The diagnosis is acute inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction so the most appropriate management is primary angioplasty.

In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.

Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
– Hirsutism
– Infertility
– Obesity and metabolic syndrome
– Diabetes
– Obstructive sleep apnoea

Androgen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.

Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.

Protein-calorie malnutrition is observed in almost 50% of dialysis patients, contributing to increased morbidity and mortality. All the other complications listed can usually be prevented thanks to modern-day dialysis techniques.

The incidence rate is the number of new cases per population at risk in a given time period. For example, if a population initially contains 1,000 non-diseased persons and 28 develop a condition over two years of observation, the incidence proportion is 28 cases per 1,000 persons per two years, i.e. 2.8% per two years.
Prevalence is the proportion of a particular population found to be affected by a medical condition (typically a disease or a risk factor such as smoking or seat-belt use). It is derived by comparing the number of people found to have the condition with the total number of people studied, and is usually expressed as a fraction, as a percentage, or as the number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people.
Incidence should not be confused with prevalence, which is the proportion of cases in the population at a given time rather than rate of occurrence of new cases. Thus, incidence conveys information about the risk of contracting the disease, whereas prevalence indicates how widespread the disease is.

CXR, blood, and urine tests should be carried out initially to exclude an underlying malignancy. If these are normal, a CT scan of abdomen and pelvis should be arranged as the patient’s age is >40 years. Antiphospholipid antibodies should also be checked for the first unprovoked DVT/PE. There is no history, however, to support an inherited thrombophilia.

The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2012 for the investigation and management of DVT. If a patient is suspected of having DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be used:

DVT likely: 2 points or more
DVT unlikely: 1 point or less

This system of points is based on the following clinical features:
1. Active cancer (treatment ongoing, within six months, or palliative)—1
2. Paralysis, paresis, or recent plaster immobilisation of the lower extremities—1
3. Recently bedridden for three days or more, or major surgery within 12 weeks requiring general or regional anaesthesia—1
4. Localised tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system—1
5. Entire leg swollen—1
6. Calf swelling at least three cms larger than the asymptomatic side—1
7. Pitting oedema confined to the symptomatic leg—1
8. Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)—1
9. Previously documented DVT—1
10. An alternative diagnosis is at least as likely as DVT—2

If two points or more—DVT is ‘likely’
If one point or less—DVT is ‘unlikely’

Management

1. LMWH or fondaparinux should be given initially after a DVT is diagnosed.
2. A vitamin K antagonist such as warfarin should be given within 24 hours of the diagnosis.
3. LMWH or fondaparinux should be continued for at least five days or until the international normalised ratio (INR) is 2.0 or above for at least 24 hours. LMWH or fondaparinux is given at the same time as warfarin until the INR is in the therapeutic range.
4. Warfarin should be continued for at least three months. At three months, clinicians should assess the risks and benefits of extending the treatment.
5. Consider extending warfarin beyond three months for patients with unprovoked proximal DVT if their risk of VTE recurrence is high and there is no additional risk of major bleeding. This essentially means that if there is no obvious cause or provoking factor (surgery, trauma, significant immobility, etc.), it may be implied that the patient has a tendency to thrombose and should be given treatment longer than the normal of three months. In practice, most clinicians give six months of warfarin for patients with an unprovoked DVT/PE.
6. For patients with active cancer, LMWH should be used for six months.

As both malignancy and thrombophilia are obvious risk factors for DVT, therefore, all patients with unprovoked DVT/PE who are not already known to have cancer should undergo the following investigations:
1. Physical examination (guided by the patient’s full history)
2. Chest X-ray
3. Blood tests (full blood count, serum calcium, and liver function tests) and urinalysis
4. Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies
5. Testing for hereditary thrombophilia in patients who have had unprovoked DVT/PE and have a first-degree relative who has a history of DVT/PE.

Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.

Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.

The correct answer based on the clinical scenario is Crohn’s disease. Associated with this disease are abscesses and fistulas in the anorectal region, skip lesions, cobble stoning, stricturing, granulomas, and crypt distortion. The other answer choices are not correct. How to rule out ulcerative colitis: it only involves ileocolorectal regions, and this is above that level. You will not see crypt distortion and cobble stoning; it is a more superficial process.

Palmar xanthomas are found in type III hyperlipoproteinemia. Her total cholesterol level and triglyceride level support the diagnosis.

An escharotomy is a surgical procedure used to treat full-thickness (third-degree) circumferential burns. In full-thickness burns, both the epidermis and the dermis are destroyed along with sensory nerves in the dermis. The tough leathery tissue remaining after a full-thickness burn has been termed eschar.

Characteristic findings on patients suffering from diphtheria are the grey membrane on the uvula and tonsils together with the low grade fever and dyspnoea. It’s of great importance that the patient has recently been to India where there is a know prevalence.

Loss of vision after consumption of antifreeze is a characteristic presentation of methanol poisoning.

Pathophysiology of methanol toxicity:
When ingested, methanol is absorbed rapidly via the gastrointestinal tract in less than 10 minutes. Methanol is not protein-bound and is absorbed directly into the total body water compartment.
Metabolism occurs mainly in the liver through serial oxidation via alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase but begins with alcohol dehydrogenase present in the gastric mucosa.
Alcohol dehydrogenase oxidizes methanol to formaldehyde, and aldehyde dehydrogenase subsequently oxidizes formaldehyde to formic acid.
Formic acid is the primary toxic metabolite that accounts for the associated anion gap metabolic acidosis and end-organ damage.

Clinical presentation:
Patients who present within the first 12 to 24 hours following ingestion may appear normal, and this is described as the latent period.
Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain subsequently ensue, followed by CNS depression and hyperventilation due to metabolic acidosis.
Ocular symptoms associated with retinal toxicity are often evident in the form of blurry vision, decreased visual acuity, photophobia, and “halo vision.”

Treatment:
Treatment options for methanol toxicity include supportive care, fomepizole (Antizole, 4-Methylpyrazole or 4MP), ethanol, dialysis, and folate.

An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Where

a = Number of exposed cases

b = Number of exposed non-cases

c = Number of unexposed cases

d = Number of unexposed non-cases

OR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

Arthrocentesis should usually be done when there is a suspicion of pseudogout or septic arthritis as in this case which leads to an early diagnosis and prompt treatment. Polarized microscopy demonstrates weakly positively birefringent rhomboid crystals which are blue when parallel to light and yellow when perpendicular to light. Elevated serum uric acid levels that cause gout are usually found after large consumption of alcohol or meat, or post surgery. Autoimmune diseases like SLE, RA etc require an autoimmune screen.

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

Examples of EAA include:

Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.

People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.

A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.

The foramen rotundum is one of the several circular apertures (the foramina) located in the base of the skull, in the anterior and medial part of the sphenoid bone. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum.

Oesophageal stricture is a complication of systemic sclerosis, think of the oesophagus as sclerosing (fibrosing) leading to stricture and you never forget. Based on the clinical presentation of systemic sclerosis this is more likely than pancreatic dysfunction, PSC, lymphoma, or diverticulitis. Additionally, CREST syndrome stands for: calcinosis cutis, Raynaud’s phenomenon (which the patient has), oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasias), this is a form of systemic sclerosis you should be familiar with.

Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.

In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.

DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter).