00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge for ten days. He describes how he initially felt 'okay' with milder symptoms, but noticed a sudden deterioration in his symptoms a few days ago.
      Which of the following treatments would be the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Sinusitis: Antibiotics, Decongestants, and Antihistamines

      Acute bacterial sinusitis is a common condition that can cause severe symptoms such as discolored or purulent discharge, severe localized pain, and fever. Antibiotics are prescribed only if the patient has a co-morbidity or if acute bacterial sinusitis is clinically suspected. The antibiotics of choice include amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, or erythromycin. Second-line treatments include co-amoxiclav and azithromycin.

      Decongestants such as ephedrine can be used to relieve nasal congestion, but they should not be used for more than seven days to avoid rebound congestion. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are not recommended unless there is a coexisting allergic rhinitis.

      It is important to note that flucloxacillin and metronidazole are not the antibiotics of choice for acute sinusitis. Doxycycline or erythromycin are acceptable alternatives. Treatment should be used only for persistent symptoms or purulent nasal discharge lasting at least 7 days, or if the symptoms are severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 53-year-old woman presents to her GP with sudden hearing loss in her...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old woman presents to her GP with sudden hearing loss in her left ear. She reports no pain or discharge and denies any history of dizziness or tinnitus. Upon examination, the GP notes the presence of wax in the left ear but no other abnormalities in the external auditory meatus or tympanic membranes bilaterally. The Weber test lateralises to the right side, and the Rinne test shows air conduction louder than bone conduction bilaterally. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to ENT

      Explanation:

      An urgent referral to ENT for audiology assessment and brain MRI is necessary in cases of acute sensorineural hearing loss. In this patient, Weber’s test indicated a conductive hearing loss in the left ear or sensorineural loss in the right ear, while Rinne’s test showed a sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear. This urgent referral is necessary to rule out serious conditions such as a vestibular schwannoma.

      Antibiotics are not indicated in this case as there are no signs of infection. Acute otitis externa, which presents with symptoms such as itching, discharge, and pain, can be treated with a topical acetic acid spray containing neomycin. Otitis media, which presents with conductive hearing loss and pain, may be treated with oral antibiotics, but is often caused by a virus following an upper respiratory tract infection.

      Although wax was found in the right ear during otoscopy, this would cause conductive hearing loss and does not require referral for ear syringing. Topical treatments such as olive oil can be used to soften the wax in cases where it is causing problems.

      Routine referral to ENT is not sufficient for cases of acute sensorineural hearing loss, as patients may have to wait several months for an appointment. Urgent referral for audiology assessment and brain MRI is necessary in these cases.

      Sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) is a condition that requires prompt attention from an ENT specialist. It is crucial to distinguish between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss during the examination of a patient who presents with sudden hearing loss. The majority of SSNHL cases are of unknown origin, also known as idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. High-dose oral corticosteroids are the standard treatment for all cases of SSNHL and are administered by ENT specialists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner after discovering a firm lump...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner after discovering a firm lump just under her tongue on the right side. She has been experiencing discomfort and mild swelling in the same area while eating for the past few days. She is stable and not running a fever.
      What is the most suitable management option for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Short course of NSAIDs and referral to an ENT surgeon

      Explanation:

      Management of Salivary Gland Stones: Recommended Approaches and Guidelines

      Salivary gland stones, or sialolithiasis, can cause pain and swelling of the affected gland, triggered by salivary flow stimulation during eating or chewing. If left untreated, these stones can lead to secondary infections, cellulitis, and airway compromise. Here are some recommended approaches and guidelines for managing salivary gland stones:

      Referral to an ENT Surgeon and NSAIDs
      If a salivary stone is suspected, a referral to an ENT surgeon should be made, with the urgency guided by clinical judgement. Patients should also be advised to remain well hydrated, and NSAIDs can be used to relieve any pain.

      Antibiotics and Referral to an ENT Surgeon
      Antibiotics should only be used if there is a suspicion of a secondary infection, typically suggested by persistent pain and swelling, sometimes with fever and systemic upset. In this case, a referral to an ENT surgeon is also recommended.

      Oral Antibiotics and NSAIDs
      NSAIDs can be used to relieve any pain, but antibiotics should only be used if there is a suspicion of a secondary infection. This is typically suggested by persistent pain and swelling, sometimes with fever and systemic upset.

      Oral Steroids
      Oral steroids have no role in the management of salivary gland stones.

      Watchful Waiting
      Left untreated, salivary gland stones can cause significant stress and psychological distress to patients. Therefore, it is not recommended to adopt a watchful waiting approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old female is scheduled for middle ear prosthesis implantation to treat her...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female is scheduled for middle ear prosthesis implantation to treat her sensorineural hearing loss. She has a history of appendectomy, during which she experienced intense postoperative nausea and vomiting. Which anaesthetic agent would be the most suitable for her procedure?

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man presents to surgery with several weeks of intermittent vertigo, tinnitus,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to surgery with several weeks of intermittent vertigo, tinnitus, and decreased hearing on the right side. You suspect Ménière’s disease.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral to ENT

      Explanation:

      Management of Meniere’s Disease

      Meniere’s disease is a condition characterized by intermittent bouts of vertigo, tinnitus, and/or deafness in one or both ears, as well as a feeling of fullness or pressure in the affected ear. If a patient presents with these symptoms, a referral to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) consultant is advisable to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other potential causes.

      If the patient is experiencing an acute attack, self-care advice and medication may be warranted. Prochlorperazine is recommended for acute attacks, while betahistine is used for preventive treatment. Severe symptoms may require hospital admission for supportive treatment.

      Long-term use of oral or buccal prochlorperazine is not recommended, and vestibular rehabilitation is not the most appropriate management for this condition. Instead, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation and management.

      Carbamazepine is not indicated for the management of Meniere’s disease. Patients should also be advised to inform the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Authority (DVLA) of their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      118.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 47-year-old woman presents with a lump in the upper anterior triangle of...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman presents with a lump in the upper anterior triangle of her neck. She reports that it has been present for a few weeks and only started to bother her after her friend pointed it out and asked what it was. She denies any other symptoms such as weight loss or fevers. She recalls her mother having a similar swelling removed, but does not remember the diagnosis.
      Upon examination, there is a small, smooth, nontender, mobile lump. The skin overlying the lump appears normal in color and temperature. The lump does not move on swallowing or tongue protrusion, and the skin cannot be moved over the top of the lump. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sebaceous cyst

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between lumps and bumps: A guide to common masses

      When it comes to lumps and bumps on the body, it can be difficult to determine what they are and whether they require medical attention. Here are some common types of masses and their characteristics to help differentiate between them:

      Sebaceous cysts: These small, smooth lumps are caused by a blocked hair follicle and have a central punctum. They are attached to the skin and may develop a horn. If infected, they can become tender and erythematous.

      Lipomas: These deep masses are typically soft, doughy, and mobile. An ultrasound or biopsy may be needed to rule out sarcoma or liposarcoma.

      Sternocleidomastoid tumors: This congenital lump appears within the first few weeks of life and is located beneath the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It restricts contralateral head movement.

      Thyroid carcinoma: A hard, firm, non-tender mass close to the midline that moves up with swallowing may indicate thyroid cancer.

      Thyroid goitre: A smooth or multi-nodular enlargement close to the midline that moves up with swallowing may indicate a thyroid goitre. Symptoms associated with thyroid diseases may also be present.

      Knowing the characteristics of these common masses can help individuals determine when to seek medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of bilateral ringing in his ears....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of bilateral ringing in his ears. He noticed the symptoms shortly after beginning a new medication.
      Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Common Medications and Their Side Effects

      Furosemide: A loop diuretic that carries the risk of ototoxicity, especially in patients with renal impairment or given a rapid intravenous infusion. Hearing loss and tinnitus are potential side effects.

      Ciprofloxacin: A broad-spectrum quinolone antibiotic that is not commonly associated with ototoxicity, but has an increased risk of Clostridium difficile infection. Rupture of the Achilles tendon is a known side effect.

      Amlodipine: A calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension. Common side effects include flushing, headaches, and ankle swelling due to vasodilation.

      Indapamide: A thiazide-like diuretic that is not associated with ototoxicity. Possible side effects include electrolyte imbalances, dry mouth, and gastrointestinal disturbance.

      Paracetamol: Not associated with ototoxicity and has few side effects listed in the British National Formulary. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, which have similar indications for use, can cause ototoxicity.

      Understanding the Side Effects of Common Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man visits the general practice surgery as he is experiencing sudden-onset...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits the general practice surgery as he is experiencing sudden-onset vertigo when standing up from a seated position. Episodes last about 30 seconds and he denies any ear pain or hearing loss. His examination is unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Epley’s manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding BPPV and Treatment Options

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes dizziness and vertigo. The Epley manoeuvre is a recommended treatment option for BPPV, involving repositioning the patient’s head and neck to remove calcium crystals from the semicircular canals. However, it should not be performed in patients with certain medical conditions. Symptomatic drug treatment is not recommended for BPPV, and patients should seek further medical advice if symptoms persist. The Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is a diagnostic test for BPPV, while Brandt-Daroff exercises can be considered as an alternative treatment option. Understanding these options can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for patients with BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 43-year-old male patient presents with a chief complaint of hearing difficulty. During...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old male patient presents with a chief complaint of hearing difficulty. During the examination, you perform Weber's test and find that he hears the sound most loudly in his right ear. On conducting Rinne test, the sound is loudest when the tuning fork is placed in front of the ear canal on the left and loudest when placed on the mastoid process on the right. What type of hearing loss is evident in this case?

      Your Answer: Conductive hearing loss on the right

      Explanation:

      The presence of conductive hearing loss can be identified by conducting Rinne and Weber tests. During the Rinne test, bone conduction will be more audible than air conduction, while the Weber test will indicate the affected ear.

