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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents with a two hour history of severe pain in the left testis. He is unaware of preceding trauma and feels that the pain has increased since it began. He feels nauseated and has been pyrexial.
Whilst examining him he confesses to having a sexual relationship. On examination, he has a tender swollen left testis with a temperature of 37.5°C.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Arrange emergency admission
Correct Answer: Take FBC and MSU and await results before prescribing.
Explanation:Acute Testicular Pain in Young Males: Torsion as the Primary Concern
In young males under 20 years of age who experience sudden testicular pain, it is crucial to consider torsion as the primary diagnosis. Failure to recognize this condition can lead to irreversible damage to the testes. Therefore, the most important action is to seek immediate medical attention and admission for acute urology opinion.
Prompt treatment within six hours of symptom onset can save most testes, while delaying treatment beyond 12 hours can result in the loss of the affected testicle. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize timely diagnosis and management of testicular torsion to prevent long-term complications and preserve fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 75-year old woman with diabetes and end stage renal failure is visited for a home visit. She is receiving at-home dialysis through a Tenckhoff catheter. She has been feeling increasingly unwell for the past 24 hours, experiencing vomiting and abdominal pain. She had a normal bowel movement this morning.
During the examination, she appears to be dehydrated with a blood pressure of 96/68 mmHg and a pulse rate of 108. Her temperature is 38.1℃. She experiences diffuse abdominal pain and general tenderness throughout the abdomen upon superficial palpation.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Peritonitis
Correct Answer: Aluminium toxicity
Explanation:Peritonitis in a Patient with Tenckhoff Catheter
This patient has a Tenckhoff catheter in-situ for peritoneal dialysis, which puts them at risk of peritonitis, most commonly caused by Staphylococci. Symptoms such as pyrexia, low BP, tachycardia, and diffuse abdominal pain make peritonitis the most likely answer. Cloudy dialysis fluid is also a common sign of peritonitis.
Aluminium toxicity is now rare due to the removal of aluminium from dialysate, which has reduced the incidence of dialysis dementia. Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome is a phenomenon that occurs with haemodialysis, not peritoneal dialysis, and is characterised by symptoms such as disorientation, headache, blurred vision, nausea, and seizures.
Hernias and exit site infections can develop at the site of the Tenckhoff catheter, but they would not typically cause systemic unwellness such as pyrexia and diffuse abdominal pain. Bowel obstruction can occur secondary to a hernia, but peritonitis is a much more likely answer in this case. Exit site infections are characterised by localised erythema and sometimes pus exudation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 3
Correct
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For which of the following should an urgent referral to the urology services be made?
Your Answer: A 38-year-old male who on insurance medical examination is found to have + haematuria on urinalysis
Explanation:Criteria for Urgent Referral to Urology
There are specific criteria for urgent referral to urology that are based on the potential risk of underlying carcinoma. These criteria include macroscopic haematuria, microscopic haematuria in subjects over 60 who have either dysuria or a raised WBC count in blood, swellings of the body of the testis, palpable renal mass, solid renal mass found on imaging, an elevated age-specific prostate-specific antigen (PSA), and a clinically suspicious penile lesion.
It is important to familiarize oneself with the current indications for urgent referral. It is worth noting that patients over 60 years old may require more urgent attention, as indicated by the criteria for microscopic haematuria. By being aware of these criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive timely and appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48 hour history of dysuria and visible blood in his urine. He also reports some frequency of urination. However, he denies fever, abdominal pain or loin pain and feels generally well. He mentions that his urine has gradually cleared and looks normal again since he first noticed the frank blood. On examination, he appears systemically well with a regular pulse rate of 76 and blood pressure of 138/76 mmHg. His abdomen and loins are unremarkable on palpation. A urine sample is obtained and dipstick testing reveals leucocytes ++ and blood+++. You prescribe antibiotics to cover a urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Send a urine sample to establish accurately the presence of a urinary infection
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria
Male or female patients who present with painless visible haematuria should be referred urgently for specialist assessment. However, if a patient presents with dysuria and visible haematuria, it is important to establish whether there is a urinary tract infection. If an infection is present, it can be treated appropriately, and referral for further investigation of the haematuria may not be necessary.
