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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a past medical history of abdominal pain and febrile illness. His liver function tests reveal an alanine aminotransferase level of 80 IU/l and a bilirubin level of 18 µmol/l. Serological tests for hepatitis viruses indicate that he is positive for hepatitis B (HepB) surface antigen (Ag), but negative for anti-HepB core or immunoglobulin M. What do these results suggest?

      Your Answer: Carrier of hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Infection and Vaccination Status

      Hepatitis B infection can be identified through the presence of specific antigens and antibodies in the blood. In acute cases, the surface antigen appears first, followed by a highly infectious antigen. Transaminase levels may also increase. If the surface antigen persists after the acute illness, it indicates a carrier status, which occurs in 10% of cases.

      Vaccination against hepatitis B can be confirmed by the presence of antibodies to the surface antigen. However, if these antibodies are not present, it suggests that the patient has not been vaccinated.

      High levels of immunoglobulin M antibodies to the core antigen indicate an acute infection, while positive immunoglobulin G antibodies to anti-Hep B core indicate a past infection.

      Recovery from past hepatitis B infection is indicated by the clearance of the surface antigen and the development of anti-HBs antibodies.

      If a patient has hepatitis B surface antigen and core antibodies, it suggests that they have been infected with hepatitis B and do not require vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with scanty sputum, hoarseness and headache and a few left basal crepitations were heard on examination. She was treated with amoxicillin for 7 days but her cough persists and crepitations are still audible at the left base.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol inhaler

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Community-Acquired Pneumonia and Treatment Options

      Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is suggested by lower respiratory signs and symptoms, and amoxicillin is an appropriate choice of treatment. The most likely organisms causing CAP are S. pneumoniae, Staph. aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and respiratory viruses. Flucloxacillin is appropriate for suspected staphylococcal infection, but staphylococcal pneumonia is usually severe, which is not the case here. Atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma or Chlamydophila is more likely, with Chlamydophila causing symptoms that may drag on for weeks or months. A chest X-ray may show more severe changes than the symptoms and signs suggest. Treatment for atypical pneumonia is similar to other CAPs, with clarithromycin being the drug of choice. For moderately severe CAP, amoxicillin and clarithromycin or doxycycline alone are recommended. Severe cases will usually require hospitalization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man asks for an HIV test due to his history of intravenous drug use and unprotected sex. During pre-test counselling, you have an in-depth conversation about the disease.
      Which of the following statements regarding HIV is inaccurate?
      Select ONE choice only.

      Your Answer: HIV testing may give false positive results in the first 3 months after exposure

      Explanation:

      HIV Testing Guidelines and Statistics in the UK

      The BHIVA/BASHH/BIS UK National Guidelines for HIV Testing recommend using the latest 4th generation tests, which detect HIV antibodies and p24 antigen simultaneously. These tests can detect HIV in the majority of individuals 4 weeks after exposure. However, a further test at 8 weeks should be considered for events with a high risk of infection. It is important to note that false negative results can occur in the first 8 weeks, but false positive results are not common during this time. In 2011, around 96,000 people were living with HIV in the UK, and approximately 25% of them were unaware of their infection. It is crucial to follow the recommended testing guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of HIV.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old man who works as a teacher and is generally healthy asks...

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    • A 40-year-old man who works as a teacher and is generally healthy asks about getting the flu shot. Can you confirm if he is eligible for it on the NHS?

      Your Answer: A 35-year-old woman on metformin for type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Familiarizing oneself with vaccine eligibility is crucial.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 5 - What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia?

      Your Answer: Often causes a bloody diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: May be excluded by stool microscopy

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea, often accompanied by E. coli. It can also lead to intestinal malabsorption. The preferred treatment for this condition is metronidazole.

      Stool microscopy is a traditional method of detecting cysts and oocysts, but it is laborious and less sensitive than the current antigen detection test. A single stool examination can identify only 50% of cases, while three stool samples can detect up to 90%.

      Unlike E. coli 0157 infection, giardiasis doesn’t cause blood loss. HUS, a severe complication, is not associated with giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman has recurrent oral candidiasis. She has well-controlled asthma on regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has recurrent oral candidiasis. She has well-controlled asthma on regular inhalers and is otherwise well. She also takes a combined oral contraceptive pill.
      What is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Type II diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship Between Medications and Oral Candidiasis

      Oral candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common fungal infection that can affect the mouth and throat. While it can occur in anyone, certain medications can increase the risk of developing this condition. Here is a breakdown of how different medications may impact the likelihood of oral candidiasis:

      Inhaled Corticosteroid: Patients with well-controlled asthma may use inhaled corticosteroids, which can increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water after inhalation can help reduce this risk. Antifungal medication can be used to treat oral candidiasis without discontinuing therapy.

      Inhaled β2 Agonist: This type of inhaler is used as a reliever for poorly controlled asthma and doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Common side effects include palpitations, tremors, and hypokalaemia.

      Combined Oral Contraceptive: While the combined oral contraceptive pill doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis, it may be associated with vulvovaginal candidiasis.

      Montelukast: This oral medication used to treat asthma doesn’t increase the risk of oral candidiasis. Dry mouth is a possible side effect, along with gastrointestinal problems, headaches, and sleep disturbance.

      Type II Diabetes Mellitus: Patients with poorly controlled diabetes may be more susceptible to recurrent infections, including oral candidiasis. If a patient presents with symptoms or risk factors for diabetes, blood glucose and/or haemoglobin A1c should be checked.

      Understanding the relationship between medications and oral candidiasis can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment and management.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man presents with an acute onset of pain and blurred vision...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with an acute onset of pain and blurred vision of his right eye. On examination there is conjunctival injection and dendritic ulceration is seen on his cornea.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate topical agent for the treatment of this patient.

      Your Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Herpes Simplex Infection of the Eye: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Patients suspected of having a herpes simplex infection of the eye should be referred to the local ophthalmology team on the same day. Steroid eye preparations should not be initiated in the primary care setting. If there is evidence of epithelial keratitis, topical antiviral treatment is recommended, such as aciclovir five times a day until at least 3 days after complete healing. Antibacterial ointment may prevent secondary infection of the lesions. To diagnose the dendritic ulcer, fluorescein is a topical stain used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 8 - Out of the following patients attending for vaccination against pneumococcal infection, which patient...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following patients attending for vaccination against pneumococcal infection, which patient is most likely to have sufficient immunity after receiving the injection and not require any further injections?

      Your Answer: A 25-year-old man who had his spleen removed following an accident

      Correct Answer: A 65-year-old man with no risk factors

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal Infection and Vaccination: Who is at Risk and How to Protect Them

      Streptococcus pneumoniae, commonly known as pneumococcus, can cause a range of illnesses including otitis media, meningitis, septicaemia, and pneumonia. Those at higher risk of serious infection include children, the elderly, patients who have had their spleen removed, and those who are immunocompromised.

      To prevent pneumococcal infection, vaccines are available. In the UK, a polyvalent vaccine containing purified capsular polysaccharide from each of the 23 types of pneumococcus is commonly used for individuals over the age of 5. Children under 2 years old receive a conjugate vaccine containing 13 types of pneumococcus. Both vaccines are inactivated and do not contain live organisms.

      Patients with no spleen or splenic dysfunction, patients with renal disease, and children at special risk of infection should receive further vaccinations at 5-yearly intervals. All people over 65 years should receive a single dose of vaccine. Other patients at risk include those with diabetes, chronic respiratory disease, heart or liver disease, individuals having cochlear implants, patients with CSF leaks, and welders.

      In summary, pneumococcal infection can be serious, but vaccines are available to protect those at risk. It is important to follow vaccination guidelines to ensure maximum protection.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man observed a painless papule on the glans of his penis that turned into an ulcer within a few days. Upon examination, a solitary, circular, hardened ulcer is visible.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Primary Syphilis: The First Sign and Symptoms

      Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a small, painless papule that quickly turns into an ulcer known as a chancre. This ulcer is typically solitary, round or oval, painless, and surrounded by a bright-red margin. Unlike other open syphilitic lesions, it is not usually infected with secondary bacteria. Treponema pallidum, the bacteria responsible for syphilis, can be detected in the serum from the sore, which can be easily obtained by slightly abrading the base. If left untreated, primary syphilis can progress to more severe stages of the disease. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has experienced severe diarrhoea with occasional flecks of blood and unpleasant griping abdominal pain. The symptoms appeared 6-7 hours after he ate a rice-based dish from a local Chinese takeaway. His flatmate had similar symptoms after visiting the same takeaway a few days earlier, which resolved within a day. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bacillus cereus Infection

      Bacillus cereus is a type of bacteria that can cause food poisoning. Its incubation period is between 6 to 24 hours, and symptoms usually appear within 1 to 2 days. The bacteria produce a toxin that can cause either severe diarrhea or profuse vomiting, depending on the type of toxin produced.

      In Europe, Bacillus cereus infection is commonly associated with diarrhea. The bacteria are often found in reheated fried rice, which is a common cause of the infection. However, the infection is self-limiting, and appropriate oral rehydration advice is usually enough to manage the symptoms.

      Overall, it is important to understand the symptoms and causes of Bacillus cereus infection to prevent its spread and manage its effects.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful ulcer in her genital area. She has recently returned from her gap year in Thailand where she engaged in unprotected sexual activities with multiple partners. During the examination, the GP observes a sharp undermined border around the ulcer and painful lymph node enlargement in her left inguinal area.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Chancroid should be considered as a possible cause of genital ulcers if the patient has a history of foreign travel, especially if accompanied by painful swelling of the inguinal lymph nodes on one side.

      Chancroid is a disease commonly found in tropical regions that causes painful ulcers in the genital area with a distinct, jagged border. It is often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin on one side.

      Behcet’s disease is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. It can also cause thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, and abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis.

      Primary genital herpes typically presents with multiple painful ulcers and fever. Subsequent outbreaks are usually less severe and localized to one area.

      It is important to consider non-infectious causes such as psoriasis, which can cause a sore, itchy, and red plaque in the genital area. On examination, the area will appear shiny, flat, and smooth, and psoriatic scales are not typically present in the genital area.

      Understanding Chancroid

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 12 - A recently graduated nurse at the nearby hospital receives hepatitis B vaccination. After...

    Incorrect

    • A recently graduated nurse at the nearby hospital receives hepatitis B vaccination. After three months of completing the primary course, the following outcomes are observed:

      Outcome Anti-HBs: 10 - 100 mIU/ml
      Reference A protective immunity is indicated by an antibody level of >100 mIU/ml.

      What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Repeat anti-HBs level in three months time

      Correct Answer: Give one further dose of hepatitis B vaccine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management

      Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.

      Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following an operation. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has been grown from a wound swab.
      Select from the list the most common cause of a hospital-acquired wound infection.

      Your Answer: Too frequent skin disinfection and destruction of the normal skin flora

      Correct Answer: Insufficient hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Nosocomial Infections in Hospitals: Identification, Control, and Measures

      Insufficient hand disinfection is the leading cause of wound infections acquired in hospitals. The primary objective of hospital infection control is to prevent nosocomial infections. To achieve this, clinical and epidemiological investigations must first identify hospital-acquired infections as either endemic or epidemic. Identifying and typing the isolates causing nosocomial infections can help recognize organisms that are epidemiologically linked. Invasive multiresistant organisms, such as MRSA, often require infection-control measures to prevent their spread, which can minimize the use of expensive and sometimes toxic antibiotics required for their prophylaxis and treatment.

      Epidemic outbreaks can be controlled by measures that interrupt the spread of infection, such as the use of gowns, gloves, and careful hand-washing by those attending patients. Transfer of colonized or infected patients to a single room or an isolation ward is a physical means of preventing spread. Patients infected with the same organism can be grouped together and attended to by a cohort of nurses not involved with uninfected patients. Identification of additional carriers and elimination of colonization may be necessary for some epidemic outbreaks. Although controlled trials demonstrating the efficacy of such measures have not been performed, many observational studies support their use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic 2 weeks after returning from a family vacation involving kayaking. She complains of feeling extremely tired due to persistent fatty diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence that began during her trip. She notes that her symptoms worsen whenever she consumes dairy products. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ongoing diarrhoea, lethargy, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea, weight loss, and recent travel suggest giardiasis as the likely cause. Giardiasis is often associated with foreign travel and exposure to contaminated water sources. Treatment with metronidazole may be beneficial. Cholera and hepatitis D are unlikely causes as their symptoms and characteristics differ from those of giardiasis.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a disease caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some people may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In some cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may also occur. To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts is usually done, although stool antigen detection assay and PCR assays are also being developed. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of metronidazole.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 15 - Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead...

    Correct

    • Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead of the winter. She asks you about storage of the intranasal influenza vaccination for adults.
      Which of the following is the correct advice to give?

      Your Answer: It should be stored specifically between +2°C and +8°C in line with the storage of the intramuscular influenza vaccines

      Explanation:

      Vaccine Storage and Sensitivity

      To maintain the potency and effectiveness of vaccines, it is important to store them properly. Vaccines can be sensitive to changes in temperature and exposure to light, which can reduce their shelf life and potency. Excessive heat can cause a decline in potency, while freezing can increase reactogenicity and reduce vaccine potency. Freezing can also lead to cracks in vaccine containers, which can result in contamination.

      The nasal influenza vaccine should be stored between +2°C and +8°C and protected from light, similar to the intramuscular influenza vaccine. Refrigeration with close temperature monitoring is necessary to achieve this. However, the nasal influenza vaccine can be left out of the refrigerator for up to 12 hours before use, as long as it is not exposed to temperatures above 25°C. If it has not been used within 12 hours, it should be disposed of rather than re-refrigerated for future use. Proper vaccine storage is crucial to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man with advanced HIV disease complains of dysphagia and odynophagia. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with advanced HIV disease complains of dysphagia and odynophagia. What could be the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus oesophagitis

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal Candidiasis in HIV Patients

      Oesophageal candidiasis is a prevalent cause of oesophagitis in individuals with HIV. It is commonly observed in patients with a CD4 count below 100. The most common symptoms include difficulty swallowing and painful swallowing. The first-line treatments for this condition are fluconazole and itraconazole.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 17 - Conjunctivitis has only one correct statement. What is it? ...