      If the hearing loss is conductive and affects the right ear, bone conduction will be louder than air conduction. This is because the ear canal, middle ear, or tympanic membrane is unable to conduct sound waves effectively. The Weber test will also indicate that the affected ear is where the sound is loudest.

      The other options provided are incorrect as they do not align with the results of the examination. In sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is louder than bone conduction.

      Conductive hearing loss can be caused by various factors, including impacted earwax, inner ear effusion, debris or foreign objects in the ear canal, a perforated eardrum, or otosclerosis.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old businessman presents to the Emergency Department with his second episode of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old businessman presents to the Emergency Department with his second episode of epistaxis in a 24 hour period. On each occasion, the nosebleeds stopped with pressure applied just below the nasal bridge, but the most recent bleed went on for 30 minutes. He has hypertension, for which he takes medication regularly. He also admits to smoking a pack of cigarettes per day and drinking 10-15 units of alcohol each week. There is no history of trauma. He is worried about the problem affecting his work, as he has an important meeting the following day.
      On examination, he looks well and is not pale, and his blood pressure and pulse are within normal limits. He is peripherally well perfused. On inspection of the nasal vestibule, there are prominent blood vessels visible on the right side of the nasal septum, with a small amount of clotted blood also present.
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cauterise the bleeding point using silver nitrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Epistaxis: From Simple First-Aid Measures to Invasive Procedures

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can be treated through simple first-aid measures. However, in cases of repeated or prolonged nosebleeds, more invasive treatment may be necessary. Here are some treatment options for epistaxis:

      Cauterization: If an anterior bleeding point is seen, cautery can be attempted. This is usually achieved by the application of a silver nitrate stick to the area for around 10 seconds after giving topical local anesthesia.

      Blood tests and investigations: Blood tests and other investigations are of little use, as an underlying cause is highly unlikely in a young and otherwise well patient.

      First-aid measures: Epistaxis is mainly treated through simple first-aid measures. It is important to reassure the patient that the problem is normally self-limiting.

      Nasal tampon: Bleeds that do not settle with cautery, or significant bleeds where a bleeding point cannot be seen, require the application of a nasal tampon and referral to ENT.

      Admission: This patient does not require admission. Blood tests are unlikely to be helpful, and she is haemodynamically stable.

      In summary, treatment options for epistaxis range from simple first-aid measures to invasive procedures. The choice of treatment depends on the severity and frequency of the nosebleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of nasal congestion, facial pain, a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of nasal congestion, facial pain, a runny nose, and a decreased sense of smell that has been ongoing for three months. He has a history of seasonal allergies. Upon palpation of the maxillofacial area, tenderness is noted. No visible nasal polyps are present.
      What are the primary symptoms of chronic sinusitis?

      Your Answer: Facial pain and/or pressure

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Chronic Rhinosinusitis

      Chronic rhinosinusitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the sinuses that lasts for at least 12 weeks. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific symptoms that are indicative of chronic sinusitis. These symptoms include nasal obstruction, nasal discharge, facial pain and pressure, and loss of smell sensation.

      Facial pain and pressure are common symptoms of chronic sinusitis, and they are caused by congestion of the sinuses. Pain is typically felt over the maxillary, ethmoid, and frontal sinuses, which can be palpated by a doctor during an examination. Coughing is not a major symptom of chronic sinusitis, but it may be present in some patients and could indicate an underlying condition such as asthma or COPD.

      Nasal polyps are not a major symptom of chronic sinusitis, but they can be present in some individuals with this condition. The presence of nasal polyps indicates a variant of chronic sinusitis, which may require different management strategies.

      It is important to note that symptoms must last for at least 12 weeks without resolution before a diagnosis of chronic rhinosinusitis can be made. If symptoms last for less than 12 weeks, the criteria for chronic rhinosinusitis are not met. While patients may be experiencing chronic sinusitis before the 12-week mark, doctors must wait for this duration to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
      On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
      What is the best initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines

      Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:

      1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.

      2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.

      3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.

      4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.

      5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.

      In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a headache and thick nasal...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a headache and thick nasal discharge that has persisted for six days. He reports the headache as a frontal pressure pain that worsens when he bends forward. He denies experiencing cough or general malaise. His vital signs are heart rate 62/min, respiratory rate 13/min, blood pressure 127/63 mmHg, and temperature 36.2 ºC. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with his salbutamol inhaler. What is the appropriate management plan for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intranasal decongestants and oral corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Analgesia and abundant fluids

      Explanation:

      For uncomplicated acute sinusitis, antibiotics are not necessary. Instead, the recommended treatment is pain relief and staying hydrated. The patient in this scenario has typical symptoms of acute sinusitis, such as facial pain, nasal discharge, and difficulty breathing. Antibiotics are only prescribed in severe cases or when the patient is at high risk of complications. Co-amoxiclav is an example of an antibiotic that may be used in these situations. Intranasal corticosteroids may be prescribed if the condition lasts longer than ten days. Intranasal decongestants and oral corticosteroids are not effective treatments for acute sinusitis and should not be used.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be prescribed for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using cotton buds to clean his ears earlier today and experienced a sharp pain during the process. He now has slightly reduced hearing in his left ear. The patient reports no discharge and is in good health otherwise.

      All of the patient's vital signs are normal. Upon examination of the left ear, a small perforation in the tympanic membrane is observed. There is no discharge or redness in the ear, and the ear canal is dry. The cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.

      What is the next best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Reassure patient and review in 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an uncomplicated tympanic membrane perforation that is dry, they can be managed with watchful waiting for a month without needing to see an ENT specialist. These perforations can occur due to various reasons such as blunt trauma, penetrating injuries, or barotrauma. Typically, the perforation will heal on its own within 4-8 weeks. However, patients should schedule a follow-up appointment after 4 weeks to ensure that the perforation is healing properly. If the patient experiences increasing ear pain, discharge, or worsening hearing loss, they should see their GP. During the examination, the patient should undergo a full examination, including otoscopy, cranial nerve examination, and Rinne/Weber tests. If there are any cranial nerve deficits, the patient should discuss them with an ENT specialist. Patients should keep their ears clean and dry, and topical antibiotics are not recommended for clean, dry perforations. If there are any signs of infection or contamination, topical antibiotics may be given. In cases where the patient has more complex issues such as temporal bone fractures or slowly healing perforations, they may need to be reviewed by an ENT specialist in an emergency clinic. If the perforation does not heal, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old presents with profuse epistaxis (nose bleed) after being hit in the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old presents with profuse epistaxis (nose bleed) after being hit in the nose during a boxing match. The bleeding stops after applying direct pressure and packing the nose. Which vascular territory is most likely to have been impacted?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, can occur from two areas: the anterior bleed from the Kiesselbach’s plexus and the posterior bleed from the sphenopalatine artery. The former is usually caused by trauma, involving the anterior and posterior ethmoid arteries, superior labial artery, and greater palatine artery. On the other hand, the latter is triggered by underlying pathologies such as hypertension or old age.

      To manage epistaxis, direct pressure to the bleeding point, packing of the nose, or surgical ligation or selective embolization of the relevant artery may be necessary. It is important to note that significant episodes of epistaxis may lead to a considerable amount of blood loss, especially in the elderly, which can be masked by ingestion of the blood into the digestive tract. Thus, clotting and hemoglobin levels should always be checked.

      It is worth noting that the nasal artery is not involved in epistaxis, as it is a terminal branch of the ophthalmic artery emerging from the orbit. Similarly, the superficial temporal artery and zygomatic artery have no involvement in epistaxis. The former is a major artery of the head arising from the internal carotid and passing anterior to the pinna, while the latter runs across the top of the zygomatic arch.

      In summary, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in preventing significant blood loss and ensuring proper treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 18-year-old woman presents to her GP with painful lumps in her neck...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old woman presents to her GP with painful lumps in her neck that appeared two days ago. She also reports a sore throat and fever. Upon examination, she has tender, enlarged, smooth masses on both sides. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Neck Lumps: Causes and Characteristics

      When a patient presents with a neck lump, it is important to consider the possible causes and characteristics to determine the appropriate course of action. In this case, the patient’s sore throat and fever suggest a throat infection, which has resulted in reactive lymphadenopathy. This is a common cause of neck lump presentations in primary care.

      Other possible causes of neck lumps include goitre, which is a painless mass in the midline of the throat that is not associated with fever and may be functional if accompanied by hyperthyroidism. An abscess could also present as a painful neck lump, but the history of a sore throat and bilateral swelling make this less likely.

      Branchial cysts are smooth, soft masses in the lateral neck that are usually benign and congenital in origin. Lipomas, on the other hand, are lumps caused by the accumulation of soft, fatty deposits under the skin and do not typically present with systemic features.

      In summary, understanding the characteristics and possible causes of neck lumps can aid in the diagnosis and management of patients presenting with this symptom.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of left nostril blockage and...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of left nostril blockage and frequent nosebleeds for the past 4 weeks. He has a medical history of well-controlled diabetes and hypertension and has a smoking history of 20 cigarettes per day since he was 18. He used to work in construction. During the examination, you observe a nasal polyp on the left side. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: 2 week-wait referral

      Explanation:

      Unilateral nasal polyps are a cause for concern and should be promptly referred to an ENT specialist as they may indicate nasal cancer. However, they can also be caused by other factors such as nose picking, foreign bodies, misapplication of nasal spray or cystic fibrosis. Treatment with antibiotics, oral steroids, nasal drops or cautery is unlikely to be effective and may delay the diagnosis of a serious condition.

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.

      The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      1445
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He is worried that his daughter has been refusing to eat for 3 days and has been more irritable than usual. When asked, the girl points to her neck and complains of soreness. She has no significant medical history and is up to date with her vaccinations.

      During the examination, the girl has a temperature of 38.7ºC. Her tonsils are enlarged and inflamed, and her throat is red. There are palpable lymph nodes in the anterior cervical chain that are tender to the touch. The rest of her examination is normal, and Kernig's sign is negative.

