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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following arteries branches from the deep femoral artery and courses between the pectineus and iliopsoas muscles?
Your Answer: Medical femoral circumflex
Explanation:The medial femoral circumflex artery is an artery in the upper thigh that supplies blood to the head and neck of the femur. It arises from the deep femoral artery and winds around the medial side of the femur. It passes first between pectineus and psoas major, and then between obturator externus and adductor brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 2
Correct
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In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the tail of the pancreas that is closely associated with the spleen to avoid post operative pancreatic fistula. As a general surgeon conducting a splenectomy where are you most likely to find the tail of the pancreas in the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer: Splenorenal ligament
Explanation:The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal part of the pancreas and is found contained in the splenorenal ligament of the peritoneal cavity. The splenorenal ligament is derived from the peritoneum where the wall of the general peritoneal cavity connects to the omental bursa between the spleen and the left kidney. This ligament contains the splenic vessels and the tail of the pancreas.
The gastrocolic ligament stretches from the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon, connecting the two.
The gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the greater omentum and is the structure that connects the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. The gastrosplenic ligament continues from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm and acts as a support to the spleen.
The transverse colon is connected to the abdominal wall by the mesocolon ligament.
The falciform ligament on the other hand, attaches the liver to the ventral wall of the abdomen.
The hepatoduodenal ligament connects the porta hepatis of the liver to the superior part of the duodenum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A chest X-ray in a healthy, non-smoker, asymptomatic 48-year-old woman reveals a 2cm left lower lobe well-defined round opacity. Which of the following conditions is most probably responsible for this finding?
Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoid
Correct Answer: Pulmonary hamartoma
Explanation:An asymptomatic healthy patient with no history of smoking and a lesion of small size most probably has a benign lung lesion. Hamartomas are one of the most common benign tumours of the lung that accounts for approximately 6% of all solitary pulmonary nodules. Pulmonary hamartomas are usually asymptomatic and therefore are found incidentally when performing an imaging test for other reasons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 47-year-old male is recovering in hospital following a total hip replacement. He develops profuse and watery diarrhoea. Several other patients have been suffering from similar symptoms. Infection with which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?
Your Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile) colitis results from a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon, colonization by C difficile, and the release of toxins that cause mucosal inflammation and damage. Antibiotic therapy is the key factor that alters the colonic flora. C difficile infection (CDI) occurs primarily in hospitalized patients.
The diagnosis of C difficile colitis should be suspected in any patient with diarrhoea who has received antibiotics within the previous 3 months, has been recently hospitalized, and/or has an occurrence of diarrhoea within 48 hours or more after hospitalization. In addition, C difficile can be a cause of diarrhoea in community dwellers without previous hospitalization or antibiotic exposureThe following recommendations on Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) were released on February 2018 by the Infectious Diseases Society of America (ISDA) and Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America (SHEA).
Diagnosis (adults)
Patients with unexplained and new-onset ≥3 unformed stools in 24 hours are the preferred target population for testing for CDI.
Use a stool toxin test as part of a multistep algorithm (i.e., glutamate dehydrogenase [GDH] plus toxin; GDH plus toxin, arbitrated by nucleic acid amplification test [NAAT]; or NAAT plus toxin) rather than NAAT alone for all specimens when there are no pre-agreed institutional criteria for patient stool submission.
Use NAAT alone or a multistep algorithm for testing (i.e., GDH plus toxin; GDH plus toxin, arbitrated by NAAT; or NAAT plus toxin) rather than a toxin test alone when there are pre-agreed institutional criteria for patient stool submission.
Do not perform repeat testing (within 7 days) during the same episode of diarrhoea and do not test stool from asymptomatic patients, except for epidemiologic studies -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The renal tubule is the portion of the nephron that contains the fluid that has been filtered by the glomerulus. Which of the following substances is actively secreted into the renal tubules?
Your Answer: Glucose
Correct Answer: Potassium
Explanation:The renal corpuscle filters out solutes from the blood, delivering water and small solutes to the renal tubule for modification. In normal circumstances more than 90% of the filtered load of K is reabsorbed by the proximal tubules and loops of Henlé and almost all K appearing in the urine has been secreted by the late distal tubules and collecting tubules. So the rate of excretion is usually independent of the rate of filtration, but is closely tied to the rate of secretion and control of K excretion, largely accomplished by control of the secretion rate. Around 65–70% of the filtered potassium is reabsorbed along with water in the proximal tubule and the concentration of potassium in the tubular fluid varies little from that of the plasma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Post-total gastrectomy, there will be a decreased production of which of the following enzymes?
