a single dose of activated charcoal by mouth or nasogastric tube. Gastric lavage, followed by activated charcoal administration, is acceptable for patients presenting with altered mental state and within 1 hour of ingestion.

      Physostigmine salicylate is the classic antidote for anticholinergic toxicity. While most patients can be safely treated without it, it is recommended when tachydysrhythmia is present. However, physostigmine is contraindicated in patients with cardiac conduction disturbances on ECG.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and treatment of anticholinergic syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients who may present with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      30.4
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  • Question 85 - A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man visits his GP and insists on getting a CT scan of his abdomen, claiming that he is certain he has cancer despite previous negative test results. What type of disorder does this behavior exemplify?

      Your Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP for a routine check-up after her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP for a routine check-up after her initial cervical smear. She has no medical history, no family history of gynaecological cancers, and no known allergies to medications. She is currently taking the progesterone-only pill. The results of her smear test indicate:
      Positive for HPV
      Low-grade dyskaryosis cytology
      What is the next course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy referral

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s cervical cancer screening shows a positive result for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) and cytological abnormalities, they should be referred for a colposcopy. This is because HPV increases the risk of developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and abnormal cytology indicates the need for further investigation. If the sample is inadequate, a repeat test should be offered in 3 months. However, there is no situation in which a patient is asked to return for a repeat test in 6 months. If the patient is hrHPV negative, they would be returned to normal recall as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. If the patient is hrHPV positive but has normal cytology, they would be invited for a repeat test in 12 months to assess for resolution of HPV or for further increased surveillance before considering a colposcopy. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and return them to normal recall if they are hrHPV positive and have dyskaryosis.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      20.9
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  • Question 87 - A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right gaze, right-sided facial weakness and left flaccid hemiparesis.
      Which of the following is the most likely site for her lesion?

      Your Answer: Right cerebral hemisphere

      Correct Answer: Right pons

      Explanation:

      Lesions in different areas of the brainstem can cause specific neurological symptoms. A lesion in the right pons can result in left-sided weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and double vision when looking towards the lesion. This is known as Millard-Gubler syndrome and is caused by a blockage in the penetrating branches of the basilar artery. A lesion in the right midbrain can affect cranial nerves III and IV, while a lesion in the left midbrain can cause contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral hypoglossal nerve palsy, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy. A lesion in the left pons can cause contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral lateral gaze palsy, and ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face. Lesions in the cerebral hemisphere produce purely contralateral and upper motor neuron signs. The insertion site, cranial nerves, and skull base associated with each area of the brainstem are also important to consider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      64.9
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 32-year-old woman presents with dizziness to her General Practitioner. She reports a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with dizziness to her General Practitioner. She reports a similar episode six months ago, which was also accompanied by some discomfort in her chest lasting for a short period. Upon further questioning, she admits to feeling her heart beating rapidly in her chest. She is currently stable, with a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 99%, and a heart rate of 110 bpm. What is the best investigation to guide further management?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Arrhythmias: An Overview

      Arrhythmias can cause symptoms such as palpitations and light-headedness. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is the first-line investigation to determine the type of arrhythmia present. However, if the arrhythmia resolves prior to presentation, a Holter ECG monitor may be required. Tachyarrhythmias are classified according to the QRS complexes as narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. A chest X-ray is not indicated unless there are other signs and symptoms of pneumonia. A D-dimer is not indicated unless there are risk factors for pulmonary embolus (PE) or deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). An echocardiogram is not indicated as a first-line investigation but may be performed in future workup. Troponin levels can increase in some arrhythmias, but the prognostic significance of this elevation is yet to be determined.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - You are conducting an infant assessment. What are the clinical manifestations of a...

    Correct

    • You are conducting an infant assessment. What are the clinical manifestations of a clubfoot?

      Your Answer: Inverted + plantar flexed foot which is not passively correctable

      Explanation:

      Talipes Equinovarus: A Common Foot Deformity in Newborns

      Talipes equinovarus, also known as club foot, is a foot deformity characterized by an inward turning and plantar flexed foot. It is a common condition that affects 1 in 1,000 newborns, with a higher incidence in males. In about 50% of cases, the deformity is present in both feet. While the cause of talipes equinovarus is often unknown, it can be associated with conditions such as spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and oligohydramnios.