      What is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe for this 6-year-old girl?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic treatment should be given to individuals who are likely to have Streptococcus species isolated. However, Amoxicillin is not the most appropriate antibiotic for tonsillitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash is not indicated for the treatment of tonsillitis. Dexamethasone is primarily used for the management of croup, which is characterized by a barking cough and is more common in the winter months.

      Sore throat is a term used to describe various conditions such as pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, throat swabs and rapid antigen tests should not be routinely carried out for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be managed with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not typically necessary. However, in cases where there is marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when three or more Centor criteria are present, antibiotics may be indicated. The Centor and FeverPAIN scoring systems can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin (for penicillin-allergic patients) can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. It is worth noting that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, although this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of sudden hearing loss in her left ear,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of sudden hearing loss in her left ear, accompanied by dizziness and a sensation of pressure in the affected ear. What results would you anticipate from the Rinne and Weber tests?

      Your Answer: Weber: louder in the left ear. Rinne: bone conduction louder than air in the left ear

      Correct Answer: Weber: louder in the right ear: Rinne air conduction louder than bone in the left ear

      Explanation:

      To diagnose sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne and Weber tests can be used. In this type of hearing loss, air conduction will be louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test will lateralise away from the affected ear. However, before making a diagnosis, it is important to correctly identify the symptoms. For example, sudden hearing loss accompanied by dizziness and pressure in the ear may indicate Meniere’s disease, which causes sensorineural hearing loss in the affected ear. If the symptoms suggest sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear, the results of the tests should show air conduction louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test lateralising away from the left ear. If the results show different patterns, they may suggest conductive or mixed hearing loss in one or both ears.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      104.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman visits her family doctor with a lump under her chin...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her family doctor with a lump under her chin that causes her discomfort and swelling, especially after eating a big meal. The facial nerve appears to be unaffected. Upon examination, there is a tender swelling in the submandibular triangle. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sialolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Submandibular Swelling

      One possible diagnosis for a painful submandibular swelling is sialolithiasis, which is the formation of stones within the salivary glands. This condition is more common in men over 40 and typically causes pain and swelling after eating. Adenoid cystic carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a slowly enlarging mass over the parotid area and can invade local structures such as the facial nerve. Pleomorphic adenomas usually present as a painless lump that slowly enlarges, while Sjögren syndrome causes dry mouth, dry eyes, and swelling of the salivary glands bilaterally. Warthin’s tumour, which is commonly found in the tail of the parotid gland, does not typically present as a painful lump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of decreased hearing and ringing in his right ear, which feels congested, and he experiences frequent bouts of vertigo lasting up to a few hours at a time. There are no abnormalities found during the neurological examination.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Vertigo Conditions: Ménière’s Disease, Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo, Central Vertigo, Labyrinthitis, and Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Ménière’s disease, for instance, is characterized by fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus, and aural fullness. Patients are advised to undergo vestibular rehabilitation and avoid risky activities. Prochlorperazine is recommended for acute attacks, while betahistine is used for preventive treatment. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, on the other hand, presents with brief episodes of vertigo triggered by movement, without tinnitus, hearing loss, or ear fullness. Central vertigo has a sudden onset, constant symptoms, and possible neurological abnormalities, requiring urgent hospital admission. Labyrinthitis causes acute vertigo and hearing loss, but the presence of ear fullness suggests Ménière’s disease. Vestibular neuronitis, caused by viral infection, results in isolated and prolonged episodes of vertigo without tinnitus or ear fullness. Accurate diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial in addressing vertigo and its underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to her Pediatrician by her mother after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to her Pediatrician by her mother after being sent home from school. She is complaining of a headache and feeling tired since this morning.
      On examination, her temperature is 38.5 °C. Her pulse is of 96 bpm, while her capillary refill time is < 2 seconds. There are no rashes, she is alert, she has enlarged red tonsils without pustules and demonstrates tender cervical lymphadenopathy. She does not have a runny nose.
      What is her FeverPAIN score?

      Your Answer: 4

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Understanding the FeverPAIN Score for Antibiotic Prescribing in Sore Throat Cases

      The FeverPAIN score is a tool used to aid decisions on antibiotic prescribing for acute sore throat cases. It involves scoring one point for each of the following criteria: fever, purulence, rapid attendance (<3 days duration), severely inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. A score of 5/5 indicates a high likelihood of a streptococcal infection and antibiotics would be indicated for treatment. However, for scores of 1 or 2, antibiotics may not be necessary as the chance of a bacterial infection is low. Patients should be advised to seek further medical attention if symptoms worsen and simple measures such as fluids and analgesia should be recommended. For scores of 3 or 4, delayed antibiotic prescribing or watchful waiting may be considered as other causes, such as viral infections, are more likely than bacterial infections. It is important to note that the FeverPAIN score is just one tool and should be used in conjunction with clinical judgement. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends its use, along with the Centor criteria, to predict the likelihood of a streptococcal infection. By understanding and utilizing these tools, healthcare providers can make informed decisions on antibiotic prescribing for sore throat cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old female presents to the ENT specialists with a 1-month-history of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the ENT specialists with a 1-month-history of severe otalgia, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhoea. She has a medical history of type one diabetes mellitus and no allergies. On examination, the left external auditory canal and periauricular soft tissue are erythematous and tender. What is the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      For patients with diabetes who present with otitis externa, it is important to consider the possibility of malignant otitis externa, which is a severe bacterial infection that can spread to the bony ear canal and cause osteomyelitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause of this condition, so treatment should involve coverage for this bacteria. Intravenous ciprofloxacin is the preferred antibiotic for this purpose. It is also important to note that diabetic patients with non-malignant otitis externa should also be treated with ciprofloxacin due to their increased risk of developing malignant otitis externa. Clarithromycin and flucloxacillin are not appropriate choices for this condition, and leaving the infection untreated can lead to serious complications.

      Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection

      Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.

      When diagnosing malignant otitis externa, doctors will typically perform a CT scan. Key features in a patient’s medical history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and unrelenting ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and/or facial nerve dysfunction.

      If a patient presents with non-resolving otitis externa and worsening pain, they should be referred urgently to an ear, nose, and throat specialist. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonal infections.

      Overall, while malignant otitis externa is rare, it is important to be aware of its symptoms and risk factors, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the infection from progressing and causing more serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the ear, nose and throat clinic with a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the ear, nose and throat clinic with a 4-month history of left-sided hearing loss. She reports occasional ringing in her left ear and feeling unsteady. She has a medical history of well-controlled type 1 diabetes and denies any recent infections.

      During the examination, Rinne's test is positive in both ears, and Weber's test lateralizes to her right ear. There is no evidence of nystagmus, and her coordination is normal. Other than an absent left-sided corneal reflex, her cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with a loss of corneal reflex, an acoustic neuroma should be considered as a possible cause. This is a benign tumor that affects the vestibulocochlear nerve and can lead to symptoms such as vertigo, tinnitus, and unilateral sensorineural hearing loss. In some cases, the tumor can also invade the trigeminal nerve, resulting in an absent corneal reflex.

      Other conditions that may cause hearing loss and vertigo include cholesteatoma, labyrinthitis, and Meniere’s disease. However, in this case, the patient’s hearing tests indicate a sensorineural hearing loss, which makes cholesteatoma less likely. Labyrinthitis typically causes acute vertigo that can persist for several days, but it would not be the cause of the loss of the corneal reflex. Meniere’s disease is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including tinnitus, vertigo, and sensorineural hearing loss, but the vertigo tends to be shorter in duration and follow a relapsing and remitting course.

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old female comes to the doctor's office complaining of progressive paraesthesia in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female comes to the doctor's office complaining of progressive paraesthesia in her fingers, toes, and peri-oral area for the past two weeks. She also experiences muscle cramps and spasms. The patient had a thyroidectomy for Graves' disease recently but has no other health issues or drug allergies. What can be expected from this patient's ECG results, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Isolated QTc shortening

      Correct Answer: Isolated QTc elongation

      Explanation:

      Following thyroid surgery, a patient is experiencing paraesthesia, cramps, and spasms, which are likely due to hypocalcemia resulting from damage to the parathyroid glands. The most common ECG change associated with this condition is isolated QTc elongation, while dysrhythmias are rare. Alternating QRS amplitude is not associated with this condition and is instead linked to pericardial effusion. Isolated QTc shortening is also incorrect as it is typically associated with hypercalcemia, which can be caused by hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. The combination of T wave inversion, QTc prolongation, and visible U waves is associated with hypokalemia, which can be caused by vomiting, thiazide use, and Cushing’s syndrome. Similarly, the combination of tall, peaked T waves, QTc shortening, and ST-segment depression is associated with hyperkalemia, which can be caused by Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, acute kidney injury, and potassium-sparing diuretics.

      Complications of Thyroid Surgery: An Overview

      Thyroid surgery is a common procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the thyroid gland. While the surgery is generally safe, there are potential complications that can arise. These complications can be anatomical, such as damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which can result in voice changes or difficulty swallowing. Bleeding is another potential complication, which can be particularly dangerous in the confined space of the neck and can lead to respiratory problems due to swelling. Additionally, damage to the parathyroid glands, which are located near the thyroid, can result in hypocalcaemia, a condition in which the body has low levels of calcium. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential complications and to discuss them with their healthcare provider before undergoing thyroid surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 58-year-old man complains of recurrent episodes of vertigo and dizziness. These episodes...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man complains of recurrent episodes of vertigo and dizziness. These episodes are usually triggered by a change in head position and usually last for about 30 seconds. The examination of the cranial nerves and ears shows no abnormalities. His blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg while sitting and 118/76 mmHg while standing. Assuming that the diagnosis is benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, what is the most suitable course of action to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms include vertigo triggered by movements such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, and may be accompanied by nausea. Each episode usually lasts between 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which involves the patient experiencing vertigo and rotatory nystagmus.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and often resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited value. However, it is important to note that around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

      Overall, understanding BPPV and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-five-year-old woman who...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-five-year-old woman who presents with complaints of dizziness. She reports that the symptoms worsen when she rolls over in bed and are accompanied by nausea. She denies any prior episodes, aural fullness, or nystagmus. What diagnostic measures could be taken to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dix–Hallpike manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      The Dix-Hallpike test involves quickly moving the patient to a supine position with their neck extended to determine if they experience symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. A positive result can confirm the diagnosis. Based on the symptoms, it is likely that this patient has this condition.

