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  • Question 1 - A 14 year old presents to the emergency department with a 4 day...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of left sided otalgia. On examination the patient's temperature is 38.5°C and there is a swollen and tender area over the mastoid process.

      What is the most suitable initial approach for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The first step in managing acute mastoiditis is to administer broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics. The British Society of Otology recommends using intravenous ceftriaxone once daily in combination with intravenous metronidazole three times daily as the initial treatment. However, the specific antibiotic regimen may vary depending on the local antimicrobial policy.

      Further Reading:

      Mastoiditis is an infection of the mastoid air cells, which are located in the mastoid process of the skull. It is usually caused by the spread of infection from the middle ear. The most common organism responsible for mastoiditis is Streptococcus pneumoniae, but other bacteria and fungi can also be involved. The infection can spread to surrounding structures, such as the meninges, causing serious complications like meningitis or cerebral abscess.

      Mastoiditis can be classified as acute or chronic. Acute mastoiditis is a rare complication of acute otitis media, which is inflammation of the middle ear. It is characterized by severe ear pain, fever, swelling and redness behind the ear, and conductive deafness. Chronic mastoiditis is usually associated with chronic suppurative otitis media or cholesteatoma and presents with recurrent episodes of ear pain, headache, and fever.

      Mastoiditis is more common in children, particularly those between 6 and 13 months of age. Other risk factors include immunocompromised patients, those with intellectual impairment or communication difficulties, and individuals with cholesteatoma.

      Diagnosis of mastoiditis involves a physical examination, blood tests, ear swab for culture and sensitivities, and imaging studies like contrast-enhanced CT or MRI. Treatment typically involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist, broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, pain relief, and myringotomy (a procedure to drain fluid from the middle ear).

      Complications of mastoiditis are rare but can be serious. They include intracranial abscess, meningitis, subperiosteal abscess, neck abscess, venous sinus thrombosis, cranial nerve palsies, hearing loss, labyrinthitis, extension to the zygoma, and carotid artery arteritis. However, most patients with mastoiditis have a good prognosis and do not experience long-term ear problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain associated with increased abdominal swelling, fever and vomiting. You note the patient has a long history of drug abuse and is well known to the local gastroenterology team who have diagnosed her with liver cirrhosis. You are concerned the patient may have developed spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP).

      What is the most commonly identified causative pathogen in patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      The most commonly identified causative pathogen in patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is Escherichia coli. SBP is a serious infection that occurs in individuals with liver cirrhosis, where bacteria from the gut migrate into the peritoneal cavity, leading to infection and inflammation. E. coli is a gram-negative bacterium commonly found in the intestines and is known to be a frequent cause of SBP. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat SBP to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

      Further Reading:

      Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.

      Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.

      The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.

      Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.

      Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.

      Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are part of the team performing CPR on a child who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are part of the team performing CPR on a child who has gone into cardiac arrest. A healthcare assistant (HCA) takes over chest compressions from the charge nurse. You are concerned about the rate and depth of the compressions being given. You provide guidance to the HCA on the appropriate frequency and depth of chest compressions. What is the correct rate and depth of chest compression during CPR for a child?

      Your Answer: 80-100 compressions per minute to a depth of 3-4 cm

      Correct Answer: 100-120 compressions per minute to a depth of 5-6 cm

      Explanation:

      For adults, it is recommended to perform chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. The depth of the compressions should be at least 5-6 cm.

      Further Reading:

      In the event of an adult experiencing cardiorespiratory arrest, it is crucial for doctors to be familiar with the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm. They should also be knowledgeable about the proper technique for chest compressions, the appropriate rhythms for defibrillation, the reversible causes of arrest, and the drugs used in advanced life support.

      During chest compressions, the rate should be between 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of compression of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths should be 30:2. It is important to change the person giving compressions regularly to prevent fatigue.

      There are two shockable ECG rhythms that doctors should be aware of: ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). These rhythms require defibrillation.

      There are four reversible causes of cardiorespiratory arrest, known as the 4 H’s and 4 T’s. The 4 H’s include hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo or hyperkalemia or metabolic abnormalities, and hypothermia. The 4 T’s include thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade, and toxins. Identifying and treating these reversible causes is crucial for successful resuscitation.

