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  • Question 1 - Which one of the following statements regarding elderly advanced life support is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding elderly advanced life support is accurate?

      Your Answer: During a VF/VT cardiac arrest, adrenaline 1 mg is given after the first shock

      Correct Answer: Chest compressions should continue whilst the defibrillator is charged

      Explanation:

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      86.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father who has concerns about her motor development which are echoed by her daycare provider. There are no concerns about her speech and she is usually well apart from a few episodes of constipation in the past for which she has received laxatives. Neurological examination is normal. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness in the left upper quadrant.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      .

      Your Answer: Selective mutism

      Correct Answer: Glue ear

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children

      Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. Two common causes are glue ear and otosclerosis. Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear without acute inflammation. It can lead to conductive hearing loss, recurrent ear infections, speech delay, and behavioral problems. Children with Down syndrome and cleft palate are at higher risk of developing glue ear. On the other hand, otosclerosis is the abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear, resulting in gradual hearing loss in early adulthood.

      It is important to note that speech delay alone may not indicate autistic spectrum disorder. Children with this disorder typically exhibit issues with social interactions, non-verbal communication, and restrictive behaviors. In contrast, selective mutism is an anxiety disorder that causes a child to be unable to speak in certain situations. Impacted ear wax can also cause hearing loss or speech delay, but it can be diagnosed through ear examination.

      In summary, a child with recurrent earache and retracted tympanic membranes is more likely to have glue ear, especially if they have Down syndrome or cleft palate. It is important to monitor their development closely, especially if they also have a learning disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      81.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms and his colleagues have noticed a change in his facial appearance. He also reports difficulty driving due to difficulty seeing the sides of his visual fields.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders and Their Clinical Presentations

      Acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperthyroidism, and multiple sclerosis are all endocrine disorders that can present with various clinical features. Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone secretion and can lead to enlarged hands, coarse facial features, and bitemporal hemianopia. Cushing’s syndrome may present with central obesity, muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis, but visual dysfunction is not typical. Hyperprolactinaemia can cause amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea, but this presentation more closely fits with acromegaly. Hyperthyroidism may present with weight loss, tremor, and heat intolerance, but bitemporal hemianopia is not typical. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic inflammatory demyelination of the central nervous system and can present with various symptoms, but this patient’s presentation does not fit with features of multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman experiences a significant postpartum bleeding following the birth of her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences a significant postpartum bleeding following the birth of her twins. The obstetrician in charge examines her and suspects that uterine atony is the underlying cause. The standard protocol for managing major PPH is initiated, but bimanual uterine compression proves ineffective in controlling the bleeding. What medication would be a suitable next step in treating uterine atony?

      Your Answer: Intravenous oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony can be treated with various medical options such as oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost and misoprostol.

      Uterine atony is the primary cause of postpartum haemorrhage, which occurs when the uterus fails to contract fully after the delivery of the placenta, leading to difficulty in achieving haemostasis. This condition is often associated with overdistension, which can be caused by multiple gestation, macrosomia, polyhydramnios or other factors.

      In addition to the standard approach for managing PPH, including an ABC approach for unstable patients, the following steps should be taken in sequence:

      1. Bimanual uterine compression to stimulate contraction manually
      2. Intravenous oxytocin and/or ergometrine
      3. Intramuscular carboprost
      4. Intramyometrial carboprost
      5. Rectal misoprostol
      6. Surgical intervention such as balloon tamponade

      (RCOG Green-top Guideline No. 52)

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      27.6
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  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
      Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The British Thoracic Society recommends using macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin or erythromycin as empirical treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in both children and adults if first-line β-lactam antibiotics are ineffective or in cases of severe disease. Atypical infections are often diagnosed late in the illness, making early targeted therapy difficult. M. pneumoniae pneumonia tends to occur in outbreaks in the UK, so being aware of these outbreaks can help guide treatment. Benzylpenicillin is used to treat various infections, including throat infections, otitis media, and cellulitis. Cefuroxime is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat susceptible infections caused by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including respiratory tract infections, Lyme disease, and urinary tract infections. Rifampicin is used in combination with other drugs to treat brucellosis, Legionnaires’ disease, serious staphylococcal infections, endocarditis, and tuberculosis. Co-trimoxazole is used to treat Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and can be administered orally for mild-to-moderate pneumonia or intravenously in dual therapy with steroids for severe pneumonia. It can also be used for PCP prophylaxis in HIV-positive patients, with primary prophylaxis recommended for those with a CD4 count of <£200 and secondary prophylaxis essential after the first infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is a factor that leads to cyanotic congenital heart disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a factor that leads to cyanotic congenital heart disease?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department experiencing an asthma attack. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man arrives at the emergency department experiencing an asthma attack. Despite being a known asthmatic, his condition is usually well managed with a salbutamol inhaler. Upon assessment, his peak expiratory flow rate is at 50%, respiratory rate at 22/min, heart rate at 105/min, blood pressure at 128/64 mmHg, and temperature at 36.7 ºC. During examination, he appears distressed and unable to complete sentences. A chest examination reveals widespread wheezing and respiratory distress.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Life-threatening asthma attack