      Understanding Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms include vertigo triggered by movements such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, and may be accompanied by nausea. Each episode usually lasts between 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through a positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which involves the patient experiencing vertigo and rotatory nystagmus.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and often resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited value. However, it is important to note that around half of people with BPPV will experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

      Overall, understanding BPPV and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a concern that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a concern that he has been experiencing hearing loss in his right ear. He occasionally hears a buzzing sound in this ear, but it is not bothersome and does not affect his daily life. He is worried about the hearing loss as his mother had to use hearing aids at a young age. Otoscopy of his right ear is performed and is normal except for a slightly pinkish tympanic membrane. The GP decides to conduct some tuning fork tests. What is the most likely set of findings that will be observed?

      Your Answer: Right ear Rinne’s test bone conduction > air conduction; Weber’s test lateralises to the right

      Correct Answer: Webers test lateralises to the left ear. Rinnes test would shows bone conduction > air conduction on the left

      Explanation:

      Tuning Fork Tests for Different Types of Hearing Loss

      When conducting a hearing assessment, tuning fork tests can provide valuable information about the type and location of hearing loss. Here are some examples of tuning fork test results and what they may indicate:

      Weber’s and Rinne’s Tests for Different Types of Hearing Loss

      Example 1:
      – Weber’s test lateralizes to the left ear
      – Rinne’s test shows bone conduction > air conduction on the left

      These results suggest conductive hearing loss, which is typical of otosclerosis. This condition affects young adults and involves the replacement of normal bone with spongy bone, leading to stapes fixation and progressive hearing loss.

      Example 2:
      – Weber’s test lateralizes to the right ear
      – Rinne’s test shows air conduction > bone conduction on the left

      These results also suggest conductive hearing loss, but in this case, it is likely due to a different cause than otosclerosis. Unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, a positive family history, and a pinkish tympanic membrane on examination are all typical features of otosclerosis, which is not present in this patient.

      Example 3:
      – Weber’s test lateralizes to the right ear
      – Rinne’s test shows bone conduction > air conduction on the right

      These results suggest conductive hearing loss on the right side, which could be due to a variety of causes. However, the clinical features reported in this patient suggest a possible diagnosis of otosclerosis, which would give a conductive hearing loss on the left side rather than the right.

      Example 4:
      – Weber’s test lateralizes to the left ear
      – Rinne’s test shows air conduction > bone conduction on the right

      These results suggest sensorineural hearing loss on the right side, which could be due to conditions such as vestibular schwannoma or viral labyrinthitis. However, this does not match the reported hearing loss on the left side in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a gradual decrease in...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a gradual decrease in the hearing from her right ear. On further questioning, she reports that occasionally she hears a buzzing sound in this ear, but denies any episodes of dizziness or vomiting. Otoscopy of her right ear only reveals a reddish tympanic membrane. Rinne’s test is negative on the right, Weber’s test lateralises to the right. Which of the following describes the best management option for this condition?

      Your Answer: Hearing aid

      Explanation:

      The best option for managing the patient’s unilateral conductive hearing loss, tinnitus, and pinkish tympanic membrane is either a hearing aid or stapedectomy. The tuning fork tests indicate left-sided conductive hearing loss, which is consistent with otosclerosis. This condition is characterized by the replacement of normal bone with vascular spongy bone, leading to progressive conductive hearing loss due to stapes fixation at the oval window. Amoxicillin, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, ear syringing, and prochlorperazine are not effective treatments for otosclerosis. Amoxicillin is used to manage acute otitis media, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises are used to prevent acute attacks in Ménière’s disease, ear syringing is used to remove impacted ear wax, and prochlorperazine is used to decrease dizziness in viral labyrinthitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is brought to his General Practitioner by his daughter, who has noticed that his hearing on the right side has been progressively diminishing for the past six months. Additionally, he also complains of feeling unbalanced and of not being able to walk properly and leaning more towards the right side. On referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Department, the Consultant conducts a detailed clinical examination and finds nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, in addition to a sensorineural loss in his right ear.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma

      Acoustic neuroma is a condition characterized by unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. The following diagnostic tests can aid in the diagnosis of this condition:

      Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): This is the preferred test for detecting acoustic neuroma as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.

      Plain Computerized Tomography (CT) Scan: CT scan with contrast can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss by assessing the widening of the internal auditory canal and the extent of tumor growth. However, plain CT cannot detect some cases of acoustic neuroma.

      Otoscopy: This test is useful in diagnosing conditions of bone conduction deafness but is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.

      Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA): This is the best initial screening laboratory test for the diagnosis of acoustic neuroma. Test results typically show an asymmetric sensorineural hearing loss, usually more prominent at higher frequencies.

      Vestibular Colorimetric Test: This test has limited utility as a screening test for the diagnosis of acoustic neuroma. A decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen, but with small-sized tumors, a normal response is often seen.

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests can aid in the accurate diagnosis of acoustic neuroma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Which medication is most effective in preventing Meniere's disease attacks? ...

    Correct

    • Which medication is most effective in preventing Meniere's disease attacks?

      Your Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meniere’s Disease

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is still unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The most prominent symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Other symptoms include a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease shows that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients are left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. To manage the condition, an ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis. Patients should inform the DVLA, and the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. During acute attacks, buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine may be administered, and admission to the hospital may be required. To prevent future attacks, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises may be of benefit.

      In summary, Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and can cause recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. While the cause is unknown, there are management strategies available to help control symptoms and prevent future attacks. It is important for patients to seek medical attention and inform the DVLA to ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 75-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about a tiny spot on...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about a tiny spot on his inner, lower lip. The spot has been there for about a month and has not shown any changes during this time. He reports no pain. He used to smoke but quit a decade ago. During the examination, his oral hygiene appears to be good, and there is a small, white patch less than 1 cm in size on the inner surface of his lower lip.
      What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer oral surgery under 2-week wait

      Explanation:

      If a patient has had persistent oral ulceration for more than three weeks, it is recommended that they be referred to oral surgery under the two week wait. This is especially important for smokers, as it raises suspicion for malignancy. Referring the patient to oral surgery under the two week wait is more appropriate than routine referral, as it allows for a quicker diagnosis. Following up with a community dentist is not recommended, as it may cause delays in diagnosis if the patient does not attend. While chlorhexidine may provide symptom relief, it does not address the underlying diagnosis, and reassurance alone is also not sufficient. Medical practitioners should refer patients with this presentation to oral surgery.

      When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery

      Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but does not result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.

      Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 35-year-old woman presents with hearing loss on the left and persistent tinnitus...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with hearing loss on the left and persistent tinnitus for a few weeks. On examination, an absent corneal reflex is noted.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hearing Loss and Tinnitus: A Guide

      When patients present with hearing loss and tinnitus, it is important to consider the various potential causes in order to provide appropriate treatment. One possible cause is acoustic neuroma, a rare tumor that affects the Schwann cells of the nerve sheath in the cerebellopontine angle. Patients with acoustic neuroma typically experience unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus, but vertigo is rare. Examination may reveal facial numbness, weakness, or ataxia, as well as absence of the corneal reflex.

      Another potential cause is Ménière’s disease, which is characterized by sudden attacks of tinnitus, vertigo, a sensation of fullness in the ear, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. However, an absent corneal reflex is not associated with this condition.

      Otosclerosis is a form of conductive hearing loss that often presents in early adulthood, with symptoms including tinnitus and transient vertigo. Again, an absent corneal reflex is not typically observed.

      Vestibular neuronitis, which follows a febrile illness and causes sudden vertigo, vomiting, and prostration exacerbated by head movement, is not associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, or absent corneal reflexes.

      Finally, while impacted ear wax can cause tinnitus and hearing loss, it would not result in an absent corneal reflex on examination. By considering these various potential causes, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with hearing loss and tinnitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is commonly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitors

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.

      The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 38-year-old man presents to you with complaints of a persistent sensation of...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man presents to you with complaints of a persistent sensation of mucus in the back of his throat. He also reports a chronic cough for the past 6 months and frequently experiences bad breath, particularly in the mornings. He admits to smoking 10 cigarettes daily but otherwise feels fine. On examination, his ears appear normal, and his throat shows slight redness with no swelling of the tonsils. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Postnasal drip

      Explanation:

      Nasal tumors can cause symptoms such as nosebleeds, a persistent blocked nose, blood-stained mucus draining from the nose, and a decreased sense of smell. A chronic cough in smokers, known as a smoker’s cough, is caused by damage and destruction of the protective cilia in the respiratory tract. Nasal polyps can result in symptoms such as nasal obstruction, sneezing, rhinorrhea, and a poor sense of taste and smell. If symptoms are unilateral or accompanied by bleeding, it may be a sign of a more serious condition. Nasal foreign bodies, which are commonly found in children, can include items such as peas, beads, buttons, seeds, and sweets.

