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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old man comes to see his GP with complaints of worsening urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to see his GP with complaints of worsening urinary symptoms. He reports frequent urges to urinate throughout the day and has experienced occasional incontinence. He denies any hesitancy, dribbling, or weak stream. Despite trying bladder retraining, he has seen little improvement.

      During the examination, the GP notes that the man's prostate is smooth, regular, and not enlarged. A recent PSA test came back normal. The patient has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Finasteride

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Antimuscarinic drugs are a recommended treatment for patients experiencing an overactive bladder, which is characterized by storage symptoms like urgency and frequency without any voiding symptoms. If lifestyle measures and bladder training fail to alleviate symptoms, the next step is to try an antimuscarinic agent like oxybutynin, which works by blocking contractions of the detrusor muscle. Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is not suitable for this patient as it is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and associated voiding symptoms. Furosemide, which increases urine production during the day and reduces it at night, is not appropriate for this patient as he does not have nocturia and it may even worsen his overactive bladder symptoms. Mirabegron, a beta-3 agonist that relaxes the detrusor muscle and increases bladder storage capacity, is a second-line medication used if antimuscarinics are not effective or well-tolerated.

      Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.

      For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practice with a lump in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practice with a lump in her neck. During examination, the GP observes a diffusely enlarged thyroid swelling with an audible bruit but no retrosternal extension. The patient reports no difficulty with breathing or swallowing. The patient appears underweight and anxious, with a pulse rate of 110 bpm and signs of proptosis, periorbital oedema, lid retraction and diplopia. The GP suspects hyperthyroidism and refers the patient to the Endocrinology Clinic.
      What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hyperthyroidism: Understanding the Different Factors

      Hyperthyroidism is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, which results in the production of too much thyroid hormone. There are several factors that can contribute to the development of hyperthyroidism, each with its own unique characteristics and symptoms. Here are some of the most common causes of hyperthyroidism:

      1. Graves’ Disease: This autoimmune disorder is responsible for around 75% of all cases of hyperthyroidism. It occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, causing it to produce too much thyroid hormone. Patients with Graves’ disease may also experience eye symptoms, such as bulging eyes or double vision.

      2. Toxic Nodule: A toxic nodule is a benign growth on the thyroid gland that produces excess thyroid hormone. It accounts for up to 5% of cases of hyperthyroidism and can be treated with surgery or radioactive iodine.

      3. Toxic Multinodular Goitre: This condition is similar to a toxic nodule, but involves multiple nodules on the thyroid gland. It is the second most common cause of hyperthyroidism and can also be treated with surgery or radioactive iodine.

      4. Over-Treating Hypothyroidism: In some cases, treating an underactive thyroid gland (hypothyroidism) with too much thyroid hormone can result in symptoms of hyperthyroidism. This is known as thyrotoxicosis and can be corrected by adjusting the dosage of thyroid hormone medication.

      5. Medullary Carcinoma: This rare form of thyroid cancer develops from C cells in the thyroid gland and can cause high levels of calcitonin. However, it does not typically result in hyperthyroidism.

      Understanding the different causes of hyperthyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you are experiencing symptoms of hyperthyroidism, such as weight loss, rapid heartbeat, or anxiety, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 3 - A 51-year-old man is admitted at the request of his concerned family due...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man is admitted at the request of his concerned family due to increased confusion. This has occurred over the past 3 months and has become steadily worse. He was living independently and had been an active local councillor. Now he is unable to identify his family members.
      Examination findings: pleasantly confused, intermittent jerky movements of both upper arms.
      The following investigations were performed:
      CT brain: normal
      Dementia screen: normal
      Which one of the following diagnostic tests will assist most in diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electroencephalogram

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Rapid Cognitive Decline in a Middle-Aged Patient: A Case of Sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease

      When a patient in their 60s presents with rapid cognitive decline and myoclonic jerks, the possibility of sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (sCJD) should be considered. Despite negative findings from other investigations, a lumbar puncture and electroencephalogram (EEG) can support the diagnosis of sCJD. The EEG will show generalised bi- or triphasic periodic sharp wave complexes, while definitive diagnosis can only be made from biopsy. Doppler ultrasound of carotids is relevant for vascular dementia, but the steady decline in this case suggests sCJD. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is unlikely to aid diagnosis, and muscle biopsy is unnecessary as myoclonic jerks are a symptom of sCJD. Bone marrow biopsy is only useful if myelodysplastic syndrome is suspected, which is not the case here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 4 - A patient in their mid-40s is transferred from a District General Hospital to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their mid-40s is transferred from a District General Hospital to the Burns and Trauma Centre. They arrive intubated. The history is that they were on some scaffolding holding a pole, which they touched onto an overhead powerline, causing electrocution. They fell backwards and were found to be in ventricular fibrillation (VF) arrest by paramedics, who resuscitated them with defibrillation. They have small burns on their hands and also their left foot. On arrival at the Trauma Centre, they have a full CT traumagram which showed no other injuries. Their C-spine has been radiologically cleared. You are examining them, and you notice they have a swollen, tight left leg. The nurse brings you their blood gas, and you see they have a potassium level of 6.3 and they have mild metabolic acidaemia, with a pH of 7.21. Their urine is tea-coloured (catheter in situ), with a creatine kinase (CK) level of 1232.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform fasciotomies on his left leg

      Explanation:

      Emergency Treatment for Compartment Syndrome and Rhabdomyolysis Following Electrocution

      A patient has been admitted with compartment syndrome, rhabdomyolysis, and hyperkalaemia following electrocution. The safest response is to perform fasciotomies on the affected muscle compartment to prevent further rhabdomyolysis and save the limb. While treating the mild hyperkalaemia and checking CK levels and renal function are important, they are not immediate priorities. Anticoagulation is not necessary without confirmation of deep vein thrombosis. X-rays are unnecessary as a trauma CT scan has already been performed. Elevating the limb may help reduce pressure, but the only way to treat the underlying compartment syndrome is through emergency fasciotomies. Debridement of the burns is unlikely to be necessary at this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man who has never been screened for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has never been screened for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) wants to participate in the NHS screening programme for AAA. He reports no recent abdominal or back pain, has no chronic medical conditions, is not taking any long-term medications, has never smoked, and has no family history of AAA. An aortic ultrasound is performed and shows an abdominal aorta diameter of 5.7 cm. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him to be seen by a vascular specialist within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have an abdominal aorta diameter measuring 5.5 cm or more should receive an appointment with a vascular specialist within 14 days of being diagnosed. Those with an abdominal aorta diameter ranging from 3 cm to 5.4 cm should be referred to a regional vascular service and seen within 12 weeks of diagnosis. For individuals with an abdominal aorta diameter of 3 cm to 4.4 cm, a repeat scan should be conducted annually. As the patient is in good health, hospitalization is not necessary.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old man from Manchester presents to you with a complaint that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man from Manchester presents to you with a complaint that he has been treated for oral thrush by one of your colleagues for several months, but the topical treatment has not been effective. He is currently taking an oral anticoagulant for a DVT that occurred without any apparent cause, and has recently experienced an outbreak of shingles. He has not taken any antibiotics recently and has recently separated from his long-term male partner. Upon examination, he appears to be thin and has typical Candida on his tongue and palate. Which test would be the most appropriate to perform in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Oral Candidiasis and its Association with Immune System Defects

      Oral candidiasis, a fungal infection in the mouth, is a concerning condition in young healthy individuals as it may indicate an underlying defect in the immune system. Further investigation is necessary to identify the root cause of the infection. In London, men who have sex with men have a high prevalence of HIV, which is a likely diagnosis in such cases. HIV weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections and other health complications.