    Incorrect

    • Conjunctivitis has only one correct statement. What is it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Simple bacterial conjunctivitis commonly resolves without treatment

      Explanation:

      Managing Conjunctivitis in Children: Antibiotics Not Always Necessary

      As of April 2010, ophthalmia neonatorum is no longer a notifiable disease. A randomized controlled trial published in the Lancet in 2005 compared placebo with chloramphenicol drops in children with conjunctivitis and concluded that prescribing antibiotic drops for conjunctivitis in children should be stopped. Instead, children should be advised to keep the eye clean and return for review if no better after one week. The Health Professionals Alliance’s guidance on infection control in schools and other childcare settings doesn’t recommend any time away for children with conjunctivitis. Simple bacterial conjunctivitis usually lasts 10-14 days and is self-limiting. A review if no better at one week to exclude corneal involvement or other complications is recommended. Adenoviral conjunctivitis is highly contagious and often rapidly becomes bilateral.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Causes of Rectal Infections

      Rectal infections can have various symptoms and causes. Gonorrhoea, for instance, is often asymptomatic but may cause anal discharge or perianal/anal pain, pruritus, or bleeding. Primary syphilis, on the other hand, is characterized by a painless ulcer or chancre. Candidiasis is associated with a perianal intertrigenous rash, while Crohn’s disease may lead to perianal pendulous skin tags, abscesses, and fistulas. Salmonella infection, meanwhile, causes acute diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old man is planning a trip and has been advised by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is planning a trip and has been advised by his travel agent to take antimalarial medication. What is the correct statement about chemoprophylaxis for malaria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mefloquine is contraindicated in patients with a history of psychiatric illness

      Explanation:

      Antimalarials for Travellers: Importance and Considerations

      Travellers should always seek up-to-date information on appropriate antimalarials for different regions before embarking on their journey. It is important to note that all travellers should be advised to use antimalarials where there is a risk, regardless of their previous exposure or the level of luxury of their accommodation.

      While some may believe that immunity to malaria is strong and long-lasting, it is actually quite mild and wanes quickly when patients move away from the affected area. Therefore, it is crucial to take the necessary precautions to prevent contracting the disease.

      Doxycycline is an effective antimalarial, but it can cause photosensitivity, making it less suitable for patients who plan to spend time sunbathing. Malarone, on the other hand, is ideal for short trips or where only part of a holiday is spent in malaria-prone areas, as it is taken for only 2 days before and 1 week after travel.

      For all other antimalarials, they should be taken from 1 week before until 4 weeks after travel to the affected area. However, it is important to note that mefloquine is contraindicated for patients with a history of psychiatric illness or epilepsy, as it can cause a range of neuropsychiatric symptoms, including depression, panic attacks, agitation, hallucinations, psychosis, convulsions, and suicidal ideation. If such symptoms occur, the drug should be discontinued and replaced with an alternative antimalarial.

      In conclusion, taking the necessary precautions and seeking professional advice on antimalarials is crucial for travellers to prevent contracting malaria.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the last four weeks. He recently visited a sheep farm in Cyprus two months ago. His chest x-ray and urine culture are normal. The doctor suspects Brucellosis. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brucella serology

      Explanation:

      The Knowledge and skills guide of the 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes zoonotic diseases such as leptospirosis and brucellosis.

      Understanding Brucellosis

      Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.

      Symptoms of brucellosis are nonspecific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.

      Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.

      Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.

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      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 21 - A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a financial analyst and drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with his friends. He has also developed a skin rash consisting of pink rings with pale centers.

      Upon admission, his blood work shows:
      - Sodium: 129 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
      - Urea: 8.5 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 155 µmol/L

      A chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small left-sided pleural effusion. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

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  • Question 22 - A 40-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine appointment. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient comes to the clinic for a routine appointment. He has a history of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and wants to discuss the result of his recent CD4 count.
      Which statement concerning the T lymphocyte CD4 count is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a relationship with the risk of developing opportunistic infections

      Explanation:

      The Importance of CD4 Count in HIV Diagnosis and Treatment

      CD4 count plays a crucial role in the diagnosis and treatment of HIV. HIV binds to CD4 receptors on various cells, leading to immune dysfunction and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections. A high CD4 count during the acute phase of HIV infection is common, but a count of ≤ 200 cells/mm3 is diagnosed as AIDS. CD4 tests are also used to determine the efficacy of treatment and when to initiate antiretroviral therapy. While not a direct HIV test, CD4 counts provide valuable information about a patient’s immune system.

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  • Question 23 - A 35 year old male patient comes to you with complaints of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male patient comes to you with complaints of headache, myalgia, and a worsening cough for the past 5 days. He has a non-productive cough. During the examination, you observe a rash consisting of target lesions all over his trunk. On auscultation, bronchial breathing is heard at his right base. He has recently started working as a primary school teacher. Which organism is the most probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma pneumonia is commonly linked to erythema multiforme, which is evident in this patient who experienced flu-like symptoms before developing pneumonia and a rash. The presence of a prodrome and erythema multiforme are typical features of Mycoplasma pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is another possible cause of pneumonia with a viral prodrome, but the distinguishing factor in this case is the presence of erythema multiforme.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant presents with complaints of heightened vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 10-weeks pregnant presents with complaints of heightened vaginal discharge accompanied by itching. Upon conducting a sexual health screening, it is discovered that she has tested positive for gonorrhoea. What is the recommended treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, which is also safe to administer during pregnancy.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 25 - A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of anorexia, malaise and jaundice. Liver function tests reveal a hepatocellular pattern of liver damage, leading to suspicion of viral hepatitis.
      Which of the following choices would NOT aid in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis Tests

      Hepatitis is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different types of hepatitis, including A, B, and C. To diagnose hepatitis, doctors use various tests. One of these tests is the Anti-HBs test, which indicates immunity to hepatitis B.

      Another test is the Hepatitis B surface antigen test, which can indicate an acute infection or a chronic carrier state. If a patient has acute hepatitis B virus infection, the presence of this antigen strongly suggests it. However, it doesn’t rule out chronic HBV with acute superinfection by another hepatitis virus.

      The most specific test for diagnosing acute HCV infection before antibodies have developed is the qualitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR) assay for viral particles. If all these tests are negative, doctors should consider other causes of hepatitis, such as another virus or alcohol.

      In conclusion, understanding hepatitis tests is crucial for diagnosing and treating this viral infection.

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  • Question 26 - A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old male from France comes to the clinic complaining of feeling sick for the past 2 weeks. At first, he had a sore throat but now he is having occasional joint pains in his knees, hips, and ankles. During the examination, some pink, ring-shaped lesions are observed on his trunk, and he occasionally experiences jerking movements of his face and hands. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.

      To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.

      Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.

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  • Question 27 - Which one of the following is a notifiable disease in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a notifiable disease in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.

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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash on her right leg. She has no drug allergies and no other predisposing risk factors. She has been taking flucloxacillin for seven days. The rash has been slow to respond but has not worsened. She is afebrile and feeling otherwise well.
      What is the most appropriate drug option now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Cellulitis: A Comparison of Treatment Options

      Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. The choice of antibiotic treatment depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Here is a comparison of the most commonly used antibiotics for treating cellulitis:

      Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is recommended as the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis because it covers both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. A 7-day course is recommended, with a review after 2-3 days to ensure there is no worsening of the condition. If symptoms persist after 7 days, another 7-day course should be continued. If there is no improvement after 14 days, specialist advice or hospital admission should be considered.

      Amoxicillin: This antibiotic is recommended for patients with lymphoedema who develop cellulitis. It is not the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis.

      Clarithromycin: This antibiotic is an alternative to flucloxacillin for patients with penicillin allergy. However, if the patient has no drug allergies, flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment.

      Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic should be reserved for more severe infections to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. It is recommended for facial cellulitis close to the eyes or nose if intravenous treatment is not required.

      Penicillin V: This antibiotic has a narrow spectrum and mainly covers streptococcal infections. It is not resistant to penicillinase, which most staphylococci produce, leading to resistance against penicillin V. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for cellulitis.

      In conclusion, the choice of antibiotic treatment for cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis, while other antibiotics may be used for specific patient populations or in more severe cases.

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  • Question 29 - What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deranged liver function is common in infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Infectious Mononucleosis: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications

      Infectious mononucleosis, commonly known as mono, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). While many patients may not show any symptoms, studies suggest that 90% of people over the age of 25 have antibodies to EBV. The virus is transmitted through droplet exchange and can continue to be excreted for several months.

      Symptoms of mono include deranged liver function, mild hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, which can cause tenderness over the spleen. Jaundice is rare in young adults but can occur in up to 30% of infected elderly patients. It is important for patients to avoid contact sports for at least a month after infection to prevent the risk of splenic rupture.

      It is crucial to note that ampicillin and amoxicillin should not be given to any patient who may have infectious mononucleosis, as they can cause an itchy maculopapular rash. The illness is typically self-limiting and of short duration, but fatigue and myalgia may persist for several months after the acute infection has resolved.

      In conclusion, infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause various symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent transmission and seek medical attention if symptoms persist.

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  • Question 30 - A 44-year-old woman is seen in an emergency appointment complaining that her cold...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman is seen in an emergency appointment complaining that her cold has gone onto her chest, giving her a productive cough and occasional retrosternal chest pain. On examination she has a slight wheeze in her chest but no signs of respiratory distress. She is otherwise fit and well.
      Select the single correct statement about her management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be advised that she has a viral infection and to take analgesics and antipyretics, with instructions to return if her symptoms worsen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is often caused by a virus, and in individuals with mild symptoms who are otherwise healthy, bacterial infections typically resolve on their own. Treatment options for acute bronchitis include deferred prescriptions with advice sheets or simple reassurance.

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  • Question 31 - A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college with suspected meningitis. She complained of a severe headache, fever, and vomiting that had been getting worse for the past two days. After a lumbar puncture, it was confirmed that she has a positive culture for Neisseria meningitidis.

      What antibiotic should be prescribed for her college roommates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis typically involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. Amoxicillin is primarily used in the treatment of meningitis in young children who are at a higher risk for listeria meningitis. In emergency situations, benzylpenicillin is the preferred treatment for meningitis, but it is not used for prophylaxis. Cephalosporins, such as cefalexin, are typically used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis rather than for prophylaxis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 32 - A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrizinamide) for pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient also takes sertraline for a history of depression. The patient reports a decline in vision, specifically a decrease in color vibrancy. Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 33 - A 25-year-old man is starting a nursing program. He requires hepatitis B vaccination....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is starting a nursing program. He requires hepatitis B vaccination.
      Which serological marker indicates successful hepatitis B immunisation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-HBs antibodies

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Prevention of Hepatitis B through Vaccination

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can lead to chronic liver disease and cancer. Vaccination against hepatitis B is an effective way to prevent the spread of the virus. The development of protective antibodies, known as anti-HBs, is used to monitor the response to vaccination. The antibody profile, along with the results of HBsAg and HBeAg tests, can help determine the phase of HBV infection.

      Initially, vaccines were derived from viral proteins in infected blood, but now recombinant HBsAg proteins are used. Vaccination strategies range from universal vaccination in infancy to targeted vaccination of high-risk individuals. In areas with high rates of infection, universal vaccine programs have already reduced the incidence of infection, carriage, and hepatocellular cancer.

      Conventional three-dose immunization in adults leads to protective immunity in 90% of individuals. Passive immunization with anti-HBsAg hyperimmune globulin can provide rapid protection after exposure, such as after a needlestick injury. For children born to infected mothers, a combination of passive and active immunization is recommended. However, in some infants, chronic infection with a mutant escape virus has occurred despite vaccination.

      In conclusion, monitoring and prevention of hepatitis B through vaccination is crucial in reducing the spread of the virus and preventing chronic liver disease and cancer.

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  • Question 34 - A patient who has just returned from the Ivory Coast is experiencing cyclical...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has just returned from the Ivory Coast is experiencing cyclical fever and headache. During the examination, splenomegaly is observed. After a blood film, the patient is diagnosed with Plasmodium vivax malaria. The patient, who is in his 50s, is initially treated with chloroquine and later given primaquine. What is the advantage of administering primaquine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

      Explanation:

      To prevent relapse in non-falciparum malaria, primaquine is administered to eliminate liver hypnozoites.

      Non-Falciparum Malaria: Causes, Features, and Treatment

      Non-falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi. Plasmodium vivax is commonly found in Central America and the Indian Subcontinent, while Plasmodium ovale is typically found in Africa. Plasmodium malariae is associated with nephrotic syndrome. Plasmodium knowlesi is found predominantly in South East Asia.

      The general features of non-falciparum malaria include fever, headache, and splenomegaly. Cyclical fever every 48 hours is associated with Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale, while Plasmodium malariae is associated with cyclical fever every 72 hours. Ovale and vivax malaria have a hypnozoite stage and may relapse following treatment.

      In areas known to be chloroquine-sensitive, the World Health Organization recommends either an artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine for treatment. In areas known to be chloroquine-resistant, an ACT should be used. However, ACTs should be avoided in pregnant women. Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse.

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  • Question 35 - A 28-year-old man who is known to be an intravenous heroin user presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who is known to be an intravenous heroin user presents as an emergency with a persistent fever, blood in his urine and shortness of breath. On further questioning he admits to recent weight loss and night sweats. On examination he has splinter haemorrhages, microscopic haematuria and a systolic heart murmur.
      What is most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Infective Endocarditis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis

      Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart’s inner lining and valves. The classic diagnostic triad of this condition includes fever, new or changing murmurs, and embolic phenomena. Other symptoms may include fatigue, shortness of breath, and weight loss.

      Certain risk factors increase the likelihood of developing infective endocarditis. These include intravenous drug abuse, having artificial heart valves, congenital heart defects such as ventricular septal defects, and undergoing invasive surgical procedures, especially dental work.

      Diagnosis of infective endocarditis typically involves a combination of physical examination, blood tests, and imaging studies such as echocardiography. Treatment may involve antibiotics and, in some cases, surgery to repair or replace damaged heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for a successful outcome.

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  • Question 36 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner as he is febrile,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner as he is febrile, restless and has excessive drooling from the mouth. Drinking and eating are painful and his breath smells foul. His gums are swollen and red and he has ulcers on the tongue, throat, palate and insides of the cheeks and a few vesicles and erosions on the lips.
      Which of the following is the most likely infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Herpes Simplex Virus and Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Comparison

      Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that can cause cold sores on the face (type 1) or genital infections (type 2). Primary type 1 infection is usually mild or subclinical, but can cause herpetic gingivostomatitis, which is the most common clinical manifestation of the infection. After the initial infection, the virus remains latent in nerve cell ganglia and can be reactivated by various stimuli, resulting in a recurrence of symptoms and shedding of the virus.