      Diagnosis of talipes equinovarus is typically made during the newborn exam, and imaging is not usually necessary. The deformity is not passively correctable, and the diagnosis is based on clinical examination.

      In recent years, there has been a shift towards conservative management of talipes equinovarus, with the Ponseti method being the preferred approach. This method involves manipulation and progressive casting of the foot, starting soon after birth. The deformity is usually corrected within 6-10 weeks, and an Achilles tenotomy may be required in some cases. Night-time braces are then used until the child is 4 years old to prevent relapse, which occurs in about 15% of cases.

      Overall, talipes equinovarus is a common foot deformity in newborns that can be effectively managed with conservative methods such as the Ponseti method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      126.1
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  • Question 90 - A 23-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about UPSI she had four...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about UPSI she had four days ago. She has a medical history of asthma and psoriasis, and is allergic to latex. She uses oral steroids for her asthma but takes no regular medication. You suggest the copper coil as a form of emergency contraception, but the patient prefers a pill and mentions that her housemate recently took the 'EllaOne emergency pill' (ulipristal acetate). Why is the same method not suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Asthma controlled by oral steroids

      Explanation:

      When administering ulipristal acetate to individuals with severe asthma who are using oral steroids to control their condition, caution should be exercised due to the anti-glucocorticoid effect of the medication. The possibility of latex allergy should be considered when recommending barrier contraceptive methods or conducting a physical examination while wearing latex gloves. The failure to use regular contraception is a valid reason to offer emergency contraception following unprotected sexual intercourse. The use of ulipristal as emergency contraception may require caution in individuals with psoriasis, as this condition can be managed with oral steroids. However, it is important to note that oral steroids are only recommended for the individual’s asthma.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      278.9
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - An 82-year-old man is admitted under the medical take with acute chest pain....

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man is admitted under the medical take with acute chest pain. An MRI of the chest with contrast is requested. His blood tests show acute kidney injury (AKI).
      Which of the following would mitigate the risk of worsening AKI when using contrast?

      Your Answer: IV fluids before and after a CT scan

      Explanation:

      Preventing Contrast-Induced Nephropathy: Strategies and Considerations

      Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is a common complication of IV contrast administration, particularly in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. CIN is characterized by a decline in renal function within 48-72 hours of contrast exposure. To prevent CIN, strategies that focus on maintaining intravascular volume expansion are crucial.

      Intravenous (IV) saline 0.9% is preferred over 0.45% saline as it enhances intravascular volume expansion and prevents renin-angiotensin activation. Oral fluids are beneficial but not as effective as IV hydration. Volume expansion should begin 6 hours before the procedure and continue for 6-24 hours post-procedure, with post-procedure hydration being more important than pre-procedure hydration.

      Diuretics alone are not recommended, but a recent meta-analysis suggests that furosemide with matched hydration may reduce the incidence of CIN in high-risk patients. Fluid restriction is not recommended, and oral fluids should be encouraged.

      Dialysis is required in less than 1% of patients with CIN, with a slightly higher incidence in patients with underlying renal impairment and those undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention for myocardial infarction. N-Acetylcysteine (NAC) supplementation has been associated with a significant decrease in CIN risk and blood creatinine levels, but it does not reduce mortality or the need for dialysis.

      In conclusion, preventing CIN requires a multifaceted approach that includes maintaining intravascular volume expansion, avoiding fluid restriction, and considering NAC supplementation in high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      30.8
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  • Question 92 - A 27-year-old woman is receiving a blood transfusion at the haematology day unit....

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is receiving a blood transfusion at the haematology day unit. She has a medical history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia and her recent haemoglobin level was 69 g/dL. The doctor has prescribed two units of blood for her.

      During the administration of the first unit of blood, the patient experiences difficulty breathing. Upon examination, her vital signs show a temperature of 37.5ºC, heart rate of 99 beats/min, and blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg. Her oxygen saturation level is 96% on air, and she has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. Bilateral wheezing is heard during auscultation.