      Correct Answer: Severe asthma attack

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 47-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a productive cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a productive cough and fever. He has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus, gout, dyspepsia, and had a renal transplant 3 years ago. His current medications include azathioprine, allopurinol, and omeprazole. He drinks 25 units of alcohol a week and has done so for the past decade.

      His vital signs are as follows:
      Respiratory rate of 34 /min
      Pulse of 123 bpm
      Temperature of 39.4ºC
      Blood pressure of 84/56 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation of 94% on room air

      Blood results show:
      Hb 90 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Platelets 85 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 1.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Neuts 0.7 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      What drug interaction is likely responsible for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Azathioprine and chronic alcohol use

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine and allopurinol use

      Explanation:

      The use of allopurinol in combination with azathioprine can increase the risk of myelosuppression and neutropenic sepsis. This is because azathioprine is metabolized to its active form, 6-mercaptopurine, which is then metabolized by xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, leading to an accumulation of 6-mercaptopurine and an increased risk of myelosuppression. Chronic alcohol use and omeprazole use do not significantly increase the risk of myelosuppression when used with azathioprine or allopurinol.

      Allopurinol is a medication used to prevent gout by inhibiting xanthine oxidase. Traditionally, it was believed that urate-lowering therapy (ULT) should not be started until two weeks after an acute attack to avoid further attacks. However, the evidence supporting this is weak, and the British Society of Rheumatology (BSR) now recommends delaying ULT until inflammation has settled to make long-term drug decisions while the patient is not in pain. The initial dose of allopurinol is 100 mg once daily, with the dose titrated every few weeks to aim for a serum uric acid level of less than 300 µmol/l. Colchicine cover should be considered when starting allopurinol, and NSAIDs can be used if colchicine cannot be tolerated. ULT is recommended for patients with two or more attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

      The most significant adverse effects of allopurinol are dermatological, and patients should stop taking the medication immediately if they develop a rash. Severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR), drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS), and Stevens-Johnson syndrome are potential risks. Certain ethnic groups, such as the Chinese, Korean, and Thai people, are at an increased risk of these dermatological reactions. Patients at high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele. Allopurinol can interact with other medications, such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. Azathioprine is metabolized to the active compound 6-mercaptopurine, which is oxidized to 6-thiouric acid by xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine, so a much-reduced dose must be used if the combination cannot be avoided. Allopurinol also reduces renal clearance of cyclophosphamide, which may cause marrow toxicity. Additionally, allopurinol causes an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline by inhibiting its breakdown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department by the police after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department by the police after being arrested in a local bar for odd and aggressive behaviour. Whilst taking a history she tells you that she can't understand why she has been arrested as she was just celebrating the fact that she has recently figured out how to solve world hunger and she wants to share this with everyone. You struggle to keep up with her pace of speech and throughout the consultation, she is aggressive and at times sexually inappropriate. An initial drug screen is clear and her bloods are unremarkable.
      What is the most likely cause of her behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Manic episode

      Explanation:

      The woman is exhibiting clear indications of a manic episode, including rapid speech, uninhibited behavior, and grandiose delusions. Tests for drugs and alcohol have ruled out intoxication or drug-induced psychosis. Schizophrenia is unlikely as a first-time diagnosis, and the symptoms suggest mania or bipolar disorder. However, a diagnosis of bipolar disorder cannot be made without evidence of depressive symptoms. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is an isolated manic episode of unknown origin.

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.

      Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.

      Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman visits her general practice surgery to discuss her plans to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her general practice surgery to discuss her plans to become pregnant. She is taking medication for hypertension but is otherwise fit and well. She has not had any previous pregnancies.
      On examination, her blood pressure (BP) is 120/78 mmHg.
      Which of the following drugs can this patient continue to take during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Nifedipine is a medication that blocks calcium channels and is recommended as a second-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy or pre-eclampsia if labetalol is not effective or well-tolerated. If a woman is already taking nifedipine and has good blood pressure control, it is advisable to continue this treatment throughout pregnancy, with regular monitoring of blood pressure. Women with chronic hypertension are at risk of developing pre-eclampsia and should take 75-150 mg aspirin daily from 12 weeks gestation.

