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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man with alcoholic liver disease is admitted with pyrexia. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with alcoholic liver disease is admitted with pyrexia. He has been unwell for the past three days and has multiple previous admissions before with variceal bleeding. Examination shows multiple stigmata of chronic liver disease, ascites and jaundice. Paracentesis is performed with the following results: Neutrophils 487 cells/ul. What is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Insert an ascitic drain

      Correct Answer: Intravenous cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      This describes a clinical scenario of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. The diagnosis is made when fluid removed (ascites) is found to have > 250/mm cubed of PMNs (polymorphonuclear leukocytes). Cefotaxime or another third generation cephalosporin is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He also has a history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His main complaint is a blue tinge to his vision. Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Blue tinge of vision/cyanopsia is caused due to the intake of sildenafil citrate.

      Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction.
      It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.

      Uses:
      It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.

      Adverse effects:
      Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.
      It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.

      Note: Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision) may occur secondary to treatment with digoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is suggestive of co-existence of mitral regurgitation and mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Displaced apex beat

      Explanation:

      Apex beat displacement is caused by mitral regurgitation and because it is not found in mitral stenosis, it is suggestive of mixed mitral disease. The other given responses occur in mitral stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she...

    Correct

    • An elderly woman is taken to the clinic by her husband because she has been complaining about seeing ghosts in their house. She no longer wants to enter in the house. You wonder if this might be Charles-Bonnet syndrome. Which of the following risk factors may pre-dispose this woman to Charles-Bonnet syndrome?

      Your Answer: Peripheral visual impairment

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.

      It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.

      CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
      The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
      About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
      Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
      Presentation:
      The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:

      The hallucinations are always outside the body.
      The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
      The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
      Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
      CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
      Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
      Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to the A&E. The results from the blood tests reveal Calcium = 1.62mmol/l and Albumin = 33g/l. The man is known to have a history of alcoholic liver disease. Which of the following is the best management regarding his calcium levels?

      Your Answer: 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Acute, symptomatic hypocalcaemia is treated with 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which...

    Correct

    • A 24 yr. old male with a history of a cardiac murmur which was not properly followed up, presented with right sided hemiparesis. His blood pressure was 120/70 mmHg. His ECG revealed right bundle branch block with right axis deviation. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ostium secundum atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Ostium secundum atrial septal defects are known to cause stroke due to the passage of emboli from the right sided circulation to the left sided circulation. ECG shows tall, peaked P waves (usually best seen in leads II and V2) and prolongation of the PR interval, rSR pattern in leads V3 R and V1 as well as right axis deviation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs due to:

      Your Answer: Increased release of renin

      Explanation:

      The oedema is an effect of the a decreased cardiac output that increases renin release which leads to vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 29-year-old physiotherapist with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred due...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old physiotherapist with a history of bilateral vitreous haemorrhage is referred due to progressive ataxia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type II

      Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Retinal and cerebellar haemangiomas are key features of Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Retinal haemangiomas are bilateral in 25% of patients and may lead to vitreous haemorrhage. Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition predisposing to neoplasia. It is due to an abnormality in the VHL gene located on short arm of chromosome 3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?

      Your Answer: Increases plasma LDL concentrations

      Correct Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred due to weight loss, lethargy, and a significantly elevated IgM level. His recent blood results show: Hb: 13.8 g/dL, Plts: 127 x 10^9/L, ESR: 45 mm/hr, IgM: 2150 mg/dL (50-330 mg/dL). Given the probable diagnosis, which one of the following complications is he most likely to develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperviscosity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia in which IgM paraproteinemia is found. Hyperviscosity syndrome can occur in the patients accounting for 10–15% of the cases.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
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