-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman has had type 2 diabetes for six years.
She is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2. There is no family history of diabetes and she is otherwise well. She is highly motivated to gain control of her diabetes. She has managed to lose about 4 kg in weight over the last year with a combination of calorie restriction and exercise; she enjoys swimming and yoga.
Her current medication is:
Metformin 500 mg qds
Gliclazide 80 mg daily
Aspirin 75 mg OD
She says she would prefer not to take any additional medication.
Her BP is 135/90 mmHg. She has a good record of self-monitoring of blood glucose with an average fasting glucose of about 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). She attends for review and her current HbA1c is 62 mmol/mol (7.8%).
What would be the best advice for this woman?Your Answer: Encourage further lifestyle changes
Correct Answer: Increase gliclazide
Explanation:Management of Type 2 Diabetes in Adults
According to NICE guidelines, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be based on the effectiveness, safety, and tolerability of drug treatment, as well as the individual’s clinical circumstances, preferences, and needs. In the case of a patient who has had success with lifestyle changes, adding anti-obesity treatment may not be the most appropriate option. Instead, strategies for maintaining the changes already made should be considered. Increasing the dosage of gliclazide may be a better option than increasing Metformin, which can often be difficult for patients to tolerate. However, careful monitoring is necessary as gliclazide can increase weight. Insulin is also an option, but only if the patient is not on maximum oral hypoglycaemic agents. Overall, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be tailored to the individual’s specific circumstances and needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit still and be quiet or get on with her work. She is equally troublesome at home and her mother cannot take her anywhere. She wonders if she has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about ADHD.Your Answer: Children must be both inattentive and hyperactive
Correct Answer: Some impairment from symptoms must be evident in two or more settings
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Comorbidities
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically observed in individuals at a comparable level of development. In the UK, ADHD affects between 2-5% of children, with boys being more commonly affected. Diagnosis is usually made in children aged 3-7 years, but it can also be recognized later in life.
To diagnose ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity and/or inattention should be present. However, the ICD-10 classification requires all three problems of attention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness to be present. About 70% of children with ADHD also have other conditions, such as learning difficulties, dyspraxia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD, and depression and anxiety are common comorbidities.
While about 1 in 3 children with ADHD can grow out of their condition and not require any treatment when they are adults, the remainder either continue with ADHD or retain some symptoms and functional impairment. Therefore, early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to improve outcomes for individuals with ADHD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 60-year-old man is terminally ill with carcinoma of the pancreas. He has abdominal and back pain and his analgesic combination of full doses of paracetamol and codeine is no longer controlling this.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?Your Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Pain Medication: A Guide to Opioids and Adjuvants
When it comes to managing pain, healthcare professionals often follow the World Health Organization’s analgesic ladder. This involves starting with non-opioid medications, such as paracetamol, and weak opioids, such as codeine, before moving on to stronger opioids like morphine if necessary.
In cases where bone pain or soft tissue infiltration is present, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen can be added as an adjuvant at any step in pain management. However, it is important to note that these adjuvants are unlikely to be a substitute for stronger opioids like morphine.
Dihydrocodeine and tramadol are both weak opioids and are therefore unlikely to provide significant pain relief in cases where stronger medication is needed. Amitriptyline, on the other hand, is an adjuvant typically used for neuropathic pain and is unlikely to be effective in this scenario.
For patients who require a strong opioid but are unable to take oral medication, fentanyl may be prescribed as a transdermal patch. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication and adjuvants will depend on the individual patient’s needs and the severity of their pain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot recall a specific injury but reports that the pain has been worsening for the past 2 months. He has experienced muscle spasms in his lower back over the last 48 hours, causing him significant discomfort and preventing him from working. He works in a warehouse and frequently engages in heavy lifting. He is overweight but has no other relevant medical history. There are no red flag symptoms of back pain.
What is a true statement about nonspecific lower back pain?Your Answer: 'StarT BACK' is an online risk stratification tool which can be used to assess a person with lower back pain
Explanation:The online tool ‘StarT BACK’ can be utilized to evaluate individuals with lower back pain who do not exhibit any red flags and determine modifiable risk factors.
When it comes to analgesia, NSAIDs are the preferred first-line treatment unless there are any contraindications. Diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period if muscle spasms are present.