      Bendroflumethiazide and other thiazide diuretics should not be taken during pregnancy as they are associated with various adverse effects on the fetus. Beta-blockers, except for labetalol, increase the risk of intrauterine growth restriction, neonatal hypoglycemia, and bradycardia. Therefore, the use of any beta-blockers during pregnancy, except for labetalol, should be avoided. Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are contraindicated in pregnancy as they can cause serious harm to the fetus. Women who become pregnant while taking ARBs or ACE inhibitors should stop taking them immediately and be prescribed a safer alternative antihypertensive medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of thyroid disorder presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of thyroid disorder presents to the clinic with concerns about darkened skin on her neck.
      Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Acanthosis Nigricans: A condition characterized by darkened patches of thickened skin, often described as velvet-like. It is usually benign but can sometimes be associated with underlying autoimmune conditions or gastric cancer.

      Dermatitis: Inflammation of the skin that can cause blistering, oozing, crusting, or flaking. Examples include eczema, dandruff, and rashes caused by contact with certain substances.

      Hidradenitis Suppurativa: A chronic condition that affects the apocrine glands in skin folds, causing painful nodules that can develop into pustules and eventually rupture. Scarring is common.

      Intertrigo: An inflammatory condition of skin folds caused by friction, often leading to secondary bacterial or fungal infections. Commonly found in the groin, axillae, and inframammary folds.

      Cowden’s Syndrome: An autosomal dominant condition characterized by hair follicle tumors, a cobblestone appearance of the oral epithelium, oral papillomas, and multiple skin tags. Associated with a high incidence of breast, thyroid, and gastrointestinal cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 12-year-old boy is presented for surgery by his mother. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is presented for surgery by his mother. He has been experiencing pain in his distal right thigh for the past two weeks, which worsens when he runs. Upon examination, he is found to be overweight and has full mobility in his right knee. He can fully flex his right hip, but internal rotation causes discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children

      Hip problems in children can be caused by a variety of conditions. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examinations and can be identified through positive Barlow’s and Ortolani’s tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain and viral infections.

      Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can cause hip pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is another condition that typically affects children aged 10-15 years, particularly those who are obese or male. It can cause knee or thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which affects four or fewer joints, is the most common type and can cause joint pain and swelling, as well as a limp. Finally, septic arthritis is an acute condition that causes hip pain and systemic upset, such as fever and severe limitation of the affected joint.

      Overall, hip problems in children can have a variety of causes and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 9-month-old boy is presented to the GP with a 4-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old boy is presented to the GP with a 4-week history of rash. He has no significant medical history and is meeting developmental milestones appropriately. He has received all of his scheduled immunizations, has no known allergies, and is feeding and urinating well. Upon examination, there is a symmetrical, poorly defined erythematous rash on his elbows and knees. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eczema

      Explanation:

      Atopic eczema commonly appears in children before the age of 2, with symptoms often affecting the face and extensor surfaces of the body. This patient’s visible dermatitis in the extensor aspects of her body suggests a diagnosis of atopic eczema based on clinical presentation. Impetigo, pemphigus vulgaris, and psoriasis are unlikely diagnoses given the patient’s symmetrical dry rash involving the extensor aspects of the limbs.

      Eczema in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The symptoms of eczema include an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, it typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, the rash is more commonly seen on the flexor surfaces and in the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams are absorbed into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. Overall, managing eczema in children involves a combination of avoiding irritants, using emollients, and potentially using topical steroids or other medications in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test vaginal pH

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:

      1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.

      2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.

      3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.

      4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.

      5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.