On the other hand, if an infection is not confirmed, urgent referral is warranted to investigate the haematuria with speed. Therefore, the next most appropriate step is to establish if a urinary tract infection is present. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of haematuria to ensure prompt and effective treatment. Early referral and assessment can help prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He has been experiencing increasing difficulty with swallowing and feels like food is getting stuck shortly after he swallows. He has resorted to blending most of his meals and has lost 4 kg in weight over the past two months. He has also developed a hoarse voice recently.
The patient has a history of knee osteoarthritis and regularly takes ibuprofen. He has a BMI of 21 kg/m2 and no cervical lymphadenopathy is noted.
Laboratory results show:
- Hb 98 g/L (135-180)
- WCC 7.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
- PLT 182 ×109/L (150-450)
- Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
- K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
- Cr 115 µmol/L (70-110)
Based on these findings, you suspect an upper esophageal cancer.
What is the most important next step?Your Answer: Urgent referral to gastroenterologist
Correct Answer: Trial of omeprazole
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Upper GI Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Carcinoma
This patient’s medical history is indicative of an oesophageal carcinoma in the upper third, which is commonly associated with smoking and exposure to human papillomavirus. Although there are no signs of cervical lymphadenopathy, urgent referral to a gastroenterologist for upper GI endoscopy is necessary to rule out any underlying cancer.
Barium swallow is not recommended as upper GI endoscopy is a more effective option that allows for early tissue diagnosis. Helicobacter pylori testing is only useful in cases of potential duodenal ulcer disease, which is not the case here.
Stopping ibuprofen and trying omeprazole are not appropriate options as they may delay the diagnosis of any underlying oesophageal lesion. Therefore, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy is the best course of action in suspected cases of oesophageal carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 6
Correct
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A 25-year-old medical student comes to you in January complaining of flu-like symptoms. She has been experiencing an on-and-off fever for the past few weeks, but no other physical symptoms are present. Interestingly, she completed an elective period in India nine months ago. What is the most likely cause of her illness?
Your Answer: Vivax malaria
Explanation:This case highlights the significance of obtaining a thorough travel history when diagnosing illnesses. In this scenario, the patient presented with symptoms of fever, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea. While influenza is a common cause of winter illnesses, meningococcal meningitis and trypanosomiasis did not fit the chronology, and cryptosporidium infection typically presents with watery diarrhoea within days of infection.
Upon further investigation, it was discovered that the patient had recently travelled to India, where malaria is prevalent. Falciparum malaria typically presents within three months of infection, but Vivax malaria can take up to a year to manifest. The symptoms of malaria include cyclical fever and chills, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea, and patients may also present with splenomegaly.
Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to obtain a detailed travel history when evaluating patients with symptoms of infectious diseases. This information can aid in the timely and accurate diagnosis and management of illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 7
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. She is an only child and lives at home with her mother. Her mother has a history of epilepsy treated with valproate.
What prophylaxis should be given to the mother?Your Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:Choosing the Right Antibiotic for Epilepsy Patients
When it comes to choosing an antibiotic for patients with epilepsy, it’s important to consider the history of epilepsy. Rifampicin is the best option in this case, although it may reduce the effectiveness of other medications like phenytoin. Ofloxacin is an alternative, but it’s not recommended for patients with epilepsy. Ciprofloxacin is generally preferred for chemoprophylaxis, but it’s contraindicated for patients with epilepsy or conditions that increase the risk of seizures. However, in patients being treated with phenytoin, the benefits may outweigh the risks. It’s crucial to carefully consider the patient’s medical history and medication regimen before selecting an appropriate antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He has a history of non-compliance with his medication regimen. During previous consultations, his best peak flow measurements have been 600 L/min. What is the characteristic feature that indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?