It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or normal activities. The NICE CKS guidelines suggest encouraging the individual to stay active, gradually resuming normal activities, and returning to work as soon as possible. Prolonged bed rest is not recommended, and some pain may be experienced during movement, which should not be harmful if activities are resumed gradually and as tolerated. Occupational Health departments may assist in arranging work adjustments to facilitate an early return to work.
To reduce the risk of recurrence, it is essential to remain as active as possible and engage in regular exercise. Unfortunately, individuals who have experienced low back pain may experience repeated episodes of recurrence and develop acute on chronic symptoms.
Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes
Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to nonspecific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.
There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.
In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
You see a 60-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly 2 weeks ago. He says that it is uncomfortable and painful. He has no other relevant past medical history. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day.
On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like veins. It is separate from his right testicle and situated above it. The swelling is palpable when standing and lying down.
You discuss the fact that you think this is a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?Your Answer: Varicoceles are not associated with infertility
Correct Answer: This patient requires urgent referral to a urologist
Explanation:According to NICE, varicocele is present in approximately 40% of men who are diagnosed with infertility. However, it is not recommended to refer men with a left-sided varicocele for ultrasonography as a routine measure to detect any underlying tumor.
Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.
Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.
In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK is inaccurate?
Your Answer: The health visitor distraction test is the first screening test done on infants hearing
Explanation:The primary screening test for infant hearing is now the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme, which is replacing distraction testing. Midwives rarely conduct visits beyond 4 weeks in their daily routine.
Child Health Surveillance in the UK
Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to Preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. After birth, a clinical examination is conducted, and the newborn hearing screening programme is carried out to detect any hearing problems. The mother is also given a Personal Child Health Record.
Within the first month, a heel-prick test is conducted to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks. In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is conducted at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time.
Preschool children are screened for vision problems through a national orthoptist-led programme. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention. Although midwife visits are supposed to occur up to four weeks after birth, in practice, health visitors usually take over at two weeks. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and support for their physical and developmental well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 21-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her parents. They are concerned about uncharacteristic behaviour since she left home to attend university. They ask whether she could have developed schizophrenia.
Which of the following symptoms in this patient would be most concerning for schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Understanding Schneider’s First-Rank Symptoms in Schizophrenia
Schneider’s first-rank symptoms are a set of symptoms that are highly indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are rare in other psychotic illnesses, making them a key diagnostic tool for identifying schizophrenia. The first-rank symptoms include auditory hallucinations, such as hearing one’s own thoughts echoed or hearing voices referring to oneself in the third person. Other symptoms include thought removal, insertion, and interruption, thought broadcasting, somatic hallucinations, delusional perception, and feelings, thoughts, or actions being under external control.
In addition to the first-rank symptoms, there are also second-rank symptoms that can be present in schizophrenia. These include other disorders of perception, sudden delusional ideas, perplexity, low or euphoric mood changes, and feelings of emotional impoverishment. Schneider believed that even in the absence of first-rank symptoms, a diagnosis of schizophrenia could be made based on second-rank symptoms and a typical clinical appearance.
One unique symptom of schizophrenia is delusional perception, which occurs in two stages. First, the individual experiences a normal perception, such as seeing traffic lights turn red. Then, they interpret this perception in a delusional way, such as believing that the red traffic lights are a sign that they are the devil and someone is trying to kill them.