      In contrast, hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by the Coxsackie A virus and is usually a minor illness with mouth ulcers and vesicles on the hands and feet. While the mouth may be sore, it is not typically as severe as a herpes simplex infection.

      Overall, understanding the differences between these two viral infections can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, vomiting and jaundice following a visit to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, vomiting and jaundice following a visit to India. Hepatitis A is diagnosed.
      Select from the list the single most common mode of transmission.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contaminated food

      Explanation:

      Common Modes of Disease Transmission

      Diseases can be transmitted through various means, including oral ingestion, blood contamination, tick bites, sexual contact, and mosquito bites. Hepatitis A is an example of a disease that is acquired orally, while Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV are blood-borne diseases. Tick-borne diseases, such as Lyme disease and typhus, are caused by infectious agents transmitted through tick bites. Sexually transmitted infections, such as chlamydia, syphilis, and gonorrhoea, are commonly spread through sexual contact. Mosquito bites can also transmit diseases like malaria and dengue fever. It is important to be aware of these modes of transmission and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of diseases.

      Modes of Disease Transmission

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  • Question 38 - A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever with a red, tender area near her right nipple.
      Select the single correct statement.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An abscess may develop and would need draining

      Explanation:

      Managing Mastitis: Tips for Breastfeeding Mothers

      Mastitis is a common condition among breastfeeding mothers, which can lead to an abscess if left untreated. To prevent this complication, it is important to continue feeding from the affected breast to avoid engorgement. Contrary to popular belief, feeding from an infected breast doesn’t cause infection in the baby. However, the milk may taste slightly different, and the baby may refuse to feed. In such cases, expressing milk from the infected side is recommended. White patches inside a baby’s mouth are a sign of thrush and are not caused by mastitis. To manage the pain and discomfort associated with mastitis, a breastfeeding mother can take both paracetamol and ibuprofen. By following these tips, mothers can effectively manage mastitis and continue to breastfeed their babies.

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  • Question 39 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of increasing fatigue and nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of increasing fatigue and nausea over the past two weeks. During the examination, the GP notices a yellowish tint to the whites of her eyes. The patient resides in a remote fishing village and consumes a diet high in seafood. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol and reports no weight loss or other constitutional symptoms. The following are her liver function test results:

      - Bilirubin: 20 µmol/l
      - ALP: 160 u/l
      - ALT: 550 u/l
      - γGT: 30 u/l
      - Albumin: 35 g/l

      All other routine blood results are normal. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis E

      Hepatitis E is a type of RNA hepevirus that is transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Its incubation period ranges from 3 to 8 weeks. This disease is common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico. It causes a similar illness to hepatitis A, but with a higher mortality rate of about 20% during pregnancy. Unlike other types of hepatitis, Hepatitis E doesn’t cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. Although a vaccine is currently in development, it is not yet widely available.

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  • Question 40 - A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of joint pain and swelling, feeling generally unwell. He recently returned from a hiking trip in Thailand, and one day after his return, he experienced severe watery diarrhoea and abdominal cramps that lasted for a week.

      During the examination, the patient appears unwell and fatigued. He has large effusions of the left knee and right ankle, along with tender plantar fascia bilaterally. Additionally, he has tender metatarsophalangeal joints on both feet, and a papular rash on the soles of his feet.

      Despite taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen for the past week, the patient's symptoms have only minimally improved. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient, given the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis doesn’t usually have an acute onset and can develop up to four weeks after the initial infection. It may have a relapsing-remitting course over several months.

      The correct treatment for this patient’s severe polyarthritis would be oral prednisolone, a systemic corticosteroid. The dosing should be based on the severity of the arthritis, with tapering to the lowest effective dose. Typical starting doses are 20-40 mg/day.

      TNF inhibitor therapy would not be appropriate in this case. However, it may be effective and safe for patients with reactive arthritis who are unresponsive to NSAID or non-biologic DMARD therapy.

      Celecoxib is not the correct choice for this patient. Since regular ibuprofen did not provide relief for a week, the next step would be oral corticosteroids. Although patients may require high doses of NSAIDs with a long half-life, such as Naproxen 500mg BD, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate for this patient with multiple joints involved and systemic illness.

      Intra-articular injections are useful for large joint effusions, but in this case, systemic corticosteroids are more appropriate due to the patient’s multiple joint involvement and systemic illness.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.

      The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).

      To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 41 - A 4-year-old girl has developed diarrhoea and vomiting, in common with many of...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl has developed diarrhoea and vomiting, in common with many of the children at her preschool. When you examine her she seems mildly unwell but there are no signs of sepsis or significant dehydration.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding her management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should stay away from nursery until 2 days after his symptoms have settled

      Explanation:

      Childhood Diarrhoea: Causes and Treatment

      Childhood diarrhoea is commonly caused by viruses, with rotavirus being the most prevalent. Other viruses such as norovirus, echoviruses, and enteroviruses can also cause diarrhoea. Rotavirus causes outbreaks of diarrhoea and vomiting during the winter and spring, affecting mainly children under 1 year old. Adults usually have some immunity to the virus, but the elderly can be susceptible. Rotavirus vaccine is now included in childhood vaccination programmes. Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for children and is ineffective against viruses. Loperamide can reduce the duration of diarrhoea, but its adverse effects are unclear and it should not be prescribed. According to NICE guidance, children should avoid school or nursery for at least 48 hours after their symptoms have settled and avoid public swimming pools for 2 weeks. Childhood diarrhoea can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment and prevention measures.

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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient with a known HIV infection. What is the likelihood of the phlebotomist contracting HIV?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.30%

      Explanation:

      Compared to hepatitis B and C, the transmission rate of HIV is relatively low.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 43 - A mother brings her 3-year old daughter, Lily into your clinic with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year old daughter, Lily into your clinic with concerns about vaccinations. Lily has recently undergone a liver transplant and is on immunosuppressants. The mother is worried that some vaccinations may not be safe for her daughter. Which of the following vaccinations can be administered in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pertussis vaccine

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines, such as those for seasonal nasal flu, oral polio, mumps, and measles, are commonly used. The pertussis vaccine, on the other hand, is an inactivated whole-cell vaccine that is safe for immunocompromised individuals. Immunization schedules for both children and adults are undergoing rapid changes, and some candidates may not be aware of these changes or recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated to clinical staff, it is important for GPs to be aware of contraindications and schedules in order to advise patients and parents. Auditing specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunization in cases where recommendations have changed.

      Vaccinations: Types and Precautions

      Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.

      It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.

      In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.

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  • Question 44 - A 43-year-old man with a known HIV diagnosis visits your clinic complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man with a known HIV diagnosis visits your clinic complaining of a persistent cold sore despite using over-the-counter topical medication. What is the recommended next step in treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences severe, frequent, persistent, or recurrent gingivostomatitis (a rare form of oral herpes simplex infection), antivirals may be considered as a treatment option. Immunocompromised patients may benefit from oral aciclovir for cold sore management.

      Continuing to use over-the-counter topical medication is not recommended for this patient as it has not been effective. It is important to explore other treatment options to alleviate their ongoing symptoms.

      It would be inappropriate to not offer any further treatment options to this patient as there are options available.

      Referral to dermatology is not necessary for the management of cold sores in most cases. However, if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis, a referral may be appropriate.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

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  • Question 45 - You are working in a rural GP surgery in Scotland and you have...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a rural GP surgery in Scotland and you have an urgent appointment with an eight-year-old boy and his mother. The child has a history of mild asthma and flexural eczema and his mother is concerned because they went out walking yesterday and this morning she found a tick attached to his upper arm. The child appears well and all observations are normal. The tick has been removed, leaving a puncture mark. The mother is worried about Lyme disease and asks for a prescription. What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antibiotics necessary - watchful waiting

      Explanation:

      According to the 2018 NICE Guidance, it is not necessary to administer prophylactic antibiotics to individuals who have been bitten by a tick and show no symptoms of Lyme disease. Treatment should only be given if the patient develops erythema migrans or other symptoms associated with the disease. It is important to provide reassurance to the patient and advise them on what symptoms to watch out for.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 46 - A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy seeks guidance on malaria prophylaxis...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy seeks guidance on malaria prophylaxis for his upcoming trip to Vietnam. He will be visiting coastal tourist spots as well as traveling inland. What is the most suitable medication to prevent malaria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atovaquone + proguanil

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

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  • Question 47 - A 16-year-old girl from the travelling community comes to you with a 4-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl from the travelling community comes to you with a 4-day history of fever, myalgia, malaise, and headache. She reports that her face has been swelling for the past two days and the pain has increased while chewing food. Upon examination, you notice that her parotid glands are tender and bilaterally swollen. Her temperature is 38.5ºC, heart rate 120 beats/minute, and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive treatment- advise rest, fluids and simple analgesia

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is suffering from mumps, which may be more prevalent in travelling communities due to lower vaccination rates. Supportive care is the recommended treatment for mumps, as antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and steroids are not advised. While immediate vaccination is not necessary for this patient, it may be beneficial to assess their immunisation status for other diseases such as rubella and measles and administer appropriate vaccinations. Additionally, those who have been in contact with the patient should be offered the measles, mumps, and rubella vaccine. Hospitalisation is not required. This information is sourced from NICE CKS Mumps.

      Understanding Mumps: Causes, Symptoms, Prevention, and Management

      Mumps is a viral infection caused by RNA paramyxovirus that typically occurs during the winter and spring seasons. The virus spreads through droplets and affects respiratory tract epithelial cells, parotid glands, and other tissues. The infection is contagious, and a person can be infectious seven days before and nine days after the onset of parotid swelling. The incubation period for mumps is usually 14-21 days.

      The clinical features of mumps include fever, malaise, and muscular pain. The most common symptom is parotitis, which causes earache and pain while eating. Initially, the swelling is unilateral, but it becomes bilateral in around 70% of cases.

      Prevention of mumps is possible through the MMR vaccine, which has an efficacy rate of around 80%. Management of mumps involves rest and the use of paracetamol to alleviate high fever and discomfort. Mumps is a notifiable disease, and healthcare professionals must report cases to the relevant authorities.

      Complications of mumps include orchitis, which is uncommon in pre-pubertal males but occurs in around 25-35% of post-pubertal males. It typically occurs four or five days after the onset of parotitis. Other complications include hearing loss, meningoencephalitis, and pancreatitis.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, prevention, and management of mumps is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection and minimizing its complications. Vaccination and early diagnosis are essential in controlling the disease.

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  • Question 48 - A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes back from her cardiology appointment where she was diagnosed with congenital long QT syndrome after an ECG was done for palpitations.

      What medication should she avoid in the future?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin, erythromycin, and azithromycin may lead to the prolongation of the QTc interval. This can be particularly dangerous for patients with congenital long QT syndrome as it may trigger torsades de pointes. However, medications such as bisoprolol and digoxin can actually shorten the QTc interval and are therefore safe to use. Amoxicillin and cyclizine, on the other hand, do not have any known effects on the QTc interval.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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  • Question 49 - Of the following scenarios, which one would indicate it was inappropriate for the...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following scenarios, which one would indicate it was inappropriate for the child to take an airline flight?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 17-year-old flying back to the UK who broke his leg whilst skiing in Canada. Had a plaster cast applied 24 hours ago

      Explanation:

      Patients should wait for 24 hours before taking short flights (< 2 hours) and 48 hours before taking longer flights after applying a plaster cast. This is necessary to avoid the possibility of air getting trapped beneath the cast. The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

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  • Question 50 - What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective approach for preventing and treating hepatitis C?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No vaccine is available but treatment is successful in the majority of patients

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 51 - The midwife has asked you to see a 35-year-old woman who is 39...

    Incorrect

    • The midwife has asked you to see a 35-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant with her first child.

      She has a one week history of a running nose and sore throat, which has developed into a paroxysmal cough. During coughing episodes she coughs so much she feels she can hardly catch her breath, and on one occasion she vomited with the effort of coughing. She is unsure of her immunisation history.

      On examination, she is afebrile and her chest sounds clear. She is very concerned about how she will cope with the birth of the baby. You suspect she might have pertussis.

      How would you manage this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent assessment with obstetrician

      Explanation:

      Management of Pertussis in Newborn Infants

      Newborn infants born to mothers with suspected or confirmed pertussis within 21 days of onset of illness are at risk of contracting the disease. The recommended management for such cases is to test for pertussis and treat both the mother and newborn with antibiotics. Azithromycin should be offered to the newborn for five days after birth.

      Arranging FBC/ESR/CXR and reassurance are not appropriate options. Testing and treating only the mother is also not recommended as the baby will not derive immunity from her. Urgent assessment with an obstetrician is unnecessary as the mode of delivery doesn’t affect the risk of transmission to the baby.

      It is important for GPs to understand and implement national guidelines for respiratory problems, as outlined in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 15.8. Early recognition and management of pertussis in newborn infants can prevent severe complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 52 - A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread muscle and joint aches and retro-orbital headache.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      influenza: Causes, Symptoms, and Impact

      influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a viral infection that affects up to 15% of the population each year. The virus undergoes minor mutations, known as antigenic drift, which causes seasonal epidemics. In some cases, major changes in antigens can produce a new virus subtype, known as antigenic shift, which can result in a major epidemic due to little population immunity.

      Symptoms of influenza include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, and fatigue. While most cases are mild, the virus can be highly infectious with a ratio of infections to clinical cases between 3:1 and 9:1. In an average year, there are 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week.

      influenza can have a significant impact on mortality rates, with more than 20,000 deaths worldwide each year. During epidemics, this number can be much higher. Typically, seasonal influenza has a greater effect on mortality rates in the elderly, while swine flu tends to affect children and young adults.

      While influenza is the most likely cause of flu-like symptoms, other conditions should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or if there are underlying health conditions that may increase the risk of complications.

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  • Question 53 - What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct approach to managing head lice (Pediculosis capitis) in schools and other childcare settings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular detection by combing should be carried out by parents

      Explanation:

      Head Lice Treatment and Prevention

      Head lice are a common problem, especially among children. However, it is important to note that children should not be excluded from school if they have head lice. Treatment is only necessary if live lice have been seen. Hatched eggs or nits are not a sign of infestation.

      Plastic combs are designed to be used with conditioner and have been shown to have a 38-57% cure rate after 14 days of treatment. Close contacts should also be checked, but only treated if live lice are present.