      Understanding Post-Nasal Drip

      Post-nasal drip is a condition that arises when the nasal mucosa produces an excessive amount of mucus. This excess mucus then accumulates in the back of the nose or throat, leading to a chronic cough and unpleasant breath. Essentially, post-nasal drip occurs when the body produces more mucus than it can handle, resulting in a buildup that can cause discomfort and irritation. This condition can be caused by a variety of factors, including allergies, sinus infections, and even certain medications. Understanding the causes and symptoms of post-nasal drip can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and alleviate their discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with persistent left-sided epistaxis following...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with persistent left-sided epistaxis following a fall and hitting his nose on a door. He has a medical history of hypertension managed with amlodipine, atrial fibrillation managed with apixaban, stroke, and type 2 diabetes managed with metformin. On examination, he has active bleeding from the left anterior nasal septum and is spitting blood. Despite attempting to control the bleeding by squeezing his nose for 30 minutes and inserting a Rapid Rhino, the bleeding persists. What is an indication for surgical intervention in this case?

      Your Answer: Anticoagulant therapy

      Correct Answer: Failure of nasal packing

      Explanation:

      If all emergency measures fail to stop epistaxis, sphenopalatine ligation in a surgical setting may be necessary.

      To manage epistaxis in an emergency, it is important to provide adequate first aid for at least 20 minutes by firmly squeezing both nasal ala and sitting forward. Ice in the mouth can also be helpful. Topical adrenaline and local anaesthetic, as well as topical tranexamic acid, can be applied. If these measures are unsuccessful, nasal packing with devices such as Rapid Rhino may be necessary. If the bleeding persists, a posterior pack or Foley catheter may be used. In cases where all of these measures fail, surgical intervention such as sphenopalatine artery ligation may be required.

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.

      Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, certain factors can exacerbate the condition, such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia. Other causes include the use of cocaine, hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures. This involves asking the patient to sit with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid activities that increase the risk of re-bleeding.

      In cases where emergency management fails, sphenopalatine ligation in theatre may be required. Patients with unknown or posterior sources of bleeding should be admitted to the hospital for observation and review. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 30-year-old woman presents to surgery with a complaint of not having a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to surgery with a complaint of not having a regular menstrual cycle for the past year, despite a negative pregnancy test. You order initial tests to establish a baseline. Which of the following is not included in your list of possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Microprolactinoma

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea is caused by Turner’s syndrome instead of secondary amenorrhoea.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 5-year-old girl presents with a sore throat that has been bothering her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with a sore throat that has been bothering her for 3 days. She has no cough or runny nose. Her mother has kept her home from preschool. Upon examination, she has a fever and swollen tonsils with white patches. She also has tender lymph nodes in her neck.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Tonsillitis Based on Centor Score

      Tonsillitis is a common condition that can be caused by a bacterial or viral infection. Antibiotics are not always necessary for a sore throat, but in cases where the patient has a high probability of a bacterial infection-induced sore throat, antibiotic therapy may be beneficial. The Centor score is a tool used to predict bacterial infection in people with a sore throat. A score of 3 or 4 means that the patient has a high probability of having a bacterial infection-induced sore throat and may benefit from antibiotics.

      The first-line antibiotic therapy for tonsillitis is 10 days of phenoxymethylpenicillin. However, it is important to check the patient’s allergy status before prescribing penicillin. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, 5 days of erythromycin or clarithromycin can be used. Amoxicillin and other broad-spectrum antibiotics should be avoided in the blind treatment of throat infections.

      In cases where the Centor score is 2, a bacterial infection is less likely, and antibiotic therapy is unlikely to be required. In such cases, conservative management such as mouth rinses can be used to alleviate discomfort and swelling.

      It is important to note that antibiotic therapy should only be prescribed when necessary, and a delayed prescription may be considered in some cases. A delayed prescription should only be considered if it is safe not to treat immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 53-year-old man presents to his GP with vertigo and earache. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man presents to his GP with vertigo and earache. He reports feeling that the room is spinning over the past 2 days. On examination, there is a left facial droop, the patient is unable to lift his left eyebrow, along with a vesicular rash around the left ear, the tympanic membrane looks healthy with a preserved cone of light. His heart rate is 78 bpm, blood pressure is 134/84 mmHg and temperature is 37.2ºC. He has a past medical history of type II diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin.

      What is the most appropriate treatment to commence?

      Your Answer: Aciclovir

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir and prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for Ramsay Hunt syndrome, which this man is presenting with, includes both oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. This syndrome is caused by a herpes zoster infection of the facial nerve and can lead to symptoms such as ear pain, vertigo, facial palsy, and a vesicular rash around the ear. While aciclovir alone would not be sufficient, using prednisolone alone is also not recommended. Instead, NICE guidance suggests using both aciclovir and prednisolone to improve outcomes and increase the chances of recovery. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic used to treat skin infections like cellulitis, would not be appropriate in this case as the presence of a vesicular rash makes cellulitis unlikely.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this condition is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      112.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - You assess a 75-year-old woman who is taking several medications. She reports experiencing...

    Correct

    • You assess a 75-year-old woman who is taking several medications. She reports experiencing hearing loss and bilateral tinnitus over the past few months. Which of the following medications could potentially be causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Loop diuretics have the potential to cause ototoxicity.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic after falling off her scooter two...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic after falling off her scooter two hours ago. She fell forward and used her right arm to break her fall. Upon examination, she has minor scrapes on her right forearm but no indication of a fracture. Her nose is red and has some scrapes. Upon examination of her nostrils, there is a bilateral red swelling in the middle that is slightly soft. There are no other indications of a head injury. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent ENT review

      Explanation:

      Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma

      Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the surrounding perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm to the touch.

      If left untreated, nasal septal haematoma can lead to irreversible septal necrosis within just a few days. This occurs due to pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, which can result in necrosis and a saddle-nose deformity. To prevent this, surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics are necessary. It is important to be vigilant for this complication after any nasal trauma, no matter how minor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 38-year-old factory worker undergoes a routine hearing assessment as part of his...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old factory worker undergoes a routine hearing assessment as part of his annual work-based medical. He is noted to have a positive Rinne’s test (normal) and Weber’s test localising to the left ear.
      What is the most likely defect in this patient?

      Your Answer: Right sensorineural hearing loss

      Explanation:

      For a man with a positive Rinne’s test and sound localization to the left ear on Weber’s testing, the diagnosis is likely to be right-sided sensorineural hearing loss. If the Rinne’s test had been negative, it would have indicated left-sided conductive hearing loss. Similarly, if the sound had been localized to the right ear, it would have suggested left-sided sensorineural hearing loss. In the case of bilateral hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on both sides, and the Weber test would not localize to either ear. Finally, if the man had right-sided conductive hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on the right side, and the Weber test would localize to the right side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hearing loss in his right...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of hearing loss in his right ear for the past month. During the examination, the doctor observes hard impacted wax in the affected ear. What are the expected outcomes of the Rinne and Weber's tests?

      Your Answer: Rinne - bone conduction is greater than air conduction on the right and Weber lateralises to the right

      Explanation:

      When wax builds up in the ear, it can lead to conductive hearing loss in that ear. This means that bone conduction is stronger than air conduction in the affected ear, and when performing the Weber test, the sound will be heard more in the affected ear. Other factors that can cause conductive hearing loss include having a foreign object in the ear, experiencing otitis media or otitis externa, having a perforated eardrum, or developing otosclerosis.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that these symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past two months. Specifically, he feels that his left nostril is blocked while his right nostril feels normal. He denies any history of nosebleeds and reports feeling generally healthy. Upon examination, a large nasal polyp is observed in the left nostril. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to refer him to an ENT for a comprehensive examination as unilateral polyps are a warning sign.

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.

      The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 72-year-old man who smokes visits your GP clinic and inquires about potential...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man who smokes visits your GP clinic and inquires about potential complications associated with surgical resection of his malignant parotid gland tumour. What is the classic complication linked to parotid gland surgery?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Lower motor neurone facial palsy

      Explanation:

      A lower motor neurone facial palsy can be caused by parotid pathology.

      After exiting the stylomastoid foramen, the facial nerve passes through the parotid gland and divides into five branches: temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical. If there is any pathology within the parotid gland, it can lead to a lower motor neurone facial palsy. Additionally, surgery to the parotid gland can also result in this complication.

      Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes and Path

      Facial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, which supplies the muscles of facial expression, digastric muscle, and glandular structures. It can be caused by various factors, including sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, acoustic neuromas, and Bell’s palsy. Bilateral facial nerve palsy is less common and can be caused by the same factors as unilateral palsy, but it can also be a result of neurofibromatosis type 2.

      The facial nerve has two paths: the subarachnoid path and the facial canal path. The subarachnoid path originates from the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. It has three branches: the greater petrosal nerve, the nerve to stapedius, and the chorda tympani. The facial nerve then passes through the stylomastoid foramen and gives rise to the posterior auricular nerve and a branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

      It is important to differentiate between lower motor neuron and upper motor neuron lesions in facial nerve palsy. An upper motor neuron lesion spares the upper face, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. Multiple sclerosis and diabetes mellitus can also cause an upper motor neuron palsy. Understanding the causes and path of facial nerve palsy can aid in its diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - As the GPST1 in the emergency department, you are requested to assess a...

    Correct

    • As the GPST1 in the emergency department, you are requested to assess a 34-year-old woman who fell and struck her head while drinking three hours ago. Your consultant instructs you to confirm the absence of any clinical indications of a base of skull fracture. Which of the following is not linked to a base of skull injury?

      Your Answer: Stellwag's sign

      Explanation:

      The base of the skull is made up of three bony fossae: the anterior, middle, and posterior. These structures provide support for various internal structures within the cranium. If these bones are fractured, it can result in damage to associated neurovascular structures, which can have external manifestations in areas such as the nasal cavity or auditory canal. Bleeding from ruptured vessels can lead to haemotympanum or Battle’s sign in the mastoid area, while ruptured CSF spaces can cause CSF rhinorrhoea and otorrhoea. Stellwag’s sign, on the other hand, is not related to base of skull trauma and refers to reduced blinking.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/frusemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain intermittently for the past three weeks, especially during meals. However, the pain has escalated significantly over the last 48 hours.
      During examination, his temperature is 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals inadequate dental hygiene and pus seeping into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Left Submandibular Gland Infection from Other Conditions

      Left submandibular gland infection is a condition that occurs when a submandibular gland calculus obstructs the submandibular duct, leading to stasis of duct contents and infection. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Sialolithiasis, another condition that affects the submandibular gland, typically presents with dull pain around the gland that worsens during mealtimes or when lemon juice is squirted onto the tongue. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes localized tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth.

      Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth, which are common symptoms of left submandibular gland infection. Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth, typically follows a dental infection and presents with marked oedema and tenderness of submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces.

      Mumps parotitis, which typically affects younger patients, presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Unlike left submandibular gland infection, pus is not seen draining into the floor of the mouth.

      In summary, differentiating left submandibular gland infection from other similar conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 42-year-old woman requests a referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman requests a referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic from her General Practitioner. She wishes to discuss the potential removal of unilateral nasal polyps which have failed to respond to a steroid nasal spray.
      Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with this patient’s pathology?

      Your Answer: Kartagener syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Their Association with Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are abnormal growths that develop in the lining of the nasal passages or sinuses. While they can occur in anyone, certain medical conditions may increase the likelihood of their development. Here are some medical conditions and their association with nasal polyps:

      Kartagener Syndrome: This rare autosomal recessive condition is characterized by primary ciliary dyskinesia and situs inversus. Patients with this condition tend to develop chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, recurrent chest and ENT infections, and nasal polyps.

      Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia: This condition is characterized by fatigue, shortness of breath, palpitations, and jaundice as a consequence of haemolysis driving high levels of bilirubin. However, it does not affect the nose and is not linked to nasal polyps.

      Crohn’s Disease: This inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and can also cause extraintestinal manifestations such as arthritis, iritis, and rashes. However, nasal polyps are not associated with this condition.

      Diabetes Mellitus: While nasal polyps are not associated with diabetes mellitus, other conditions including coeliac disease, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and thyroid dysfunction can all develop in affected individuals.

      Hereditary Spherocytosis: This condition is characterized by abnormally shaped erythrocytes and symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Clinical signs include pallor, jaundice, and splenomegaly. However, nasal polyps are not associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the clinic. Her mother reports that she...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the clinic. Her mother reports that she has been complaining of a painful right ear for the past 2-3 days. This morning she noticed some 'yellow pus' coming out of her ear. On examination her temperature is 38.2ºC. Otoscopy of the left ear is normal. On the right side, the tympanic membrane cannot be visualised as the ear canal is filled with a yellow discharge. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin + review in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 53-year-old male smoker presents to the emergency department with a sore throat...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old male smoker presents to the emergency department with a sore throat that has been bothering him for a day. He reports feeling generally unwell and has a hoarse voice, but no cough. He has been unable to swallow for the past three hours and is spitting out saliva. During examination, he has a temperature of 38ºC and trismus. There are no obvious abnormalities in his oropharynx, and his tonsils appear normal. Additionally, he has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate ENT evaluation

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with acute sore throat but no visible signs in the oropharynx, and experiences severe symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, sepsis, or trismus, it is crucial to seek urgent evaluation from an ENT specialist. This is because these symptoms may indicate a deeper airway infection, such as supraglottitis, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, the patient should not be discharged without a thorough examination, including flexible nasendoscopy. If supraglottitis is diagnosed, treatment should involve IV antibiotics, IV dexamethasone, and adrenaline nebulizers. The patient should be closely monitored in an airway monitored bed, such as in an ENT ward or ICU if necessary.

      Sore throat is a term used to describe various conditions such as pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, throat swabs and rapid antigen tests should not be routinely carried out for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be managed with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not typically necessary. However, in cases where there is marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when three or more Centor criteria are present, antibiotics may be indicated. The Centor and FeverPAIN scoring systems can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin (for penicillin-allergic patients) can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. It is worth noting that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, although this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 32-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about experiencing frequent episodes...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about experiencing frequent episodes of dizziness for the past four weeks, lasting about 1 hour each time. He has also noticed a ‘fullness sensation and ringing’ in his right ear.
      Select the SINGLE most probable diagnosis from the options below.

      Your Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Causes of Vertigo: Ménière’s Disease, BPPV, Acoustic Neuroma, Vestibular Neuritis, and Cholesteatoma

      Vertigo is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is Ménière’s disease, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms including fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. On the other hand, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is induced by specific movements and is accompanied by nausea, light-headedness, and imbalance. Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, presents with progressive ipsilateral tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss, facial numbness, and giddiness. Vestibular neuritis, which follows a febrile illness, is characterized by sudden vertigo, vomiting, and prostration, while cholesteatoma tends to be asymptomatic in the early stages and is characterized by a foul-smelling discharge and conductive hearing loss. Management of vertigo includes self-care advice, medication, and referral to an ENT specialist to confirm the condition and exclude sinister causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the general practice clinic with a sore throat...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the general practice clinic with a sore throat and fever that have been present for 3 days. What clinical sign would indicate that the patient may have a bacterial throat infection and could benefit from antibiotics? Choose ONE positive indicator from the options provided.

      Your Answer: Tender cervical lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Assessing the Need for Antibiotics in Acute Sore Throat: Understanding the Centor Criteria and Other Indicators

      When a patient presents with a sore throat, it is important to determine whether antibiotics are necessary for treatment. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN score are two approved scoring systems used to predict the likelihood of a bacterial cause for the sore throat.

      Tender cervical lymphadenopathy is one of the parameters in the Centor criteria and scores 1 point. Other parameters include age, exudate on tonsils, absence of cough, and fever. A score of 3 or more suggests a high probability of bacterial infection and the need for antibiotic treatment.

      Cough present is not an indicator for antibiotic therapy, but its absence is one of the factors in the Centor criteria. Sore throat alone is also not an indicator for antibiotics, but a score of 4-5 on the FeverPAIN score or a Centor criteria score above 3 may indicate the need for antibiotics.

      Vomiting and nasal congestion are not included in either scoring system for determining the need for antibiotics. However, vomiting may be a sign of severe illness and dehydration, and any patient presenting with vomiting and a sore throat should be assessed for signs of sepsis and dehydration. Nasal congestion may suggest a viral cause for the sore throat, but alternative causes should still be assessed.

      In summary, understanding the Centor criteria and other indicators can help healthcare providers determine whether antibiotics are necessary for treating acute sore throat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 45-year-old woman attends the general practice surgery with her husband who is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman attends the general practice surgery with her husband who is concerned that since she has started working from home several months ago, she has had a continuous cold. She reports frequent sneezing, clear nasal discharge and a terrible taste in her mouth in the morning. Her eyes look red and feel itchy. She has noticed that the symptoms improve when she is at the office or when they have been on vacation. She has a history of migraines and is otherwise well. She has not yet tried any treatment for her symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic rhinitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Allergic Rhinitis: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis

      Allergic rhinitis is a common condition that presents with a range of symptoms, including sneezing, itchiness, rhinorrhea, and a blocked nose. Patients with allergic rhinitis often experience eye symptoms such as bilateral itchiness, redness, and swelling. While the diagnosis of allergic rhinitis is usually based on characteristic features, it is important to exclude infectious and irritant causes.

      In this case, the patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest an allergic cause for his condition. It would be prudent to inquire about his new home environment, as the allergen may be animal dander from a pet or house dust mites if there are more soft furnishings and carpets than in his previous home.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as acute infective rhinitis, acute sinusitis, rhinitis medicamentosa, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma, can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history. For example, acute infective rhinitis would present more acutely with discolored nasal discharge and other upper respiratory tract infection symptoms. Acute sinusitis would present with facial pain or pressure and discolored nasal discharge. Rhinitis medicamentosa is caused by long-term use of intranasal decongestants, which is not the case for this patient. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is rare and typically presents with unilateral symptoms and a middle-ear effusion.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, causes, and differential diagnosis of allergic rhinitis is crucial for proper management and treatment of this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - As a general practice registrar, you are reviewing a patient who was referred...

    Incorrect

    • As a general practice registrar, you are reviewing a patient who was referred to ENT and has a history of acoustic neuroma on the right side. The patient, who is in their mid-50s, returned 2 months ago with pulsatile tinnitus in the left ear and was diagnosed with a left-sided acoustic neuroma after undergoing an MRI scan. Surgery is scheduled for later this week. What is the probable cause of this patient's recurrent acoustic neuromas?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 2

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type 2 is commonly linked to bilateral acoustic neuromas (vestibular schwannomas). Additionally, individuals with this condition may also experience benign neurological tumors and lens opacities.

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of a persistent blocked nose...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of a persistent blocked nose and reduced sense of smell for the past few months. During examination, the doctor observes pale grey mucosal sacs in both nostrils. The patient has a history of allergies but is otherwise healthy. What is the most likely condition she is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Aspirin usage

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Medication Usage: A Brief Overview

      Aspirin Usage and Nasal Polyps
      Nasal polyps, asthma, and rhinosinusitis are all symptoms of aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease. This condition is caused by hypersensitivity to aspirin or other cyclooxygenase 1 inhibitors and typically develops in individuals aged 30-40 years. Treatment involves avoiding non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and in some cases, aspirin desensitization may be performed.

      COPD and Nasal Polyps
      While nasal polyps can be associated with asthma, there is no known association with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smokers with nosebleeds or unilateral nasal polyps should be referred for urgent ENT assessment to rule out malignancy.

      Infective Endocarditis and Nasal Polyps
      Infective endocarditis occurs when bacteria enters the bloodstream, usually via poor dentition, an open wound, or mechanical device placed in the heart. There is no known association between nasal polyps and infective endocarditis.

      Paracetamol Usage and Nasal Polyps
      Nasal polyps are associated with aspirin sensitivity, not sensitivity to paracetamol. According to the British National Formulary, the only side effect of oral paracetamol is thrombocytopenia, which is considered very rare.