Your Answer: Pepsin
Explanation:Pepsin is a protease that is released from the gastric chief cells and acts to degrade proteins into peptides. Released as pepsinogen, it is activated by hydrochloric acid and into pepsin itself. Gastrin and the vagus nerve trigger the release of pepsinogen and HCl when a meal is ingested. Pepsin functions optimally in an acidic environment, especially at a pH of 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Injury of the ventral rami at this cervical spinal level will result in paralysis of the rectus capitis anterior muscle:
Your Answer: C4, C5
Correct Answer: C1, C2
Explanation:The rectus capitis anterior is a short, flat muscle, situated immediately behind the upper part of the longus capitis. It is also known as the obliquus capitis superior. It aids in flexion of the head and the neck. Nerve supple is from C1 and C2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:
Your Answer: Loss of circadian rhythm
Correct Answer: Loss of satiety
Explanation:The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old male?
Your Answer: History of antidepressant drug therapy
Correct Answer: Hepatic failure
Explanation:Hypertrophy of breast tissue in males is known as gynaecomastia. It is normally due to proliferation of stroma and not of mammary ducts. Physiological gynaecomastia can occur during puberty and is often transient, bilateral, symmetrical and possibly tender. Gynaecomastia can occur during old age too, but is usually unilateral. Other causes include hepatic or renal failure, endocrinological disorders, drugs (anabolic steroids, antineoplastic drugs, calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, digitalis, oestrogens, isoniazid, ketoconazole, methadone, metronidazole, reserpine, spironolactone, theophylline), and marijuana. It should not be confused with malignancy which is often hard, asymmetric and fixed to the dermis or fascia. Treatment if indicated, includes withdrawal of the causative factor or treatment of the underlying disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 10
Correct
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The extent of cancer growth can be described through staging. What is taken into consideration when staging a cancer?
Your Answer: Local invasion
Explanation:Cancer stage is based on four characteristics: the size of cancer, whether the cancer is invasive or non-invasive, whether the cancer has spread to the lymph nodes, and whether the cancer has spread to other parts of the body, in this case beyond the breast. Staging is important as it is often a good predictor of outcomes and treatment is adjusted accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old chef presents to the hospital with profuse bloody diarrhoea. He also complains of frequent urge to defecate and pain before and during defecation. A sigmoidoscopy is arranged which reveals necrosis and ulceration of the descending colon mucosa. What is the most likely underlying cause?
Your Answer: Infection with Yersinia pestis
Correct Answer: Infection with enteroinvasive E. coli
Explanation:Necrosis and ulcers of the colon are a feature of infection with enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC). It presents with a dysentery-type illness similar to shigellosis.
E. coli have different strains that cause a wide range of conditions. The four main types are:
1. Enteropathogenic E. coli—cause watery diarrhoea, vomiting, and low-grade fever
2. Enteroinvasive E. coli—cause dysentery, large bowel necrosis, and ulcers
3. Enterotoxigenic E. coli—cause traveller’s diarrhoea
4. Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli 0157:H7—cause haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uremic syndrome, and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding abduction of the digits of the hand, which of the following is correct?
Your Answer: There are two muscles that produce adduction of the thumb
Correct Answer: All of the adductors of the digits take at least part of their attachments from metacarpal bones
Explanation:Lying on the palmer surfaces of the metacarpal bones are four palmar interossei which are smaller than the dorsal interossei. Arising from the entire length of the metacarpal bone of one finger, is a palmar interosseous, which is inserted into the side of the base of the first phalanx and the aponeurotic expansion of the extensor digitorum communis tendon to the same finger. All the interossei are innervated by the eighth cervical nerve, through the deep palmar branch of the ulnar nerve. The palmar interossei adducts the fingers to an imaginary line drawn longitudinally through the centre of the middle finger.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 13
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman complains of a new, persisting headache. She is diagnosed with vasculitis and the histopathological sample revealed giant-cell arteritis. What is the most probable diagnose?
Your Answer: Temporal arteritis
Explanation:Giant cell arteritis (GCA), also known as temporal arteritis, is the most common systemic inflammatory vasculitis that occurs in adults. It is of unknown aetiology and affects arteries large to small however the involvement of the superficial temporal arteries is almost always present. Other commonly affected arteries include the ophthalmic, occipital and vertebral arteries, therefore GCA can result in systemic, neurologic, and ophthalmologic complications. GCA usually is found in patients older than 50 years of age and should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of a new-onset headache accompanied by an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Diagnosis depends on the results of artery biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 34 year old mechanic suffers from a Gustilo and Anderson type IIIA fracture of the femoral shaft after being hit by a fork lift truck. What would be the most suitable step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Open reduction and fixation
Correct Answer: Debridement and external fixation
Explanation:Perhaps the most important aspect in the treatment of open fractures is the initial surgical intervention with irrigation and meticulous debridement of the injury zone. Irrigation, along with debridement, is absolutely crucial in the management of open fractures.
