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Question 1
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl comes in with sudden abdominal pain. She has a high temperature and feels very nauseous. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa. You suspect she may have acute appendicitis.
What is the surface marking for McBurney's point in this case?Your Answer: One-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus
Explanation:Appendicitis is a condition characterized by the acute inflammation of the appendix. It is a common cause of the acute abdomen, particularly affecting children and young adults in their 20s and 30s. The typical presentation of appendicitis involves experiencing poorly localized periumbilical pain, which is pain originating from the visceral peritoneum. Within a day or two, this pain tends to localize to a specific point known as McBurney’s point, which is associated with pain from the parietal peritoneum. Alongside the pain, individuals with appendicitis often experience symptoms such as fever, loss of appetite, and nausea.
McBurney’s point is defined as the point that lies one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus. This point roughly corresponds to the most common position where the base of the appendix attaches to the caecum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion over the past week. His diabetes is typically controlled with metformin 500 mg twice daily. He recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from his primary care physician, and his family reports that he has been experiencing excessive thirst. He has vomited multiple times today. A urine dipstick test shows a small amount of white blood cells and 1+ ketones. The results of his arterial blood gas analysis are as follows:
pH: 7.29
pO2: 11.1 kPa
pCO2: 4.6 kPa
HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
Na+: 154 mmol/l
K+: 3.2 mmol/l
Cl-: 100 mmol/l
Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
Glucose: 32 mmol/l
Which SINGLE statement is true regarding this case?Your Answer: She does not require insulin
Correct Answer: Anticoagulation should be given
Explanation:In an elderly patient with a history of gradual decline accompanied by high blood sugar levels, excessive thirst, and recent infection, the most likely diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). This condition can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate of approximately 50%. Common symptoms include dehydration, elevated blood sugar levels, altered mental status, and electrolyte imbalances. About half of the patients with HHS also experience hypernatremia.
To calculate the serum osmolality, the formula is 2(K+ + Na+) + urea + glucose. In this case, the serum osmolality is 364 mmol/l, indicating a high level. It is important to discontinue the use of metformin in this patient due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). Additionally, an intravenous infusion of insulin should be initiated.
The treatment goals for HHS are to address the underlying cause and gradually and safely:
– Normalize the osmolality
– Replace fluid and electrolyte losses
– Normalize blood glucose levelsIf significant ketonaemia is present (3β-hydroxybutyrate is more than 1 mmol/L), it indicates a relative lack of insulin, and insulin should be administered immediately. However, if significant ketonaemia is not present, insulin should not be started.
Patients with HHS are at a high risk of thromboembolism, and it is recommended to routinely administer low molecular weight heparin. In cases where the serum osmolality exceeds 350 mmol/l, full heparinization should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 10 year old male is brought into the emergency department due to worsening fatigue, vomiting, and frequent urination over the past 48 hours. You assess for potential underlying causes, including diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is characterized by which of the following?
Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia, acidosis and ketonaemia
Explanation:DKA is characterized by three main symptoms: high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia), an acidic pH in the body (acidosis), and an increased presence of ketones in the blood (ketonaemia).
Further Reading:
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.
The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.
The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.
Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of worsening dizziness and weakness in the past few days. She reports experiencing abdominal discomfort, nausea, muscle aches, and weight loss over the last month. To investigate potential underlying causes of her symptoms, you order blood tests. What biochemical abnormalities would you anticipate if the patient is suffering from adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia
Explanation:If the patient is suffering from adrenal insufficiency, it is likely that she will have hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. Adrenal insufficiency occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones, particularly cortisol. This can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, such as sodium and potassium. Hyponatremia refers to low levels of sodium in the blood, while hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood. These abnormalities can cause symptoms such as dizziness, weakness, abdominal discomfort, and muscle aches. Additionally, the patient’s reported weight loss and other symptoms are consistent with adrenal insufficiency.
Further Reading:
Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.
The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.
Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.
There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with brief episodes of vertigo that are worse in the evening and is triggered by head movement and turning in bed. Each episode lasts only a couple of minutes. He experiences nausea during the attacks but has not vomited. He has no previous history of hearing loss or tinnitus.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)
Explanation:Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) occurs when there is dysfunction in the inner ear. This dysfunction causes the otoliths, which are located in the utricle, to become dislodged from their normal position and migrate into one of the semicircular canals over time. As a result, these detached otoliths continue to move even after head movement has stopped, leading to vertigo due to the conflicting sensation of ongoing movement with other sensory inputs.