      If chemical or physical insecticides are being used, such as malathion 0.5% or dimethicone 4%, at least two applications are needed, seven days apart, to effectively kill the lice that emerge from eggs after the first treatment.

      Overall, it is important to take preventative measures, such as avoiding head-to-head contact and sharing personal items, to reduce the risk of head lice infestation.

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  • Question 54 - Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If...

    Incorrect

    • Is there an infection for which there is no post-exposure prophylaxis available? If so, which one is it from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases: What You Need to Know

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a crucial aspect of preventing the spread of infectious diseases in healthcare settings. For meningococcus, rifampicin, ceftriaxone, or ciprofloxacin can be used for prophylaxis, along with vaccination for group C. Rabies can be prevented through active and passive immunization after exposure. Combination antiretroviral therapy can reduce the incidence of HIV infection after needlestick injuries. Measles vaccine can prevent an attack if given within 3 days of contact, and immunoglobulin can be used if the vaccine cannot be given. Unfortunately, there is no effective PEP for HCV, but healthcare workers should be tested and referred for specialist care if they seroconvert. It is essential for healthcare workers to be aware of PEP options to protect themselves and their patients from infectious diseases.

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  • Question 55 - A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a patient infected with the hepatitis C virus.
      Select the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for HCV RNA at 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transmission and Treatment of Hepatitis C

      Hepatitis C virus is not as easily transmitted through a needlestick as hepatitis B virus, with a risk of transmission estimated at only 3%. Currently, there is no post-exposure vaccine available and neither immunoglobulin nor any antiviral agent has been proven effective in preventing transmission. Studies have shown that high anti-HCV titre immunoglobulin did not prevent transmission. Healthcare workers exposed to a source known to be positive for anti-HCV or HCV RNA should have their serum tested for HCV RNA at 6 and 12 weeks and for anti-HCV at 12 and 24 weeks.

      In the treatment of hepatitis C infection, peg-interferon α and ribavirin are commonly used. These treatments have been found to be particularly effective in people infected with virus of genotypes 2 and 3.

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  • Question 56 - A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

    When is the meningococcal...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old mother is curious about her child's immunisations.

      When is the meningococcal C vaccine given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 months and 3 months

      Explanation:

      UK Immunisation Schedule and Meningococcal Serogroup C Vaccine

      We have provided a reference to the current UK immunisation schedule at the end of this text. It is a two-page A4 summary that we suggest you save and print for future reference. According to the schedule, the meningococcal serogroup C (MenC) vaccine is given to infants at one year old and as part of the MenACWY vaccine at age fourteen. However, the infant dose of MenC conjugate vaccine is no longer administered at three months of age.

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  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Romanian patient presents to the clinic with a two-day history of upper left gumline pain, accompanied by a loss of appetite and a temperature of 38.2ºC. On examination, there is tenderness over the gum, and a dental abscess is suspected. Urgent referral to a dentist is recommended, along with antibiotic therapy. What is the most appropriate antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics may be necessary in cases of fever or delayed presentation to a dentist. The BNF recommends amoxicillin as the first-line treatment for dental abscesses, followed by metronidazole for more invasive dental conditions.

      Since GPs have limited knowledge of dental issues, it is best for the patient to be treated by their dentist. The most effective treatment for an abscess is prompt drainage. Antibiotics are generally not recommended for healthy individuals unless there are signs of spreading infection or if the person is systemically unwell. According to NICE CKS guidelines, antibiotics should only be prescribed for severe infections (e.g. fever, lymphadenopathy, cellulitis, diffuse swelling) or for high-risk individuals (e.g. those who are immunocompromised, diabetic, or have valvular heart disease) to reduce the risk of complications.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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  • Question 58 - A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student has a 5-day history of fever and sore throat that has not responded to penicillin. On examination his temperature is 38.8 °C, he has grey plaques on his tonsils, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. You ask for a Monospot® test (test for heterophile antibody).
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the heterophile antibody test.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may be negative early in the course of the disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Monospot® Test for Infectious Mononucleosis

      The Monospot® test is a rapid diagnostic tool used to detect infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. This test is based on the detection of heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to the virus. While the test is highly specific, it may not be sensitive during the incubation period or early stages of the illness. Additionally, the test doesn’t correlate with the severity of the disease and may not be positive after active infection has subsided.

      The Monospot® test relies on the agglutination of horse red blood cells by heterophile antibodies in the patient’s serum. An alternative test, the Paul-Bunnell test, uses sheep red blood cells. However, heterophile antibody tests may be less sensitive in children under 12 years of age and may produce false-negative results in young children and elderly patients. False-positive results may also occur due to other infections, malignancies, or connective tissue diseases.

      In summary, the Monospot® test is a useful tool for diagnosing infectious mononucleosis, but it should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical and laboratory findings.

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  • Question 59 - An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old, non-pregnant, asymptomatic woman with no past medical history is discovered to have >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli/ml urine during a routine health examination.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antibiotics are indicated

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria and Treatment Considerations

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common occurrence in non-pregnant women, affecting approximately 3% of the population. While it doesn’t require treatment as it poses no risk of morbidity or mortality, treatment may increase the frequency of symptomatic infections. However, treatment is necessary if there are comorbid factors such as diabetes, renal transplantation, invasive GU investigations, or a renal stone.

      Pregnancy is an absolute indication for treatment as asymptomatic bacteriuria increases the risk of pyelonephritis, pre-eclampsia, prematurity, and perinatal death. However, a single finding of asymptomatic bacteriuria is not an indication for renal tract investigation.

      For individuals with long-term urinary catheters in place, administering antibiotics may cause additional problems. These patients invariably have bacteriuria, and the bacteria may be more difficult to treat, leading to the development of a yeast infection. Therefore, treatment considerations should be carefully evaluated in such cases.

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  • Question 60 - An 80-year-old woman lives in a residential home in which some residents have...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman lives in a residential home in which some residents have influenza-like symptoms at the start of the influenza season. She has no chronic disease and no symptoms of influenza. The residents have not yet received seasonal influenza immunisation.
      What is the single most suitable immediate prophylactic measure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oseltamivir

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of influenza: A Summary of NICE Recommendations

      influenza is best prevented through vaccination, but in cases where the protective response is not quick enough, antiviral medications such as oseltamivir and zanamivir can be effective. These medications work by inhibiting viral neuraminidase and reducing the replication of influenza A and B viruses. They are most effective when started within a few hours of symptom onset and can reduce the duration of symptoms by about 1-1.5 days in otherwise healthy individuals.

      Oseltamivir and zanamivir are also recommended for at-risk patients, including the elderly and those with chronic disease, to reduce the risk of complications from influenza. In addition, they can be used for post-exposure prophylaxis when influenza is circulating in the community or in exceptional circumstances when vaccination doesn’t cover the infecting strain.

      It is important to note that amantadine is not recommended for the treatment or prevention of influenza. Overall, vaccination remains the most effective way to prevent illness from influenza, but antiviral medications can be a useful tool in certain situations.

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  • Question 61 - A 38-year-old accountant visits his doctor with complaints of constant fatigue. During routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old accountant visits his doctor with complaints of constant fatigue. During routine blood tests, abnormal liver function is detected, prompting a hepatitis screening. The test results are as follows:

      - Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
      - Negative for HBsAg
      - Positive for Anti-HBs
      - Negative for Anti-HBc
      - Positive for Anti-HCV

      What is the most likely interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination

      Explanation:

      To determine if a patient has cleared the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients are able to clear the infection on their own. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.

      When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and typically indicates acute disease lasting 1-6 months. If HBsAg is present for more than 6 months, it suggests chronic disease and infectivity. The presence of anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination, and is not present in chronic disease. Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasting for approximately 6 months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and appears as a result of the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 62 - A 29-year-old man returns from a 4-month voluntary placement teaching in Malawi. At...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man returns from a 4-month voluntary placement teaching in Malawi. At the end of his trip he spent 2 weeks on holiday on the shores of Lake Malawi. He tells you that he was quite well while on holiday, apart from severe pruritus, which he assumed was due to insect bites, but over the last 2 weeks he has had macroscopic haematuria. He has no other symptoms of note. His blood pressure is 120/80. He attended the nurse minor injuries unit over the previous weekend and was given trimethoprim with no obvious benefit.
      Select the single most appropriate initial management of this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request urine microscopy to exclude schistosomiasis

      Explanation:

      Schistosomiasis: A Parasitic Disease Endemic in Africa and Asia

      Schistosomiasis is a parasitic disease that is endemic in many parts of Africa and Asia. It is caused by trematodes that spend part of their life cycle in aquatic snails. The primary mode of infection in humans is through swimming or wading in water. The disease can cause haematuria or bloody diarrhoea, and in some cases, a systemic reaction known as Katayama fever.

      Chronic schistosomiasis can be difficult to diagnose as it may present months to years after exposure. It should be suspected in anyone with unexplained haematuria or bloody diarrhoea who has been exposed to water in endemic areas. If suspected, microscopy for eggs should be requested on urine or stool.

      Untreated schistosomiasis can lead to bladder cancer, strictures, chronic liver disease, portal hypertension, and pulmonary hypertension. Treatment is with praziquantel. Schistosomiasis is the third most prevalent parasitic disease in the world and has a significant impact on human health, second only to malaria among tropical diseases.

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  • Question 63 - The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.

      The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 64 - A 42-year-old man presents with a painful, red right eye, blurred vision, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a painful, red right eye, blurred vision, and photophobia. Vesicles are observed at the lid margins and fluorescein staining reveals a dendritic ulcer. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex

      Explanation:

      Eye Infections: Differentiating Herpes Simplex from Other Causes

      When it comes to eye infections, it’s important to differentiate between different causes in order to provide appropriate treatment. In the case of a man with features of herpes simplex eye infection, including keratitis and ulceration, it’s important to rule out other possibilities. Herpes zoster ophthalmicus is more common in older patients and presents with more widespread vesicles. Adenovirus, Staphylococcus aureus, and Streptococcus pneumoniae can all cause conjunctivitis, but do not typically present with the same symptoms as herpes simplex. It’s important to note that the absence of a dendritic ulcer doesn’t necessarily rule out a diagnosis of corneal herpes simplex, and referral should be considered if the presentation is otherwise suspicious.

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  • Question 65 - A 15-year-old boy has coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis and a rash suggestive of measles.
    Select...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy has coryzal symptoms, conjunctivitis and a rash suggestive of measles.
      Select the single correct statement regarding notification of this disease to the relevant public health authorities.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Notification can be made on clinical suspicion

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Speed and Accuracy in Notifying Infectious Diseases

      Infectious disease control relies on the prompt identification and containment of outbreaks. To achieve this, doctors are required to provide identifying information to the Proper Office of the Local Authority for patients with notifiable infectious diseases. However, laboratory staff are not currently obligated to do so. The notifications system prioritizes speed in detecting outbreaks, with accuracy of diagnosis being secondary. Salivary surveillance schemes exist for measles, mumps, and rubella, but recent data shows low incidence compared to the number of notifications submitted. Prompt and accurate notification is crucial in preventing the spread of infectious diseases.

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  • Question 66 - Which of the following individuals doesn't need the pneumococcal vaccine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following individuals doesn't need the pneumococcal vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40-year-old asthmatic using salbutamol and beclomethasone

      Explanation:

      According to the Green Book guidelines, only asthmatic patients who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system require the pneumococcal vaccine. However, since the angina patient is on beta-blockers, they should be given the vaccination. For more information, please refer to the provided link.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

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  • Question 67 - A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man seeks guidance on how to prevent motion sickness during a lengthy bus trip. Which medication is the most effective for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      The order of effectiveness for treating motion sickness is hyoscine, followed by cyclizine, and then promethazine.

      Understanding Motion Sickness and Its Management

      Motion sickness is a condition characterized by nausea and vomiting that occurs when there is a mismatch between what the eyes see and what the vestibular system senses. This discrepancy can happen when a person is in a moving vehicle, such as a car, boat, or plane. The brain receives conflicting signals from the eyes and the inner ear, which can lead to discomfort and other symptoms.

      To manage motion sickness, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends the use of hyoscine, which is available in a transdermal patch. However, this medication has limitations due to its side effects. Non-sedating antihistamines like cyclizine or cinnarizine are preferred over sedating preparations like promethazine. These medications can help alleviate the symptoms of motion sickness and make travel more comfortable for those who are prone to this condition.

      In summary, motion sickness is a common problem that affects many people during travel. By understanding the causes and symptoms of this condition, individuals can take steps to manage it effectively. With the right medication and other strategies, it is possible to reduce the discomfort and inconvenience of motion sickness and enjoy travel without any issues.

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  • Question 68 - A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes back from a two week business trip to Kenya. Six weeks after his return, he visits his GP with complaints of malaise, headaches, and night sweats. During the examination, the doctor observes a symmetrical erythematous macular rash on his trunk and limbs along with cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute HIV infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion

      HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.

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  • Question 69 - A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old man has been feeling sick for 10 days with fever, sore throat and lymphadenopathy. Choose from the options the one symptom that would indicate primary HIV infection over infectious mononucleosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maculopapular rash

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Primary HIV Infection: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Approximately 70% of individuals with HIV infection experience symptoms during seroconversion, but very few are diagnosed when seen in general practice. Early diagnosis is crucial for a better response to treatment. Primary HIV infection presents with symptoms resembling glandular fever, including fever, sweats, malaise, lethargy, anorexia, nausea, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, generalized lymphadenopathy, a macular erythematous truncal eruption, and thrombocytopenia. These symptoms start 2-6 weeks after exposure and usually resolve within two weeks, although it can take longer.

      The most specific features of primary HIV infection are a maculopapular or morbilliform rash affecting predominantly the upper part of the body and mucosal ulcers affecting the mouth and genital areas. In infectious mononucleosis, any rash is macular and very transient. Rash occurs in about 50% and ulcers in nearly 40% of patients. Less commonly, gastrointestinal symptoms predominate, including abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, hepatitis, and even gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Rare presentations include encephalopathy, pneumonitis, and rhabdomyolysis associated with acute renal failure. Sometimes, acute, severe immunosuppression may occur during the primary infection.

      When considering infectious mononucleosis, GPs need to think about HIV as well. It is also a possibility in patients with unexplained fever who have been in countries with high HIV prevalence. The diagnosis should be considered in patients presenting with a blotchy rash on the trunk, or oral or perianal ulcers, and if infections that can occur when the CD4 count drops (e.g., candidiasis or herpes zoster) are present.

