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Question 1
Correct
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A 45-year-old man of South Asian descent presents with bilateral leg swelling. He works as a construction worker and has a history of multiple sexual partners without protection.
During examination, his body weight is 40 kg, and you observe some mouth sores.
The following investigations are conducted:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 120 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Neutrophils 2.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
Urine Protein 2+
Cholesterol 4.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
What is the next recommended test for this patient?Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Treatment for HIV-Associated Nephropathy
HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. HIV serological testing and a CD4 count should be done urgently to establish the diagnosis. HIV-associated nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most frequent pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy. Renal biopsy may be necessary, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor may be useful in diagnosing SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases, but the lack of systemic symptoms in this case makes it less likely. Serum IgA levels may be elevated in IgA nephropathy, but it typically presents with haematuria rather than proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for lesions on both shins. Upon examination, symmetrical erythematous lesions with an orange peel texture are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pretibial myxoedema
Explanation:Pretibial myxoedema is a condition characterized by orange peel-like lesions on the skin of the shins, often associated with Grave’s disease.
Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features
Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and lower abdominal pain. She has had two sexual partners over the last three months and uses the combined oral contraceptive pill as contraception. She has noticed some spotting and post-coital bleeding since her last period and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the last few days. There is no past medical history of note and no known allergies.
On examination, she has lower abdominal tenderness but no guarding or palpable organomegaly. On examination, there is a thick yellow vaginal discharge and mildly tender palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sexually Transmitted Diseases
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) can present with a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common STD is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be asymptomatic or present with dysuria, abdominal pain, and vaginal discharge. Endocervical and high vaginal swabs should be taken, and a urinalysis and pregnancy test should be completed. The first-line treatment for C. trachomatis is doxycycline.
Ceftriaxone is indicated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections, which can present similarly to chlamydia with discharge and dysuria. However, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is C. trachomatis, making doxycycline the correct answer.
Benzylpenicillin is used in patients with suspected syphilis infection secondary to the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages with primary syphilis presenting as a painless chancre with local, non-tender lymphadenopathy prior to secondary disease with fever and a rash. This is not seen here, making syphilis a less likely diagnosis.
Metronidazole is the recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis. However, it is not used in the treatment of C. trachomatis.
Trimethoprim would be the recommended treatment if this patient was diagnosed with a urinary-tract infection (UTI). While the history of lower abdominal pain and dysuria are suggestive of a UTI, a foul-smelling vaginal discharge points towards an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old man who has been on antiepileptic medication for several years presents with complaints of fatigue, weakness, bone pain, tingling and numbness in his lower limbs and swelling of his gums. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 90 g/l 120-155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume 110 fl/red cell 80-96 fl/red cell
White cell count 6.8 × 109/l 4.5-11 x 109/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150-450 x 109/l
Alkaline phosphatase 600 IU/l 44-147 IU/l
Parathyroid hormone 12.2 pmol/ml 10-55 pg/ml
Which of the following antiepileptic medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Common Side Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs
Antiepileptic drugs are commonly used to treat seizures and epilepsy. However, they can also cause various side effects. Here are some of the common side effects of the most commonly used antiepileptic drugs:
Phenytoin: This drug can cause fatigue, bony tenderness, paraesthesiae, and gingival hypertrophy. Patients should maintain good oral hygiene to minimize this problem. Megaloblastic anemia is a rare but possible side effect.
Phenobarbital: This drug can cause fatigue, bony tenderness, and paraesthesiae. However, it is not associated with gingival hypertrophy. Megaloblastic anemia is a common side effect, which can be treated with folic acid.
Primidone: This drug is metabolized to phenobarbital, so its side effects are similar to those of phenobarbital. Drowsiness, visual disturbances, headache, and dizziness are the most common ones. Plasma concentrations of the derived phenobarbital should be monitored for optimum response dosing.
Sodium valproate: This drug can cause nausea, drowsiness, dizziness, vomiting, and general weakness. Rare but serious side effects include thrombocytopenia, hepatotoxicity, and pancreatitis. Treatment should be withdrawn immediately if there are signs of hepatic dysfunction or pancreatitis.
Carbamazepine: This drug is associated with blood dyscrasias. Rarely, there are major effects of aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis, but more commonly, they are minor changes limited to decreased white cell count and thrombocytopenia. Regular monitoring of blood counts and hepatic and renal function is recommended. It also carries an increased risk of hyponatremia and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion.
Common Side Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP because she is worried about her ability to conceive. She has experienced three miscarriages in the past five years and has also had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. The GP orders various blood tests and suspects that one of them may show a positive result for a potential cause of her issues.
Which of the following antibody tests is the most likely to be positive? Choose only ONE option.Your Answer: Anti-phospholipid antibodies
Explanation:Autoimmune Antibodies and Their Associated Conditions
Autoimmune disorders are conditions in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the body’s own tissues. One way to diagnose autoimmune disorders is by testing for specific antibodies that are associated with certain conditions. Here are some common autoimmune antibodies and the conditions they are associated with:
1. Anti-phospholipid antibodies: These antibodies are linked to anti-phospholipid syndrome (APS), also known as Hughes’ syndrome. APS can cause blood clots and pregnancy-related complications.
2. Anti-endomysial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with coeliac disease, an autoimmune disorder that affects the small intestine.
3. Anti-histone antibodies: These antibodies are linked to drug-induced systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), another autoimmune disorder.
4. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies: These antibodies are associated with primary biliary cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis, and idiopathic cirrhosis, all of which affect the liver.
5. Anti-nuclear antibodies: These antibodies are associated with several autoimmune disorders, including SLE, autoimmune hepatitis, Sjögren’s syndrome, systemic sclerosis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
Testing for these antibodies can help diagnose autoimmune disorders and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 27-year-old man complains of back pain. What symptom may indicate a possible diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Pain at night
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of worsening flank pain. He has felt hot, feverish and been unable to keep fluids down. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, tachycardia 120 beats per minute and left flank pain to palpation. Urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes +++ and nitrites +++. A diagnosis of pyelonephritis is made and intravenous gentamicin is prescribed.
What is the most common complication associated with gentamicin?Your Answer: Nephrotoxicity
Explanation:Nephrotoxicity is a known side effect of aminoglycosides.
Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic, is highly effective against gram negative bacteria and is often used to treat severe infections, particularly those affecting the urinary tract and abdomen. However, one of the common complications associated with gentamicin use is nephrotoxicity, which occurs due to the narrow therapeutic window required to achieve a therapeutic dose. Exceeding this index can lead to kidney damage. Ototoxicity is another potential complication that is often tested in final exams.
Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.
It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?
Your Answer: Selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms
Gilbert Syndrome:
Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.Haemolytic Anaemia:
Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.Hepatitis A:
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.Hepatitis B:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).Cholecystitis:
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.Conclusion:
In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean girl arrives at the emergency department with complaints of left hip pain. There is no history of recent trauma, but the patient has a medical history of sickle cell disease and has been admitted multiple times in the past with similar symptoms. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Painkillers, oxygen and IV fluids
Explanation:To effectively manage sickle cell crisis, it is essential to administer analgesia, oxygen, and IV fluids. In addition, antibiotics may be necessary if an infection is suspected, and transfusion may be required if the patient’s Hb levels are low.
It is not advisable to simply monitor patients without providing any treatment, as this would result in significant pain and discomfort.
The most effective approach involves a combination of oxygen, fluids, and analgesia. Pain management is crucial, as the blockage of blood vessels by sickle-shaped red blood cells prevents the delivery of oxygen and blood to the tissues, resulting in pain. Oxygen supplementation is necessary to alleviate this pain, and IV fluids can help to slow or halt the sickling process. None of these components alone would be sufficient in managing pain, but together they form a comprehensive approach to pain management.
Managing Sickle-Cell Crises
Sickle-cell crises can be managed through various interventions. General management includes providing analgesia, rehydration, and oxygen. Antibiotics may also be considered if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusion may be necessary for severe or symptomatic anemia, pregnancy, or pre-operative cases. However, it is important not to rapidly reduce the percentage of Hb S containing cells.
In cases of acute vaso-occlusive crisis, such as stroke, acute chest syndrome, multiorgan failure, or splenic sequestration crisis, exchange transfusion may be necessary. This involves rapidly reducing the percentage of Hb S containing cells. It is important to note that the management of sickle-cell crises should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has given birth to her first child. During delivery, the midwife had to perform McRoberts manoeuvre due to shoulder dystocia, but there were no other complications. After the placenta was delivered, the midwife discovered a perineal tear that involved the external anal sphincter (EAS) but did not extend to the internal anal sphincter (IAS) or rectal mucosa. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician as it is a second degree tear
Correct Answer: Repair in theatre by a suitably trained clinician as it is a third degree tear
Explanation:The patient has suffered a third degree perineal tear that has extended beyond the perineal mucosa and muscle, involving the EAS but not the rectal mucosa. Therefore, it is classified as a third degree tear. The appropriate course of action is to repair the tear in theatre by a clinician who is suitably trained. Repairing the tear on the ward by a midwife is not an option as it is a third degree tear. Similarly, repairing it in theatre by a clinician trained for fourth degree tears is not necessary. It is important to note that first degree tears do not require repair, but in this case, as it is a third degree tear, not repairing it would not be appropriate as it may not heal properly.
Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.