While the majority of BPPV cases have no identifiable cause (idiopathic), approximately 40% of cases can be attributed to factors such as head injury, spontaneous labyrinthine degeneration, post-viral illness, middle ear surgery, or chronic middle ear disease.
The main clinical features of BPPV include symptoms that are provoked by head movement, rolling over, and upward gaze. These episodes are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are often worse in the mornings. Unlike other inner ear disorders, BPPV does not cause hearing loss or tinnitus. Nausea is a common symptom, while vomiting is rare. The Dix-Hallpike test can be used to confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
It is important to note that vestibular suppressant medications have not been proven to be beneficial in managing BPPV. These medications do not improve symptoms or reduce the duration of the disease.
The treatment of choice for BPPV is the Epley manoeuvre. This maneuver aims to reposition the dislodged otoliths back into the utricles from the semicircular canals. A 2014 Cochrane review concluded that the Epley manoeuvre is a safe and effective treatment for BPPV, with a number needed to treat of 2-4.
Referral to an ENT specialist is recommended for patients with BPPV in the following situations: if the treating clinician is unable to perform or access the Epley manoeuvre, if the Epley manoeuvre has not been beneficial after repeated attempts (minimum two), if the patient has been symptomatic for more than 4 weeks, or if the patient has experienced more than 3 episodes of BPPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A toddler develops a palsy of his left leg following a fall. On examination, there is a 'foot drop' deformity and sensory loss of the lateral side of the foot and lower leg. There is also evidence of a left sided Horner's syndrome.
Which nerve roots have most likely been affected in this case?Your Answer: C5 and C6
Correct Answer: C8 and T1
Explanation:Klumpke’s palsy, also known as Dejerine-Klumpke palsy, is a condition where the arm becomes paralyzed due to an injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus. The most commonly affected root is C8, but T1 can also be involved. The main cause of Klumpke’s palsy is when the arm is pulled forcefully in an outward position during a difficult childbirth. It can also occur in adults with apical lung carcinoma (Pancoast’s syndrome).
Clinically, Klumpke’s palsy is characterized by a deformity known as ‘claw hand’, which is caused by the paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles. There is also a loss of sensation along the ulnar side of the forearm and hand. In some cases where T1 is affected, a condition called Horner’s syndrome may also be present.
Klumpke’s palsy can be distinguished from Erb’s palsy, which affects the upper roots of the brachial plexus (C5 and sometimes C6). In Erb’s palsy, the arm hangs by the side with the elbow extended and the forearm turned inward (known as the ‘waiter’s tip sign’). Additionally, there is a loss of shoulder abduction, external rotation, and elbow flexion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents with right eye pain and sensitivity to light. She reports that the eye pain worsens when she reads or uses her computer. Her eye is excessively watery. During the examination, her right pupil is constricted, and there is noticeable redness around the iris. Her visual acuity is measured and found to be 6/6. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis and takes a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the middle layer of the eye, which includes the iris and the ciliary body. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent damage and vision loss due to the development of conditions like glaucoma, cataract, or retinal edema.
There are various causes of anterior uveitis, including eye trauma from being hit or having a foreign object in the eye. It can also be associated with inflammatory disorders such as ankylosing spondylitis.
The clinical features of anterior uveitis are characterized by a red and sore eye, accompanied by pain that worsens when the ciliary muscles contract. Other symptoms include watering of the eye, blurred vision, sensitivity to light (photophobia), and a constricted or distorted pupil. The visual acuity may be normal or reduced.
Overall, anterior uveitis is a condition that requires prompt attention and treatment to prevent further complications and preserve vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman comes in with postmenopausal bleeding. Her medical records indicate that she recently underwent a transvaginal ultrasound, which revealed an endometrial thickness of 6.5 mm. What is the MOST suitable next step in investigating her condition?
Your Answer: Endometrial biopsy
Explanation:postmenopausal bleeding should always be treated as a potential malignancy until proven otherwise. The first-line investigation for this condition is transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS). This method effectively assesses the risk of endometrial cancer by measuring the thickness of the endometrium.
In postmenopausal women, the average endometrial thickness is much thinner compared to premenopausal women. The likelihood of endometrial cancer increases as the endometrium becomes thicker. Currently, in the UK, an endometrial thickness of 5 mm is considered the threshold.