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  • Question 70 - A 30-year-old woman has had frequency and dysuria for two days, but is...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has had frequency and dysuria for two days, but is otherwise well. Dipstick testing is positive for nitrites and blood.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim for 3 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Urinary Tract Infections

      Antibiotic treatment is effective in treating uncomplicated cystitis in women. Trimethoprim is the preferred drug for empirical treatment, but resistance can occur in 10-20% of Escherichia coli infections. Nitrofurantoin and cefalexin can be used as alternatives for patients who cannot take trimethoprim. The recommended treatment period for women is three days, while men should be treated for seven days.

      Amoxicillin is not routinely used due to its low effectiveness, with 50% of organisms being resistant. Cranberry juice and other cranberry products have no evidence to support their use in treating urinary tract infections.

      In summary, antibiotic treatment is the most effective option for treating urinary tract infections, with trimethoprim being the preferred drug for women. Treatment should be for no longer than three days in women and seven days in men. Amoxicillin and cranberry products are not recommended for routine use.

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  • Question 71 - A 28-year-old man is HIV positive but in the stable phase of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is HIV positive but in the stable phase of the disease.
      What is the most suitable marker for monitoring his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD4 lymphocyte count

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of CD4 Lymphocyte Count in HIV-related Immune Impairment

      The CD4 lymphocyte count, also known as T-helper cell count, is a crucial indicator of immune impairment in individuals with HIV. While CD4 counts can vary even in the absence of HIV infection, a fall in the count to below 200/mm3 without antiretroviral treatment can increase the risk of opportunistic infections by 80% over three years. However, some patients with stable low CD4 counts can remain well for several years, and this variability is partly explained by differences in HIV viral load.

      The level of CD4 lymphopenia determines the potential spectrum of infections, with certain infections such as oral candidiasis and pneumocystis pneumonia being more frequent at CD4 counts of 100-200/mm3, while others like disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection and cytomegalovirus retinitis are rarely seen until the CD4 count drops below 50/mm3.

      While plasma HIV RNA levels strongly predict progression to AIDS and death, regular monitoring of CD4 counts is usually sufficient. Anti-HIV IgG is also used in the diagnosis of HIV infection. Understanding the importance of CD4 lymphocyte count in HIV-related immune impairment is crucial for effective management and treatment of the disease.

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  • Question 72 - Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause pseudomembranous colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefaclor

      Explanation:

      C.difficile is strongly associated with cephalosporins, in addition to clindamycin.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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  • Question 73 - A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old immigrant from India presents with fever, night sweats, backache, weight loss, chronic cough, and hemoptysis. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Tuberculosis in the UK: Risk Factors and Diagnosis

      Tuberculosis (TB) remains a significant public health concern in the UK, with 8587 cases reported in 2010. Pulmonary TB is the most common form, accounting for 60% of cases. Certain groups are at higher risk, including those who have had close contact with a TB patient, ethnic minorities, homeless individuals, alcoholics and drug abusers, HIV-positive and immunocompromised patients, elderly individuals, young children, and those with other underlying health conditions. TB can be difficult to diagnose, as primary infection is often asymptomatic and secondary infection can present with nonspecific symptoms. A high level of suspicion is necessary to identify TB in at-risk patients.

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  • Question 74 - What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine

      Explanation:

      The live vaccine for influenza is administered intranasally.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 75 - A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholera

      Explanation:

      Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention

      Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.

      Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.

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  • Question 76 - A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male presents with a purulent urethral discharge. A sample of the discharge reveals a Gram-negative diplococcus, but sensitivities are not yet available. What is the most suitable initial antimicrobial therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone stat dose

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, while ciprofloxacin should only be considered if the organism is confirmed to be susceptible, as resistance is becoming more common. Penicillin, which was previously the preferred treatment, is now seldom used due to widespread resistance.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 77 - A 5-year-old girl has had a spasmodic cough for 6 weeks. It is...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has had a spasmodic cough for 6 weeks. It is often followed by a vomit and a whooping sound sometimes accompanies the first inspiration following the coughing spasm. She doesn't seem ill and the lungs sound clear on auscultation. She has had courses of amoxicillin and erythromycin. Most of her immunisations in infancy were missed.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the parents that the cough may last 100 days and nothing will influence it

      Explanation:

      Whooping Cough: Symptoms, Treatment, and Risks for Infants

      Whooping cough, caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis, is a highly contagious respiratory disease that can cause persistent coughing for up to 2-3 months. Commonly known as the 100 days’ cough, this disease is particularly severe in infants, with about 50% of cases requiring hospitalization.

      While antibiotics do not alter the course of the disease, erythromycin, clarithromycin, or azithromycin can help reduce the period of infectivity when given for 7-14 days. Codeine linctus is often prescribed, but there is no evidence for its effectiveness.

      It is important to note that the severity of whooping cough is related to the age of the patient, with morbidity and mortality being greatest in infants under 6 months of age. Therefore, it is crucial to take preventative measures, such as vaccination, and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.

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  • Question 78 - You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with...

    Incorrect

    • You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with lower respiratory tract infections. He has lost weight and appears pale and gaunt. During your consultation, you inquire about his travel history and any potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections. The patient confesses to having unprotected sexual intercourse with a sex worker while on a business trip to Thailand a few years ago when his marriage was going through a rough patch. Since then, he has reconciled with his wife and she has been his only sexual partner. With the patient's consent, you conduct a blood test to screen for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which comes back positive. You discuss the implications of the result with the patient, but he insists that he cannot disclose this information to his wife, who is also a patient at your practice. What is your course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the patient an opportunity to tell his wife and if he doesn't then inform him that it is your duty to inform her

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to patient confidentiality and when it is acceptable to breach it. Specifically, if a patient has been diagnosed with a serious communicable disease, there is a risk of transmission to another patient. According to GMC guidelines, it is permissible to disclose information to a sexual partner of a patient with a sexually transmitted serious communicable disease if the patient has not informed them and cannot be convinced to do so. However, the patient should be informed before the disclosure is made, if possible and safe to do so. Any decision to disclose personal information without consent must be justified. Therefore, in this scenario, if the patient refuses to inform their spouse, it is appropriate to inform the spouse after informing the patient of the decision. It is important to follow professional guidelines in such situations, and other options would not be appropriate.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

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  • Question 79 - A phlebotomist in the hospital sustains a needlestick injury whilst taking blood from...

    Incorrect

    • A phlebotomist in the hospital sustains a needlestick injury whilst taking blood from a patient who is known to be HIV positive. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 80 - A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has pyrexia of unknown origin. She has recently been in Africa. The laboratory reports that she has Plasmodium falciparum infection.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding Plasmodium falciparum infection.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chemoprophylaxis is not a guarantee against infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Malaria: Symptoms, Severity, and Prevention

      Malaria is a parasitic infection that can be transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes. The symptoms and severity of malaria can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection.

      Plasmodium falciparum is the most severe form of malaria and can cause impaired consciousness, fits, renal failure, hypoglycemia, bleeding, and even death. Other types of malaria, such as P. vivax and P. ovale, may not present symptoms until months or even years after exposure.

      The classic symptom of malaria is a cyclical occurrence of sudden coldness, followed by rigor, fever, and sweating lasting about 2 hours or more. The frequency of these cycles can vary depending on the type of parasite causing the infection. P. vivax and P. ovale infections typically occur every 2 days, while P. malariae infections occur every 3 days. P. falciparum infections can cause recurrent fever every 36-48 hours or a less pronounced and almost continuous fever.

      Severe cases of malaria can lead to renal failure, jaundice, and even death. However, the use of effective chemoprophylaxis and insecticide-treated nets can prevent up to 90% of malaria cases. Travelers should be encouraged to use appropriate prophylaxis for their travel itinerary, but it’s important to note that this is not a guarantee against infection.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, severity, and prevention of malaria is crucial in protecting oneself from this potentially deadly infection.

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  • Question 81 - A 55-year-old man presents with pyrexia, urinary frequency, dysuria and pelvic discomfort. Examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with pyrexia, urinary frequency, dysuria and pelvic discomfort. Examination reveals a tender prostate. A urine dipstick test shows white blood cells.
      What is the most appropriate first-line management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Prostatitis: Antibiotics and Pain Relief

      Acute prostatitis is a bacterial infection of the prostate gland that can cause pain, fever, and difficulty urinating. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends starting antibiotics immediately while waiting for urine culture results. Quinolones like ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin are preferred over trimethoprim because they are effective against a wider range of urinary pathogens. Treatment for at least four weeks is recommended to prevent chronic prostatitis. In severe cases, hospital admission or referral may be necessary. Pain relief with paracetamol and/or ibuprofen may also be necessary. Some authorities recommend α-blocker therapy like tamsulosin to improve outflow obstruction, but it is not first-line management. If quinolones cannot be taken, trimethoprim may be used as an off-label option.

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  • Question 82 - A 28-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of loose stools, nausea, and vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of loose stools, nausea, and vomiting for the past 72 hours after attending a recent barbecue. He denies having bloody diarrhea and is able to tolerate oral fluids. He has no significant medical history and appears to be in good health. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 126/78 mmHg and a heart rate of 64 beats per minute, with no signs of dehydration. He works in the finance industry.

      As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action for primary care management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and encourage increased fluid intake, with oral rehydration sachets if needed. No further investigations necessary unless symptoms persist

      Explanation:

      In most cases of acute, watery diarrhoea, stool cultures are not necessary, according to the current NICE CKS guidance. Treatment for gastroenteritis typically involves encouraging increased fluid intake and oral rehydration sachets, unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Stool specimens should only be sent if the patient is systemically unwell, has blood or pus in their stool, is immunocompromised, has a recent history of hospitalization or antibiotic treatment, has recently traveled to a foreign country outside of Western Europe, North America, Australia, or New Zealand, or if there is uncertainty about the diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Antibiotics are not typically recommended for healthy adults with acute diarrhoea of unknown cause.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 83 - A 7-year-old boy has pruritus ani. His mother has noticed what look like...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy has pruritus ani. His mother has noticed what look like tiny pieces of cotton moving on his stool and around his anus.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mebendazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Threadworm: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Threadworm, also known as pinworm or enterobiasis, is a common nematode infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis. This infection is exclusive to humans and doesn’t affect family pets. Female worms lay eggs outside the anus, causing irritation and discomfort. The eggs can easily spread through contaminated hands, food, clothing, and bedding, leading to re-infection.

      Diagnosing threadworm involves examining adhesive tape applied to the anal area under a microscope, as stool examination is only positive in 5% of cases. Asymptomatic infection is common, so it is recommended that the entire family be treated together. Mebendazole is the preferred drug for treating threadworm in adults and children over 2 years old. It is given as a single oral dose and repeated after 2-3 weeks in case of re-infection. Piperazine, licensed for use in children as young as 3 months, paralyzes the worms but doesn’t kill them. It is often combined with senna as a powder (Pripsen) to expel the worms and is given as a single dose, repeated after 14 days.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of threadworm is crucial in preventing the spread of this common infection.

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  • Question 84 - A 42-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic with complaints of rectal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male accountant presents to the clinic with complaints of rectal pain, tenesmus, and cramping during bowel movements. Four years ago, he traveled to Thailand for a vacation and had unprotected sex with a sex worker. A few weeks later, he noticed a sore on his penis and tenderness in his left groin, which eventually resolved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum

      Explanation:

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is commonly found in tropical regions and typically presents with a painless genital papule or pustule that later ulcerates. Within 2 to 6 weeks, unilateral painful lymphadenopathy develops. If left untreated, LGV can progress to proctocolitis or even systemic illness.

      African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, is caused by the protist Trypanosoma brucei. It is spread by the tsetse fly and is not sexually transmitted. It presents with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and severe neurological complications.

      Genital herpes typically results in multiple painful genital ulcers, which is different from the solitary painless genital sores associated with LGV.

      Chancroid is an STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It also results in genital ulceration and painful inguinal lymphadenopathy, but the ulcers are painful (unlike LGV) and are more likely to be multiple. Chancroid is also unlikely to progress to proctocolitis.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

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  • Question 85 - Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women...

    Incorrect

    • Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Listeriosis

      Explanation:

      Antenatal Screening in the UK: HIV, Listeriosis, Strep B, Hepatitis B and Haemoglobinopathies

      Antenatal screening is an important part of prenatal care in the UK. HIV testing is routinely offered to pregnant women, as appropriate interventions can reduce transmission rates to less than 1%. Listeriosis, although not routinely tested for, is a concern for pregnant women as it can cause pregnancy and birth complications, and even result in miscarriage or the death of the baby. Strep B is also not routinely tested for, but pregnant women with risk factors should be screened as the infection can be life-threatening for newborns. Hepatitis B is part of routine screening, but Hepatitis C is only tested for in women with risk factors. Finally, screening for haemoglobinopathies varies across the UK, with all women in England and Scotland offered screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia, while in Wales only those at increased risk are screened and in Northern Ireland no policy decision has been made. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these screening options and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 86 - Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

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  • Question 87 - A 55-year-old sewage worker complains of feeling unwell and having a fever for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old sewage worker complains of feeling unwell and having a fever for the past week. What symptom would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of leptospirosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Productive cough

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis can lead to pulmonary complications, particularly in cases of severe and advanced disease. These complications may include acute respiratory distress syndrome or pulmonary haemorrhage. The RCGP Curriculum for 2019 includes zoonotic diseases such as brucellosis and leptospirosis in its Knowledge and Skills guide.

      Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Early and Late Phases

      Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often associated with certain occupations such as sewage workers, farmers, and vets, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases: an early phase characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever, and a later immune phase that can lead to more severe symptoms such as acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, but treatment typically involves high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline.

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  • Question 88 - Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who presents with skin changes on her left...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who presents with skin changes on her left lower leg. During examination, Samantha has a low-grade fever and the left lower leg is erythematous, mildly swollen, and warm to touch. The diagnosis is cellulitis, and since Samantha is allergic to penicillin, you prescribe a course of oral clarithromycin.

      One week later, Samantha returns with new palpitations. What potential side effect of this antibiotic can be observed on an ECG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Macrolides have been known to cause QT interval prolongation, which can lead to palpitations as an uncommon side effect. On the other hand, a shortened PR interval may indicate pre-excitation or an AV nodal (junctional) rhythm, while a prolonged PR interval suggests delayed conduction of the sinoatrial nodal impulse to the ventricles, also known as first-degree AV block. Prominent P waves, on the other hand, are typically caused by right atrial enlargement due to various factors such as chronic lung disease, tricuspid stenosis, congenital heart disease, or primary pulmonary hypertension.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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  • Question 89 - A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with painful genital ulcers a few weeks after a trip to Kenya.