      When it comes to resus drugs, they are considered of secondary importance during CPR due to the lack of high-quality evidence for their efficacy. However, adrenaline (epinephrine) and amiodarone are the two drugs included in the ALS algorithm. Doctors should be familiar with the dosing, route, and timing of administration for both drugs.

      Adrenaline should be administered intravenously at a concentration of 1 in 10,000 (100 micrograms/mL). It should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone is initially given at a dose of 300 mg, either from a pre-filled syringe or diluted in 20 mL of Glucose 5%. If required, an additional dose of 150 mg can be given by intravenous injection. This is followed by an intravenous infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. The first dose of amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with notable facial swelling following...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with notable facial swelling following an assault. A facial fracture is suspected due to the patient losing consciousness during the incident. As a precaution, the decision is made to send him for CT scans of the brain and facial views. The CT results confirm a zygomaticomaxillary complex (ZMC) fracture, but no mandible fracture is observed. Upon examination, it is observed that the patient is experiencing difficulty fully opening or closing their mouth. What is the probable cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Temporalis muscle entrapment

      Explanation:

      Injuries to the zygomatic arch that result in limited mouth opening or closing can occur when the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle becomes trapped. If this happens, it is important to seek immediate medical attention. It is worth noting that the muscles responsible for chewing (masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid, and lateral pterygoid) are innervated by the mandibular nerve (V3).

      Further Reading:

      Zygomatic injuries, also known as zygomatic complex fractures, involve fractures of the zygoma bone and often affect surrounding bones such as the maxilla and temporal bones. These fractures can be classified into four positions: the lateral and inferior orbital rim, the zygomaticomaxillary buttress, and the zygomatic arch. The full extent of these injuries may not be visible on plain X-rays and may require a CT scan for accurate diagnosis.

      Zygomatic fractures can pose risks to various structures in the face. The temporalis muscle and coronoid process of the mandible may become trapped in depressed fractures of the zygomatic arch. The infraorbital nerve, which passes through the infraorbital foramen, can be injured in zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures. In orbital floor fractures, the inferior rectus muscle may herniate into the maxillary sinus.

      Clinical assessment of zygomatic injuries involves observing facial asymmetry, depressed facial bones, contusion, and signs of eye injury. Visual acuity must be assessed, and any persistent bleeding from the nose or mouth should be noted. Nasal injuries, including septal hematoma, and intra-oral abnormalities should also be evaluated. Tenderness of facial bones and the temporomandibular joint should be assessed, along with any step deformities or crepitus. Eye and jaw movements must also be evaluated.

      Imaging for zygomatic injuries typically includes facial X-rays, such as occipitomental views, and CT scans for a more detailed assessment. It is important to consider the possibility of intracranial hemorrhage and cervical spine injury in patients with facial fractures.

      Management of most zygomatic fractures can be done on an outpatient basis with maxillofacial follow-up, assuming the patient is stable and there is no evidence of eye injury. However, orbital floor fractures should be referred immediately to ophthalmologists or maxillofacial surgeons. Zygomatic arch injuries that restrict mouth opening or closing due to entrapment of the temporalis muscle or mandibular condyle also require urgent referral. Nasal fractures, often seen in conjunction with other facial fractures, can be managed by outpatient ENT follow-up but should be referred urgently if there is uncontrolled epistaxis, CSF rhinorrhea, or septal hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35 year old homeless patient presents with blistered and discolored feet after...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old homeless patient presents with blistered and discolored feet after spending multiple days on the streets during freezing temperatures. Frostbite is diagnosed, and the plan is to initiate Rewarming of the affected area. Which of the following statements about frostbite is accurate?

      Your Answer: Reperfusion is usually very painful

      Explanation:

      Reperfusion after a frostbite injury can be extremely painful, so it is important to provide strong pain relief. If there are clear blisters, they should be opened and aloe vera should be applied every 6 hours. However, if there are blisters with blood, they should not be opened, but aloe vera can still be used topically. Taking 400 mg of ibuprofen orally, if there are no contraindications, can help reduce inflammation and improve the outcome of frostbite. Technetium-99m pertechnetate scintigraphy is the preferred method for assessing blood flow in the affected area. To treat frostbite, it is recommended to re-warm the affected areas by immersing them in warm water.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old man comes in with abdominal cramps and severe bloody diarrhoea due...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes in with abdominal cramps and severe bloody diarrhoea due to a gastrointestinal infection.
      What is the MOST LIKELY single causative organism?