      What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anaphylaxis

      Explanation:

      The patient experienced hypotension, dyspnoea, wheezing, and angioedema during a blood transfusion, which indicates anaphylaxis, a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction to the blood product. Treatment involves stopping the transfusion immediately and administering intramuscular adrenaline. Acute haemolytic reaction, bacterial contamination, and minor allergic reaction are not likely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Complications of Blood Product Transfusion: Understanding the Risks

      Blood product transfusion can lead to various complications that can be classified into different categories. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may also arise, including the transmission of vCJD. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. On the other hand, allergic reactions to blood transfusions are caused by hypersensitivity reactions to components within the transfusion. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion, while TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema.

      It is important to understand the risks associated with blood product transfusion and to be aware of the different types of complications that may arise. Proper management and prompt treatment are crucial in preventing further harm to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      60.4
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Admit patient

      Explanation:

      Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      52.9
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of pain in his left hand and forearm. The pain is concentrated around the thumb and index finger and is worse at night. There is no history of trauma. Shaking his hand seems to provide some relief. The likely diagnosis conclusion is carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).
      Which of the following would suggest an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wasting of the hypothenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Symptoms and Examination Findings

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. One of the symptoms of CTS is the wasting of the thenar eminence, which is innervated by the median nerve. It is important to note that the hypothenar eminence, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve, is not affected by CTS.

      During examination, weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis) is a common finding in CTS. Tapping along the problematic nerve causes paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist also causes symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Treatment for CTS may include a corticosteroid injection, wrist splints at night, and surgical decompression through flexor retinaculum division.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and examination findings of CTS can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 6-month-old infant is brought to his General Practitioner by his concerned mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is brought to his General Practitioner by his concerned mother. He has been crying after every feed for several weeks and regurgitating milk. He has also been failing to gain weight.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms suggest that they may have gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which is characterized by regurgitation of milk after feeds and crying due to abdominal pain. This can lead to failure to gain weight or even weight loss. Infantile colic is less likely as it would not cause these symptoms. Intussusception, a condition where part of the bowel invaginates into another, causing colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and passing of redcurrant stools, requires immediate hospitalization. Pyloric stenosis, which presents with projectile vomiting, dehydration, and faltering growth, is less likely as the child does not have projectile vomiting. Volvulus, a complete twisting of an intestinal loop, could present with bilious vomiting, signs of shock, peritonitis, and blood per rectum, and typically occurs in the first year of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      122.5
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  • Question 96 - A 7-year-old boy who has recently arrived from India complains of fever. During...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy who has recently arrived from India complains of fever. During examination, extensive cervical lymphadenopathy is observed and a grey coating is seen surrounding the tonsils. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diphtheria: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Diphtheria is a bacterial infection caused by the Gram positive bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The pathophysiology of this disease involves the release of an exotoxin encoded by a β-prophage, which inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2. This toxin commonly causes a ‘diphtheric membrane’ on tonsils, resulting in a grey, pseudomembrane on the posterior pharyngeal wall. Systemic distribution may produce necrosis of myocardial, neural, and renal tissue.

      Possible presentations of diphtheria include sore throat with a ‘diphtheric membrane’, bulky cervical lymphadenopathy, and neuritis of cranial nerves. It may also result in a ‘bull neck’ appearance and heart block. People who have recently visited Eastern Europe, Russia, or Asia are at a higher risk of contracting this disease.

      To diagnose diphtheria, a culture of throat swab is taken using tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. The treatment for diphtheria involves intramuscular penicillin and diphtheria antitoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks ago. During examination, her vagina appears swollen and red.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lactobacilli infection

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Common Genitourinary Infections: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Trichomoniasis, Candidiasis, AIDS, HPV, and Lactobacilli infection are some of the most common genitourinary infections. Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis and presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida and presents with pruritus, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia. AIDS is a viral infection that has a hyperacute onset and is unlikely in patients with no past medical history or risk factors. HPV infection is common and often goes unnoticed, but can manifest as warty lesions on the genital or anal area. Lactobacilli infection is not associated with causing infection. Diagnosis of these infections depends on laboratory testing, with culture being the current criterion standard for trichomoniasis and physical examination for candidiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      61.9
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  • Question 98 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a complaint of difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a complaint of difficulty sleeping due to a blocked nose at night. She uses inhalers regularly for wheezing during cold weather and experiences a cough at night. What is the most common complication of her underlying diagnosis that she may be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Nasal Polyps

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps and Associated Conditions

      Nasal polyps are a common condition that can cause a blocked nose, interrupting sleep and wheezing upon exertion. They are often associated with asthma, which is found along the atopic spectrum of diseases. Other conditions commonly associated with nasal polyps include allergic rhinitis and sinusitis.