      On examination, he has multiple eroded genital ulcers, as well as a tender, enlarged lymph node present in the right inguinal region. He is systemically well.

      Swabs of a genital ulcer are taken and a sexually-transmitted infection screen is performed. The results are shown below.

      NAAT test: negative
      Swab culture: Haemophilus ducreyi grown

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection that causes genital ulcers in tropical regions. The ulcers are multiple, have ragged edges, and a granular base. Painful, unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy may also be present. The bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi is responsible for this condition.

      Syphilis, on the other hand, is caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. Chancres, which are similar to chancroid ulcers, are painless, singular lesions with bilateral lymphadenopathy. They can heal without treatment.

      Herpes simplex virus types 1 and 2 are common causes of sexually transmitted ulceration in the UK.

      Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It presents with a singular, painless ulcer that resolves spontaneously.

      Klebsiella granulomatis is responsible for granuloma inguinale, which presents with painless genital ulceration and inguinal node abscesses.

      Understanding Chancroid

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.

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  • Question 90 - A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharge with a foul...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy vaginal discharge with a foul odor that began 1 week ago. She experiences dysuria and dyspareunia. During examination, her vagina appears erythematous.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vaginal Discharge: Causes and Symptoms

      Vaginal discharge is a common occurrence in women, but it can sometimes indicate an underlying health issue. The most common causes of vaginal discharge are physiological, bacterial vaginosis, and candidal infections. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by the anaerobe Gardnerella vaginalis, which disrupts the normal vaginal flora. It causes a thin, profuse, and fishy-smelling discharge without itch or soreness. Candidiasis results in a thick, white, non-offensive discharge, which is associated with vulval itch and soreness. It may cause mild dyspareunia and external dysuria.

      Sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas vaginalis can also cause purulent vaginal discharge. These infections may be asymptomatic, making it difficult to differentiate between them without laboratory testing. T. vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that causes an offensive yellow vaginal discharge, which is often profuse and frothy. It is associated with vulval itch and soreness, dysuria, abdominal pain, and superficial dyspareunia. A pelvic examination may reveal red blotches on the vaginal wall or cervix, and the labia may be swollen.

      It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of vaginal discharge to identify any potential health issues and seek appropriate treatment. Regular gynecological check-ups and practicing safe sex can help prevent and manage vaginal discharge.

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  • Question 91 - A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary care to seek prophylactic antibiotics. Her brother, with whom she shares a home, has been hospitalized with symptoms of meningococcal meningitis. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin are the recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis in close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis, particularly those living in the same household. It is important to administer the prophylactic antibiotics as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Amoxicillin is not used for prophylaxis in close contacts, but may be used in combination with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone to treat bacterial meningitis in hospitalized patients over 50 years old. Benzylpenicillin and cefotaxime are not used as prophylactic treatments for close contacts, but are used to treat suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 92 - A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman had unprotected sex after an office party 4 days ago. She is currently taking antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. She has intense difficulty passing urine, accompanied by burning, itching and pain over her labia. On examination there is a crop of vesicles and erosions on her vulva.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex infection (HSV-2)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Infection: Types, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Herpes simplex infection is caused by two viral subtypes, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 is commonly associated with oral or facial infections, while HSV-2 is mainly responsible for genital infections. After primary infection, the virus enters nerve endings in the skin and remains latent until reactivated. Symptoms usually appear 3-7 days after contact and may include a low-grade fever and general malaise. At the site of infection, symptoms include pain, burning, itching, and tingling, with the presence of groups of vesicles surrounded by erythema. These lesions usually ulcerate and crust over within 48 hours, lasting between 2 and 6 weeks without scarring. Women may experience urinary retention due to associated pain. Recurrent infection may occur due to fatigue, stress, local skin trauma, exposure to sunlight, or the menstrual cycle. Treatment involves the use of antiviral agents such as aciclovir, and prophylactic use of oral antiviral therapy may reduce the frequency and severity of recurrent infection.

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  • Question 93 - A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife...

    Incorrect

    • A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife who has been admitted to the hospital with the disease. He seeks advice on the most suitable prophylactic medication.
      What is the most appropriate drug for prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases

      Public Health England recommends ciprofloxacin as the preferred antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of meningococcal disease in all age groups, including pregnant women. Ciprofloxacin has advantages over rifampicin, such as being a single-dose medication, not interfering with oral contraceptives, and being more easily accessible in community pharmacies. However, it should not be used in patients with ciprofloxacin hypersensitivity. Although historically not recommended for children due to the risk of arthropathy, studies have shown that the risk is low and transient.

      Co-trimoxazole is the drug of choice for prophylaxis and treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, as well as toxoplasmosis and nocardiasis. Vancomycin can be used orally to treat Clostridium difficile infection, with metronidazole as an alternative. Ceftriaxone can be used for prophylaxis of meningococcal and Haemophilus influenza type b disease, but its use is unlicensed and requires intramuscular administration. Benzylpenicillin is given intravenously or intramuscularly in the prehospital treatment of patients with suspected meningococcal disease.

      Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases

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  • Question 94 - A 32-year-old man with a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency visits his doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency visits his doctor complaining of symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infection. The physician prescribes an antibiotic. After a few days, the man's partner notices that he appears pale and jaundiced and is feeling unwell. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Haemolysis in G6PD is caused by the sulfamethoxazole component of co-trimoxazole, not by the trimethoprim component.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

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  • Question 95 - Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough,...

    Incorrect

    • Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough, fever, and general malaise. They had traveled with a group of 60 people and participated in activities such as hiking in the mountains and swimming in rivers. The group stayed in various hotels, but the four patients who fell ill all stayed in the same hotel. Based on this information, what is the most probable organism responsible for their illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires’ Disease: A Deadly Outbreak

      Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. The condition was first described in a veterans’ legion conference, where a group of attendees became ill with similar symptoms. The disease is often linked to contaminated air conditioning units, which can spread the bacteria through the air.

      Symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease include fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, and headaches. In severe cases, the disease can lead to respiratory failure, septic shock, and even death. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms, especially if you have been exposed to a potential source of Legionella bacteria.

      It is important to note that Weil’s disease and Lyme disease are unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms described in this scenario. Weil’s disease is caused by a different type of bacteria, while Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks.

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  • Question 96 - A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis is planning a 4-week holiday to a remote jungle region of Asia. She has completed her childhood vaccination programme and received a polio booster six years ago. However, she has heard that she requires further travel vaccinations. Her travel agent has suggested the items below, but she is a bit concerned about the safety of these given her medical history.
      Which vaccine would be contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Considerations for Immunocompromised Individuals

      Live vaccines, such as rubella, measles, mumps, BCG, yellow fever, and oral polio vaccine, should not be administered to individuals who are immunocompromised. However, the hepatitis, typhoid Vi, and tetanus vaccines, which are formaldehyde-inactivated virus, polysaccharide antigen, and adsorbed toxoid, respectively, pose no risk to these individuals. Although their efficacy may be reduced in immunocompromised individuals, inactivated polio vaccine is available if needed. It is important to note that polio has been eradicated in the Americas since 1991. The main concern for immunocompromised individuals is the yellow fever vaccine.

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  • Question 97 - A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a 3-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought in by his parents with a 3-week history of violent paroxysms of coughing that end in an inspiratory whoop. He often vomits with the coughing attacks. He and his parents are exhausted.

      Select from the list the single correct statement about whooping cough.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coughing may last up to 100 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Pertussis

      Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. Treatment with antibiotics can reduce the infectivity of the disease, but it doesn’t shorten the duration of the illness. Macrolide antibiotics are the preferred treatment for pertussis.

      Immunization is the most effective way to prevent pertussis. However, the vaccine provides only 95% protection and relies on a degree of herd immunity. Infants less than 6 months old and any unwell child should be admitted to the hospital for treatment.

      If left untreated, pertussis can lead to complications such as bronchiectasis and pneumonia. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or your child has pertussis. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of the disease and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 98 - A 6-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a fever and headache. Upon examination, the child appears ill, with a central capillary refill of 4 seconds, a heart rate of 150 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 45 breaths/min, a temperature of 38ºC, and a non-blanching rash on his right leg and torso.

      What is the recommended course of action for the parents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 99 - A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fever, dry cough, chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fever, dry cough, chest pain and worsening shortness of breath. He experienced a mild headache, myalgia and malaise the day before. He has been healthy in recent weeks and works as an air conditioning system installer and repairer. There are no known underlying medical conditions. What is the most probable causative organism for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Legionella species

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Pneumonia: A Case Study

      Pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be caused by various pathogens. In this case study, the patient presents with symptoms of high fever, chills, rigours, and a cough. To determine the cause of the pneumonia, different pathogens are considered.

      Legionella species is a possible cause, as it is commonly found in recirculating water systems and can be transmitted through inhalation of contaminated water droplets. However, the patient doesn’t have any known exposure to such systems.

      Staphylococcus aureus is another potential cause, but the patient doesn’t have any risk factors for staphylococcal pneumonia, which typically occurs in immunosuppressed individuals or intravenous drug users.

      Chlamydia psittaci is unlikely, as the patient has not been exposed to birds, which is a common source of infection.

      Mycoplasma spp. is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but the patient’s symptoms came on acutely, whereas mycoplasma pneumonia typically has a gradual onset.

      Pneumocystis jirovecii is also unlikely, as it is typically seen in immunosuppressed patients with a history of HIV.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors, Legionella species is a possible cause of pneumonia, but further testing is needed to confirm the diagnosis.

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  • Question 100 - A 42-year-old woman underwent a work medical and her 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) showed...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman underwent a work medical and her 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) showed a corrected QT interval (QTc) of 500 milliseconds. She has no symptoms and has a medical history of hypothyroidism, carpal tunnel syndrome, anxiety, and recurrent sinusitis. Which medication from her list is most likely responsible for the abnormal ECG finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolides, such as erythromycin and clarithromycin, has been associated with QT interval prolongation. Other antimicrobials like fluoroquinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin) and oral antifungals (e.g. fluconazole, ketoconazole) have also been implicated. Additionally, certain medications used for arrhythmias (e.g. amiodarone), psychiatric disorders (e.g. haloperidol), and depression (e.g. citalopram) can cause QT prolongation. However, doxycycline, propranolol, levothyroxine, and ibuprofen are not known to have this effect.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

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  • Question 101 - A 4-year old girl has the crusted lesions of impetigo on her face....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year old girl has the crusted lesions of impetigo on her face. What is the most frequent cause of impetigo?

      Input: can you provide a list of common treatments for impetigo?
      Output: Sure, here are some common treatments for impetigo:
      - Topical antibiotics, such as mupirocin or retapamulin
      - Oral antibiotics, such as penicillin or erythromycin
      - Keeping the affected area clean and covered
      - Soaking the affected area in warm water and applying compresses
      - Avoiding scratching or picking at the lesions to prevent spreading

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Impetigo: Causes and Types

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that can be divided into two types: non-bullous and bullous. Non-bullous impetigo is the more common type, accounting for about 70% of cases. It is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus, with Staphylococcus aureus being the more common organism. In developing nations and warm climates, however, Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus is still the more common cause.

      Bullous impetigo, on the other hand, is toxin-mediated and involves the sloughing off of the epidermal layer of the skin. It is exclusively caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      In summary, impetigo can be caused by different organisms and can present in different forms. Understanding the causes and types of impetigo is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 102 - A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute mountain sickness (AMS) during his upcoming Andes expedition. He specifically asks for advice other than gradual ascent. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (Diamox)

      Explanation:

      There is evidence to suggest that Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be effective in preventing AMS. It is worth noting that there seems to be a link between physical fitness and the likelihood of developing AMS.

      Altitude-related disorders are caused by chronic hypobaric hypoxia at high altitudes and can be classified into three types: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). AMS is a self-limiting condition that typically occurs above 2,500-3,000m and presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, and fatigue. Physical fitness may increase the risk of AMS, and gaining altitude at a rate of no more than 500m per day is recommended. Acetazolamide is a commonly used medication to prevent AMS, and descent is the recommended treatment.

      HAPE and HACE are potentially fatal conditions that affect a minority of people above 4,000m. HAPE presents with pulmonary edema symptoms, while HACE presents with headache, ataxia, and papilloedema. The management of both conditions involves descent and the use of medications such as dexamethasone and nifedipine for HAPE, and dexamethasone for HACE. Oxygen may also be used if available. The effectiveness of different treatments for these conditions has only been studied in small trials, but they all seem to work by reducing systolic pulmonary artery pressure.

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  • Question 103 - A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine presents with temperature of 38.5oC, headache, orchitis and unilateral parotitis.
      Select the single most appropriate initial response.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise symptomatic treatment only

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Mumps

      Mumps is a viral infection that is usually diagnosed clinically without the need for further investigations. However, in cases where meningitis is present without parotitis, mumps-specific antibodies in the serum can confirm the diagnosis. Salivary IgM against mumps can also be detected, but it may take several days for antibody levels to rise. If the initial test is negative, it is recommended to repeat the test.

      There is no specific treatment for mumps, but symptomatic relief can be achieved with paracetamol and ibuprofen. Meningism, which occurs in about 10% of patients, is usually mild and self-limiting, even without parotitis. Orchitis, which occurs in approximately 25% of post-pubertal men, can be mistaken for testicular torsion in someone of this age. However, based on the given symptoms, hospital admission is not necessary.

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  • Question 104 - A 49-year-old man with a severe cough and fever has blood taken for...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a severe cough and fever has blood taken for antibody titres when he fails to respond to amoxicillin. The results are shown below (CFT = complement fixation test).
      Chlamydia psittaci Ab (CFT) 1/10
      Coxiella burnetii (Q fever) phase 2 1/10
      influenza A antibody (CFT) 1/40
      influenza B antibody (CFT) 1/10
      Legionella antibody (CFT) 1/10
      Mycoplasma pneumoniae antibody (CFT) 1/640
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recent infection with Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serology Tests for Mycoplasma Pneumonia Infection

      Serology tests are used to detect antibodies in the blood that indicate the presence of an infection. In the case of Mycoplasma pneumonia, a positive result suggests an infection, but a second test is needed several weeks later to confirm this with a falling titre. The result is expressed as a dilution, with a larger denominator indicating a stronger antibody reaction. It’s important to note that antibody levels can remain raised for some time after the acute infection, which may explain the raised result for influenza A. Repeat serology is necessary to detect changing levels.