Early stabilization of open fractures provides many benefits to the injured patient. It protects the soft tissues around the zone of injury by preventing further damage from mobile fracture fragments. It also restores length, alignment, and rotation—all vital principles of fracture fixation. Skeletal traction and external fixation are the quickest fixation constructs to employ. The use of skeletal traction should be reserved only for selected open fracture types (i.e., pelvis fractures and very proximal femur fractures) and if used, it should only be for a short selected time. External fixation is a valuable tool in the surgeon’s arsenal for acute open fracture management. Indications for external fixation are grossly contaminated open fractures with extensive soft-tissue compromise, the Type IIIA-C injuries, and when immediate fixation is needed for physiologically unstable patients. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has affected her medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Which of the following structures will have their muscles affected?
Your Answer: Axial muscles
Explanation:The cells in the anterior horn can be arranged in the following three main groups: medial, lateral and central. The medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord are located along the entire length of the spinal cord and are responsible for the innervation of the axial muscles of the body ( muscles of the head and neck region). Thus this disease will most likely affect the functioning of the muscles of the head and neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 46 year old politician with chronic hepatitis for several years visits the clinic for a review. Recently, his AFP is noted to be increased and an abdominal ultrasound demonstrates a 2.2cm lesion in segment V of the liver. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: USS guided liver biopsy
Correct Answer: Liver MRI
Explanation:In patients with liver tumours, it is crucial to detect and stage the tumours at an early stage (to select patients who will benefit from curative liver resection, and avoid unnecessary surgery). Therefore, an optimal preoperative evaluation of the liver is necessary, and a contrast-enhanced MRI is widely considered the state-of-the-art method. Liver MRI without contrast administration is appropriate for cholelithiasis but not sufficient for most liver tumour diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the tissues with elevated arterial CO2 content?
Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:Metabolic alkalosis is a metabolic condition in which the pH of tissue is elevated beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45). This is the result of decreased hydrogen ion concentration, leading to increased bicarbonate, or alternatively a direct result of increased bicarbonate concentrations. Normally, arterial pa(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mEq/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that is very quick. If the change in pa(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 18
Correct
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A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:
Your Answer: Pulsus paradoxus
Explanation:Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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 A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and episodes of haematuria. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a left renal mass and the patient underwent a nephrectomy. Histopathological pattern was triphasic with blastemal, epithelial, and stromal components. The pathologist suggested the tumour resulted from the lack of a tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 11. Which of the following tumours is the pathologist most likely suggesting?
Your Answer: Angiomyolipoma
Correct Answer: Wilms’ tumour
Explanation:Wilms’ tumour is one of the most common malignant tumours of childhood but it can also rarely be found in adults. In biopsy, classical histopathological findings include the triphasic pattern composed by blastemal, epithelial, and stromal elements. First symptoms in children include an abdominal palpable mass, while in adults pain and haematuria are the most common complaints. Deletions of tumours’ suppressor genes on chromosome 11 are usually associated with Wilms’ tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 20
Correct
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After total thyroidectomy, which of the following investigations is recommended in the immediate post-operative period?
Your Answer: Serum calcium
Explanation:Total thyroidectomy might sometimes result in inadvertent excision or damage of parathyroid glands, leading to hypoparathyroidism. Monitoring serum calcium levels in the post-operative period to detect hypocalcaemia is essential to diagnose and prevent this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 21
Correct
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An 11 year old girl undergoes a delayed open reduction and fixation of a significantly displaced supracondylar fracture. She complains of paraesthesia of the hand and significant forearm pain. The radial pulse is normal. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Fasciotomy
Explanation:Answer: Fasciotomy
Fasciotomy is a surgical procedure where the fascia is cut to relieve tension or pressure commonly to treat the resulting loss of circulation to an area of tissue or muscle. Fasciotomy is a limb-saving procedure when used to treat acute compartment syndrome. A delay in performing the procedure can lead to neurovascular complications or lead to the need for amputation of a limb. Complications can also involve the formation of scar tissue after the operation. A thickening of the surgical scars can result in the loss of mobility of the joint involved. This can be addressed through occupational or physical therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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During strenuous exercise, what else occurs besides tachycardia?
Your Answer: Rise in mixed venous blood O2 saturation
Correct Answer: Increased stroke volume
Explanation:During strenuous exercise there is an increase in:
– Heart rate, stroke volume and therefore cardiac output. (CO = HR x SV)
– Respiratory rate (hyperventilation) which will lead to a reduction in Paco2.
– Oxygen demand of skeletal muscle, therefore leading to a reduction in mixed venous blood oxygen concentration.