      Allergic fungal sinusitis is another condition that can cause nasal polyps, but it is more commonly found in warmer climates and is not the most common cause in the United Kingdom. Paracetamol sensitivity is not associated with nasal polyps, but aspirin sensitivity is and can be part of Samter’s triad if the patient also has asthma.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is not associated with nasal polyps, and it would be rare to see in a young patient unless there was underlying alpha-1 anti-trypsin disease. COPD is most commonly seen in long-term smokers and presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath and a longstanding cough.

      Diabetes mellitus is not associated with nasal polyps and would present with other symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue. Understanding the conditions associated with nasal polyps can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      27.8
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  • Question 99 - A 45-year-old man complains of pain and redness around his first metatarsophalangeal joint....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of pain and redness around his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Finasteride

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Causes of Gout: Medications and Other Factors

      Gout is a type of joint inflammation that occurs due to the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in the synovium. This condition is caused by chronic hyperuricemia, which is characterized by high levels of uric acid in the blood (above 0.45 mmol/l).

      Several medications and other factors can contribute to the development of gout. Diuretics such as thiazides and furosemide, as well as immunosuppressant drugs like ciclosporin, can increase the risk of gout. Alcohol consumption, cytotoxic agents, and pyrazinamide are also known to be associated with gout.

      In addition, low-dose aspirin has been found to increase the risk of gout attacks, according to a systematic review. However, this risk needs to be weighed against the cardiovascular benefits of aspirin. Patients who are prescribed allopurinol, a medication used to treat gout, are not at an increased risk of gout attacks when taking low-dose aspirin.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the potential causes of gout, including medications and lifestyle factors, in order to prevent and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right-eye pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right-eye pain. She suspects that something may be stuck in her eye as she has been unable to wear her contact lenses for the past day due to the pain.
      On examination, there is diffuse hyperaemia of the right eye. The right cornea appears hazy, and the pupillary reaction is normal. Visual acuity is reduced on the right side and a degree of photophobia is noted. A hypopyon is also seen.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following management procedures should be done immediately?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to an eye specialist

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral and Management of Keratitis: Importance of Eye Specialist Review

      Keratitis is the inflammation of the cornea, which can be potentially sight-threatening if left untreated. Microbial keratitis requires urgent evaluation and treatment, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp. Therefore, an immediate referral to an eye specialist is crucial to rule out this condition.

      Topical antibiotics, such as quinolones eye drops, are used as first-line treatment for keratitis and corneal ulcers. However, this is not as crucial as an immediate review by the eye specialist. Cyclopentolate eye drops are used for pain relief, but again, an eye specialist review is more important.

      It is crucial to stop using contact lenses until the symptoms have fully resolved, but this is not as crucial as an immediate review by the eye specialist. Timolol drops, which are used to reduce raised intraocular pressure in glaucoma, have no role in keratitis treatment.

      In summary, an urgent referral to an eye specialist is crucial in the management of keratitis, as an accurate diagnosis and immediate treatment can prevent potential sight-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      191.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology/Therapeutics (3/4) 75%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (5/7) 71%
Psychiatry (3/3) 100%
Neurology (5/10) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (6/11) 55%
Reproductive Medicine (7/10) 70%
Infectious Diseases (6/7) 86%
Ophthalmology (6/8) 75%
Dermatology (2/3) 67%
Renal Medicine/Urology (4/7) 57%
Paediatrics (4/6) 67%
Cardiovascular (8/9) 89%
Oncology (1/1) 100%
ENT (4/4) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (6/7) 86%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Passmed