There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the son (next-of-kin) of one of your middle-aged patients who brings her in for evaluation. The patient appears to be in a state of agitation and is expressing bizarre delusions and paranoid beliefs, causing a disturbance in the surgery by shouting. She is uncooperative during the consultation and frequently pleads to be allowed to leave. Both you and the son agree that urgent psychiatric assessment is necessary.
Which section of the Mental Health Act (1983) would allow a GP to detain a patient for emergency psychiatric evaluation?Your Answer: Section 3
Correct Answer: Section 4
Explanation:In cases where there is a need for urgent psychiatric assessment, GPs may utilize Section 4 of the Mental Health Act. This can be done with the assistance of an AMHP or NR, and allows for the emergency transfer of the patient. Unlike Section 2, which requires the agreement of two psychiatrists, Section 4 is used when there is a risk of unacceptable delay in the patient’s care. It provides a 72-hour window for assessment, after which it is typically converted to a Section 2. Additionally, the police have the authority under Section 135 and 136 to take a patient to a safe location for psychiatric evaluation.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of left-sided chest pain that has been ongoing for 2 hours. He mentions experiencing similar pains that occur during exercise and subside when he rests. The patient appears to be in distress, sweating, and having difficulty breathing. An ECG is conducted, revealing new T-wave inversion in V3-V6. His troponin and d-dimer levels are as follows:
Troponin 223 ng/L (<5)
D-Dimer 932 ng/mL (< 400)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
Explanation:Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term that covers various acute presentations of ischaemic heart disease, including ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. ACS develops in patients with ischaemic heart disease, which is the gradual build-up of fatty plaques in the coronary arteries. ACS can cause chest pain, dyspnoea, sweating, and nausea and vomiting. The two most important investigations for ACS are an ECG and cardiac markers. Treatment for ACS includes preventing worsening of presentation, revascularising the vessel is occluded, and treating pain. Patients who have had an ACS require lifelong drug therapy to reduce the risk of a further event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Correct
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A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of bloating, intermittent abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhoea. The serology test shows positive results for IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) antibodies. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Jejunal biopsy
Explanation:If coeliac disease is suspected based on serology results, endoscopic intestinal biopsy should be performed in all patients as it is considered the most reliable method for diagnosis, even if the patient exhibits typical symptoms and has tested positive for anti-TTG antibodies which are highly specific and sensitive.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 14
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman had a recent acute myocardial infarction (MI).
Which medication has been proven to reduce mortality after an MI?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction Patients
Post-myocardial infarction (MI) patients require specific medications to prevent further cardiovascular disease and improve their overall health. One of the most important drugs to offer is a beta-blocker, such as bisoprolol, as soon as the patient is stable. This medication should be continued for at least 12 months after an MI in patients without left ventricular systolic dysfunction or heart failure, and indefinitely in those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction. While beta-blockers can reduce mortality and morbidity for up to a year after an MI, recent studies suggest that continuing treatment beyond a year may not provide any additional benefits. Other medications, such as amiodarone, isosorbide mononitrate, and nicorandil, offer symptom relief but do not reduce mortality or morbidity. Calcium-channel blockers, like diltiazem, may be considered for secondary prevention in patients without pulmonary congestion or left ventricular systolic dysfunction if beta-blockers are contraindicated or discontinued. However, current guidelines recommend offering all post-MI patients an ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blocker, and statin to improve their long-term health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Correct
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You are reviewing an elderly patient's blood results:
K+ 6.2 mmol/l
Which medication is the most probable cause of this outcome?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding Hyperkalaemia: Causes and Symptoms
Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. The regulation of plasma potassium levels is influenced by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When metabolic acidosis occurs, hyperkalaemia may develop as hydrogen and potassium ions compete for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Certain drugs such as potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin can also cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. On the other hand, beta-agonists like Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment.
Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in the blood to prevent complications associated with hyperkalaemia. If left untreated, hyperkalaemia can lead to serious health problems such as cardiac arrhythmias and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Tourette’s syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating between Mental Disorders: Tourette’s Syndrome, Malingering, Conduct Disorder, Dissocial Personality Disorder, and Schizophrenia
Tourette’s Syndrome is a tic disorder that usually develops in childhood or adolescence, characterized by multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics. The vocal tics need not be complete words or phrases and are often throat-clearing and grunting. Anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride have been shown to be of benefit.
Malingering is the act of fabricating symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, such as financial, manipulative, avoidance of school, obtaining drugs, or gaining sympathy or attention.
Conduct Disorder is a mental disorder diagnosed before or after the age of 10, characterized by a persistent and repetitive pattern of behavior that violates either the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Childhood onset disorder can be linked to attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) type symptoms.
Dissocial Personality Disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others. Its precursor is conduct disorder. Antisocial personality disorder can be diagnosed when the patient reaches the age of 18 and has a history of conduct disorder in childhood or adolescence.
Schizophrenia does not typically present with involuntary movements. There is also no history of hallucinations, auditory or visual, or confused thinking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor in the Emergency Department, you encounter a 40-year-old woman who has been brought in by the police under a section 135. The police had to obtain a warrant as part of the process. The patient is currently agitated and speaking incoherently about religious phrases. She has a documented history of severe depression.
What powers does section 135 grant to the police in this situation?Your Answer: To use manual restraint on a person with suspected mental health issues
Correct Answer: To bring a person with suspected mental health issues in from their property
Explanation:If the police believe that someone requires a mental health assessment or treatment, they can request a section 135 to remove the individual from their property. The procedure involves an Approved Mental Health Practitioner (AMHP) presenting evidence at a Magistrate’s Court to obtain a warrant. This warrant permits the Police, an AMHP, and a registered medical practitioner to enter the premises and conduct an assessment or take the person to a safe location for evaluation.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The phlebotomist in a pediatric clinic sustains a needlestick injury while drawing blood from a child who is known to have Hepatitis B. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Reassure low risk of transmission
Correct Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks
Explanation:Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, amlodipine 10mg, and indapamide 2.5mg. Despite good adherence to his medications, his blood pressure has been consistently elevated during his previous appointments. Upon conducting ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, his average blood pressure is found to be 152/78 mmHg. His recent blood test results are as follows:
- Na+ 134 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What would be the most suitable course of action to manage his hypertension?Your Answer: Add doxazosin
Explanation:If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite being on an ACE inhibitor, CCB, and thiazide diuretic, adding an alpha- or beta-blocker is recommended by NICE if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l. It is important to assess the patient for postural hypotension and discuss adherence with them. Seeking specialist advice is also advised. Fludrocortisone is not appropriate for treating hypertension and may increase blood pressure. Spironolactone would be the next step if potassium levels were below 4.5mmol/l. Indapamide cannot be increased any further if the patient is already on the maximum dose. It is important to treat hypertension promptly, especially if it has been confirmed through ABPM on multiple occasions.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 19-year-old long-distance runner who is currently preparing for a regional marathon seeks an appointment with the team doctor due to an unusual sensation in her legs. She reports feeling numbness below her knee. During the examination, the doctor observes sensory loss below the left knee in a non-dermatomal distribution. The team doctor suspects a non-organic cause of her symptoms. What type of disorder is this an example of?
Your Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:Conversion disorder is a condition that often results in the loss of motor or sensory function and is believed to be triggered by stress.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Correct
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Sophie is a premature baby (28 weeks) who was born 3 weeks ago. During the past week, she has been experiencing bloody stools, abdominal distension, and poor feeding. Upon physical examination, there is an increase in abdominal size with decreased bowel sounds. An abdominal X-ray reveals asymmetrical bowel loops that are dilated and have bowel wall oedema. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Explanation:Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of pain in his left hand and forearm. The pain is concentrated around the thumb and index finger and is worse at night. There is no history of trauma. Shaking his hand seems to provide some relief. The likely diagnosis conclusion is carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).
Which of the following would suggest an alternative diagnosis?Your Answer: Wasting of the hypothenar eminence
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Symptoms and Examination Findings
Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. One of the symptoms of CTS is the wasting of the thenar eminence, which is innervated by the median nerve. It is important to note that the hypothenar eminence, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve, is not affected by CTS.
During examination, weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis) is a common finding in CTS. Tapping along the problematic nerve causes paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist also causes symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Treatment for CTS may include a corticosteroid injection, wrist splints at night, and surgical decompression through flexor retinaculum division.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and examination findings of CTS can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with difficulty breathing during physical activity and feeling excessively tired. Upon further inquiry, he reports experiencing frequent respiratory infections. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (AATD).
What test should be arranged to confirm this diagnosis?Your Answer: Blood test for alpha-1-antitrypsin levels
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (AATD) is a genetic disorder that can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) at a young age, especially in non-smokers with a family history of the condition. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify AATD:
Blood Test: A simple blood test can measure the levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood. Low levels of this protein can indicate AATD, especially in patients with symptoms of COPD or a family history of the condition.
CT Chest: A computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest can reveal the extent and pattern of emphysema in the lungs, which is a common complication of AATD. However, a CT scan alone cannot diagnose AATD.
Chest X-Ray: A chest X-ray (CXR) can also show signs of emphysema or bronchiectasis in patients with AATD, but it is not a definitive test for the condition.
Genetic Testing: Once AATD has been diagnosed, genetic testing can identify the specific variant of the condition that a patient has. However, genetic testing is not useful as an initial diagnostic test without first confirming low levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood.
Pulmonary Function Testing: This test measures lung function and can help assess the severity of lung disease in patients with AATD. However, it is not a diagnostic test for the condition.
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests can help identify AATD in patients with symptoms of COPD, a family history of the condition, or low levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has been treated for many years with amlodipine for hypertension. Now this is not adequately controlling his blood pressure, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor treatment is planned. On routine baseline blood tests, prior to commencing treatment, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 49 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2).
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer: Recheck blood tests in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Examine the patient, and perform urinalysis
Explanation:Managing a Patient with Suspected Chronic Kidney Disease
When a patient presents with suspected chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is important to perform a thorough examination and urinalysis to confirm the diagnosis. While patients with CKD stages 1-3 may not exhibit symptoms, those in stages 4-5 may experience endocrine/metabolic derangements or disturbances in water or electrolyte balance. Anaemia is often one of the first signs of CKD, but the lack of physical findings on examination does not exclude kidney disease. Initial screening for proteinuria can be done with a standard urine dipstick, and further testing may be necessary if the test is positive. Referral to a nephrology outpatient may be necessary, depending on the severity of the CKD. ACE inhibitors should only be started once the patient’s baseline renal function has been established, and blood tests should be rechecked in 2 weeks. Immediate admission is only necessary for patients with CKD stage 5 who present with acute indications for dialytic therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset blurring of vision in both eyes as well as light sensitivity. She is a known type II diabetic with blood sugars well maintained with medication.
On examination, her temperature is 36.8 oC, while her blood pressure (BP) is 180/110 mmHg. Her pulse is 70 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturations are 98% on room air.
On dilated fundoscopy, both optic discs are swollen with widespread flame-shaped haemorrhages and cotton-wool spots.
What is the most appropriate first-line management of this condition?Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) labetalol
Explanation:Misconceptions about Treatment for Hypertensive Retinopathy
Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that occurs when high blood pressure damages the blood vessels in the retina. However, there are several misconceptions about the treatment for this condition.
Firstly, in a hypertensive emergency with retinopathy, it is important to lower blood pressure slowly to avoid brain damage. Intravenous labetalol is a suitable medication for this purpose, with the aim of reducing diastolic blood pressure to 100 mmHg or reducing it by 20-25 mmHg per day, whichever is less.
Secondly, oral calcium channel blockers like amlodipine are not useful in an acute setting of hypertensive emergency. They are not effective in treating hypertensive retinopathy.
Thirdly, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (anti-VEGF) injection is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy. It is used to treat wet age-related macular degeneration.
Fourthly, pan-retinal photocoagulation or any laser treatment for the eye is not a treatment for hypertensive retinopathy. It is a treatment for proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Lastly, sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray is not a suitable treatment for hypertensive retinopathy. It is typically used in patients with angina and acute coronary syndrome.
In conclusion, it is important to understand the appropriate treatments for hypertensive retinopathy to avoid misconceptions and ensure proper care for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about a discharge coming from his nipples. Which medication is the most probable cause for this symptom?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Gynaecomastia may be linked to each of the remaining four drugs instead of galactorrhoea.
Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea
Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. Galactorrhoea is a condition characterized by the production of breast milk in individuals who are not breastfeeding. It is important to distinguish the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue.
Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism. Additionally, certain medications like metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, haloperidol, SSRIs, and opioids can also increase prolactin levels.
In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman with COPD has been recommended an inhaled corticosteroid. What is the primary advantage of using inhaled corticosteroids for treating COPD patients?
Your Answer: Reduced frequency of exacerbations
Explanation:Inhaled corticosteroids are used to decrease the frequency of exacerbations in patients with COPD.
NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with symptoms of urticarial rash, angioedema, and wheezing. According to her mother, she had recently attended her younger sister's party and had been assisting in inflating balloons. What could be the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Peanut allergy
Correct Answer: Latex allergy
Explanation:Latex allergy often presents as a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, which can lead to anaphylaxis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer adrenaline promptly and follow standard anaphylaxis management protocols.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Correct
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A four-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a new rash on his abdomen. The parents deny any recent infections or injuries. Upon examination, you observe a widespread petechial rash on the anterior abdomen and right forearm. The child appears pale and uninterested in the toys provided. Additionally, you note hepatosplenomegaly and cervical lymphadenopathy. While waiting for blood test results, you perform a urinalysis, which is unremarkable, and record a tympanic temperature of 36.6º. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:DIC can cause haemorrhagic or thrombotic complications in cases of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.
While a petechial rash can be a result of trauma, it is unlikely to be the case with this child given the other significant symptoms present. The non-blanching rash may initially suggest meningococcal disease, but the absence of fever and a clear source of infection makes this less likely. Additionally, the lesions associated with Henoch-Schonlein purpura typically appear on specific areas of the body and are accompanied by other symptoms such as haematuria or joint pain, which are not present in this case.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with wrist pain after slipping in ill-fitting shoes. He reports having experienced progressive lumbar and hip pain over the past few years, which he attributed to old age. However, he denies any weight loss, night sweats, and feels otherwise well. A hand and wrist x-ray shows a hairline radial fracture. The patient's blood tests reveal Hb of 144 g/L, platelets of 340 * 109/L, WBC of 9.0 * 109/L, bilirubin of 14 µmol/L, ALP of 240 u/L, ALT of 30 u/L, γGT of 20 u/L, and albumin of 48 g/L. What is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are the preferred treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone, as illustrated by the case of an elderly man presenting with bone pain, isolated elevated ALP, and a fragility fracture. While calcitonin may be used in some cases, it is less effective and has a shorter duration of action. Calcium supplementation is not indicated unless the patient is experiencing hypocalcemia. DEXA scans are not necessary for diagnosis in this case, as the patient will already be started on bisphosphonates. While orthotics may be helpful for ill-fitting footwear, they do not address the underlying issue of Paget’s disease and the fragility fracture.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 31
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Dermatology Clinic for regular follow-up of her psoriasis. This had previously been well controlled after phototherapy six months ago; however, she has recently deteriorated.
Her current treatment regime includes topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment and topical hydromol ointment, in addition to amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. She is otherwise fit and well.
On examination, she has an erythematous rash covering much of her back, with widespread patches on her arms and legs. The rash is tender and warm, though she appears to be shivering. There are no oral lesions. Her pulse is 98 beats per minute, while her blood pressure (BP) is 95/50 mmHg and her temperature is 38.2 °C.
What is the most important next step in this woman's treatment?Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission
Explanation:Urgent Hospital Admission Required for Erythrodermic Psoriasis
Erythrodermic psoriasis is a severe dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient who presents with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. While the patient’s psoriasis needs more intensive management, it is not appropriate to manage erythroderma in the community.
The treatment for erythrodermic psoriasis includes supportive care, such as intravenous fluids, cool, wet dressings, and a systemic agent. The choice of a systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. However, it is important to note that starting any systemic agent requires investigations, including baseline blood tests and a viral screen, to ensure it is not contraindicated.
It is crucial to differentiate erythrodermic psoriasis from other dermatological emergencies like Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), which is a severe drug reaction associated with amoxicillin and anti-epileptic therapies. However, in this case, the patient’s history features a slow deterioration of pre-existing psoriasis, and the rash is not desquamating, and there are no oral lesions. Therefore, hospital admission is required for erythrodermic psoriasis.
It is essential to avoid repeating phototherapy in a patient with erythrodermic psoriasis as it can worsen the condition. In a well patient, phototherapy would not be reattempted six months after a poor response, and an alternate approach would most likely be sought.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 26-year-old female with a past medical history of asthma presents to the Emergency Department with acute dyspnea, accompanied by a tingling sensation in her tongue and a rash after consuming a meal containing shellfish. Her symptoms improve with intramuscular epinephrine and nebulized salbutamol. What is the most effective diagnostic test to confirm if this event was caused by anaphylaxis?
Your Answer: Serum tryptase
Explanation:After an acute episode of anaphylaxis, the levels of serum tryptase may increase and stay elevated for as long as 12 hours.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 33
Correct
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A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?
Your Answer: Edinburgh Scale
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.
‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.
Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:
Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l
What would be the best initial approach to manage this situation?Your Answer: Oral alendronate + prednisolone
Correct Answer: Admit for IV normal saline
Explanation:The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.
Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 35
Correct
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A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for his annual medication review. He has hypertension and gout and is currently taking allopurinol 300 mg, amlodipine 10 mg and atorvastatin 20 mg. His home blood pressure readings average at 150/88 mmHg. His recent blood tests of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c), renal profile and lipids are normal. Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate to add to his current regime?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:The patient’s hypertension is not well controlled despite being on the maximum dose of a calcium-channel blocker. According to NICE guidance, the next step in treatment should be a thiazide-like diuretic or an ACE inhibitor. However, as the patient has a history of recurrent gout, a diuretic is not advisable, and an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril is the most appropriate choice.
Aspirin 75 mg was previously recommended for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease in patients with multiple risk factors. However, current advice is to only consider prescribing aspirin after a careful risk assessment in patients with a high risk of stroke or myocardial infarction. Routine prescribing of antiplatelets for primary prevention is no longer recommended due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleed outweighing the benefits.
NICE no longer recommends initiating thiazide diuretics for hypertension treatment. Patients already established on this medication and whose BP is well controlled should continue. However, thiazide-like diuretics or ACE inhibitors are preferred as second-line treatment for hypertension in patients already on a calcium-channel blocker.
Diltiazem and amlodipine are both calcium-channel blockers, and medication from a different class of antihypertensives should be added.
Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic recommended as a second-line treatment for hypertension not controlled on the maximum dose of a calcium-channel blocker. However, as the patient has a history of recurrent gout, which can be exacerbated by thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics, an ACE inhibitor would be a more suitable choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP complaining of burning and itching of his eyelids, particularly in the mornings. He reports feeling dryness and grittiness in his eyes and has stopped using contact lenses, opting for glasses instead. Upon examination, the GP notes redness, crusting, and slight swelling of the eyelid margins, as well as a small chalazion on the lower right lid. The patient's visual acuity remains unchanged and both conjunctivae are clear. What is the recommended first-line treatment?
Your Answer: Topical chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: Regular lid hygiene
Explanation:The initial and most important treatment for blepharitis, a common and chronic condition, is regular lid hygiene. Although there are different types of blepharitis, lid hygiene is the first-line treatment for all of them. The goal is to clear out any stagnant oily secretions, unblock meibomian glands, remove bacteria and flakes of skin, and soothe the eyelids. Patients should practice lid hygiene twice daily, which involves warmth, massage, and cleansing. There are many patient information leaflets available online that explain the process. Oral tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for blepharitis and is usually unnecessary if lid hygiene measures are followed. If symptoms persist, a course of oral tetracycline may be considered, especially in cases where meibomian gland dysfunction is prominent and there is associated rosacea. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are not used in the management of blepharitis, as they are intended for allergic eye disease. Steroid eye drops are not a primary care treatment option for blepharitis and are not first-line, although they may be considered by specialists in cases resistant to other treatment measures.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a swollen second toe and ankle pain associated with a history of generalised fatigue. He has no other symptoms and no previous medical history. His brother suffers from psoriasis. He had the following blood test results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 132 g/l 135–175 g/l
White blood cells 7.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Rheumatoid factor Negative Negative
Antinuclear antibody Negative Negative
Estimated sedimentation rate (ESR) 78 mm/h 0–10 mm/h
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Psoriatic Arthritis and Differential Diagnosis
Psoriatic arthritis is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and can present in various ways, including symmetric polyarthritis, asymmetrical oligo-arthritis, sacroiliitis, distal interphalangeal joint disease, and arthritis mutilans. It affects both men and women equally, and around 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop psoriatic arthritis.
When considering a differential diagnosis, osteoarthritis is unlikely in this age group, and the presence of a raised estimated sedimentation rate and fatigue in the absence of trauma suggests an inflammatory process. Gout often affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe, while rheumatoid arthritis can also affect women of this age group, but psoriatic arthritis is more likely if the patient has dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Systemic lupus erythematosus can also affect women of this age group, but again, psoriatic arthritis is more likely if dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis are present.
In conclusion, understanding the presentation and differential diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 38
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy is presented to the emergency department following an episode of syncope. According to his friends, he was laughing at a joke and suddenly collapsed to the ground. The school teacher called for an ambulance, and he recovered within 15 minutes. His school reports indicate that he often dozes off during classes and was recently disciplined for this behavior. What could be the probable reason for his condition?
Your Answer: Cataplexy
Explanation:It is probable that the patient experienced cataplexy, as indicated by their laughter and history of excessive sleepiness during classes, which suggests a potential diagnosis of narcolepsy. While cardiac syncope is a possibility, further investigations such as an ECG and transthoracic echocardiogram would be necessary to rule it out. Absence seizures are unlikely due to the absence of blank staring, and generalized epilepsy is also improbable as it typically involves longer-lasting tonic-clonic seizures with a slower recovery time.
Understanding Cataplexy
Cataplexy is a condition characterized by a sudden and temporary loss of muscle control triggered by intense emotions such as laughter or fear. It is commonly associated with narcolepsy, with around two-thirds of patients experiencing cataplexy. The symptoms of cataplexy can vary from mild buckling of the knees to complete collapse.
This condition can be debilitating and can significantly impact a person’s quality of life. It can also be challenging to diagnose, as the symptoms can be mistaken for other conditions such as seizures or fainting spells. Treatment options for cataplexy include medication and lifestyle changes, such as avoiding triggers that can cause emotional responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 39
Correct
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A patient with a history of heart failure is experiencing discomfort even at rest and is unable to engage in any physical activity without symptoms. What is the New York Heart Association classification that best describes the severity of their condition?
Your Answer: NYHA Class IV
Explanation:NYHA Classification for Chronic Heart Failure
The NYHA classification is a widely used system for categorizing the severity of chronic heart failure. It is based on the symptoms experienced by the patient during physical activity. NYHA Class I indicates no symptoms and no limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class II indicates mild symptoms and slight limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class III indicates moderate symptoms and marked limitations on physical activity. Finally, NYHA Class IV indicates severe symptoms and an inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. This classification system is helpful in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for patients with chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 40
Correct
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You are requested to assess an 80-year-old man who was admitted to the hospital five days ago due to community-acquired pneumonia. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, angina, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and spinal stenosis.
Despite receiving optimal treatment on the ward, including IV co-amoxiclav, the patient's condition has continued to deteriorate. He currently scores 11 on the Glasgow Coma Scale, and his pupils are reactive to light and measure 3 mm bilaterally. He has been unable to take his morning medications, which include morphine sulphate modified release (Zomorph) 30mg twice daily, oramorph 10mg as required, and metoclopramide 10 mg three times a day. In the past 24 hours, he has used 4 doses of PRN oramorph.
During the consultant ward round, it is decided that the patient should receive end-of-life care. He is currently comfortable, with no signs of hallucinations, pruritus, or myoclonus. The nurse requests that you convert his medications to a syringe driver.
What medications will you prescribe?Your Answer: Metoclopramide 30mg s/c + morphine 50mg s/c
Explanation:Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 41
Incorrect
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An expectant mother visits the obstetrician's office with a complaint of a painful nipple and a white discharge from the nipple. It is suspected that she has a candidal infection. What advice and treatment should be provided?
Your Answer: Advise mother to stop breast feeding and treat mother and baby simultaneously
Correct Answer: Continue breast feeding treat both the mother and baby simultaneously
Explanation:It is essential to treat the candidal infection by administering miconazole cream to both the mother and child. The cream should be applied to the nipple after feeding and the infant’s oral mucosa. Breastfeeding should continue during the treatment period. Additionally, the mother should be educated on maintaining good hand hygiene after changing the baby’s nappy and sterilizing any objects that the baby puts in their mouth, such as dummies and teats. This information is provided by NICE CKS.
Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management
Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.
Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.
Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.
If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male is prescribed colchicine to alleviate his gout symptoms that are not responding to diclofenac. What is the most crucial side effect to caution him about?
Your Answer: Heartburn
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 43
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and diarrhea presents with a 3 cm red lesion on his shin that is beginning to ulcerate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:It is probable that this individual is suffering from ulcerative colitis, a condition that is commonly linked to arthritis in large joints, sacroiliitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum.
Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other diseases.
The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. In some cases, systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia may also be present. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other potential causes.
Management of pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line treatment due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies such as ciclosporin and infliximab may also be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and seeking prompt medical attention can help manage this rare and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 44
Correct
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Liam, 35, is admitted to the Emergency Department after a fall down the stairs at home. Upon examination, it is observed that he has bruising around the eyes and behind the ears. What does this indicate?
Your Answer: Basilar skull fracture
Explanation:The classic signs associated with basilar skull fractures are periorbital bruising, which is bruising around the eye also known as Raccoon eyes, and post-auricular bruising, which is bruising of the mastoid also known as Battle’s sign. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is basilar skull fracture.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits his GP clinic and asks for a prescription of Sildenafil (Viagra). He has a medical history of well-managed hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and suffered a middle cerebral artery infarct three weeks ago. He is currently taking amlodipine, atorvastatin, clopidogrel, and tamsulosin. Additionally, he is a heavy smoker and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week.
What is an absolute contraindication to Sildenafil?Your Answer: Recent stroke
Explanation:Patients who have recently had a stroke should not take PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil. However, the use of clopidogrel after a stroke does not prevent the use of sildenafil. Sildenafil can be used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and is not contraindicated in this case. While smoking is a risk factor for stroke and cardiovascular disease, it is not a contraindication for the use of sildenafil.
Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 46
Correct
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At the 4-month check, you observe bilateral hydroceles in a male infant. The swelling is limited to the scrotum and the testis can be felt in the scrotal sac. The infant is otherwise healthy and thriving. The mother expresses concern about the potential impact of the swelling on her son's fertility.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Reassure mum that hydroceles are common in infants and often self resolve
Explanation:It is common for newborn males to have communicating hydroceles, which usually resolve on their own. This is due to the processus vaginalis remaining open. Parents should be reassured that the hydroceles typically disappear within a few months. However, if the hydrocele persists beyond one year, it is recommended to refer the child to a urologist for possible repair. Ultrasound is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that hydroceles do not impact fertility, but undescended testes can affect fertility if not treated.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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You want to screen a 60-year-old patient for hepatitis B. What is the most appropriate test to conduct?
Your Answer: anti-HBs
Correct Answer: HBsAg
Explanation:If the result of the anti-HBs test is positive, it means that the person is immune to hepatitis B either through vaccination or previous infection. On the other hand, a positive HBsAg test indicates that the person is currently infected with hepatitis B, either in its acute or chronic form.
Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.
To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female presents to rheumatology out-patients referred by her GP due to a history of arthritis in both hands. What x-ray finding would indicate a higher likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other potential causes?
Your Answer: Subchondral sclerosis
Correct Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis
Explanation:Early x-ray signs of rheumatoid arthritis include juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia, which distinguishes it from osteoarthritis. Both RA and osteoarthritis may exhibit joint space reduction.
X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.
As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.
It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 49
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 50
Correct
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You are requested to assess a premature infant born at 34 weeks, 48 hours after delivery without any complications. During the examination, you observe a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left subclavicular thrill. Additionally, you notice a bounding pulse and a widened pulse pressure. There are no indications of cyanosis or crackles on auscultation. The mother confirms that there were no complications during pregnancy, and antenatal scans and screening did not reveal any abnormalities. There is no family history of significant illnesses. What would be the most appropriate management option for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate
Explanation:To promote closure of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), indomethacin or ibuprofen is administered to the neonate. This is the correct course of action based on the examination findings. The ductus arteriosus typically closes naturally with the first breaths, but if it remains open, prostaglandin synthesis can be inhibited with medication. Administering indomethacin to the mother would not be effective. Prostaglandin would have the opposite effect and maintain the PDA’s patency, which is not desirable in this scenario. Involving surgeons or monitoring the baby without treatment would also not be appropriate. If left untreated, PDA can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary hypertension or Eisenmenger’s syndrome.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 51
Correct
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A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that these symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past two months. Specifically, he feels that his left nostril is blocked while his right nostril feels normal. He denies any history of nosebleeds and reports feeling generally healthy. Upon examination, a large nasal polyp is observed in the left nostril. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:It is crucial to refer him to an ENT for a comprehensive examination as unilateral polyps are a warning sign.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.
The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 52
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on managing recurrent episodes of urinary incontinence that occur during laughter or coughing. She reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or urgency. Additionally, she has been experiencing night sweats and irregular periods for the past year. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and depression. A urine dipstick and examination of the vulva/vagina reveal no abnormalities. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle exercises
Explanation:The primary treatment for stress incontinence is pelvic floor muscle training.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 53
Correct
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A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He works as a lawyer and reports feeling healthy with no recent illnesses. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking 10mg of ramipril daily. He has no known allergies.
During his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, his readings were consistently high at 158/92 mmHg, 162/94mmHg, and 159/93mmHg.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In individuals under the age of 55 and of Caucasian ethnicity, the first-line treatment for hypertension is an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril. If the blood pressure remains elevated despite maximum dose of ramipril, a second medication should be added. A calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic is the preferred choice for second-line therapy in this scenario.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 54
Correct
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What is the most effective antibiotic for treating Chlamydia pneumonia?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Chlamydia Pneumoniae Infections
Chlamydia pneumoniae infections are commonly treated with macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin. These antibiotics are effective against atypical pneumonias and should be taken for a long period of time (usually 10-14 days) with strict compliance to avoid suboptimal doses. However, the most common side effects of these antibiotics are nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Clindamycin is not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. Piperacillin and ampicillin are also not indicated due to in vitro resistance shown by the bacteria. Imipenem is also not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 55
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. He is concerned that she is not growing as well as her classmates. The father reports that the child experiences foul-smelling diarrhoea about 3-4 times a week and complains of abdominal pain.
During the examination, the girl has a distended belly and thin buttocks. She has fallen 3 centile lines and now falls on the 15th centile.
What would be the most suitable first test to perform?Your Answer: IgA TTG antibodies
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by testing for IgA TTG antibodies. To determine the appropriate antibiotic, a stool sample would be necessary to diagnose gastroenteritis. The hydrogen breath test is typically used to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome or certain food intolerances. Endoscopy is more frequently used in adults who are suspected of having cancer. An abdominal X-ray may be beneficial in cases where obstruction is suspected. Coeliac disease is a digestive disorder that is becoming more prevalent and is characterized by an adverse reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.
Coeliac Disease in Children: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in cereals. This sensitivity leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Children usually present with symptoms before the age of 3, coinciding with the introduction of cereals into their diet. The incidence of coeliac disease is around 1 in 100 and is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Symptoms of coeliac disease include failure to thrive, diarrhoea, abdominal distension, and anaemia in older children. However, many cases are not diagnosed until adulthood.
Diagnosis of coeliac disease involves a jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy. Screening tests such as anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are also useful. Duodenal biopsies can show complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, as well as dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes and vacuolated superficial epithelial cells can also be observed.
In summary, coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and to seek medical attention if necessary. Diagnosis involves a biopsy and screening tests, and treatment involves a gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 56
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of indigestion for the past three months. She denies any weight loss, anorexia, dysphagia, vomiting, or alteration in bowel habits. Her abdominal examination is normal. What factor could potentially reduce the reliability of a 13C-urea breath test?
Your Answer: Course of amoxicillin stopping 3 weeks ago
Explanation:To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 57
Incorrect
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You are consulted by the parents of a 5-year-old girl. She has a lifelong history of bedwetting at night, and they are becoming increasingly concerned that the problem is not getting any better. She never has accidents in the day and opens her bowels at least once a day. She has been potty-trained since the age of two. Apart from hay fever, there is no relevant family history. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no abnormality. Things have come to a head as she is starting school in two weeks’ time, and they do not want her to wet the bed.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Give general advice on enuresis, reassure the parents that he is almost certain to grow out of the problem and commence treatment with an enuresis alarm to prepare him for his camping trip and advise to restrict fluid from 1600 h to prevent bedwetting during the camping trip
Correct Answer: Give general advice on enuresis, reassure the parents that he is almost certain to grow out of the problem and prescribe desmopressin to be taken during the camping trip to prevent bedwetting
Explanation:Managing Primary Enuresis in Children: Advice and Treatment Options
Primary enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common condition affecting 15-20% of children. It is characterized by nocturnal wetting without daytime symptoms and is thought to be caused by bladder dysfunction. Parents of children with primary enuresis may be reassured that their child is likely to grow out of the problem by age 15, with only 1% of patients continuing to have symptoms into adulthood.
Treatment options for primary enuresis include the use of an enuresis alarm combined with a reward system to teach and reward good habits. Fluid should not be restricted. In children over the age of 5, short-term control can be achieved with a prescription of desmopressin to prevent enuresis during sleepovers or school trips.
It is important to involve the child in the management plan and explore family habits. Referral to a paediatric urologist may be necessary for children with primary enuresis and daytime symptoms or for those who have failed two complete courses of treatment with an enuresis alarm or desmopressin.
Managing Primary Enuresis in Children: Advice and Treatment Options
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 58
Correct
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A 65-year-old man experiences percutaneous coronary intervention for an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. After 12 hours, he develops symptoms of paleness, clamminess, and bradycardia, and the ECG reveals complete disassociation between the atria and ventricles. Which coronary artery is the most probable culprit?
Your Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:The left main coronary artery is not the cause of heart block. It usually results in anterior myocardial infarction.
Understanding Heart Blocks and their Features
Heart blocks are a type of cardiac conduction disorder that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are three types of heart blocks, each with distinct features and characteristics. First-degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval, while second-degree heart block can be further divided into two subtypes: Mobitz I and Mobitz II. Mobitz I is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs, while Mobitz II is characterized by a constant PR interval but often not followed by a QRS complex.
The most severe form of heart block is third-degree or complete heart block, which is characterized by a complete dissociation between the P waves and QRS complexes. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including syncope, heart failure, regular bradycardia, and wide pulse pressure. Other features of complete heart block include cannon waves in the neck and variable intensity of S1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 59
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl visits her general practitioner with worries about never having experienced a menstrual period. Upon examination, she displays minimal pubic and axillary hair growth and underdeveloped breast tissue for her age. She has a normal height and weight and no significant medical history. A negative beta-HCG test prompts the GP to order blood tests, revealing high levels of FSH and LH. What is the probable cause of her amenorrhoea?
Your Answer: Gonadal dysgenesis
Explanation:A young woman who has never had a menstrual period before and has underdeveloped secondary sexual characteristics presents with raised FSH and LH levels. The most likely cause of her primary amenorrhoea is gonadal dysgenesis, which can be seen in syndromes such as Turner’s syndrome. In this condition, the gonads are atypically developed and may be functionless, resulting in the absence of androgen production in response to FSH and LH. This leads to underdeveloped secondary sexual characteristics and primary amenorrhoea. Asherman syndrome, imperforate hymen, Kallmann syndrome, and pregnancy are incorrect answers.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 60
Correct
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A 60-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of urinary hesitancy, urgency and terminal dribbling that have been bothering him for the past 4 months. During a digital rectal examination, the doctor finds an enlarged, soft prostate with a smooth surface that is not tender. The patient's PSA reading is within the normal range. What is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer: α-blocker
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH)
Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is a condition characterized by the proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate, which can lead to chronic bladder outlet obstruction and a range of urinary symptoms. Treatment options for BPH depend on the severity of the symptoms and the size of the prostate.
The first-line drug of choice for men with moderate-to-severe lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTSs) is an α-blocker, such as alfuzosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin or terazosin. For men with larger prostates or higher prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels, 5α-reductase inhibitors (e.g. finasteride) may also be offered. However, it is important to note that it may take up to 6 months for the patient to see an effect from this medication.
If storage symptoms persist after treatment with an α-blocker alone, anticholinergics such as oxybutynin may be added to the treatment plan. Surgery should only be considered for men with severe voiding symptoms that have not responded to drug therapy. First-line surgical options include transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), monopolar transurethral vaporisation of the prostate (TUVP), or holmium laser enucleation of the prostate (HoLEP). Open prostatectomy should be reserved for men with very large prostates.
It is important to seek medical attention if conservative management options have failed or are not appropriate, as untreated BPH can lead to serious complications such as urinary retention, renal insufficiency, recurrent urinary tract infections, gross haematuria, and bladder calculi.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a bicuspid aortic valve and is waiting for valve replacement surgery.
Which of the following murmurs would be the most likely to occur in this patient?Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs Based on Location and Type
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate various cardiac conditions. The location and type of murmur can help differentiate between different conditions.
Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge: This is typical for aortic stenosis, which is more likely to occur in a bicuspid aortic valve. The murmur may radiate to the carotids. Pulmonary stenosis, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, and atrial septal defect can also cause this type of murmur, but the location would be different.
Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This location is typical for pulmonary stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The patient’s history indicates symptomatic aortic stenosis, making this finding inconsistent.
Early diastolic murmur loudest over the 3rd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This type and location of murmur is typical for aortic regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The location is Erb’s point, where S1 and S2 should both be heard.
Mid-diastolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
Pansystolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 62
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to you with a complaint of unintentional urine leakage when she coughs for the past year. She denies any urgency to urinate. Despite trying various measures such as reducing caffeine intake, performing pelvic floor exercises, and achieving a BMI of 23 kg/m² from 29kg/m², she has only experienced minimal relief. She is hesitant to undergo surgery and is interested in exploring medication or other options. What medication is approved for treating stress incontinence?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary release of urine during physical activity, coughing, or sneezing. Diagnosis is based on symptoms, and keeping a bladder diary can aid in evaluating the severity of the condition. Lifestyle changes, such as reducing caffeine intake, losing weight, and limiting fluid consumption, are recommended. Pelvic floor exercises should also be suggested. If symptoms persist despite these measures, surgery may be an option. If surgery is not feasible or desired, duloxetine, a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), may be prescribed. A ring pessary is not an effective treatment for stress incontinence, as it is used to address vaginal prolapse.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits the GUM clinic at 18 weeks gestation. Her partner has tested positive for Chlamydia and she needs treatment as a contact. The doctor prescribes a single dose of azithromycin 1g and screens her for infection. When is it appropriate to conduct a test of cure (TOC)?
Your Answer: 2 weeks
Correct Answer: 6 weeks
Explanation:For symptomatic men with Chlamydia, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms. As for women and asymptomatic men, all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent partner should be notified. Pregnant women should undergo a test of cure (TOC) 6 weeks after infection, according to BASHH guidelines. Performing a TOC earlier than 6 weeks may result in a false positive due to the presence of nonviable Chlamydia DNA on the NAAT. However, uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in men and non-pregnant women does not require a routine TOC.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 64
Correct
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A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a 3-month history of a non-productive cough, dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain, especially when climbing stairs. She reports intermittent fevers of up to 39°C and a 3.5-kg weight loss. She complains of wrist and ankle pain that has interfered with her work. She smokes two packets of cigarettes per day. Her full blood count is normal and serum ANA is negative. On examination there are red nodules over her lower legs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Sarcoidosis is a condition where non-caseating granulomata develop in at least two organs, causing systemic inflammation. It is most common in African-Caribbean women and often affects the lungs, causing symptoms such as dry cough, dyspnea, and weight loss. Erythema nodosum is also frequently seen in patients with sarcoidosis. Histoplasmosis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, adenocarcinoma of the lung, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all possible differential diagnoses, but the absence of specific features makes sarcoidosis more likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 65
Correct
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Generalised myositis is a known side effect of certain drugs. Among the options listed below, which drug is most likely to cause this side effect?
Your Answer: Simvastatin
Explanation:Muscle Effects of Common Medications
Many medications can have effects on muscles, including statins, metoclopramide, amitriptyline, cyclizine, and venlafaxine. Statins can increase the risk of muscle toxicity, especially in patients with a history of muscular disorders, high alcohol intake, renal impairment, or hypothyroidism. Metoclopramide is associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and acute dystonic reactions, but not generalised myositis. Amitriptyline and cyclizine are rarely associated with extrapyramidal symptoms and tremor, and amitriptyline may cause myalgia on drug withdrawal. Venlafaxine commonly causes hypertonia and tremor, and more rarely myoclonus, but not generalised myositis. It is important to be aware of these potential muscle effects when prescribing and monitoring these medications.
Muscle Effects of Commonly Prescribed Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 66
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman comes to the clinic for advice on contraception. She has started a new relationship but is uncertain if she needs contraception as she suspects she may be going through menopause. She reports experiencing hot flashes and her last period was 9 months ago. What is the best course of action to recommend?
Your Answer: Contraception is needed until 12 months after her last period
Explanation:Contraception is still necessary after menopause. Women who are over 50 years old should use contraception for at least 12 months after their last period, while those under 50 years old should use it for at least 24 months after their last period.
Understanding Menopause and Contraception
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. On average, women in the UK experience menopause at the age of 51. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.
It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 67
Correct
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What is an accurate statement about alcoholic liver disease (ALD)?
Your Answer: In alcoholic hepatitis the AST : ALT ratio is at least 2 : 1
Explanation:Alcoholic Liver Disease: Facts and Myths
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a common liver disease caused by overconsumption of alcohol. Here are some facts and myths about ALD:
Myth: In alcoholic hepatitis, the AST:ALT ratio is less than 2:1.
Fact: Unlike most other liver diseases, including viral hepatitis, alcoholic hepatitis exhibits at least a 2:1 AST:ALT ratio.Myth: Hepatic iron overload is not indicative of concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.
Fact: Evidence of iron overload, such as elevated levels of transferrin saturation and serum ferritin, is common in ALD and may indicate concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.Myth: Women are less susceptible to ALD than men.
Fact: Women are actually twice as susceptible to ALD than men, even when consumption is corrected for body weight, and may develop ALD with shorter durations and doses of chronic consumption.Myth: Alcoholic fatty infiltration is irreversible once established.
Fact: Although steatosis (fatty infiltration) will develop in any individual who consumes a large quantity of alcohol over a long period of time, this process is usually transient and reversible. Alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic fatty infiltration are reversible with abstinence and adequate nutrition.Myth: Alcoholic cirrhosis does not progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.
Fact: Like other causes of liver cirrhosis, alcoholic cirrhosis can also progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.In conclusion, ALD is a serious liver disease that can have irreversible consequences if not addressed in a timely manner. It is important to understand the facts and myths surrounding this disease to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 68
Correct
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A 19-year-old female patient presents to the GP surgery with a 2-year history of heavy menstrual bleeding. She reports that it has been manageable since the start of her menarche at the age of 14 but last 2 years it has become increasingly heavy that it has been causing problems at college. She has to change the sanitary towels every hour on the first 3 days of her periods and has been experiencing significant social embarrassment associated with over-flowing. She reports mild cramping pain on the first 2 days of the menstruation and denies dyspareunia. She is currently not sexually active. You arrange some blood tests which showed a mild iron deficiency anaemia but otherwise normal. An ultrasound revealed a normal looking uterus.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Explanation:When there is excessive menstrual bleeding without any underlying medical condition, it is referred to as dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Endometriosis typically causes pain a few days before menstruation and painful intercourse. The absence of fibroids and polyps is indicated by a normal ultrasound scan, and this condition is more prevalent in older women. Although a clotting disorder must be ruled out, the blood test results suggest that it is improbable.
Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition
Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 69
Correct
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During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old daughter who has worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces, particularly on the legs. She has tried regular liberal use emollient cream with limited success.
What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of the child’s eczema?Your Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Eczema is a common condition in children that can be effectively managed with the right treatment approach. When a child presents with eczema symptoms, the first step is often to use emollient cream to moisturize the affected area. However, if the symptoms persist or worsen, a topical corticosteroid cream may be prescribed to help manage the flare-up. It is important to use this medication sparingly and in conjunction with emollients.
If the eczema symptoms continue to be troublesome despite these measures, it may be appropriate to refer the child to a dermatology clinic. However, it is important to note that oral corticosteroids should be used with caution in children and only under the direction of a dermatologist.
While emollient creams are often effective, in some cases, an emollient ointment may be more moisturizing and helpful. However, if the eczema flare-up is not resolving with emollients alone, a short course of topical corticosteroid is likely necessary.
Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation, as the child has already presented to the GP and symptoms are worsening despite reasonable management by the mother. By understanding the various treatment options and considerations for managing eczema in children, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 70
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of difficulty with fine movements in her hands. She reports that her hands become pale and numb when exposed to cold temperatures. Upon examination, the GP observes thickening and tightening of the skin over the patient's hands. What other symptom would indicate a possible diagnosis of limited systemic sclerosis?
Your Answer: Heartburn
Explanation:CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. If a patient experiences heartburn, it may indicate oesophageal dysmotility, which is a feature of CREST syndrome. However, dry eyes are a symptom of Sjogren’s syndrome, which is a separate condition. Hypertension is a complication of diffuse systemic sclerosis, which affects the proximal limbs and trunk and can lead to renal crisis and respiratory involvement. Oliguria is a symptom of renal crisis, which is a complication of diffuse systemic sclerosis.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 71
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease and the next appropriate step is likely starting her on donepezil. She has a past medical history of ischaemic heart diseases, pacemaker insertion for bradyarrhythmias, diabetes mellitus type II, hypercholesterolaemia and general anxiety disorder (GAD).
Which one of the following could be a contraindication to the prescription of donepezil?
Your Answer: History of ischaemic heart diseases
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Contraindications and Considerations for the Use of Donepezil
Donepezil is a medication used to treat Alzheimer’s disease. However, there are certain contraindications and considerations that healthcare professionals should keep in mind when prescribing this medication.
Bradycardia, a condition where the heart beats too slowly, is a relative contraindication for the use of donepezil. This medication may cause bradycardia and atrioventricular node block, so caution should be taken in patients with other cardiac abnormalities. Additionally, patients with asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, supraventricular conduction abnormalities, susceptibility to peptic ulcers, and sick-sinus syndrome should also be closely monitored when taking donepezil.
Concurrent use of simvastatin, a medication used to lower cholesterol levels, is not a concern when taking donepezil. General anxiety disorder (GAD) and diabetes mellitus type II are also not contraindications for the use of donepezil.
However, elderly patients with a known history of persistent bradycardia, heart block, recurrent unexplained syncope, or concurrent treatment with drugs that reduce heart rate should avoid donepezil. A history of ischaemic heart diseases alone is not a contraindication for donepezil.
In summary, healthcare professionals should carefully consider a patient’s medical history and current medications before prescribing donepezil. Close monitoring is necessary in patients with certain cardiac abnormalities and caution should be taken in elderly patients with a history of bradycardia or heart block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 72
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is referred to the clinic for evaluation. She is in her first month of pregnancy and has been experiencing excessive morning sickness. Her routine blood work revealed an ALT level of 64 iu/l (reference range 20–60 iu/l) and a total bilirubin level of 30 μmol/l (reference range < 20 μmol/l). Additionally, her potassium level was 3.4 (reference range 3.5–5.0 mEq/l) and her urea level was 7.5 (reference range 2.5–7.1 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?
Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation:Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis
During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, each with its own set of symptoms and potential complications. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy and their distinguishing features:
1. Hyperemesis gravidarum: This is the most severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, which can lead to weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is characterised by persistent nausea and vomiting, and may require hospitalisation.
2. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy: This is a rare but serious complication that can occur in the third trimester. It is characterised by microvesicular steatosis in the liver, which can lead to liver insufficiency. Symptoms include malaise, nausea and vomiting, right upper quadrant and epigastric pain, and acute renal failure.
3. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy: This is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, characterised by generalised itching, particularly in the palms and soles, and jaundice. It is caused by hormonal changes and can lead to fetal complications if not treated promptly.
4. Pre-eclampsia: This is a disorder of widespread vascular malfunction that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is characterised by hypertension and proteinuria, with or without oedema.
5. Biliary tract disease: This is a broad spectrum of disorders ranging from asymptomatic gallstones to cholecystitis and choledocholithiasis. Symptoms include biliary colic, inflammation of the gall bladder wall, and obstruction of the common bile duct.
It is important to differentiate between these liver disorders in pregnancy, as each requires a different approach to management and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of ongoing fatigue and tiredness. She has a medical history of hypertension and eczema, and no significant family history. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained:
- Hb: 141 g/l
- Platelets: 222 * 109/l
- WBC: 6.3 * 109/l
- Neuts: 3.9 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 1.2 * 109/l
- Na+: 140 mmol/l
- K+: 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.9 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 83 µmol/l
- CRP: 4.1 mg/l
- TSH: 6.2 mu/l
- Free T4: 6 pmol/l
What is the most likely pathology causing her symptoms?Your Answer: Hypopituitarism
Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, specifically Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. This is indicated by a presentation and blood test showing hypothyroidism with a raised TSH, suggesting a failure of the thyroid gland to respond to pituitary stimulation or a primary hypothyroidism. While iodine deficiency is the main cause of hypothyroidism worldwide, it is rare in the UK. Papillary thyroid cancer does not affect thyroid function, as the cancer cells do not secrete thyroxine. Although De Quervain’s can cause a primary hypothyroidism with similar symptoms, it is much less common than Hashimoto’s and therefore an incorrect answer.
Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by features of hypothyroidism, such as a firm, non-tender goitre, and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions, including coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction (MI).
Which of the following options has not been shown to have a beneficial effect on mortality after an MI?Your Answer: Atorvastatin
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Care
After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended to reduce mortality and manage symptoms. Nitrates, such as isosorbide mononitrate, offer no mortality benefit but can be used for angina symptoms. β-blockers, like timolol, provide both mortality and anti-anginal benefits and should be continued for at least 12 months post-MI. Statins, specifically atorvastatin 80 mg, are recommended for secondary prevention to reduce mortality. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, offer good mortality benefit, but angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can be used if the patient cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. Aspirin, in combination with another antiplatelet therapy, is recommended for 12 months post-MI. Studies have shown that tirofiban, timolol, and ramipril reduce mortality after an MI, while isosorbide mononitrate showed no benefit. The MIRACL study found that atorvastatin reduced cardiovascular events by 17% when given for 3 months post-MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a 20-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for bipolar disorder complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Huntington’s disease
Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Understanding Movement Disorders Associated with Anti-Psychotic Medication
Anti-psychotic medication can cause a range of movement disorders, including tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and Parkinsonism. Tardive dyskinesia is a common side-effect of long-term treatment with anti-psychotics, but can also occur with minimal doses. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements, often starting in the fingers and tongue and becoming more generalized. Treatment is often unsuccessful, but may involve switching to a different medication or using agents such as tetrabenazine or benzodiazepines. Akathisia is an inner feeling of motor restlessness, with voluntary movements such as pacing or rocking. Parkinsonism is characterized by resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. These movement disorders can be mistaken for other conditions such as Huntington’s or Wilson’s disease, but the association with anti-psychotic medication and the specific symptoms make tardive dyskinesia a more likely option. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients on anti-psychotic medication for these potential side-effects and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of hair loss. She reports noticing that her hair has become significantly thinner and that she is shedding more hair than usual, both on her pillow and in the shower drain. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history except for giving birth to her first child 6 months ago. She is not taking any medications regularly and there is no family history of hair loss. On examination, her scalp hair is uniformly thin, but there are no areas of complete hair loss. Her systemic examination is unremarkable and her vital signs are within normal limits. Blood tests, including iron studies and thyroid function, are all normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Androgenetic alopecia
Correct Answer: Telogen effluvium
Explanation:Telogen effluvium is characterized by hair loss and thinning as a result of experiencing significant stress. In this case, the patient’s recent physical stress from giving birth is a likely cause of her hair becoming thinner due to telogen effluvium. The hair loss patterns observed do not match those of alopecia areata or alopecia totalis, which respectively cause distinct areas of complete hair loss or complete loss of all hair on the head and face.
Input:
Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.Output:
– Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
– Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
– Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and left eye discomfort. She reported experiencing a red, painful eye with watering and sensitivity to light for the past 3 days. During fluorescein examination, you observed a dendritic ulcer on the cornea that was stained with fluorescein.
What is the primary treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Topical ofloxacin drops
Correct Answer: Topical aciclovir drops
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is the use of topical aciclovir. Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and should not be used. The use of steroids can worsen the condition and should be avoided. If the patient is already using topical steroids for another eye condition, the dosage should be decreased.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of a flu-like illness. He reports not having eaten for the past 48 hours. During examination, mild jaundice is observed, but no other significant physical findings are noted. The patient's total serum bilirubin level is elevated at 60 μmol/l (reference range < 20 μmol/l), while the other liver function tests (LFTs) are normal. Full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes, and haptoglobins are within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Correct Answer: Gilbert syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms
Gilbert Syndrome:
Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.Haemolytic Anaemia:
Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.Hepatitis A:
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.Hepatitis B:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).Cholecystitis:
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.Conclusion:
In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 82-year-old man is admitted to the stroke unit with a left sided infarct. After receiving thrombolysis, he is now stable on the ward. The medical team wants to initiate regular antiplatelet therapy, but the patient has allergies to both aspirin and clopidogrel. What alternative medication can be prescribed for him?
Your Answer: Warfarin
Correct Answer: Dipyridamole
Explanation:If aspirin and clopidogrel cannot be used after an ischaemic stroke, MR dipyridamole may be administered as the sole antiplatelet option. Warfarin and rivaroxaban may be considered, but are more suitable for patients with AF. Bisoprolol and enoxaparin are not antiplatelet medications.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner (GP), as she is passing a substantial volume of urine. She complains that she is continuously thirsty.
Random plasma reveals the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol
Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 4.5 mmol
Urine analysis reveals the following:
Investigation Result
Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 0.1 mmol/l
In healthy patients, the urine : plasma osmolality ratio is > 2.
A water deprivation test reveals the following:
After 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient’s weight had dropped by > 3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (IM) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lithium therapy
Correct Answer: A pituitary tumour
Explanation:Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Pituitary Tumour as the Likely Cause
Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is reduced antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion, which can be caused by a pituitary tumour. In this case, the patient’s low urine osmolality and reduced response to the water deprivation test confirm the presence of cranial DI.
Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy can also cause nephrogenic DI, but the patient’s response to desmopressin im excludes these as potential causes. Diabetes mellitus may cause polydipsia and polyuria, but it also presents with glycosuria and hyperglycaemia. Primary polydipsia, characterized by a compulsive desire to drink, can cause low urine osmolality, but the patient’s ability to concentrate urine to some extent excludes this as a likely cause.
In conclusion, a pituitary tumour is the most likely cause of the patient’s cranial DI, as confirmed by the water deprivation test and response to desmopressin im.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to his GP for a diabetes check-up. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on one diabetes medication (500mg metformin BD). He reports no adverse effects from this treatment. His most recent retinopathy screening was unremarkable. You draw blood to assess his HbA1c levels.
What is the recommended target HbA1c for this patient?Your Answer: 42 mmol/mol
Correct Answer: 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:The recommended HbA1c goal for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus is 48 mmol/mol. According to NICE guidelines, this target is appropriate for patients who are managing their condition through lifestyle changes or a single antidiabetic medication. However, if a patient is prescribed a second medication or is taking a medication that increases the risk of hypoglycaemia (such as a sulphonylurea), the target may be adjusted to 53 mmol/mol. It is important to note that the HbA1c threshold for changing medications may differ from the target HbA1c level.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about his increased risk of breast cancer due to his sister's recent diagnosis at the age of 30 years with a BRCA2 mutation. He is considering getting tested for the mutation. If he were to test positive for BRCA2, what other type of cancer would he be at a higher risk for?
Your Answer: Testicular
Correct Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Men with BRCA2 mutation are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, while both men and women with this mutation have a significantly increased risk of developing breast cancer. Additionally, women with BRCA2 mutation are more likely to develop ovarian cancer. Although young-onset colorectal cancer is linked to BRCA1 mutation, there is no such association observed in individuals with BRCA2 mutation.
Li-Fraumeni Syndrome is caused by mutations in the p53 gene and increases the risk of developing sarcomas and leukemias. BRCA 1 and 2 mutations increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancer, and BRCA 2 is also associated with prostate cancer in men. Lynch Syndrome increases the risk of colon and endometrial cancer, and can be identified using the Amsterdam criteria. Gardner’s Syndrome is a familial colorectal polyposis that can lead to colectomy to reduce the risk of colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents with frank haematemesis. She had been discharged just two months ago after receiving treatment for bleeding oesophageal varices. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for endoscopy after resuscitation?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Terlipressin
Explanation:Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 84
Correct
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When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life
Explanation:Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns
Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for the past week. She reports experiencing headaches and mild abdominal discomfort. She denies having any diarrhea but mentions severe constipation. Recently, she returned from a 3-week trip to India. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.5ºC, and she appears bloated. Additionally, a sparse macular rash is observed on her chest. What is the probable causative agent for this presentation?
Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Correct Answer: Salmonella typhi
Explanation:While salmonella can cause diarrhoea, typhoid fever is more likely to result in constipation. This is a typical symptom of typhoid fever, along with the appearance of rose spots. It’s important to note that constipation can be a significant indicator of this illness. In contrast, Campylobacter jejuni infection usually causes bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. E. coli is a common cause of watery diarrhoea, but certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 can lead to severe abdominal cramping, vomiting, and bloody diarrhoea. Giardiasis can cause similar symptoms such as bloating and abdominal pain, but it usually results in chronic diarrhoea. Shigellosis typically causes abdominal pain and diarrhoea, which may or may not be bloody.
Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presented to the GP surgery multiple times with a persistent conjunctivitis in one eye. Despite being treated with chloramphenicol and steroid eye drops, the symptoms did not improve. After three weeks, he visited the eye casualty with a constantly teary, painless, and red right eye. Upon examination, it was found that he had decreased visual acuity and mild proptosis in the affected eye. What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Scleritis
Correct Answer: Orbital lymphoma
Explanation:If a patient has chronic unilateral conjunctivitis that is not responding to treatment, it could be a sign of orbital lymphoma.
Orbital lymphoma typically has a slow onset of symptoms, which is why it is the most appropriate answer in this situation. If the red eye persists despite treatment, it is important to investigate further to rule out any serious underlying conditions. The other options listed are not applicable as they are associated with a painful red eye.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A senior citizen who is taking digoxin asks you about the toxic effects of digoxin therapy, having read about it on the internet.
Which of the following is associated with digoxin toxicity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premature ventricular beats
Explanation:Understanding Digoxin Toxicity: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Digoxin toxicity can occur suddenly in cases of overdose or gradually during long-term treatment. It is a common issue among elderly patients and is often associated with risk factors such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypercalcemia. The most common and earliest dysrhythmia in digoxin toxicity is the finding of premature ventricular beats on an ECG, along with sinus bradycardia. Other ECG changes may include depressed conduction, bigeminal and trigeminal rhythms, ventricular bigeminy, and bidirectional ventricular tachycardia. Hair loss is not associated with digoxin toxicity, but gum/gingival hypertrophy can be caused by other drugs. Loss of appetite, vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue are common symptoms reported by patients. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors associated with digoxin toxicity to ensure proper treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are concerned because he still wets his bed every night. A urine culture is normal; urine is negative for glucose and protein.
What would be the most appropriate approach to managing this child's bedwetting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance to parents with general advice
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common issue among children. While it can sometimes be caused by an underlying medical condition, such as a urinary tract infection or diabetes, in most cases it is simply a developmental issue that will resolve on its own over time.
It is important to have a medical evaluation to rule out any underlying medical conditions, but once those have been ruled out, treatment is generally not recommended until the child is at least six years old. In the meantime, parents can use star charts and enuresis alarms to help motivate their child to stay dry at night.
It is also important to consider any psychological issues that may be contributing to the problem. Parents should ask their child about their school performance, friendships, and home life, and try to speak to the child alone if possible to get a better understanding of any stressors that may be affecting them.
There is no need for a referral for an ultrasound scan unless there is a suspicion of a structural abnormality. Desmopressin nasal spray can be prescribed for short-term relief, but oral imipramine is no longer recommended. Prophylactic antibiotics are also not indicated for nocturnal enuresis.
Overall, parents should be reassured that bedwetting is a common issue that many children experience, and with time and patience, it will likely resolve on its own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden shortness of breath. He recently returned from a backpacking trip in Australia and was previously healthy. He denies any other symptoms and is stable hemodynamically. He has no personal or family history of cancer, heart failure, or chronic lung disease. A D-Dimer test is performed and comes back elevated. A subsequent CTPA reveals a small pulmonary embolism without any signs of right-sided heart strain. The consultant believes that he can be managed as an outpatient with a DOAC and close monitoring. Which of the following scoring systems can aid in their decision-making process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PESI
Explanation:The PESI score is suggested by BTS guidelines for identifying patients with pulmonary embolism who can be treated as outpatients. It predicts long-term morbidity and mortality in PE patients. The ABCD2 is used for triaging acute Transient Ischaemic Attack cases. The CHA2DS2-VASc score aids in deciding whether to start prophylactic anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation patients. The GRACE score estimates mortality in those who have had Acute Coronary Syndrome.
Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.
Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.
In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.
Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman visits her general practice for a routine check-up. She has a history of hypertension and occasional headaches. During screening tests, her serum creatinine level is found to be elevated at 190 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l) and her haemoglobin level is low at 110 g/l (reference range 120–155 g/l). An X-ray of her chest shows a mass in her lung, and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
What is the most likely cause of her impaired renal function?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Common Renal Disorders: Amyloidosis, Metformin Toxicity, Diabetic Nephropathy, Membranous Glomerulonephritis, and Urinary Tract Infection
Renal disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and can be caused by various factors. Here are five common renal disorders and their characteristics:
1. Amyloidosis: This disorder is caused by the deposition of abnormal amyloid fibrils that alter the normal function of tissues. Nearly 90% of the deposits consist of amyloid fibrils that are formed by the aggregation of misfolded proteins. In light chain amyloidosis (AL), the precursor protein is a clonal immunoglobulin light chain or light chain fragment. Treatment usually mirrors the management of multiple myeloma.
2. Metformin Toxicity: Metformin is a widely used antidiabetic agent that holds the risk of developing a potentially lethal acidosis. Its accumulation is feasible in renal failure and acute overdosage. Toxic accumulation of the drug requires time after the development of renal failure, due to high clearance of metformin.
3. Diabetic Nephropathy: This clinical syndrome is characterised by persistent albuminuria, progressive decline in the glomerular filtration rate, and elevated arterial blood pressure. Despite it being the most common cause of incident chronic renal failure, one should be wary about diagnosing diabetic nephropathy in the absence of proliferative retinopathy and proteinuria.
4. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is one of the more common forms of nephrotic syndrome in adults. Some patients may present with asymptomatic proteinuria, but the major presenting complaint is oedema. Proteinuria is usually >3.5 g/24 h.
5. Urinary Tract Infection (UTI): Causes of UTIs in men include prostatitis, epididymitis, orchitis, pyelonephritis, cystitis, urethritis, and urinary catheters. Dysuria is the most frequent complaint in men, and the combination of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urinary urgency is about 75% predictive for UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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