If the endometrial thickness is greater than 5 mm, there is a 7.3% chance of endometrial cancer. However, if a woman with postmenopausal bleeding has a uniform endometrial thickness of less than 5 mm, the likelihood of endometrial cancer is less than 1%.
In cases where there is a high clinical risk, hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy should also be performed. The definitive diagnosis is made through histological examination. If the endometrial thickness is greater than 5 mm, an endometrial biopsy is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A patient in their late 40s has sustained an injury to their right upper limb and is now experiencing peripheral neuropathy as a result. During the examination, it is observed that their hand is clawed, with the metacarpophalangeal joints hyperextended and the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the little and ring fingers flexed. Additionally, there is a slight weakness in wrist flexion, which is accompanied by abduction. The patient also reports sensory loss over the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the corresponding area of the palm.
Which nerve has been affected in this case?Your Answer: Ulnar nerve at the elbow
Explanation:The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8-T1 nerve roots. It may also carry fibers from C7 on occasion. This nerve has both motor and sensory functions.
In terms of motor function, the ulnar nerve innervates the muscles of the hand, excluding the thenar muscles and the lateral two lumbricals (which are supplied by the median nerve). It also innervates two muscles in the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus.
Regarding sensory function, the ulnar nerve provides innervation to the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the associated palm and dorsal hand area. There are three sensory branches responsible for the cutaneous innervation of the ulnar nerve. Two of these branches arise in the forearm and travel into the hand: the palmar cutaneous branch, which innervates the skin of the medial half of the palm, and the dorsal cutaneous branch, which innervates the dorsal skin of the medial one and a half fingers and the associated dorsal hand. The third branch arises in the hand and is called the superficial branch, which innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers.
When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the anterior forearm will be spared. However, if the ulnar nerve is injured at the wrist, these muscles will be affected. Additionally, when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, flexion of the wrist can still occur due to the intact median nerve, but it will be accompanied by abduction as the flexor carpi ulnaris adducts the hand. On the other hand, wrist flexion will be unaffected when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the wrist.
The sensory function also differs depending on the site of damage. When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, all three cutaneous branches will be affected, resulting in complete sensory loss in the areas innervated by the ulnar nerve. However, if the damage occurs at the wrist, the two branches that arise in the forearm may be spared.
Damage to the ulnar nerve at either the elbow or wrist leads to a characteristic claw hand appearance, characterized by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joint of the little and ring fingers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are managing a 65 year old male who has presented to the emergency department with a 3 hour history of epistaxis. On examination there is significant bleeding from both nostrils and you are unable to identify a bleeding point. Your consultant asks if you are concerned about a posterior bleed.
Posterior epistaxis is most commonly associated with bleeding from which of the following?Your Answer: Greater palatine artery
Correct Answer: Sphenopalatine artery
Explanation:Posterior epistaxis, which is bleeding from the back of the nose, is typically caused by bleeding from the sphenopalatine artery or its branches. The most common surgical treatment for posterior epistaxis involves tying off the sphenopalatine artery. It is important to note that there is some disagreement in the literature regarding the exact location of the bleeding, with some sources referring to Woodruff’s plexus. However, cadaveric studies suggest that Woodruff’s plexus is more likely a venous anastomosis rather than an arterial one involving branches of the sphenopalatine artery.
Further Reading:
Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.
The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.
If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.
Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.
In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 11
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes in with bleeding from a tooth socket that began slightly over 48 hours after a dental extraction. The bleeding is excessive, but his vital signs are currently within normal range.
What is the most probable underlying cause of his dental hemorrhage?Your Answer: Clot infection
Explanation:This patient is currently experiencing a secondary haemorrhage after undergoing a dental extraction. There are three different types of haemorrhage that can occur following a dental extraction. The first type is immediate haemorrhage, which happens during the extraction itself. The second type is reactionary haemorrhage, which typically occurs 2-3 hours after the extraction when the vasoconstrictor effects of the local anaesthetic wear off. Lastly, there is secondary haemorrhage, which usually happens at around 48-72 hours after the extraction and is a result of the clot becoming infected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25 year old male is brought to the emergency department by the police. The man tried to evade capture by leaping from a ground floor window. The patient reports that both of his feet are hurting, but the left foot is significantly more painful than the right. The patient exhibits tenderness in the left heel, leading you to suspect a calcaneus fracture. Which of the following statements about calcaneus fractures is accurate?