      In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a painless lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a painless lump in her left breast. After undergoing triple assessment, she is diagnosed with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer and her oncologist prescribes anastrozole as treatment. What potential risks may this medication pose for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, may lead to the development of osteoporosis. This medication is commonly used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women by reducing the production of peripheral oestrogen. However, patients taking this medication are at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis. On the other hand, selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERM) like tamoxifen may cause amenorrhoea, endometrial cancer, vaginal bleeding, and venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is typically used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in pre-menopausal women.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy reports an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy reports an itchy rash around her belly button during an antenatal check-up. She had no such issues during her previous pregnancy. Upon examination, blistering lesions are observed in the peri-umbilical area and on her arms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis

      Explanation:

      Blistering is not a characteristic of polymorphic eruption of pregnancy.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common one is atopic eruption of pregnancy, which is characterized by an itchy red rash. This condition does not require any specific treatment. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, which is a pruritic condition that usually appears during the last trimester. The lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on the severity of the condition. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that causes pruritic blistering lesions. It usually develops in the peri-umbilical region and later spreads to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This condition is rarely seen in the first pregnancy and usually presents in the second or third trimester. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A father brings his 18-month-old son in for review. He started walking five...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 18-month-old son in for review. He started walking five months ago. The father has noticed that his son seems to be 'bow-legged' when he walks.

      Examination of the knees and hips is unremarkable with a full range of movement. Leg length is equal. On standing the intercondylar distance is around 7cm.

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure that it is a normal variant and likely to resolve by the age of 4 years

      Explanation:

      It is common for children under the age of 3 to have bow legs, which is considered a normal variation. Typically, this condition resolves on its own by the time the child reaches 4 years old.

      Common Lower Limb Variants in Children

      Parents often become concerned when they notice apparent abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This can lead to a visit to their primary care physician and a referral to secondary care. However, many of these presentations are actually normal variants that will resolve on their own.

      One common variant is flat feet, where the child’s medial arch is absent when standing. This typically resolves between the ages of 4-8 years and does not require orthotics. In-toeing is another common presentation, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. Most cases resolve spontaneously, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, is another normal variant that presents in the first or second year of life. This is characterized by an increased intercondylar distance and typically resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, presents in the third or fourth year of life and is characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This also typically resolves spontaneously.

      Overall, it is important for parents to be aware of these common lower limb variants in children and to seek medical advice if they have concerns. However, in many cases, parental reassurance and monitoring is all that is needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman is referred to the clinic for evaluation. She is in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is referred to the clinic for evaluation. She is in her first month of pregnancy and has been experiencing excessive morning sickness. Her routine blood work revealed an ALT level of 64 iu/l (reference range 20–60 iu/l) and a total bilirubin level of 30 μmol/l (reference range < 20 μmol/l). Additionally, her potassium level was 3.4 (reference range 3.5–5.0 mEq/l) and her urea level was 7.5 (reference range 2.5–7.1 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum

      Explanation:

      Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis

      During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, each with its own set of symptoms and potential complications. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy and their distinguishing features:

      1. Hyperemesis gravidarum: This is the most severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, which can lead to weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is characterised by persistent nausea and vomiting, and may require hospitalisation.

      2. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy: This is a rare but serious complication that can occur in the third trimester. It is characterised by microvesicular steatosis in the liver, which can lead to liver insufficiency. Symptoms include malaise, nausea and vomiting, right upper quadrant and epigastric pain, and acute renal failure.

      3. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy: This is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, characterised by generalised itching, particularly in the palms and soles, and jaundice. It is caused by hormonal changes and can lead to fetal complications if not treated promptly.

      4. Pre-eclampsia: This is a disorder of widespread vascular malfunction that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is characterised by hypertension and proteinuria, with or without oedema.

      5. Biliary tract disease: This is a broad spectrum of disorders ranging from asymptomatic gallstones to cholecystitis and choledocholithiasis. Symptoms include biliary colic, inflammation of the gall bladder wall, and obstruction of the common bile duct.

      It is important to differentiate between these liver disorders in pregnancy, as each requires a different approach to management and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 19 - Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. What is true about this type of cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The tumour is confined to myometrial invasion in stage 1 of the FIGO staging system.

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endometrial Cancer: Causes, Stages, and Treatment Options

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. It is the most common female genital cancer in the developing world, and an estimated 3% of women in developed countries will be diagnosed with this malignancy at some point in their lifetime. Here are some key points to understand about endometrial cancer:

      Causes:
      – It is more common among women using progestogen-containing oral contraceptives.
      – Non-hormonal uterine devices have also been found to be strongly protective.
      – There are two pathogenic types of endometrial cancer, one of which is associated with obesity, hyperlipidaemia, signs of hyperoestrogenism, and other disease states.

      Stages:
      – The FIGO staging system is used to determine the stage of endometrial cancer.
      – Staging is the most important prognostic factor.
      – The earlier endometrial cancer is diagnosed, the higher the rate of survival at 5 years.