It’s important to note that cognitive impairment is a feature of dementia, not schizophrenia. Additionally, hyperactivity is more commonly associated with mania than schizophrenia. Understanding the specific symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly the first-rank symptoms, can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old recently divorced woman has been a frequent consulter with different physical symptoms. You suspect she may be suffering from a generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
Select from the list the problem that is least likely to be due to GAD.Your Answer: Palpitations
Correct Answer: Eczematous rash
Explanation:The Relationship Between Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Eczematous Rash
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is not typically the direct cause of an eczematous rash, but it can exacerbate itching and scratching. Patients with GAD may experience a range of physical symptoms, including autonomic arousal symptoms like palpitations, sweating, shaking, and dry mouth. Chest and abdominal symptoms, such as choking, dyspnea, chest pain, nausea, and discomfort, are also common. Other symptoms may include dizziness, hot flashes, tingling, aches and pains, or a lump in the throat with difficulty swallowing (not true dysphagia).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman is being investigated for jaundice. She first noticed this symptom 2 months ago, but for 4 months previously, had been experiencing generalised pruritus. The results of liver function tests are as follows:
Investigations:
Investigations Results Normal value
Serum bilirubin 325 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Aspartate aminotransaminase 55 U/l 15–42 U/l
Alkaline phosphatase 436 U/l 80–150 U/l
Y-glutamyltransferase 82 U/l 11–51 U/
Albumin 36 g/l 30-50 g/l
Total protein 82 g/l 60-80 g/l
Select from the list the single MOST LIKELY diagnosis.Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Elevated Alkaline Phosphatase Concentration
The elevated alkaline phosphatase concentration in a patient suggests cholestatic jaundice. However, the underlying cause of this condition may vary. Alcoholic cirrhosis is a common cause, but it is unlikely in this case due to the only slightly elevated γ-glutamyltransferase. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare tumor that can cause obstructive cholestasis. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is another possible cause, which often presents with weight loss. Autoimmune liver disease is also a possibility, indicated by a high globulin concentration. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a potential diagnosis, but it is more common in men and often associated with inflammatory bowel disease. On the other hand, primary biliary cholangitis is more common in women. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the elevated alkaline phosphatase concentration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.
What condition is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gonadal dysgenesis
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 6-month-old child is diagnosed with napkin/nappy rash.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment of mild napkin rash?Your Answer: Topical betamethasone
Correct Answer: Exposure to air
Explanation:Understanding Napkin Rash
Napkin rash, also known as nappy rash, is a common skin condition that affects infants. It is caused by a variety of factors, including contact dermatitis, bacterial and fungal infections, psoriasis, and atopic dermatitis. The condition is often worsened by infantile eczema, but it is not an indicator of the condition.
The primary cause of napkin rash is ammonia from urine, which can burn the skin. To prevent the condition, it is important to change nappies frequently and feed infants fluids early in the day to reduce night-time urination. Antifungal lotions may also be useful in treating the condition.
Overall, understanding the causes and prevention of napkin rash is essential for parents and caregivers to ensure the comfort and health of infants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 30-year-old myopic woman came in with complaints of a red right eye, accompanied by dull ocular pain, photophobia, and blurry vision. The affected eye also had some epiphora, but no ocular discharge was observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute anterior uveitis
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis: Acute Anterior Uveitis
The patient’s history doesn’t indicate infective conjunctivitis. Additionally, acute keratitis is unlikely as there are no known risk factors such as contact lens wear or eye injury. Moreover, keratitis typically causes sharp pain rather than a dull ache. The main symptom reported by the patient is vision disturbance, which is a key feature of acute anterior uveitis. Therefore, this condition should be considered as a possible diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures due to osteoporosis is worried about her own risk. What is the best method to evaluate her risk?
Your Answer: Check her calcium and phosphate levels
Correct Answer: Assess her using the FRAX tool
Explanation:Although radiographs can reveal osteopenia, they are insufficient for accurately assessing the extent of osteopenia/osteoporosis. Normal calcium and phosphate levels are observed in osteoporosis.
The tool for Birmingham Hip Score doesn’t exist.
Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.
NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.
Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.
NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 31-year-old woman reports that she recently had anaphylaxis due to a peanut allergy. She asks you about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis.
Which of the following pieces of information about immunotherapy for anaphylaxis is correct?Your Answer: Injections can be self-administered at home
Correct Answer: Gradually increasing amounts of allergen are injected
Explanation:Hyposensitisation: Gradual Exposure to Allergens for Allergy Treatment
Hyposensitisation, also known as immunotherapy, is a treatment that involves gradually exposing a patient to increasing amounts of an allergen to reduce or eliminate their allergic response. The British National Formulary recommends this treatment for seasonal allergic hay fever and hypersensitivity to wasp and bee venoms that have not responded to anti-allergic drugs. However, it should be used with caution in patients with asthma.
The treatment typically lasts four weeks and can be administered through different dosing schedules, including conventional, modified rush, and rush. In a conventional schedule, injections are given weekly for 12 weeks, with the interval increasing stepwise to two, three, then four weeks. Maintenance treatment is then continued four weekly for at least three years.
Immunotherapy is recommended for patients with a history of severe systemic reactions or moderate systemic reactions with additional risk factors, such as a high serum tryptase or a high risk of stings, or whose quality of life is reduced by fear of venom allergy. Skin testing can be done, and measuring allergen-specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies is less sensitive.