      Simvastatin Usage and Nasal Polyps
      Nasal polyps are not a recognized side effect of statins, which can cause muscle aches, headaches, diarrhea, and sleep disturbances.

      Understanding Medical Conditions and Medication Usage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 44-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of vertigo. He had a...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of vertigo. He had a cough and sore throat last week and has been experiencing a spinning sensation since then. The vertigo can last for hours and causes significant nausea, making it difficult for him to leave the house and go to work as a teacher. During an ENT examination, the GP observes horizontal nystagmus and intact tympanic membranes with no hearing loss. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Short course of oral prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      In cases of vestibular neuronitis, prochlorperazine can be effective during the acute phase, but it should not be continued for an extended period as it can hinder the central compensatory mechanisms that aid in recovery. This patient’s symptoms, including recurrent vertigo attacks, nausea, and horizontal nystagmus, are consistent with vestibular neuronitis, likely triggered by a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. A brief course of oral prochlorperazine is recommended, with the option of using buccal or intramuscular administration for more severe cases. However, it is important to discontinue prochlorperazine after a few days to avoid impeding the recovery process. Long-term use of prochlorperazine would not be appropriate in this situation.

      Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis

      Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus, or involuntary eye movements, is a common symptom, but there is usually no hearing loss or tinnitus.

      It is important to distinguish vestibular neuronitis from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as viral labyrinthitis or posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to differentiate between vestibular neuronitis and stroke.

      Treatment for vestibular neuronitis may involve medications such as prochlorperazine or antihistamines to alleviate symptoms. However, vestibular rehabilitation exercises are often the preferred treatment for patients with chronic symptoms. These exercises can help to retrain the brain and improve balance and coordination. With proper management, most people with vestibular neuronitis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 45-year-old woman, who came to the Emergency Department two days ago for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman, who came to the Emergency Department two days ago for uncontrolled epistaxis, has been admitted following Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) referral. Bleeding was located and managed by anterior nasal packing. She had no complications following the procedure. However, on the third day, she developed fever, myalgia, hypotension, rashes in the genital mucocutaneous junctions, generalized oedema and several episodes of bloody diarrhoea, with nausea and vomiting.
      Which of the following investigations/findings would help you make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP)

      Correct Answer: Culture and sensitivity of posterior nasal swab

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Laboratory Findings in a Patient with Posterior Nasal Swab Procedure

      Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a potential complication of an infected posterior nasal swab in the management of epistaxis. A culture and sensitivity test of the posterior nasal swab can confirm the presence of Staphylococcus aureus, which is recovered in 80-90% of cases. However, a positive result is not necessary for a clinical diagnosis of TSS if the patient presents with fever, rashes, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, and watery diarrhea, along with derangements reflecting shock and organ failure.

      Blood cultures are not required for the diagnosis of TSS caused by S. aureus, as only 5% of cases turn out to be positive. Eosinophilia is not characteristic of TSS, but rather a hallmark of drug reactions with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS). TSS is characterized by leukocytosis, while Kawasaki’s disease is characterized by an increase in acute phase reactants (erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein) and localized edema.

      A non-blanching purpuric rash is typically seen in meningococcal infection and does not match with the other clinical features and history of posterior nasal swab procedure in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 32-year-old man complains of left ear pain and hearing loss for the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man complains of left ear pain and hearing loss for the past week. He is an avid swimmer. During examination, you observe pre-auricular lymph nodes on the left side. The ear is inflamed, red, and tender to touch. A small amount of yellow discharge is visible in the ear canal.
      What is the initial treatment of choice after obtaining swabs?

      Your Answer: Topical antibiotic drops

      Explanation:

      Patients suffering from otitis media typically experience relief from symptoms within 4 days without the need for antibiotics. While antibiotics can help shorten the duration of symptoms, they come with the risk of side effects and drug resistance. Therefore, treatment is usually postponed unless symptoms persist, the patient is generally unwell, or symptoms affect both ears. In rare cases, ear syringing may be used as a secondary treatment to remove debris from the ear canal.

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management

      Otitis externa is a common condition that often prompts patients to seek medical attention. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and is caused by various factors such as infection, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger of otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal appears red, swollen, or eczematous.

      The recommended initial management of otitis externa involves the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. In cases where there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, while an ear wick may be inserted if the canal is extensively swollen. Second-line options include oral antibiotics, taking a swab inside the ear canal, and empirical use of an antifungal agent.

      It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, referral to an ENT specialist may be necessary. Malignant otitis externa is a more serious condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of otitis externa is crucial in providing appropriate care and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for several months....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for several months. Her mother and brother had similar issues. Ear examination reveals no abnormalities. An audiometry test indicates bilateral conductive hearing loss.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss and Their Characteristics

      Hearing loss can be caused by various factors, including genetic factors, abnormal bone formation, and tumors. Here are some common causes of hearing loss and their characteristics:

      1. Otosclerosis: This condition affects young adults and causes conductive deafness. It is caused by abnormal bone formation around the base of the stapes, which eventually fuses with the bone of the cochlea, reducing normal sound transmission.

      2. Glue ear: This is a type of conductive hearing loss that is more common in children. There is no evidence of ear examination, but it can cause hearing difficulties.

      3. Meniere’s disease: This is a sensorineural type of hearing loss that is usually accompanied by vertigo and a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear.

      4. Presbycusis: This is a sensorineural hearing loss that is associated with aging. Audiometry should show a bilateral high-frequency hearing loss.

      5. Vestibular schwannomas: This is a benign primary intracranial tumor that affects the vestibulocochlear nerve. It commonly presents with unilateral hearing loss and can affect the facial nerve causing facial palsy as well.

      Understanding the characteristics of these common causes of hearing loss can help in early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling on the...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful swelling on the left side of her neck below the jaw angle that has been bothering her for the past 5 days. She also reports a bad taste in her mouth. During the physical examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.8ºC and a tender submandibular mass measuring 4x5cm. Additionally, there is tender lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sialadenitis

      Explanation:

      This woman is experiencing sialadenitis, which is inflammation of the salivary gland. It is likely caused by a stone blocking the duct. The submandibular gland is located below the jawline and its duct drains into the floor of the mouth. When there is a discharge from this duct, it can cause a bad taste in the mouth. There are three main salivary glands: the parotid glands, which are located in front of and below each ear, the submandibular glands, which are located below the jawline, and the sublingual glands, which are located beneath the tongue. Disorders of these glands can be caused by infection, inflammation, obstruction, or malignancy. Swelling of the submandibular gland can be caused by a stone or a tumor, which can be either benign or malignant.

      Salivary Glands and Their Pathologies

      Salivary glands are responsible for producing saliva, which aids in digestion and protects the mouth from harmful bacteria. There are three pairs of salivary glands: parotid, submandibular, and sublingual. The parotid gland is the most common site for tumors, while the submandibular gland is most commonly affected by stones.

      Tumors in the salivary glands are rare, but when they do occur, 80% of them are found in the parotid gland. Of these, 80% are pleomorphic adenomas, which are benign. These tumors typically grow slowly and are painless, but surgical removal carries a risk of damage to the facial nerve (CN VII). Warthin’s tumor is another benign tumor that affects the salivary glands, but it is less common than pleomorphic adenomas.

      Stones in the salivary glands can cause recurrent pain and swelling, especially when eating. They are most commonly found in the submandibular gland and can lead to infection if left untreated. Other causes of salivary gland enlargement include viral or bacterial infections, as well as autoimmune disorders like Sjogren’s syndrome. Proper diagnosis and treatment are important for managing these conditions and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      67
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 75-year-old man complains of persistent ringing in his left ear for the...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man complains of persistent ringing in his left ear for the past 4 months. He has also noticed a decline in hearing from his left ear over the past 2 weeks. During the examination, Rinne's test reveals that air conduction is louder than bone conduction in the left ear, and Weber's test shows lateralisation to the right ear. Which of the following conditions is likely to present with unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      The traditional presentation of vestibular schwannoma involves a blend of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing impairment, tinnitus, and a missing corneal reflex.

      An acoustic neuroma is typically linked to one-sided tinnitus and hearing loss.

      Tinnitus and deafness are not commonly associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), which is a condition characterized by demyelination.

      Chronic otitis media is a persistent inflammation of the middle ear and mastoid cavity, which is marked by recurring otorrhoea and conductive hearing loss.

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 58-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of facial paralysis. She also complains of some mild ear pain over the last 2 days. On examination, she has a fixed half-smile on the left side of her face. She is unable to raise her left eyelid and has increased sensitivity to sound in her left ear. She denies dizziness or vertigo. The remainder of her cranial nerve examination is normal. ENT examination shows an erythematous left ear canal and vesicles over her soft palate.
      What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir and prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with a facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash, Ramsay Hunt syndrome should be considered. The vesicles may not be limited to the ear canal and can also appear on the tongue or soft palate. Treatment typically involves administering oral aciclovir and corticosteroids, unless the patient is severely ill. Ganciclovir is used to treat cytomegalovirus, while amoxicillin would be a more suitable option if bacterial otitis media was the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this condition is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 49-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with a sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with a sudden onset of dizziness, describing the sensation of the room spinning around her. The dizziness persists and does not improve with rest, accompanied by severe nausea and vomiting. She reports hearing loss in her left ear and has recently experienced a cough and coryza episode. The patient has no prior medical history.

      Upon examination, Rinne's test reveals air conduction greater than bone conduction in both ears, and Weber's test lateralizes to her right ear. The patient displays normal eye movements with mild horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze and intact coordination.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuritis

      Correct Answer: Labyrinthitis

      Explanation:

      A typical scenario for viral labyrinthitis involves a person who has recently had a respiratory infection and suddenly experiences vertigo, vomiting, and hearing loss. The symptoms are usually severe and persistent, and rest may not provide relief. This is likely caused by a viral infection in the inner ear, which is known as labyrinthitis. Given the patient’s history, this is the most probable diagnosis.