Your Answer: Contralateral calcaneus fractures are present in 10% of patients
Explanation:Fractures that extend into the calcaneocuboid joint are commonly intra-articular. It is recommended to refer patients to orthopaedics for further evaluation and treatment. Conservative management usually involves keeping the patient non-weight bearing for a period of 6-12 weeks.
Further Reading:
Calcaneus fractures are a common type of lower limb and joint injury. The calcaneus, or heel bone, is the most frequently fractured tarsal bone. These fractures are often intra-articular, meaning they involve the joint. The most common cause of calcaneus fractures is a fall or jump from a height.
When assessing calcaneus fractures, X-rays are used to visualize the fracture lines. Two angles are commonly assessed to determine the severity of the fracture. Böhler’s angle, which measures the angle between two tangent lines drawn across the anterior and posterior borders of the calcaneus, should be between 20-40 degrees. If it is less than 20 degrees, it indicates a calcaneal fracture with flattening. The angle of Gissane, which measures the depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint, should be between 120-145 degrees. An increased angle of Gissane suggests a calcaneal fracture.
In the emergency department, the management of a fractured calcaneus involves identifying the injury and any associated injuries, providing pain relief, elevating the affected limb(s), and referring the patient to an orthopedic specialist. It is important to be aware that calcaneus fractures are often accompanied by other injuries, such as bilateral fractures of vertebral fractures.
The definitive management of a fractured calcaneus can be done conservatively or through surgery, specifically open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The orthopedic team will typically order a CT or MRI scan to classify the fracture and determine the most appropriate treatment. However, a recent UK heel fracture trial suggests that in most cases, ORIF does not improve fracture outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 13
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with a nosebleed that began after blowing her nose an hour ago. You assessed her when she arrived 30 minutes ago and recommended that she try to stop the bleeding by pinching the soft, cartilaginous part of her nose. She has been doing this since then, but her nose is still bleeding. During the examination, you can see bleeding points in both nostrils. What is the most suitable next step to take?
Your Answer: Pack the nose with nasal tampons, e.g. Rapid Rhinos
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.
Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of dizziness. It started suddenly in the morning upon waking, and he is currently unable to get out of bed and is lying still. The dizziness symptoms are worsened by moving and he has vomited multiple times. He had a viral upper respiratory tract infection last week that has now resolved. He has never experienced dizziness before. On examination, he has an unsteady gait, slightly reduced hearing on the left, and prominent horizontal nystagmus to the right. The Hallpike maneuver was negative, and Weber's test lateralizes to the right.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Labyrinthitis
Explanation:Differentiating between the various causes of vertigo can be challenging, but there are several clues in the question that can help determine the most likely cause. If the patient has a history of sudden and severe vertigo following a viral infection, the diagnosis is likely to be vestibular neuritis or labyrinthitis. Labyrinthitis, which is characterized by hearing loss and tinnitus, is more likely in this case. Meniere’s disease, on the other hand, can also cause hearing loss and tinnitus along with vertigo, but it typically has a longer history of gradually worsening hearing loss and does not cause prolonged vertigo attacks.
Here are the key clinical features of the different causes of vertigo mentioned in the question:
Vestibular neuronitis:
– Infection of the 8th cranial nerve, often viral or bacterial
– Usually preceded by a sinus infection or upper respiratory tract infection
– Severe vertigo
– Vertigo is not related to position
– No hearing loss or tinnitus
– Nausea and vomiting are common
– Nystagmus (involuntary eye movement) away from the side of the lesion
– Episodes may recur over an 18-month periodLabyrinthitis:
– Caused by a viral infection
– Can affect the entire inner ear and 8th cranial nerve
– Severe vertigo
– Vertigo can be related to position
– Can be accompanied by sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus
– Nausea and vomiting are common
– Nystagmus away from the side of the lesionBenign positional vertigo:
– Mostly idiopathic (unknown cause)
– Can be secondary to trauma or other inner ear disorders
– Provoked by head movement, rolling over, or upward gaze
– Brief episodes lasting less than 5 minutes
– No hearing loss or tinnitus
– Nausea is common, vomiting is rare
– Positive Hallpike maneuver (a diagnostic test)Meniere’s disease:
– Idiopathic (unknown cause)
– Sensorineural hearing loss
– Hearing loss usually gradually worsens and affects one ear
– Commonly associated with tinnitus
– Vertigo attacks typically last 2-3 hours
– Attacks of vertigo last less than 24 hours
– Sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear(s)
– Nausea and vomiting are common
– Nystagmus away from the side of the lesion -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 15
Correct
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A 21 year old patient is brought into the emergency department with burns to the left arm. The patient informs you that one of their friends had accidentally set their sleeve on fire with a lighter, causing the material to quickly burn and stick to their skin. The patient's entire left arm is burned, with the front part experiencing superficial partial thickness burns and the back part having areas of deep partial thickness and full thickness burns. What is the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient?
Your Answer: 9%
Explanation:To estimate the total body surface area of burn, we need to consider the rule of nines. This rule divides the body into different regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area. According to the rule of nines, the left arm accounts for 9% of the total body surface area. Therefore, the estimated total body surface area of burn in this patient is 9%.
Further Reading:
Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 16
Correct
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A 68 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a concerned coworker who noticed that the patient seemed unsteady on his feet and very short of breath when walking to his car. The patient tells you they usually feel a bit short of breath when doing things like walking to their car or going up the stairs. On examination you note a regular pulse, rate 88 bpm, but an audible ejection systolic murmur loudest at the left sternal edge. Blood pressure is 148/94 mmHg. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Severe aortic stenosis (AS) is characterized by several distinct features. These include a slow rising pulse, an ejection systolic murmur that is heard loudest in the aortic area and may radiate to the carotids, and a soft or absent S2 heart sound. Additionally, patients with severe AS often have a narrow pulse pressure and may exhibit an S4 heart sound.
AS is commonly caused by hypertension, although blood pressure findings can vary. In severe cases, patients may actually be hypotensive due to impaired cardiac output. Symptoms of severe AS typically include Presyncope or syncope, exertional chest pain, and shortness of breath. These symptoms can be remembered using the acronym SAD (Syncope, Angina, Dyspnoea).
It is important to note that aortic stenosis primarily affects older individuals, as it is a result of scarring and calcium buildup in the valve. Age-related AS typically begins after the age of 60, but symptoms may not appear until patients are in their 70s or 80s.
Diastolic murmurs, on the other hand, are associated with conditions such as aortic regurgitation, pulmonary regurgitation, and mitral stenosis.
Further Reading:
Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.
Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.
Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).
Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain and a high temperature. During the examination, he experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa, leading to a preliminary diagnosis of acute appendicitis. However, he adamantly refuses to flex his thigh at the hip, and when you attempt to extend it passively, his abdominal pain intensifies.
Which muscle is most likely in contact with the inflamed structure causing these symptoms?Your Answer: Psoas major
Explanation:This patient is exhibiting the psoas sign, which is a medical indication of irritation in the iliopsoas group of hip flexors located in the abdomen. In this particular case, it is highly likely that the patient has acute appendicitis.
The psoas sign can be observed by extending the patient’s thigh while they are lying on their side with their knees extended, or by asking the patient to actively flex their thigh at the hip. If these movements result in abdominal pain or if the patient resists due to pain, then the psoas sign is considered positive.
The pain occurs because the psoas muscle is adjacent to the peritoneal cavity. When the muscles are stretched or contracted, they rub against the inflamed tissues nearby, causing discomfort. This strongly suggests that the appendix is positioned retrocaecal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 18
Correct
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There are numerous casualties reported after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) incident. It is believed that sarin gas is the responsible agent. What is the mode of action of sarin gas?
Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a group of highly toxic chemical warfare agents that were initially developed just before and during World War II.
The first compounds to be created are referred to as the G agents (with G representing German, as they were discovered and synthesized by German scientists). These include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD).
In the 1950s, the V agents (with V standing for venomous) were synthesized, and they are approximately 10 times more poisonous than sarin. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).
One of the most well-known incidents involving the use of a nerve agent was the March 1995 Tokyo subway sarin attack. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour. As a result, over 5,000 people sought medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 lost their lives.
The nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme that breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.
Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can be absorbed through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. When dispersed as a vapor, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of agent is absorbed, local effects are followed by generalized systemic effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Major Incident Management & PHEM
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Question 19
Correct
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You review the X-ray's of a young patient and they confirm a zygomatic fracture.
All of the following are reasons for immediate referral to the ophthalmologist or maxillofacial surgeons EXCEPT for which one?Your Answer: Otalgia
Explanation:If a patient with a zygoma fracture experiences visual disturbance, limited eye movements (especially upward gaze), or shows a teardrop sign on a facial X-ray, it is important to refer them urgently to ophthalmology or maxillofacial surgeons.
Further Reading:
Zygomatic injuries, also known as zygomatic complex fractures, involve fractures of the zygoma bone and often affect surrounding bones such as the maxilla and temporal bones. These fractures can be classified into four positions: the lateral and inferior orbital rim, the zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and the zygomatic arch. The full extent of these injuries may not be visible on plain X-rays and may require a CT scan for accurate diagnosis.
Zygomatic fractures can pose risks to various structures in the face. The temporalis muscle and coronoid process of the mandible may become trapped in depressed fractures of the zygomatic arch. The infraorbital nerve, which passes through the infraorbital foramen, can be injured in zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures. In orbital floor fractures, the inferior rectus muscle may herniate into the maxillary sinus.
Clinical assessment of zygomatic injuries involves observing facial asymmetry, depressed facial bones, contusion, and signs of eye injury. Visual acuity must be assessed, and any persistent bleeding from the nose or mouth should be noted. Nasal injuries, including septal hematoma, and intra-oral abnormalities should also be evaluated. Tenderness of facial bones and the temporomandibular joint should be assessed, along with any step deformities or crepitus. Eye and jaw movements must also be evaluated.
Imaging for zygomatic injuries typically includes facial X-rays, such as occipitomental views, and CT scans for a more detailed assessment. It is important to consider the possibility of intracranial hemorrhage and cervical spine injury in patients with facial fractures.
Management of most zygomatic fractures can be done on an outpatient basis with maxillofacial follow-up, assuming the patient is stable and there is no evidence of eye injury. However, orbital floor fractures should be referred immediately to ophthalmologists or maxillofacial surgeons. Zygomatic arch injuries that restrict mouth opening or closing due to entrapment of the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle also require urgent referral. Nasal fractures, often seen in conjunction with other facial fractures, can be managed by outpatient ENT follow-up but should be referred urgently if there is uncontrolled epistaxis, CSF rhinorrhea, or septal hematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 20
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where she was a passenger in a car hit by a truck at high speed. She is 32 weeks pregnant. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 120, blood pressure 98/62, oxygen saturation 97% on high-flow oxygen, respiratory rate 24, temperature 36.8°C. Her cervical spine is immobilized. The airway is clear, and her chest examination is normal. She has experienced a small amount of vaginal bleeding and is experiencing abdominal pain and tenderness. Two large IV needles have been inserted in her arm, and a complete set of blood tests have been sent to the laboratory, including a request for a blood type and cross-match. She has also had a small amount of vaginal bleeding and is complaining of abdominal pain. It is noted from her initial blood tests that she is rhesus D negative.
Which of the following adjustments should be made during the initial assessment?Your Answer: The mother should be log rolled to her left side at a 15-30-degree angle
Explanation:During pregnancy, the vena cava can be compressed by the uterus, leading to a decrease in venous return to the heart. This can worsen the shock state in cases of trauma by reducing cardiac output. To alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, the ATLS guidelines recommend manually displacing the uterus to the left side during the primary survey.
If spinal immobilization is necessary, the mother should be log rolled to her left side at a 15-30-degree angle, raising the right side by 10-15 cm. To maintain spinal motion restriction while decompressing the vena cava, a bolstering device like a Cardiff wedge should be used to support the mother.
Pregnancy causes an increase in intravascular volume, which means that pregnant patients can lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of hypovolemia such as tachycardia and hypotension. Despite stable vital signs, the placenta may not receive adequate perfusion, putting the fetus at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to initiate fluid resuscitation, starting with crystalloid fluids and then using type-specific blood if necessary. Vasopressors should only be used as a last resort to restore maternal blood pressure, as they can further reduce uterine blood flow and lead to fetal hypoxia.
If the mother is rhesus D negative, anti-D immunoglobulin should be administered within 72 hours. However, this is not a priority during the primary survey.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department by his worried husband. The patient's husband informs you that the patient appears to be more disoriented than usual and is experiencing excessive daytime sleepiness. He mentions that the patient was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease approximately half a year ago. What is the most accurate description of the underlying pathology in Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease, the leading cause of dementia, is characterized by the presence of beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain. These plaques are formed due to an excessive buildup of amyloid, which can be caused by either overproduction or impaired clearance of beta-amyloid. The accumulation of amyloid plaques leads to inflammation in the surrounding brain tissue, resulting in damage to neurons. Additionally, the abnormal phosphorylation of tau protein causes it to aggregate into neurofibrillary tangles within neurons. It is important to note that Lewy bodies, composed mainly of alpha-synuclein, are associated with diseases like Parkinson’s disease and dementia with Lewy bodies. Autoimmune diseases often involve the activation of autoreactive T-cells.
Further Reading:
Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.
To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.
The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.
There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.
Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.
Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.
Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.
In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You assess a patient with sickle cell disease and a past medical history of multiple recurrent painful episodes. What is the approved treatment for reducing the frequency of painful crises in individuals with sickle cell disease?
Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Correct Answer: Hydroxyurea
Explanation:The majority of treatments provided to individuals with sickle cell disease are supportive measures that have limited impact on the underlying pathophysiology of the condition.
Currently, the only approved therapy that can modify the disease is Hydroxyurea. This medication is believed to function by increasing the levels of fetal hemoglobin, which in turn decreases the concentration of HbS within the cells and reduces the abnormal hemoglobin tendency to form polymers.
Hydroxyurea is currently authorized for use in adult patients who experience recurrent moderate-to-severe painful crises (at least three in the past 12 months). Its approval is specifically for reducing the frequency of these painful episodes and the need for blood transfusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 32-year-old man with a previous history of intravenous drug use. He acknowledges sharing needles in the past. Currently, he presents with symptoms resembling the flu and a skin rash. You suspect that he might be going through an HIV seroconversion illness.
Choose from the following options the test that can provide the most accurate diagnosis of HIV during this stage.Your Answer: CD4 count
Correct Answer: p24 antigen test
Explanation:ELISA and other antibody tests are highly sensitive methods for detecting the presence of HIV. However, they cannot be used in the early stages of the disease. There is usually a window period of 6-12 weeks before antibodies are produced, and these tests will yield negative results during a seroconversion illness.
The p24 antigen, which is the viral protein that forms the majority of the HIV core, is present in high concentrations in the first few weeks after infection. Therefore, the p24 antigen test is a valuable tool for diagnosing very early infections, such as those occurring during a seroconversion illness.
During the early stages of HIV infection, CD4 and CD8 counts are typically within the normal range and cannot be used for diagnosis in such cases.
The ‘rapid HIV test’ is an antibody test for HIV. Consequently, it will also yield negative results during the early ‘window period’. This test is referred to as ‘rapid’ because it can detect antibodies in blood or saliva much faster than other antibody tests, with results often available within 20 minutes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a car while riding her bike. The patient was not wearing a helmet and suffered a head injury from hitting the pavement. She has a significant scalp contusion and appears drowsy. There is a suspicion of increased intracranial pressure. How does intracranial pressure affect cerebral perfusion pressure?
Your Answer: Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) = mean arterial pressure (MAP) - intracranial pressure (ICP)
Explanation:Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated by adding the intracranial pressure (ICP) to the diastolic blood pressure (DBP).
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You witness the sudden arrival of a baby in one of the rooms in the Emergency Department. Your supervisor evaluates the newborn one minute after birth and informs you that:
The entire body appears pale
The heart rate is 90 beats per minute
The baby reacts with a grimace when suctioned
There is some bending of the limbs
The cry is feeble, and the baby is gasping for breath
What is the Apgar score of the newborn at one minute?Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:
Appearance
Pulse rate
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effortThe Apgar score criteria are as follows:
Score of 0:
Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
Pulse rate: Absent
Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
Activity: None
Respiratory effort: AbsentScore of 1:
Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
Activity: Some flexion
Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gaspingScore of 2:
Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 26
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman gives birth to a baby with microcephaly at 36-weeks gestation. She remembers experiencing a flu-like illness and skin rash early in the pregnancy after being bitten by a mosquito while visiting relatives in Brazil.
What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for causing this birth defect?Your Answer: Zika virus
Explanation:The Zika virus is a newly emerging virus that is transmitted by mosquitoes. It was first discovered in humans in Uganda in 1952. Recently, there has been a significant outbreak of the virus in South America.
When a person contracts the Zika virus, about 1 in 5 individuals will experience clinical illness, while the rest will show no symptoms at all. The most common symptoms of the virus include fever, rash, joint pain, and conjunctivitis. These symptoms typically last for no more than a week.
While not completely conclusive, the evidence from the recent outbreak strongly suggests a connection between Zika virus infection and microcephaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 45-year-old construction worker comes in with intense lower back pain. He has experienced back pain on and off for several years, but it has recently worsened significantly. He is walking with a noticeable limp, and during the examination, you observe that he has weakness in knee extension. You decide to conduct a digital rectal examination and discover that his anal sphincter tone is unexpectedly loose.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cauda equina syndrome
Explanation:Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious complication that can occur when a disc in the spine ruptures. This happens when the material from the disc is pushed into the spinal canal and puts pressure on a bundle of nerves in the lower back and sacrum. When this happens, it can lead to problems with controlling the bladder and bowels.
There are certain signs that may indicate the presence of CES, which are known as red flags. These include experiencing sciatica on both sides of the body, having a severe or worsening neurological deficit in both legs, such as significant weakness in the muscles that extend the knee, turn the ankle outward, or lift the foot upward. Other red flags include difficulty starting to urinate or a decreased sensation of the flow of urine, a loss of feeling when the rectum is full, a loss of sensation in the perianal, perineal, or genital areas (also known as saddle anesthesia or paresthesia), and a looseness in the anal sphincter muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 28
Correct
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A 37 year old male comes to the emergency department with complaints of vertigo and tinnitus on the right side for the last 3 hours. You suspect Meniere's disease. What is the most accurate description of the pathophysiology of Meniere's disease?
Your Answer: Excessive endolymphatic pressure & dilation of the membranous labyrinth
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is still unknown. It is believed to occur due to increased pressure and gradual enlargement of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear, also known as the membranous labyrinth.
Further Reading:
Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and low frequency hearing loss. The exact cause of the disease is unknown, but it is believed to be related to excessive pressure and dilation of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear. Meniere’s disease is more common in middle-aged adults, but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally.
The clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that can last from minutes to hours. These attacks often occur in clusters, with several episodes happening in a week. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure. Nystagmus and a positive Romberg test are common findings, and the Fukuda stepping test may also be positive. While symptoms are typically unilateral, bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests can be used to help diagnose Meniere’s disease. In Rinne’s test, air conduction should be better than bone conduction in both ears. In Weber’s test, the sound should be heard loudest in the unaffected (contralateral) side due to the sensorineural hearing loss.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms often resolve within 5-10 years, but most patients are left with some residual hearing loss. Psychological distress is common among patients with this condition.
The diagnostic criteria for Meniere’s disease include clinical features consistent with the disease, confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry, and exclusion of other possible causes.
Management of Meniere’s disease involves an ENT assessment to confirm the diagnosis and perform audiometry. Patients should be advised to inform the DVLA and may need to cease driving until their symptoms are under control. Acute attacks can be treated with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and hospital admission may be necessary in some cases. Betahistine may be beneficial for prevention of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 29
Correct
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A 15 year old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sore throat, swollen glands, and feeling tired for the past 9 days. Glandular fever is suspected. What test should be ordered to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Monospot test
Explanation:The monospot test is the preferred method for testing for infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) when looking for heterophile antibodies. The timing and choice of investigations for glandular fever depend on factors such as the patient’s age, immune system status, and duration of symptoms. The monospot test is a latex agglutination test that uses equine erythrocytes as the primary substrate to detect specific heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to EBV infection. It is simpler and faster to use compared to the Paul Bunnell test, which uses sheep red cells. The monospot test is recommended by NICE due to its advantages. However, it has lower sensitivity and negative predictive value in young children, which is why EBV serology is preferred for those under 12 years old.
Further Reading:
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.
The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.
Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.
Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and nausea following a recent viral illness. She experienced flu-like symptoms for four days and had difficulty eating during that time. She visited the Emergency Department with these symptoms but was discharged with instructions to rest in bed and take regular paracetamol. Her blood tests today reveal the following results:
- Bilirubin: 50 mmol (3-20)
- ALT: 34 IU/L (5-40)
- ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
- LDH: 150 IU/L (100-330)
How is the condition typically inherited in this patient?Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is the most common hereditary cause of elevated bilirubin levels and can be found in up to 5% of the population. It is characterized by an isolated increase in unconjugated bilirubin without any detectable liver disease. In most cases, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there have been some instances of autosomal dominant inheritance, particularly in Asian populations.
The elevated bilirubin levels in Gilbert’s syndrome do not have any serious consequences and typically occur during times of stress, physical exertion, fasting, or infection. While it is often asymptomatic, some individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, decreased appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain.
The underlying cause of the elevated bilirubin levels is a decrease in the activity of the enzyme glucuronyltransferase, which is responsible for conjugating bilirubin. In Gilbert’s syndrome, the bilirubin levels are generally less than three times the upper limit of normal, with more than 70% of the bilirubin being unconjugated. Liver function tests and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) levels are typically within the normal range.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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