Patients need referral to an immunotherapy specialist, and injections can be self-administered at home. However, a healthcare professional who can recognize and treat anaphylaxis should be present at the time of injection, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation facilities should be available. The patient should be observed for one hour after injection, and any symptoms, even if mild, need to be monitored until they resolve.
While local or systemic reactions may occur, including anaphylaxis, major side-effects are not a significant risk. However, risks are higher in people with asthma. Overall, hyposensitisation can be an effective treatment for allergies that have not responded to other therapies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A father brings his twelve-year-old daughter to see you in your GP practice as she has been struggling with sports at school. She has been complaining of steadily worsening pain, which is vaguely located above her right knee, for the past two weeks. Her father says that this has been particularly upsetting for her as she has been trying to lose weight. She is systemically well otherwise. Examination of the right knee joint is normal as is neurological examination of the lower limbs.
What is the most crucial diagnosis to rule out?Your Answer: Chondromalacia patellae
Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped capital femoral epiphysis can be difficult to diagnose as it can present insidiously and sometimes only with referred knee pain. Therefore, a high level of suspicion is necessary to avoid potential legal issues. It is crucial to rule out this condition with a hip x-ray. On the other hand, Osgood-Schlatter disease usually causes lower knee pain and tenderness over the tibial apophysis, while chondromalacia patellae typically results in anterior knee pain and can be treated conservatively with physiotherapy and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that is typically seen in children between the ages of 10 and 15 years. It is more common in obese children and boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or more commonly with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The features of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain, as well as loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In 20% of cases, a bilateral slip may occur. To diagnose this condition, AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views are used.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis involves internal fixation, typically with a single cannulated screw placed in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that can cause significant pain and discomfort in children. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and ensure a good outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Samantha is a 50-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is currently undergoing chemotherapy. She presents to you with a 3-week history of constipation and nausea. Samantha has been struggling to cope and has been feeling increasingly sad and depressed. She has also noticed that her arms and legs have been aching more than usual. You order a routine set of blood tests:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 110 g/L
Platelets: 320 * 109/L
White blood cells (WBC): 3.8 * 109/L
Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L
Potassium (K+): 4.5 mmol/L
Urea: 5.9 mmol/L
Creatinine: 75 µmol/L
Corrected calcium (Ca2+): 3.1 mmol/L
Albumin: 32 g/L
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 95 U/L
Phosphate: 1.1 mmol/L
What would be the most appropriate course of action for Samantha's management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit immediately
Explanation:Fred is experiencing symptomatic metastatic hypercalcaemia, which requires immediate admission for intravenous fluids and bisphosphonate therapy according to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS). The symptoms of hypercalcaemia can be nonspecific and include bone pain, fractures, drowsiness, muscle weakness, impaired concentration, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, constipation, renal colic, hypertension, and itching, among others. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia can lead to serious complications such as renal impairment, cardiac arrhythmias, and even coma. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential to prevent further harm.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia can be managed through various methods. The first step is to rehydrate the patient with normal saline, usually at a rate of 3-4 litres per day. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates can be administered. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximum effect seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option that can be used for quicker effect than bisphosphonates. In cases of sarcoidosis, steroids may also be used. However, loop diuretics such as furosemide should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion. They are typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates, calcitonin, or steroids in certain cases. Loop diuretics may also be used, but with caution. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
You receive a clinic letter from psychiatry regarding a 65-year-old patient who you referred with severe depression. The psychiatrist would like you to switch from fluoxetine to venlafaxine (a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor).
What is the most appropriate way to make this change?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cross-taper sertraline and imipramine
Explanation:Cross-tapering is recommended when switching from an SSRI to a TCA to avoid interactions and the risk of serotonin syndrome. Completing withdrawal of sertraline without introducing imipramine is not advised. Direct switch and waiting periods are not appropriate. Waiting 7 days is only necessary when switching from fluoxetine to a TCA.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep pain during intercourse. Examination of the abdomen and pelvis was unremarkable. A recent GUM check-up and transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scan were normal. She is not keen to have any invasive tests at present.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NSAIDs
Explanation:Management of Endometriosis-Related Pain and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
When it comes to managing endometriosis-related pain, a trial of paracetamol or an NSAID (alone or in combination) is recommended as first-line treatment. If this proves ineffective, other forms of pain management, including neuropathic pain treatment, should be considered. Hormonal treatment, such as COCP and POP, is also a sensible first-line option for women with suspected or confirmed endometriosis.
For pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), metronidazole + ofloxacin is often used as first-line treatment. However, there is no indication of this from the patient’s history. Referral to gynaecology would not add much at this stage, as they would likely offer the same options. Additionally, the patient is not keen on any surgical intervention at this point, which would include laparoscopy.
It’s important to note that GnRH agonists are not routinely started in primary care. They are sometimes started by gynaecology as an adjunct to surgery for deep endometriosis. Overall, a tailored approach to management is necessary for both endometriosis-related pain and PID, taking into account the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor. His movements seem slower and he has cog-wheel rigidity when his arms are flexed and extended.
Which of the following is most likely to cause these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conventional antipsychotics
Explanation:Comparison of Medications and their Side Effects
When it comes to medication, it is important to understand the potential side effects that may occur. In this case, the patient is experiencing a tremor and excessive urination and thirst. Let’s compare the potential causes of these symptoms based on different types of medication.
Conventional Antipsychotics:
Common extrapyramidal side-effects include dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. It is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent.Atypical Antipsychotics:
Atypical antipsychotics have low rates of causing extrapyramidal side effects and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.Lithium:
Excessive urination and thirst are common side effects associated with lithium, with rates up to 70% in long-term patients who are treated with it. However, it is not known to cause extrapyramidal side effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor:
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors typically cause headache, dry mouth, insomnia, and restlessness. However, it is more likely that this patient’s symptoms are caused by a drug such as an atypical antipsychotic, which more commonly causes extrapyramidal side effects such as a tremor.Tricyclic Antidepressants:
Tricyclic antidepressants typically cause antimuscarinic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention. They do not usually cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.In conclusion, based on the symptoms described, it is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis presents with proteinuria during her yearly check-up. Which medication is most commonly linked to the occurrence of proteinuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gold
Explanation:Causes of Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by the presence of protein in the urine, low levels of protein in the blood, high levels of cholesterol, and swelling in different parts of the body. The causes of nephrotic syndrome can be classified into primary glomerulonephritis, systemic disease, drugs, and others.
Primary glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome, accounting for around 80% of cases. The different types of primary glomerulonephritis include minimal change glomerulonephritis, membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.
Systemic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, systemic lupus erythematosus, and amyloidosis can also cause nephrotic syndrome, accounting for about 20% of cases. Certain drugs like gold and penicillamine can also lead to the development of nephrotic syndrome.
Other causes of nephrotic syndrome include congenital factors, neoplasia such as carcinoma, lymphoma, leukaemia, myeloma, and infections like bacterial endocarditis, hepatitis B, and malaria.
The diagram shows the different types of glomerulonephritis and how they typically present. Understanding the underlying cause of nephrotic syndrome is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old lady has had a borderline smear which tests positive for Human papillomavirus.
What is the most appropriate next step, based on UK guidance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:Referral for Colposcopy in HPV Positive and Abnormal Cytology Cases
According to national guidelines and summarised in NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, individuals who test positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and have abnormal cytology should be referred for colposcopy. This means that if a woman has a borderline smear and is also HPV positive, she should be referred for colposcopy.
In this case, we have a 45-year-old female who would normally have cervical smears every 3 years. However, due to the presence of HPV positive and borderline smear, she requires further investigation through colposcopy. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of any potential cervical abnormalities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor feeding. The baby was born at 37 weeks gestation without any complications. No central cyanosis is observed, but the baby has a slightly elevated heart rate, rapid breathing, and high blood pressure in the upper extremities. Oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on air. Upon chest auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Additionally, the baby has weak bilateral femoral pulses. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta: A Narrowing of the Descending Aorta
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that affects the descending aorta, causing it to narrow. This condition is more common in males, despite its association with Turner’s syndrome. In infancy, coarctation of the aorta can lead to heart failure, while in adults, it can cause hypertension. Other features of this condition include radio-femoral delay, a mid systolic murmur that is maximal over the back, and an apical click from the aortic valve. Notching of the inferior border of the ribs, which is caused by collateral vessels, is not seen in young children. Coarctation of the aorta is often associated with other conditions, such as bicuspid aortic valve, berry aneurysms, and neurofibromatosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her heart failure treatment.