Renal blood flow is autoregulated, so renal blood flow is preserved and will tend to remain the same. Mean arterial blood pressure is a function of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance and will increase with exercise, mainly as a result of the increase in cardiac output that occurs. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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If a 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a testicular seminoma that reaches the tunica albuginea and involves the tunica vaginalis, with retroperitoneal lymph nodes greater than 5cm, LDH 1.4 times the reference levels, β-hCG 4250 mIU/ml and AFP 780 ng/ml, what's the clinical stage in this case?
Your Answer: Stage IIIA
Correct Answer: Stage IIC
Explanation:According to the AJCC, the clinical staging for testicular seminoma is:
Stage IA: T1 N0 M0 S0
Stage IB: T2/3/4 N0 M0 S0
Stage IC: any T N0 M0 S1/2/3
Stage IIA: any T N1 M0 S0/1
Stage IIB: any T N2 M0 S0/1
Stage IIC: any T N3 M0 S0/1
Stage IIIA: any T any N M1a S0/1
Stage IIIB: any T any N M0/1a S2
Stage IIIC: any T any N M1a/1b S3.
The patient in this case has IIC stage -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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For which of the following is NOT screened for in blood for transfusion?
Your Answer: Syphillis
Correct Answer: EBV
Explanation:Blood for transfusion is routinely screened for hepatitis B and C, HIV, CMV and syphilis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 56 year old man presenting with acute appendicitis undergoes an appendicectomy through a lower midline laparotomy incision. Which of the following would be the best option for providing post operative analgesia?
Your Answer: Patient controlled analgesic infusion
Explanation:Patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) is a delivery system with which patients self-administer predetermined doses of analgesic medication to relieve their pain. The use of PCA in hospitals has been increasing because of its proven advantages over conventional intramuscular injections. These include improved pain relief, greater patient satisfaction, less sedation and fewer postoperative complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery?
Your Answer: Schwannoma
Explanation:Schwannomas are histologically benign neoplasms that arise from nerve sheaths, most commonly from sensory nerve roots. They are generally contained within a capsule, and so can be surgically removed without injuring the associated nerve root. They are histologically benign and less than 1% become malignant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 27
Correct
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Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is known as:
Your Answer: Phimosis
Explanation:Phimosis is the inability to fully retract the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male. It can be physiological in infancy, in which it could be referred to as ‘developmental non-retractility of the foreskin. However, it is almost always pathological in older children and men. Causes include chronic inflammation (e.g. balanoposthitis), multiple catheterisations, or forceful foreskin retraction. One of the causes is chronic balanitis xerotica obliterans. It leads to development of a ring of indurated tissue near the tip of the prepuce, which prevents retraction. Contributory factors include infections, hormonal and inflammatory factors. The recommended treatment includes circumcision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 6 week old baby who is developing well starts having profuse and projectile vomiting after feeding. She has been losing weight and the vomit is non-bilious. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter
Explanation:Pyloric stenosis is a narrowing of the opening from the stomach to the first part of the small intestine (the pylorus). Symptoms include projectile vomiting without the presence of bile. This most often occurs after the baby is fed. The typical age that symptoms become obvious is two to twelve weeks old.
The cause of pyloric stenosis is unclear. Risk factors in babies include birth by caesarean section, preterm birth, bottle feeding, and being first born. The diagnosis may be made by feeling an olive-shaped mass in the baby’s abdomen. This is often confirmed with ultrasound. It is four times more likely to occur in males, and is also more common in the first born. Rarely, infantile pyloric stenosis can occur as an autosomal dominant condition.
It is uncertain whether it is a congenital anatomic narrowing or a functional hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter muscle.
Babies with this condition usually present any time in the first weeks to months of life with progressively worsening vomiting. The vomiting is often described as non-bile stained (non bilious) and projectile vomiting, because it is more forceful than the usual spitting up (gastroesophageal reflux) seen at this age. Some infants present with poor feeding and weight loss but others demonstrate normal weight gain. Dehydration may occur which causes a baby to cry without having tears and to produce less wet or dirty diapers due to not urinating for hours or for a few days. Symptoms usually begin between 3 to 12 weeks of age. Findings include epigastric fullness with visible peristalsis in the upper abdomen from the person’s left to right. Constant hunger, belching, and colic are other possible signs that the baby is unable to eat properly. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to affect:
Your Answer: Touch
Correct Answer: Vision
Explanation:The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is the primary processor of visual information in the central nervous system. The LGN receives information directly from the retina and sends projections directly to the primary visual cortex. The LGN likely helps the visual system focus its attention on the most important information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A CT scan of 65 year old male patient at an outpatient clinic suggested a bone tumour at the stylomastoid foramen. Which of the following cranial nerves is likely to be affected with this tumour?
Your Answer: XII
Correct Answer: VII
Explanation:Cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve, is found in the internal acoustic canal and runs through this canal into the facial canal before exiting through the stylomastoid foramen. In the case of a bone tumour at the stylomastoid process, the facial nerve is the nerve that will most likely be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