      Understanding Vertigo and Its Causes

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. It can be caused by various factors, including viral infections, vestibular neuronitis, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, Meniere’s disease, vertebrobasilar ischaemia, and acoustic neuroma.

      Viral labyrinthitis and vestibular neuronitis are often associated with recent viral infections and can cause sudden onset vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. While hearing may be affected in viral labyrinthitis, vestibular neuronitis does not cause hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, on the other hand, has a gradual onset and is triggered by changes in head position. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds.

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and a sensation of fullness or pressure in one or both ears. Vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is more common in elderly patients, can cause dizziness when the neck is extended. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with neurofibromatosis type 2, can cause hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. An absent corneal reflex is an important sign of this condition.

      Other causes of vertigo include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin. Understanding the different causes of vertigo can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      74.4
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sore throat, runny nose,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sore throat, runny nose, cough, feeling feverish and generally unwell for the past week. He reports no difficulty eating or drinking.
      Upon examination, his temperature is 37.2°C, and his chest is clear, but he has a dry cough. His tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. He has no significant medical history.
      Based on his Fever PAIN score, what would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise her that antibiotics are not indicated at this point and to return in one week if there is no improvement

      Explanation:

      Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use for Pharyngitis

      When a patient presents with symptoms of pharyngitis, it can be difficult to determine whether antibiotics are necessary. The FeverPAIN Score for Streptococcus pharyngitis was developed to help assess which patients have streptococcal pharyngitis and therefore require antibiotics.

      The score assigns points based on the presence of fever, pus, quick attenuation of symptoms, inflamed tonsils, and cough.
      Fever PAIN score
      Fever – 1
      Pus – 1
      Attenuates quickly – 1
      Inflamed tonsils – 1
      No cough – 1
      A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection and does not require antibiotics. A score of 2-3 may warrant a delayed antibiotic prescription, while a score of 4 or more may require immediate antibiotics.

      In the case of a patient with a low FeverPAIN score, it is important to advise against antibiotics and instead recommend a follow-up visit in one week if there is no improvement. Safety netting should also be provided to ensure the patient is aware of potential warning signs of deterioration. By using the FeverPAIN score, healthcare providers can reduce inappropriate antibiotic use in pharyngitis and promote more effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 32-year-old construction worker visits his doctor complaining of hay fever symptoms. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old construction worker visits his doctor complaining of hay fever symptoms. He is experiencing frequent sneezing and a runny nose and is seeking medication to alleviate his discomfort. Considering his job, which antihistamine would be safe for him to use?

      Your Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      Loratadine is an antihistamine that does not cause drowsiness. It works by targeting histamine H1 receptors to relieve allergy symptoms like sneezing and runny nose. As the patient is a heavy goods vehicle driver, it is advisable to recommend a non-sedating antihistamine like loratadine. Chlorphenamine, on the other hand, is a sedating antihistamine used in anaphylaxis treatment and is not suitable for the patient’s occupation. Cimetidine inhibits stomach acid production and does not help with allergy symptoms. Cinnarizine is a sedating antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting and may not be effective for the patient’s condition. Diphenhydramine is also a sedating antihistamine and not recommended for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of progressive hearing loss...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of progressive hearing loss in both ears. What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Presbycusis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss: A Brief Overview

      Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including age, infection, genetic predisposition, and growths in the ear. Here are some common causes of hearing loss:

      Presbyacusis: This is an age-related hearing loss that affects sounds at high frequency. It is the most likely diagnosis in cases of hearing loss in older adults.

      Otitis externa: This is inflammation of the external ear canal, which can cause pain, discharge, and conductive deafness.

      Cholesteatoma: This is a destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinising squamous epithelium in the middle ear and/or mastoid process. It can cause ear discharge, conductive deafness, and other symptoms.

      Ménière’s disease: This is a condition that causes sudden attacks of tinnitus, vertigo, a sensation of fullness in the ear, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss.

      Otosclerosis: This is a form of conductive hearing loss that often occurs in early adult life. It can also cause tinnitus and transient vertigo.

      If you are experiencing hearing loss, it is important to see a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 55-year-old woman with a history of diabetes complains of left-sided ear pain...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman with a history of diabetes complains of left-sided ear pain and discharge. During examination, her temperature is recorded at 37.9ºC and there is red discharge in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is partially visible and appears normal. Despite visiting the out of hours clinic twice and using different ear drops for two weeks, her symptoms persist. What course of treatment should be recommended?

      Your Answer: Referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      It is probable that the patient is suffering from malignant otitis externa, a condition that affects individuals with weakened immune systems like those with diabetes. This condition is characterized by osteomyelitis of the temporal bone. Despite receiving several rounds of antibiotic drops, the patient’s symptoms have not improved. It is recommended that the patient be referred to an ENT specialist for a CT scan of the temporal bones and treated with an extended course of intravenous antibiotics.

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management

      Otitis externa is a common condition that often prompts patients to seek medical attention. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and is caused by various factors such as infection, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger of otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal appears red, swollen, or eczematous.

      The recommended initial management of otitis externa involves the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. In cases where there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, while an ear wick may be inserted if the canal is extensively swollen. Second-line options include oral antibiotics, taking a swab inside the ear canal, and empirical use of an antifungal agent.

      It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, referral to an ENT specialist may be necessary. Malignant otitis externa is a more serious condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of otitis externa is crucial in providing appropriate care and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 35-year-old man presented to his GP with bilateral deafness. Rinne’s test was...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presented to his GP with bilateral deafness. Rinne’s test was found to be negative bilaterally. Weber's test was referred to both sides. On examination of his tympanic membrane, Schwartz's sign was visible.
      Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Hearing Loss: A Comparison of Otosclerosis, Cholesteatoma, Ménière’s Disease, Otitis Externa, and Otitis Media

      Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including otosclerosis, cholesteatoma, Ménière’s disease, otitis externa, and otitis media. When conducting a differential diagnosis, it is important to consider the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.

      Otosclerosis is a common cause of hearing loss in young adults, typically presenting as unilateral conductive hearing loss that progresses bilaterally. A negative Rinne’s test is indicative of conductive deafness, and a pink tinge on the tympanic membrane (Schwartz’s sign) is a diagnostic indicator for otosclerosis.

      Cholesteatoma, on the other hand, typically presents with unilateral conductive hearing loss and/or ear discharge. Given the patient’s bilateral symptoms and young age, cholesteatoma is less likely to be the cause of her hearing loss.

      Ménière’s disease is characterized by sudden attacks of tinnitus, vertigo, a sensation of fullness in the ear, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. This is not the likely cause of the patient’s conductive hearing loss.

      Otitis externa is inflammation of the external ear canal, which can cause hearing loss in rare cases due to occlusion of the ear canal from inflammation. Otitis media, on the other hand, is inflammation of the middle ear and is more commonly seen in children. It may present with unilateral conductive deafness, but is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s bilateral symptoms.

      In conclusion, when considering the causes of hearing loss, it is important to take into account the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history. Otosclerosis is the most likely cause of conductive hearing loss in young adults, while cholesteatoma, Ménière’s disease, otitis externa, and otitis media may also be potential causes depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 68-year-old male visits his primary care physician with a complaint of persistent...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male visits his primary care physician with a complaint of persistent left-sided ear pain for over a month. He reports no hearing loss or discharge and feels generally healthy. He has a history of hypertension and currently smokes 15 cigarettes a day. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT under 2-week wait

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences unexplained ear pain on one side for more than 4 weeks and there are no visible abnormalities during an otoscopy, it is important to refer them for further investigation under the 2-week wait. This is particularly crucial for individuals who smoke, as they are at a higher risk for head and neck cancer. Using topical antibiotic/steroid drops or nasal steroid sprays without identifying any underlying pathology is not recommended. While amitriptyline may provide relief for symptoms, it should not be used as a substitute for proper diagnosis and treatment. Referring the patient for further evaluation is necessary to rule out the possibility of malignancy.

      Understanding Head and Neck Cancer

      Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Symptoms of head and neck cancer may include a neck lump, hoarseness, persistent sore throat, and mouth ulcers.

      To ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established suspected cancer pathway referral criteria. For instance, individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for laryngeal cancer. Similarly, those with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for oral cancer.

      Dentists may also play a role in identifying potential cases of oral cancer. Individuals with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia may be urgently referred for assessment within two weeks. Finally, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for thyroid cancer. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of head and neck cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-month history of nasal congestion and coughing. Over the previous few days, she has also been experiencing a persistent headache which seems to be worse when she leans forward.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic rhinosinusitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Chronic Rhinosinusitis from Other Headache Disorders

      Chronic rhinosinusitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses and nasal passages that lasts for 12 weeks or longer. Patients with chronic rhinosinusitis typically present with symptoms such as nasal congestion, coughing, persistent headache that worsens on bending forwards, facial pain, nasal discharge, and postnasal drip. Predisposing factors for chronic rhinosinusitis include atopy, nasal obstruction, recent local infection, swimming or diving, and smoking. Management of chronic rhinosinusitis involves avoidance of allergens, intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline.

      Acute sinusitis shares many features with chronic rhinosinusitis, but the history of symptoms is much shorter. Treatment for acute sinusitis includes analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids if symptoms persist for more than ten days. Oral antibiotics may be given for severe presentations.

      Cluster headaches are characterized by intense, sharp, stabbing pain around one eye, accompanied by eye redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, skin erythema, miosis or ptosis. Cluster headaches occur in clusters lasting between four and 12 weeks, with patients feeling completely fine in between clusters. Tension headaches are described as a band-like headache that does not impair activities of daily living.

      Postnasal drip (PND) typically presents with a chronic cough and bad breath, unlike the presentation in chronic rhinosinusitis. It is important to differentiate chronic rhinosinusitis from other headache disorders to ensure appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      21.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (53/70) 76%
Passmed