She has a blood pressure reading of 165/90 mmHg. At present, she is taking furosemide and aspirin, and she feels short of breath when walking uphill.
What would be the best medication to include in her treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:First Line Treatments for Heart Failure
ACE inhibitors and beta blockers are the primary medications used in the treatment of heart failure. The SOLVD and CONSENSUS trials have shown that ACE inhibitors are a cornerstone in the management of heart failure. It has been proven that higher doses of ACE inhibitors provide greater benefits. These medications are generally well-tolerated, particularly in mild cases. If ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, an ARB can be used as an alternative. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists are also recommended as a first-line treatment for heart failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old factory machine operator is seen with recent onset hearing difficulties. He has had a hearing test done via a private company and has brought the result of his pure tone audiometry in to show you.
Which of the following audiogram findings would most suggest he has early noise-induced hearing loss?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A notch of hearing loss between 3 and 6 kHz with recovery at higher frequencies
Explanation:Patterns of Hearing Loss Revealed by Pure Tone Audiometry
Pure tone audiometry is a valuable tool for identifying patterns of hearing loss. A normal individual will have hearing thresholds above 20 dBHL across all frequencies. Meniere’s disease typically shows hearing loss at lower frequencies, while presbyacusis often presents with high frequency loss in a ‘ski slope’ pattern.
Early noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) is usually characterized by a notch between 3 and 6 kHz, with recovery at higher frequencies. If presbyacusis is also present, the notch may be less prominent and appear more like a ‘bulge.’ NIHL is typically bilateral, but it can occur unilaterally in activities such as shooting. As NIHL progresses, the notch seen in early disease may disappear, and there may be increasing hearing loss at all frequencies, most notably at higher frequencies, which can sometimes be difficult to differentiate from presbyacusis.
In summary, pure tone audiometry can reveal various patterns of hearing loss, which can aid in the diagnosis and management of different types of hearing disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile dysfunction. His wife notes that he has a constant tan and lacks energy. He also reports experiencing hand pains. What investigation is most likely to uncover the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:To screen for haemochromatosis in the general population, a transferrin saturation level higher than ferritin is used. For family members, HFE genetic testing is recommended. It is important to note that while the patient in question is experiencing symptoms associated with haemochromatosis, diabetes mellitus alone would not typically result in decreased libido.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which of the following investigations is the most crucial for diagnosing degenerative cervical myelopathy in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI Cervical spine
Explanation:When cervical myelopathy is suspected, the preferred diagnostic test is an MRI of the cervical spine. This test can reveal disc degeneration and ligament hypertrophy, as well as any accompanying cord signal change, making it the gold standard for diagnosis.
In cases where a patient cannot undergo an MRI, a CT myelogram may be used as the first line investigation. Radiographs are generally not useful in diagnosing cervical myelopathy, although they may reveal osteoarthritic changes such as osteophytes.
If the clinical picture is unclear, nerve conduction studies and EMG may be performed to rule out other lower motor neuron disorders. However, when there is a strong suspicion of cervical myelopathy, an MRI of the cervical spine should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
You have been caring for a 50-year-old man with chronic lower back pain for a while now. As you review his medications, you notice that he has been taking regular paracetamol, PRN NSAIDs, and oral morphine. He is currently taking a total of 120mg of morphine within 24 hours, but he is uncertain if it has ever been effective and requests an increase in dosage. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing his pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to a different opioid
Explanation:Maximum Oral Morphine Use and Tapering Off
The Faculty of Pain Management has established a maximum threshold for oral morphine use to prevent harm without additional benefits. The maximum dose should not exceed 120mg/day of oral morphine equivalent. In cases where patients report no benefit from the medication, it is sensible to taper them off completely. This approach is unlikely to lead to increased pain and can free the patient from opioid-related side effects. Switching to a different opioid or route of administration is also unlikely to be beneficial if the patient has reported no benefit from the current dose. Immediate-release preparations can provide flexibility in dosing, and patients can be encouraged to avoid taking opioids whenever possible.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old woman presents with long-standing gastrointestinal symptoms. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome as a young adult and currently takes hyoscine butylbromide 10-20 mg QDS PRN and loperamide 2 mg PRN for her symptoms. She also has a history of type 1 diabetes diagnosed at the age of 10.