      Treatment:
      – Standard management of endometrial cancer at diagnosis involves surgery, followed by chemotherapy with or without radiation therapy.
      – It is most effectively treated by a combination of radiotherapy and hormone-based chemotherapy.
      – The prognosis varies depending on the stage and type of endometrial cancer.

      Overall, understanding the causes, stages, and treatment options for endometrial cancer is important for early detection and effective management of this malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 20 - You are a foundation year two doctor in general practice. Eighteen days ago...

    Incorrect

    • You are a foundation year two doctor in general practice. Eighteen days ago you reviewed a twenty-three-year-old complaining of posterior heel pain with morning pain and stiffness. He has a past medical history of asthma and anxiety. The symptoms are exacerbated with activity. You advised him to rest and take simple analgesia, however, his symptoms have not eased. He is anxious to step up his treatment.

      What is the next management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physio

      Explanation:

      The recommended approach for managing Achilles tendonitis is to advise the patient to rest, take NSAIDs, and seek physiotherapy if symptoms persist beyond 7 days. However, it is important to note that ibuprofen should be avoided in patients with asthma. Simply reiterating the need for rest may not address the patient’s desire for more aggressive treatment options. Referring the patient to orthopaedics would not be appropriate, but a referral to rheumatology may be considered if the symptoms do not improve. While steroids may provide some benefit, the evidence is mixed and injecting them directly into the tendon can increase the risk of tendon rupture.

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 21 - A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the memory clinic with a history of cognitive decline over the past 10 months. His wife reports that he is struggling with basic tasks and becoming increasingly forgetful and confused. She has also noticed a change in his personality, including more frequent swearing and inappropriate behavior such as answering the door naked. Interestingly, his mother had a similar reputation in her later years. The patient reports smoking 20 cigarettes per day and drinking one glass of wine each evening. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from frontotemporal dementia, which is also known as Pick’s disease. This type of dementia is characterized by a change in personality and social disinhibition, and it often has a positive family history. In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease typically presents with a decline in episodic memory and visuospatial awareness, while Lewy body dementia is characterized by fluctuating confusion and hallucinations. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare condition that causes rapid neurodegeneration and may present with cognitive decline and personality changes, as well as additional symptoms such as abnormal movements and loss of coordination.

      Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia. Common features of frontotemporal lobar dementias include onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems.

      Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease. Macroscopic changes seen in Pick’s disease include atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. Microscopic changes include Pick bodies, spherical aggregations of tau protein (silver-staining), gliosis, neurofibrillary tangles, and senile plaques.

      In contrast, CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, with short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.

      In terms of management, NICE does not recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing a high fever and excessive sweating. During the examination, multiple black blisters are observed, which are producing a malodorous discharge. What is the typical microorganism linked to this ailment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium perfringens

      Explanation:

      Gas gangrene is a severe bacterial infection that can lead to muscle necrosis, sepsis, gas production, and ultimately, death. The infection can occur in two ways: through traumatic or surgical inoculation of a wound with bacteria, or spontaneously, which is often observed in immunocompromised patients. While there are multiple causes of gas gangrene, clostridium perfringens, a type of clostridia species, is frequently implicated. The condition typically begins with pain and progresses to systemic symptoms such as fever and dehydration. Skin changes, including blisters that can burst and produce a foul-smelling discharge, are also common. Movement may produce a crackling sound known as crepitus.

      Clostridia: Gram-Positive Anaerobic Bacilli

      Clostridia are a group of gram-positive, obligate anaerobic bacilli. There are several species of Clostridia, each with their own unique features and pathologies. C. perfringens produces α-toxin, a lecithinase, which can cause gas gangrene and haemolysis. Symptoms of gas gangrene include tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic blebs and bullae, and crepitus may be present on palpation. C. botulinum is typically found in canned foods and honey and can cause flaccid paralysis by preventing the release of acetylcholine. C. difficile is known for causing pseudomembranous colitis, which is often seen after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. This species produces both an exotoxin and a cytotoxin. Finally, C. tetani produces an exotoxin called tetanospasmin, which prevents the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, leading to spastic paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 23 - A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the day and difficulty performing everyday tasks. He was recently treated for a UTI with ciprofloxacin. His father has a history of diabetes, but is unsure of the type. He drinks about 8 units of alcohol per week. Fasting plasma glucose is 17.1 mmol/L (3.9-5.6), ketone bodies are 0.4 mmol/L (< 0.6 mmol/L), and C-peptide level is 2.87 ng/mL (0.51-2.72). What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes can be achieved through the measurement of C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies.

      Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus

      Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.

      The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.

      Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 24 - Sophie, a 23-years old woman, visits her doctor complaining of frequent nosebleeds and...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 23-years old woman, visits her doctor complaining of frequent nosebleeds and unexplained bruising on her arms and legs. She mentions that her mother has also experienced similar issues but never sought medical attention. As a result, the doctor orders several blood tests to determine the most probable diagnosis.
      What kind of results would be anticipated based on the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged bleed time, normal platelet count, prolonged APTT

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a common genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder because von Willebrand Factor (vWF) is necessary for platelet adhesion to the damaged endothelium. As a result, patients experience mucocutaneous bleeding after minor injuries, such as nosebleeds and bruising. Bleeding time is prolonged because they cannot adhere to form the platelet plug, but the platelet count itself is normal. APTT is also prolonged because vWF acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII, which is measured by APTT. This is also observed in haemophilia A, but to a greater extent.

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.

      There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with persistent bloody diarrhoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with persistent bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and fever. She has a history of Crohn's disease and is suspected to be experiencing an acute flare. Methotrexate is prescribed as part of her treatment. What potential side-effect should be monitored for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate has the potential to cause pneumonitis, which is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. Failure to promptly identify and treat pneumonitis can result in permanent lung damage. Therefore, the British National Formulary advises patients to seek medical attention if they experience any of these symptoms, and physicians should monitor for signs of pneumonitis during each visit and discontinue the medication if it is suspected. It should be noted that acute respiratory distress syndrome is not a known side effect of methotrexate.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man who is being treated for schizophrenia with chlorpromazine experiences involuntary...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who is being treated for schizophrenia with chlorpromazine experiences involuntary puckering of the lips. Which side effect of antipsychotic medication does this exemplify?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia can be caused by antipsychotics.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using cotton buds to clean his ears earlier today and experienced a sharp pain during the process. He now has slightly reduced hearing in his left ear. The patient reports no discharge and is in good health otherwise.

      All of the patient's vital signs are normal. Upon examination of the left ear, a small perforation in the tympanic membrane is observed. There is no discharge or redness in the ear, and the ear canal is dry. The cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.

      What is the next best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure patient and review in 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an uncomplicated tympanic membrane perforation that is dry, they can be managed with watchful waiting for a month without needing to see an ENT specialist. These perforations can occur due to various reasons such as blunt trauma, penetrating injuries, or barotrauma. Typically, the perforation will heal on its own within 4-8 weeks. However, patients should schedule a follow-up appointment after 4 weeks to ensure that the perforation is healing properly. If the patient experiences increasing ear pain, discharge, or worsening hearing loss, they should see their GP. During the examination, the patient should undergo a full examination, including otoscopy, cranial nerve examination, and Rinne/Weber tests. If there are any cranial nerve deficits, the patient should discuss them with an ENT specialist. Patients should keep their ears clean and dry, and topical antibiotics are not recommended for clean, dry perforations. If there are any signs of infection or contamination, topical antibiotics may be given. In cases where the patient has more complex issues such as temporal bone fractures or slowly healing perforations, they may need to be reviewed by an ENT specialist in an emergency clinic. If the perforation does not heal, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old hiker comes to you with complaints of fever, joint pain, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old hiker comes to you with complaints of fever, joint pain, and a red rash after being bitten by a tick during a recent hike. Upon examination, you find that his neurological and cardiovascular functions are normal. You suspect that he may have contracted Lyme disease and have ordered serology for Borrelia burgdorferi. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 day course of doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for early Lyme disease is a 14-21 day regimen of oral doxycycline. For non-disseminated Lyme disease, the first line treatment is a 14-day course of oral doxycycline, making option 2 the correct answer. Amoxicillin may be used if doxycycline is contraindicated, such as during pregnancy. Ceftriaxone is reserved for disseminated disease. Treatment should be initiated based on clinical suspicion, as serology may take several weeks to become positive.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease is interested in using sildenafil to treat his erectile dysfunction. Is there any medication that could potentially prohibit its use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicorandil

      Explanation:

      Nitrates and nicorandil are contraindicated with PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil due to the nitrate component in nicorandil and its additional function as a potassium channel activator.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 30 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on the side of his head by a cricket ball during a match. According to his teacher, he initially fell to the ground and complained of a sore head. However, he got up after two minutes, claimed to feel fine, and resumed playing. Unfortunately, after 30 minutes, he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What kind of injury is he likely to have suffered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Extradural (epidural) hematoma – Head injury with a lucid interval

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. Intra-cranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (1/3) 33%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Passmed