Your Answer: A peak flow rate of 250 L/min
Correct Answer: Heart rate 100/min
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma, which is often tested in exams. Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, and the inability to complete sentences in one breath. Oxygen therapy should aim to maintain SpO2 at 94-98%. Increasing symptoms is not a marker of an acute severe attack, but rather denotes a moderate asthma exacerbation. There is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their personal best or predicted reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack. In the case of a peak flow of 250 L/min, which is considerably reduced from the patient’s usual best of 600 L/min, this is the only indicator of an acute severe attack. If any of these features persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient with Addisons disease phones the surgery for advice.
He feels mildly unwell with a sore throat and a temperature of 37.8 degrees. There is no vomiting, no headache and no diarrhoea. He says that his children and wife have recently been unwell with a similar illness, thought to be viral in origin and that they have since fully recovered.
He asks for advice about his medication.
What would you advise?Your Answer: He should take double the usual dose of his hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: He should take double the usual dose of both fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone
Explanation:Managing Addison’s Disease: The Importance of Sick Day Rules
Managing Addison’s disease can be challenging, especially for general practitioners who may have limited exposure to its management. However, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the sick day rules to prevent catastrophic consequences of mismanagement in primary care. The Addisons Clinical Advisory Panel has produced an excellent guide for GPs, which outlines the sick day rules that patients must follow.
The sick day rules include doubling the normal dose of hydrocortisone for a fever of more than 37.5 C or for infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics. For severe nausea often accompanied by a headache, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally and sip rehydration/electrolyte fluids. In case of vomiting, patients should use the emergency injection (100 mg hydrocortisone) immediately and call a doctor, stating Addison’s emergency. After a major injury, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately to avoid shock.
It is also essential to ensure that the anaesthetist and surgical team, dentist, or endoscopist are aware of the need for extra oral medication and that they have checked the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover, available at www.addisons.org.uk/publications. By following these sick day rules, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition effectively and prevent any potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 10
Correct
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The laboratory reports a sodium level of 118 mmol/L from a routine blood test for an 85 year old woman who has recently been prescribed sertraline for low mood and takes amlodipine for hypertension. Upon calling the patient, she reports feeling well. What is the appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange emergency admission
Explanation:A sodium level of 118 mmol/L is classified as severe hyponatremia, which is a potentially life-threatening condition. Emergency admission is necessary, especially if the onset of hyponatremia is acute (less than 48 hours). This is because the brain cells can swell due to the movement of water from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment, which can cause cerebral edema, increased intracranial pressure, seizures, coma, or even cardio-respiratory arrest. Hyponatremia can also be classified based on its biochemical severity and rate of onset, with mild, moderate, and severe levels of hyponatremia and acute or chronic onset.
Hyponatremia is a condition where the sodium levels in the blood are too low. If left untreated, it can lead to cerebral edema and brain herniation. Therefore, it is important to identify and treat hyponatremia promptly. The treatment plan depends on various factors such as the duration and severity of hyponatremia, symptoms, and the suspected cause. Over-rapid correction can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome, which is a serious complication.
Initial steps in treating hyponatremia involve ruling out any errors in the test results and reviewing medications that may cause hyponatremia. For chronic hyponatremia without severe symptoms, the treatment plan varies based on the suspected cause. If it is hypovolemic, normal saline may be given as a trial. If it is euvolemic, fluid restriction and medications such as demeclocycline or vaptans may be considered. If it is hypervolemic, fluid restriction and loop diuretics or vaptans may be considered.
For acute hyponatremia with severe symptoms, patients require close monitoring in a hospital setting. Hypertonic saline is used to correct the sodium levels more quickly than in chronic cases. Vaptans, which act on V2 receptors, can be used but should be avoided in patients with hypovolemic hyponatremia and those with underlying liver disease.
It is important to avoid over-correction of severe hyponatremia as it can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome. Symptoms of this condition include dysarthria, dysphagia, paralysis, seizures, confusion, and coma. Therefore, sodium levels should only be raised by 4 to 6 mmol/L in a 24-hour period to prevent this complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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