She has been experiencing intermittent abdominal pains and bloating, as well as periodic bouts of diarrhea for years. Her latest blood tests, which were done as part of her diabetic annual review, show a modest anemia (hemoglobin 105 g/L). Her liver function tests show a slight persistent elevation of ALT and ALP, which has been the case for the last six to seven years and has not significantly deteriorated. Her thyroid function, bone profile, and ESR are all within normal limits. Her HbA1c is satisfactory at 50 mmol/mol.
There has been no significant change in her gastrointestinal symptoms recently. She has never had any rectal bleeding or mucous passed per rectum. Her weight is stable. She reports no acute illness but does feel more tired than usual over the last few months. She follows a 'normal' diet. Clinical examination reveals no focal abnormalities. She denies any obvious source of blood loss with no reported gastro-oesophageal reflux, haematemesis, haemoptysis, or haematuria. Urine dipstick testing shows no blood.
She has no family history of bowel cancer, but her mother and one of her maternal aunts both suffered from irritable bowel syndrome. Follow-up blood tests show low ferritin and folate levels.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this 62-year-old woman's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure her that no further investigation or treatment is needed as her symptoms are chronic
Explanation:Coeliac Disease and Iron Deficiency Anaemia
Note the low folate levels and anaemia in a type 1 diabetic with chronic gastrointestinal symptoms and liver function test abnormalities. These features suggest coeliac disease, which is often misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome. It is recommended by NICE to routinely test for coeliac disease when diagnosing IBS. Family members with IBS should also be investigated for coeliac disease if the diagnosis is confirmed.
Patients with untreated coeliac disease often have mild liver function test abnormalities and are at increased risk for osteoporosis and hypothyroidism. The low folate levels suggest malabsorption as a possible cause. NICE CKS recommends screening all people with iron deficiency anaemia for coeliac disease using coeliac serology.
For iron deficiency anaemia without dyspepsia, consider the possibility of gastrointestinal cancer and urgently refer for further investigations. For women who are not menstruating, with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 10 g/100 mL or below, refer urgently within 2 weeks for upper and lower gastrointestinal investigations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a 3-month history of progressive difficulty with speech and swallowing. During examination, she exhibits dysarthria and a brisk gag reflex. There is increased tone in all four limbs, with weakness distributed pyramidally. Sensation is normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:Neurological Conditions: Types, Symptoms, and Characteristics
Motor neurone disease, also known as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a degenerative condition that affects motor neurones, leading to increasing disability and death. It usually occurs after the age of 50 and has a focal onset, with a particular group of muscles affected first. Rare variants include primary lateral sclerosis and progressive muscular atrophy.
Brainstem gliomas are diagnosed in children and young adults under the age of twenty, with common symptoms including double vision, weakness, unsteady gait, difficulty in swallowing, dysarthria, headache, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. Physical examination commonly elicits long tract signs such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, and abnormal reflexes.
Cervical spondylotic myelopathy is a serious consequence of cervical intervertebral disc degeneration, with clinical signs and symptoms depending on which spinal cord level is affected and the extent of the pathology. There may be upper and lower motor neurone signs, sensory changes, and bladder and bowel involvement.
Guillain-Barré syndrome presents within 3 weeks of a respiratory or bowel infection, due to immune damage to the peripheral nervous system. Early symptoms include nerve root type pain and paraesthesia of the legs and feet, followed by proximal muscle weakness of the lower extremities progressing over hours to days. Tendon reflexes are lost but plantar responses remain normal.
Multiple sclerosis is characterized by symptomatic neurological episodes, motor, sensory, or autonomic, that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man presents with erectile dysfunction. He reports being in good health and not taking any regular medications. He has recently entered into a new relationship and has not experienced this issue before.
What is the probable cause of this patient's erectile dysfunction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psychological factors
Explanation:Possible Causes of Erectile Dysfunction in a Young Man
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common problem that affects men of all ages. In a young, otherwise healthy man, psychological factors are the most likely cause of ED. This may be due to anxiety, stress, or relationship issues, especially if the symptoms started around the time of a new relationship. Other possible causes of ED include medical conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypogonadism, and testicular cancer. However, these are less likely in a 28-year-old man who previously had no erectile problems. Prostate cancer is also an unlikely cause of ED in a young man. It is important to consult a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause of ED and to discuss appropriate treatment options.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)