      Apart from HIV, other immune system defects may also lead to oral candidiasis. Recurrent attacks of shingles in a young person may also indicate a weakened immune system. Additionally, HIV infection is a predisposing factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a condition where blood clots form in the veins deep within the body. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of oral candidiasis and other related conditions to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

      Overall, oral candidiasis is a red flag for immune system defects, and healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying and addressing the root cause of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - A 14-month-old boy is seen by his doctor. He has been experiencing fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old boy is seen by his doctor. He has been experiencing fever and cold symptoms for the past 2 days. Recently, he has developed a harsh cough and his parents are concerned. During the examination, the doctor observes that the child has a temperature of 38ÂșC and is experiencing inspiratory stridor, but there are no signs of intercostal recession. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A cohort of individuals with type I diabetes mellitus, aged 50-60 years, with...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort of individuals with type I diabetes mellitus, aged 50-60 years, with blood glucose levels between 8.0 and 10.0 mmol/l for a minimum of 10 years, underwent rectal biopsies. The results revealed the presence of osmotic cellular injury in arterioles. What clinical complication is linked with this type of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impotence

      Explanation:

      The Sorbitol/Aldose Reductase Pathway and Diabetic Complications

      Hyperglycaemia in diabetes can lead to the formation of sorbitol in tissues that do not require insulin for glucose uptake, such as the retina, kidney, and nerves. This occurs through the sorbitol/aldose reductase pathway, which is implicated in microvascular damage to nervous tissue, retina, and kidney. When glucose is present in excess, it enters this pathway where aldose reductase reduces it to sorbitol, which cannot cross cell membranes and accumulates, producing osmotic stresses on cells by drawing water into the cell. Sorbitol dehydrogenase can then oxidise sorbitol to fructose, which also produces NADH from NAD+. Excessive activation of this pathway leads to increased levels of reactive oxygen species, which can promote cell damage.

      While most body cells require insulin for glucose to enter the cell, the cells of the retina, kidney, and nervous tissues are insulin-independent, allowing for a free interchange of glucose intracellularly to extracellularly. Any glucose not used for energy will be converted into sorbitol, leading to osmotic cellular injury. This can result in microvascular damage to nervous tissue, retina, and kidney, causing diabetic complications.

      Cerebral infarction, congestive heart failure, pyelonephritis, and rectal ulceration are not directly related to osmotic vascular injury caused by the sorbitol/aldose reductase pathway. However, atherosclerotic cerebrovascular disease and coronary artery disease are more frequent with diabetes mellitus and can cause damage to the brain and heart, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old man is discovered to have a prolonged corrected QT interval (QTc)...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man is discovered to have a prolonged corrected QT interval (QTc) of 480 ms on his pre-operative ECG. The anaesthetist suggests modifying one of his medications before the surgery. Which of the following drugs are recognized to cause QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sotalol

      Explanation:

      Sotalol is the only beta blocker known to cause long QT syndrome. Tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, and haloperidol can also cause QTc prolongation, while benzodiazepines and short-acting beta-receptor agonists are not known to have this effect.

      Understanding Long QT Syndrome

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.

      LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side, a positive Babinski sign on the left, and facial paralysis on the left lower two-thirds. However, the patient's speech is fluent and they have normal comprehension of verbal and written commands. Which cerebral artery is likely blocked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left lenticulostriate

      Explanation:

      Pure Motor Stroke

      A pure motor stroke is a type of stroke that results in a right hemiparesis, or weakness on one side of the body. This type of stroke is caused by a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere, which is likely to be a lacunar infarct. The symptoms of a pure motor stroke are purely motor, meaning that they only affect movement and not speech or comprehension.

      If the stroke had affected the entire territory of the left middle cerebral artery, then speech and comprehension would also be affected. However, in this case, the lesion is likely to be in the lenticulostriate artery, which has caused infarction of the internal capsule. This leads to a purely motor stroke, where the patient experiences weakness on one side of the body.

      the type of stroke a patient has is important for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. In the case of a pure motor stroke, rehabilitation and physical therapy may be necessary to help the patient regain strength and mobility on the affected side of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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