      Your Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Correct Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

      Explanation:

      Infectious causes of bloody diarrhea include Campylobacter spp., Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Clostridium difficile, Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli, Yersinia spp., Schistosomiasis, and Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica). Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a non-invasive strain that does not cause inflammation or bloody diarrhea. Instead, it typically presents with profuse watery diarrhea and is not usually associated with abdominal cramping. The other organisms mentioned in this question are associated with watery diarrhea, but not bloody diarrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A patient presents with abdominal pain and confusion. They have a history of...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with abdominal pain and confusion. They have a history of Addison’s disease but recently ran out of their steroid medication. You suspect an Addisonian crisis.
      What is the most frequent cause of Addison’s disease?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease can be attributed to various underlying causes. The most common cause, accounting for approximately 80% of cases, is autoimmune adrenalitis. This occurs when the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the adrenal glands. Another cause is bilateral adrenalectomy, which involves the surgical removal of both adrenal glands. Additionally, Addison’s disease can be triggered by a condition known as Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome, which involves bleeding into the adrenal glands. Tuberculosis, a bacterial infection, is also recognized as a potential cause of this disease. Lastly, although rare, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can contribute to the development of Addison’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling in her arms and hands. Upon examination, you observe that her face is also swollen and she has multiple enlarged veins and telangiectasia on her chest. She has a known history of lung cancer.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Superior vena cava syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient has come in with worsening breathlessness and coughing, along with coughing up blood, all of which are occurring on top of their existing lung cancer. The diagnosis in this case is superior vena cava obstruction, which is being caused by the primary bronchial neoplasm.

      The typical clinical presentation of superior vena cava obstruction includes breathlessness and coughing, chest pain, swelling in the neck, face, and arms, dilated veins and telangiectasia on the arms, neck, and chest wall, facial flushing, stridor due to laryngeal edema, and cyanosis.

      Given the urgency of the situation, this man will require immediate treatment. Upon initial presentation, it is important to elevate his head and provide supplemental oxygen to alleviate symptoms. Additionally, corticosteroids and diuretics may be administered. Further investigation will be necessary through CT scanning, and radiotherapy may be recommended as a potential course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      514.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the right flank and spreading to the groin. You suspect she may have ureteric colic.
      According to NICE, which of the following painkillers is recommended as the initial treatment for rapid relief of severe pain in ureteric colic?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular diclofenac

      Explanation:

      The term renal colic is commonly used to describe a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. However, a more accurate term is ureteric colic, as the pain usually arises from a blockage in the ureter itself.

      Renal or ureteric colic typically presents with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the genital area in women or to the groin or testicle in men.

      The pain usually:
      – Lasts for minutes to hours and comes in spasms, with periods of no pain or a dull ache
      – Is often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and blood in the urine
      – Is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever experienced (many women describe it as worse than childbirth).

      People with renal or ureteric colic:
      – Are restless and unable to find relief by lying still (which helps distinguish it from peritonitis)
      – May have a history of previous episodes
      – May have a fever and sweating if there is a urinary tract infection present
      – May complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and bladder (due to irritation of the bladder muscle).

      If possible, a urine dipstick test should be done to support the diagnosis and check for signs of a urinary tract infection.

      Checking for blood in the urine can also support the diagnosis of renal or ureteric colic. However, the absence of blood does not rule out the diagnosis and other causes of pain should be considered.

      Checking for nitrite and leukocyte esterase in the urine can indicate an infection.

      Pain management:
      – Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.
      – Intravenous paracetamol can be given to adults, children, and young people if NSAIDs are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
      – Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
      – Antispasmodics should not be given to adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35 year old female trauma patient is being treated in the resus....

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female trauma patient is being treated in the resus. It is decided to administer intravenous ketamine for rapid sequence induction, and your consultant requests you to prepare the medication. What is a frequently observed side effect of ketamine?

      Your Answer: Xerostomia

      Correct Answer: Nystagmus

      Explanation:

      Ketamine administration can lead to various side effects, including nystagmus and diplopia. Other potential side effects include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations or emergence phenomena, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, and abnormal tonic-clonic movements.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      26.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (0/2) 0%
Resus (0/1) 0%
Maxillofacial & Dental (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Oncological Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (0/1) 0%
Passmed