      To support the diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia, serology tests that demonstrate a 4-fold or greater increase or decrease in paired sera titres or a single titre greater than or equal to 1:32 are used. These tests include complement fixation, enzyme-linked immunoassay, and indirect hemagglutination. However, a sputum Gram stain is usually not helpful because M pneumonia lacks a cell wall and cannot be stained. Additionally, the bacteria is difficult to culture, requiring special culture media and up to 21 days to grow.

      In summary, serology tests are an important tool for detecting Mycoplasma pneumonia infection, but a second test and careful interpretation of results are necessary for accurate diagnosis.

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  • Question 105 - A 3-year-old girl has a temperature of 39.6ºC and a rash consisting of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl has a temperature of 39.6ºC and a rash consisting of numerous dusky pink macules and papules. She became unwell 6 days ago, when her mother noticed that she had a dry cough, red eyes and a temperature. The rash started 2 days ago, appearing on her face initially, but then spreading to the trunk and limbs. She was in contact with a girl with a similar rash 2 weeks ago. There is no significant past medical history. She had not received all her childhood immunisations because of parental concerns regarding vaccine safety.
      Select the single most likely cause of her rash.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measles virus

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Measles from Other Childhood Illnesses

      Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that typically presents with a prodrome of coryzal symptoms, dry cough, conjunctivitis, and fever before the appearance of a rash. Koplik’s spots may also be present on the buccal mucosa. However, other childhood illnesses can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Rubella, for example, has a longer incubation period and is typically milder with no significant respiratory symptoms. Parvovirus B19 can mimic rubella with its slapped-cheek appearance. Infectious mononucleosis may present with a sore throat and lymphadenopathy, but any rash is fine and transient. Mumps may rarely cause a rash, but other symptoms are more prominent. It is crucial to accurately diagnose these illnesses to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further spread of infection.

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  • Question 106 - A 14-year-old girl has measles.
    Select from the list the single most likely complication....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl has measles.
      Select from the list the single most likely complication.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Complications and Risks Associated with Measles Infection

      Measles infection can lead to various complications and risks, including bronchopneumonia, lobar pneumonia, encephalitis, and hepatitis. Bronchopneumonia is the most common cause of death, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or secondary viral infections. Lobar pneumonia, on the other hand, is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. Other bacterial infections such as cervical adenitis and otitis media can also occur. Close follow-up is necessary for patients with measles.

      Borderline vitamin A deficiency increases the risk of death and blindness from measles. The World Health Organization recommends high-dose vitamin A for all children with measles in countries where the case fatality rate is greater than 1%. Encephalitis and hepatitis are rare complications.

      Lymphopenia, a condition characterized by low levels of lymphocytes, is a common effect of measles infection. Infants and adults may experience delayed recovery from this condition, and immunodeficiency can persist for several weeks even after lymphocyte counts have returned to normal. This is believed to be a significant contributor to the high all-cause mortality rate following acute measles worldwide.

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  • Question 107 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant is planning to travel with her husband to the Middle East and South America for his job. She wants to know which vaccinations are safe to receive during pregnancy.

      Which of the following vaccinations can be given without significant risk to the woman and her developing fetus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations for Travelers

      Hepatitis A and B vaccinations are made from viral antigens and do not contain any living hepatitis virus component. For individuals traveling to countries with a high risk of hepatitis A, vaccination may be recommended. However, it is important to note that the other vaccines listed, such as polio, are live vaccinations. The polio vaccine can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection, depending on the preparation used. It is crucial for travelers to consult with a healthcare professional to determine which vaccinations are necessary for their specific travel plans.

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  • Question 108 - A 6-year-old girl is hospitalized with symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is hospitalized with symptoms of fever, headache, and neck stiffness, and is diagnosed with pneumococcal meningitis. There have been no other cases of meningitis reported in the area in the past month. What is the recommended approach for managing the close contacts of this girl?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action is needed

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic prophylaxis is usually unnecessary for the carriage of pneumococcus, as it is a prevalent occurrence. However, in the event of a cluster of cases, exceptions may apply. For further information, please refer to the HPA link.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

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  • Question 109 - A 35-year-old teacher presents to your clinic. She experienced upper respiratory symptoms during...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents to your clinic. She experienced upper respiratory symptoms during the COVID-19 pandemic in March 2020 and subsequently tested positive for the virus. Her dyspnea gradually worsened, and she was hospitalized ten days into her illness. She received oxygen therapy and was discharged one week later. She has been off work for three months since the onset of her symptoms and has interacted with several colleagues during this time. She now comes to you nine months after the onset of her symptoms, complaining of persistent fatigue. On physical examination, everything appears normal. Her chest X-ray, lung function tests, electrocardiogram, full blood count, and thyroid function tests are all normal, and she has been discharged from the care of respiratory physicians. How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consider that she could be suffering with psychological effects following her illness

      Explanation:

      Dealing with Uncertainty in Long Covid Management

      Dealing with uncertainty can be challenging for both patients and clinicians, especially in a rapidly evolving field like long covid management. It is unlikely that candidates will be tested on precise details that may change between question setting and the exam. Instead, questions may focus on the management of conditions that are poorly understood or the more reliable do not dos.

      One important point to note is that there is no reliable evidence to support prescribing steroids or antivirals for suspected long covid, especially by a generalist. At least 10% of people with acute covid-19 may experience symptoms that persist for months, and recovery timescales can vary. There is no set date by which patients should have settled, and there is no evidence that patients are infectious at this stage of the disease.

      It is also important to consider psychological illness as a potential factor in long covid management. Clinicians should keep an open mind about this when evaluating patients, while also being alert to alternative diagnoses and investigating where appropriate. By staying informed and adaptable, clinicians can better navigate the uncertainties of long covid management.

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  • Question 110 - A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to your clinic with an 8-hour history of a red and painful leg. He sustained a cut while jogging in the park. Upon examination, his left leg is warm and tender. You diagnose him with cellulitis and inquire about any allergies. He reports having a widespread rash to amoxicillin in the past. What antibiotic would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have cellulitis can receive clarithromycin, erythromycin (during pregnancy), or doxycycline. Penicillins are known to cause allergies, and current guidelines recommend clarithromycin for patients with cellulitis who are allergic to penicillin. Clindamycin is an alternative, but it has more adverse effects than clarithromycin. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav contain penicillin, and ceftriaxone is not used for cellulitis. Although ciprofloxacin can be given to children with varicella who have cellulitis and are allergic to penicillin, it is not appropriate for this patient.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 111 - A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on a long-haul flight 4 weeks ago. He is experiencing a persistent productive cough, haemoptysis and night sweats.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Persistent cough, haemoptysis, night sweats, and fever are classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB), which accounts for 60% of respiratory cases in the UK. Acute bronchitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a viral infection and resolves without treatment within three weeks. Lung cancer may present with productive cough and haemoptysis, but the patient’s age and immigrant status make TB more likely. Pulmonary embolism is a minor risk factor in this case, and whooping cough is a respiratory tract infection that affects both children and adults. Paroxysmal coughing followed by a whoop is a characteristic feature of whooping cough. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when making a differential diagnosis of respiratory symptoms.

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  • Question 112 - A six-year-old girl comes to your clinic accompanied by her father. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A six-year-old girl comes to your clinic accompanied by her father. He reports that she had a fever, runny nose, and headache a few days ago, but now those symptoms have disappeared. However, he is worried about her flushed cheeks and suspects it might be slapped cheek syndrome.

      What is the recommended duration for her to stay away from school?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is not necessary to be excluded from school

      Explanation:

      If a child is healthy and has the common rash associated with slapped cheek syndrome, there is no need to exclude them from school as they are no longer contagious once the rash appears. This advice comes from Public Health England.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a type of DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to other parts of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but it may recur for some months after exposure to triggers such as warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is no longer infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, or aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which may lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities such as ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions. This condition is called hydrops fetalis and is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that parvovirus B19 can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, school exclusion is unnecessary.

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  • Question 113 - A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old homeless alcoholic man has had a chronic productive cough for 6 weeks with purulent sputum, anorexia and weight loss. He sleeps rough and in hostels. You suspect he may have tuberculosis.
      Select the single correct statement concerning diagnostic procedures for tuberculosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three spontaneous sputum samples should be sent for culture and microscopy

      Explanation:

      To definitively diagnose tuberculosis, a sample of the patient’s sputum must be cultured to detect the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. At least three spontaneous sputum samples should be collected and stained with Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain for rapid direct microscopy. Culture on a Löwenstein-Jensen slope takes several weeks, and antibiotic sensitivity testing takes even longer. If sputum samples cannot be obtained, bronchoscopy and lavage or gastric washings can be considered. Treatment can be started without culture results if there are signs and symptoms of tuberculosis.

      Mantoux skin testing is used to screen for latent tuberculosis in close contacts of patients with active TB. However, as the test may be positive in patients who have had BCG vaccine, interferon-γ is recommended as a second-line test. A chest X-ray may also be ordered to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis in a person with a positive skin test and no symptoms. Abnormalities on the X-ray may not always be diagnostic of tuberculosis.

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  • Question 114 - A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that started 24 hours ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient denies any blood in their stool and has not traveled abroad recently. The patient mentions consuming rice that was kept warm in a rice cooker for multiple days. What is the probable causative agent responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this young man is suffering from toxigenic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, which is known to occur after consuming reheated rice. The spores of Bacillus cereus germinate in cooked rice and produce toxins if the cooked product is not adequately chilled. While S. aureus can also cause toxigenic food poisoning, the specific history of this case makes it less likely to be the underlying organism. Norwalk virus, on the other hand, can cause severe diarrhea and vomiting, but it is not associated with any particular food items. Bacterial food poisoning caused by Campylobacter and Shigella typically involves a longer history of bloody diarrhea.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 115 - A 54-year-old businessman returns from a recent trip to the Philippines and presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old businessman returns from a recent trip to the Philippines and presents with symptoms of diarrhoea, flu-like illness, and a rash on his trunk. He also has cervical lymphadenopathy and a widespread maculopapular rash. On examination, his vital signs are stable. What investigation would be most helpful in determining the cause of his illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and timing of this man’s illness suggest that he may be experiencing HIV seroconversion illness. Although he may have contracted a gastrointestinal infection while traveling, this is unlikely to account for his rash and swollen lymph nodes.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion

      HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.

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  • Question 116 - A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man has been hospitalized due to multiple injuries sustained during a mugging on his way back from the bar last night. The assailant bit him during the altercation, leaving deep bite marks on his hand, which appears red and swollen. You decide to administer tetanus and hepatitis B prophylaxis.

      What antibiotic do you recommend for his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is the appropriate treatment for human bites, similar to animal bites. In case the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole can be used. However, since there is no mention of any allergies, we assume that the patient has none. Waiting for the swab results is not the correct approach. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for various conditions, including hand/foot/facial injuries, deep puncture wounds, wounds requiring surgical debridement, wounds involving joints/tendons/ligaments, suspected fractures, and patients who are immunosuppressed, diabetic, cirrhotic, asplenic, or elderly. Antibiotic treatment is necessary for infected bites, which is the case here as the bite appears red, swollen, and is on the hand. Cellulitis, on the other hand, is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.

      On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.

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  • Question 117 - A 24-year old health care assistant, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old health care assistant, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with a needle-stick injury that occurred on Saturday evening. She has just been informed that the patient who caused the injury has tested positive for HIV and is seeking guidance.

      What advice would you offer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediately start post-exposure prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Fortunately, Helena falls within the 72-hour window period for commencing post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV, and as such, she should start PEP without delay.

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 118 - Liam is a 22-year-old man who has tested positive for gonorrhoea from a...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 22-year-old man who has tested positive for gonorrhoea from a urethral swab taken last week. Despite being advised to attend a sexual health clinic, he is unwilling to do so and has requested that you prescribe him treatment.

      He has a fear of needles and refuses intramuscular ceftriaxone.

      What is the most suitable alternative oral regimen available?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefixime and azithromycin

      Explanation:

      When treating patients with gonorrhoea, a combination of oral cefixime and oral azithromycin is typically used if the patient refuses an intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone. However, NICE recommends that gonorrhoea should only be treated in primary care if specialist services are not available within a reasonable timeframe or if the patient chooses not to attend despite receiving appropriate information and advice.

      If uncomplicated anogenital gonorrhoea needs to be treated in primary care, a single dose of ceftriaxone 1g intramuscular injection is the preferred option. However, alternative regimens may be necessary if the patient has an allergy, needle phobia, or other contraindications. In such cases, cefixime orally as a single dose plus azithromycin orally is recommended.

      It’s important to note that azithromycin resistance is high, and the clinical efficacy of azithromycin doesn’t always correlate with in vitro susceptibility testing. Therefore, a single oral dose of azithromycin would not be the most appropriate option.

      While doxycycline, erythromycin, and ofloxacin are all possible choices for treating chlamydia, they are not effective in treating gonorrhoea.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

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  • Question 119 - You are asked to visit a nursing home where a 90-year-old man has...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to visit a nursing home where a 90-year-old man has diarrhoea and vomiting. When you see the patient, he has symptoms suggestive of norovirus infection.
      Select the single most appropriate management option in this situation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barrier-nurse in isolation within the residential home

      Explanation:

      Understanding Norovirus: Symptoms, Transmission, and Control Measures

      Norovirus is a highly contagious virus that causes diarrhoea and vomiting. It spreads rapidly through person-to-person contact, aerosol, and contact with infected vomit or stool. The symptoms typically include diarrhoea and vomiting with fever and abdominal cramps, and the illness usually lasts for 12-60 hours.

      Outbreaks of norovirus are common in restricted environments such as hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. To prevent the spread of the virus, patients should be barrier-nursed and treated with fluid replacement and symptomatic treatment. It is important to note that these patients should not be admitted to hospitals unless absolutely necessary due to the highly infectious nature of the disease.

      Key control measures for norovirus include frequent cleaning, environmental disinfection, and prompt clearance of soiling caused by vomit or faeces. Hygiene and hand-washing are also crucial in preventing the spread of the virus. Anyone who is infected should not prepare food for others until at least 3 days after symptoms have gone.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, transmission, and control measures of norovirus is crucial in preventing outbreaks and protecting public health.

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  • Question 120 - You see a 28-year-old woman with painful lesions on her labia. On examination...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old woman with painful lesions on her labia. On examination she has genital herpes.
      Select the single correct statement about this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular antiviral medication can reduce transmission to sexual partners

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms and Treatment of Herpes

      Herpes is a viral infection that can cause lesions on the cervix, vulva, vagina, and prepuce. The first attack is usually the most severe, and healing can take up to 2-4 weeks in primary herpes and 10 days in recurrent attacks. Immunocompromised patients tend to experience longer and more severe attacks. However, a trial in the New England Journal of Medicine in 2004 found that daily use of valaciclovir can reduce transmission by 75% between discordant couples. It is important to understand the symptoms and treatment of herpes to manage the infection effectively.

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  • Question 121 - A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to you complaining of fatigue and general discomfort. He recently went camping in the New Forest and recalls having multiple tick bites.

      Upon examination, there are no visible rashes or swollen lymph nodes. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no signs of liver or spleen enlargement. The thyroid appears normal.

      Lyme disease is suspected, but the ELISA test comes back negative. Based on the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the ELISA test in 4-6 weeks after the start of symptoms

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected to have Lyme disease and presents within 4 weeks of symptom onset, it is recommended to repeat the ELISA test after 4-6 weeks if the initial test is negative. This is because the initial test may not detect the disease in its early stages. It is important to avoid diagnosing Lyme disease at this stage without an erythema migrans rash, as it may lead to inappropriate treatment and the possibility of missing alternative diagnoses. An immunoblot test may be necessary if symptoms persist for 12 weeks or more, or if the ELISA test is positive or equivocal. Referring the patient for same-day review by the infectious diseases team is unnecessary as the patient is not acutely unwell. It is also incorrect to inform the patient that Lyme disease is excluded, especially if the ELISA test was done within 4 weeks of symptom onset, as it may result in a false-negative result. It is important to investigate other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 122 - A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis screening. He reports no prior medical history and has never received a BCG vaccination. Although his chest x-ray appears normal, his Mantoux test and interferon gamma test are both positive. An HIV test is negative, leading to a suspected diagnosis of latent tuberculosis. What treatment option is most likely to be offered to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.

      Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.

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  • Question 123 - A 25-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of general malaise, conjunctivitis and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of general malaise, conjunctivitis and a cough. He is starting to develop a maculopapular rash on his face and upper trunk and has a temperature of 39oC.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Measles

      Measles is characterized by a 4-day prodrome with cough and conjunctivitis, which is not seen in any other condition. While rubella has a similar prodrome, it is milder and fever is not as high. Parvovirus B19’s rash appears in the convalescent phase, while infectious mononucleosis presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and malaise. The rash in primary HIV is macular, erythematous, and truncal, and is accompanied by painful oral ulceration and lymphadenopathy. However, if a patient presents with cough and conjunctivitis, measles should be considered as a possible diagnosis.

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  • Question 124 - A 9-year-old boy is brought in to your clinic by his father. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is brought in to your clinic by his father. His father is worried because two days ago he had been playing in the same room as a child who was subsequently diagnosed with Chickenpox.

      He is completely asymptomatic and has no other significant illnesses or allergies. His father declined the varicella vaccine when he was a baby having assumed that it could not be given because one of his grandparents had a history of shingles and a distant relative was undergoing investigation for possible autoimmune disease.

      How would you handle this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure that no further action necessary

      Explanation:

      Measles and MMR Vaccination Guidelines

      Significant contact with measles is defined as being in the same room as an infected individual for 15 minutes or more. If an individual has not been fully immunised or has not previously had laboratory confirmed measles, it is assumed that they lack immunity. This is important to note for children who have not received the MMR vaccination for no good reason, as family history of epilepsy or autism is not a contraindication.

      Ideally, the MMR vaccine should be given within three days of contact with a possible case of measles. A repeat MMR vaccine should be given after at least a month. The first dose of MMR should be given between 12 and 13 months of age, within a month of the first birthday. Immunisation before one year of age provides earlier protection in localities where the risk of measles is higher, but residual maternal antibodies may reduce the response rate to the vaccine. The optimal age chosen for scheduling children is therefore a compromise between risk of disease and level of protection.

      If a dose of MMR is given before the first birthday, either because of travel to an endemic country or because of a local outbreak, then this dose should be ignored, and two further doses given at the recommended times between 12 and 13 months of age and at three years four months to five years of age. During the 2012-13 outbreak in Wales, a recommendation was made about the possibility of withdrawal from educational establishments for unvaccinated close contacts.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to prevent the spread of measles and protect individuals who may be at risk.

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  • Question 125 - What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antenatal screening in England has shown that 1 in 200 pregnant women in some inner-city areas are infected with HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV and IV Drug Use: A Deadly Combination

      Routine screening during pregnancy has revealed HIV prevalence rates ranging from 1 in 500 to 1 in 200 in certain areas of London, while parts of Edinburgh and Glasgow have estimated rates as high as 1 in 20 in areas with high IV drug abuse. At-risk groups in the UK now include an increasing number of heterosexual men. In sub-Saharan Africa and Latin America, heterosexuals account for the majority of cases, while HIV rates in the armies of the Democratic Republic of Congo and Angola are at least 50%.

      Unfortunately, people who inject drugs face a higher risk of death, not just from HIV-related causes but also from drug overdose. However, early use of antiretroviral therapy has increased survival duration to near-normal and reduced the risk of developing AIDS. In fact, in the first five years of treatment, the death rate is the same as that of the general population, except for IV drug users, who have higher death rates.

      In summary, HIV and IV drug use are a deadly combination, but with proper treatment and care, the risk of death can be significantly reduced.

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  • Question 126 - A 38-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a dry cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a dry cough and difficulty breathing for the past three days. She reports having flu-like symptoms prior to this. During the physical examination, a symmetrical rash with 'target' lesions is observed all over her body. What is the probable causative agent responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme can be caused by Mycoplasma and pneumococcus.

      Comparison of Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Legionella and Mycoplasma pneumonia are both causes of atypical pneumonia, but they have some differences. Legionella is associated with outbreaks in buildings with contaminated water systems, while Mycoplasma pneumonia is more common in younger patients and is associated with epidemics every 4 years. Both diseases have flu-like symptoms, but Mycoplasma pneumonia has a more gradual onset and a dry cough. On x-ray, both diseases show bilateral consolidation. However, it is important to recognize Mycoplasma pneumonia as it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to it lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      Complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia include cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, meningoencephalitis, and other immune-mediated neurological diseases. In contrast, Legionella can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which is a severe form of pneumonia that can lead to respiratory failure and death.

      Diagnosis of Legionella is generally by urinary antigen testing, while diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumonia is generally by serology. Treatment for Legionella includes fluoroquinolones or macrolides, while treatment for Mycoplasma pneumonia includes doxycycline or a macrolide. Overall, while both diseases are causes of atypical pneumonia, they have some distinct differences in their epidemiology, symptoms, and complications.

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  • Question 127 - You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted by the father of a 6-year-old boy who is in first grade. He is worried because a classmate has been absent for a week due to whooping cough, but the classmate's twin brother is still attending school while taking antibiotics. The father wants to know if his son could catch the illness from the twin brother and if he needs to take antibiotics as well.

      His son has received all the recommended vaccinations up to this point.

      What is your response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recommend the boy is excluded until he has finished his antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Guidelines for Asymptomatic Contacts

      Asymptomatic contacts of suspected or confirmed pertussis do not need exclusion from school or nursery, even if they are being treated with antibiotics. It is important to follow current guidelines and advise parents accordingly. Prophylactic antibiotics are only recommended for close contacts, which include household contacts and those sharing a room overnight with a case. Antibiotics are only recommended if there is a vulnerable contact and the onset of illness in the case is within 21 days.

      If more cases of pertussis were to be diagnosed at the nursery, this would constitute an outbreak, and advice may then change at the discretion of the outbreak control team. Vulnerable contacts include newborn infants born to symptomatic mothers, infants under 1-year-old who have received less than three doses of DTaP/IPV/Hib, unimmunised or partially immunised infants or children up to ten years, women in the last month of pregnancy, adults who work in a healthcare, social care or childcare facility, immunocompromised individuals, and those with the presence of other chronic illnesses.

      It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as outlined in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 15.8. By following these guidelines, we can ensure the best possible care for our patients and prevent the spread of pertussis.

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  • Question 128 - A 36-year-old woman complains of persistent fatigue.

    She has no other symptoms and physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman complains of persistent fatigue.

      She has no other symptoms and physical examination is normal. She works as a teacher.

      You send blood samples for tests. Her full blood count, urea, electrolytes, and thyroid function tests are normal but her liver functions tests are abnormal. Because of this you send some blood to the laboratory to test for hepatitis. You explain first to your patient what the tests are for.

      The results are:

      Anti-HAV IgG Negative

      HBsAg Negative

      Anti-HBs Positive

      Anti-HBc Negative

      HBeAg Negative

      Anti-HBe Negative

      Anti-HCV Positive

      What is the patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C Infection and Vaccination Recommendations

      Abnormal liver function tests and anti-hepatitis C virus antibodies suggest that a patient has hepatitis C infection. If a patient has been vaccinated against hepatitis B, it may indicate that they work in a healthcare setting. The risk of seroconversion to hepatitis C after a needlestick injury from a patient positive for hepatitis C virus is low, but still present. Patients may not experience symptoms during seroconversion, and many with hepatitis C have normal liver function tests.

      It is important to vaccinate patients against hepatitis B if they have not already been vaccinated, as co-existent hepatitis B infection can worsen liver injury. Patients with hepatitis C who do not have detectable immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis A virus (HAV) antibodies are at risk of acquiring hepatitis A infection, which can be severe and associated with increased mortality. Therefore, hepatitis A vaccination is recommended.

      In summary, patients with abnormal liver function tests and anti-hepatitis C virus antibodies should be checked for hepatitis C infection, even if their liver function tests are normal. Healthcare workers may have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. Vaccination against hepatitis B and A is recommended for patients with hepatitis C infection.

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  • Question 129 - A woman you are treating for tuberculosis mentions that she has observed her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman you are treating for tuberculosis mentions that she has observed her urine turning orange since commencing treatment. Which medication is causing this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      One of the peculiar side effects of rifampicin, a medication used in TB treatment, is the discoloration of bodily secretions to orange. However, the other medications used in TB treatment do not cause such a side effect. The notes below provide information on the side effects of these medications.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

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  • Question 130 - A young patient of yours has returned from a school trip abroad with...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient of yours has returned from a school trip abroad with a diarrhoeal illness. They were one of twenty-four students on a study abroad program who developed bloody diarrhoea on the third day.

      Which of the following organisms is the likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schistosoma mansoni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dysentery and Amoebiasis

      Dysentery is a gastrointestinal infection that is characterized by frequent stools that may contain blood, mucous, or pus. It is caused by Shigella dysenteriae, which is often associated with unsanitary conditions. The disease is transmitted through faecal contamination of water or food, and symptoms usually appear within one to four days of infection. The bacteria penetrate the mucosal epithelial cells of the intestine, causing intense irritation and producing cramps and watery, bloody diarrhoea.

      Amoebiasis, on the other hand, is often asymptomatic initially, with cysts present in the faeces. However, symptoms such as lower abdominal pain and diarrhoea can develop later in the disease course. If left untreated, dysentery can also develop. It is important to note that stool examination has low sensitivity in detecting amoebiasis.

      Other gastrointestinal infections that you should also be familiar with include C. difficile and E. coli toxins, bacterial causes such as salmonella and campylobacter, viral causes such as rotavirus and norovirus, and parasitic causes such as Giardia lamblia. Understanding these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate management and preventing further spread of the disease.

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  • Question 131 - A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old farm labourer presents with a lesion on his finger. The lesion began as a small red papule and has now grown to form a blood-tinged pustule-like lesion measuring 2 cm in diameter over the course of a week. He reports some lymphadenopathy but is otherwise asymptomatic.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Orf

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections: Orf, Cat Scratch Disease, Ringworm, Pompholyx, and Lyme Disease

      Orf, also known as contagious pustular dermatitis, is a skin infection caused by a poxvirus that is typically acquired from sheep or goats. The infection begins with a small, firm, red or reddish-blue lump that develops into a flat-topped, blood-tinged pustule or blister after an incubation period of 5-6 days. The lesion is usually 2-3 cm in diameter but can be as large as 5 cm. Although it may appear to contain pus, incising the lesion will reveal firm, red tissue underneath. Orf can also cause erythema multiforme and typically resolves within 6 weeks.

      Cat scratch disease is a mild infectious disease that primarily affects children and is caused by the intracellular bacterium Bartonella henselae. Symptoms may include fever and a papule at the site of the scratch, as well as regional lymphadenopathy.

      Ringworm, also known as tinea corporis, is a fungal infection that causes a slowly enlarging scaly lesion with central clearing. Pompholyx, on the other hand, is a type of eczema that presents with multiple vesicles on the palms and soles.

      Finally, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through tick bites. It causes a slowly spreading erythematous rash at the site of the bite, accompanied by flu-like symptoms.

      In summary, these common skin infections can present with a variety of symptoms and should be diagnosed and treated by a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 132 - A 27-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a concern after...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a concern after being exposed to her mother who has been diagnosed with facial shingles one day ago.

      She was unaware of what the rash was and had examined the rash closely two days ago before her mother was diagnosed. She informs you that she is unaware of ever having Chickenpox.

      What is the most appropriate action that should be taken for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be tested immediately for IgG antibodies to Varicella zoster

      Explanation:

      Management of VZV Exposure in a Non-Immune Patient

      The patient has a significant history of exposure to Varicella zoster virus (VZV), which puts her at risk of acquiring Chickenpox if she is non-immune. However, it is possible that she may have had VZV infection as a child. Therefore, the first step in managing this situation is to measure IgG antibodies to VZV. If the antibodies are present, no further action is required, and the patient can be relatively reassured.

      On the other hand, if the patient is non-immune, she will likely need to be treated with VZ immunoglobulin. This treatment has been shown to reduce the severity of the infection and prevent fetal infection. It is important to note that prompt management of VZV exposure in non-immune patients is crucial to prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 133 - Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is planning a backpacking trip to South America with her 3 friends and is concerned about the prevalence of mosquitoes in the area. She visits the clinic seeking travel vaccinations and advice. What is accurate regarding preventing mosquito bites?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DEET can repel mosquitos for up to 12 hours post application

      Explanation:

      DEET is safe to use topically on infants as young as 2 months old, as well as pregnant and breastfeeding women. It effectively repels mosquitos and can prevent tick attachment for up to 12 hours after application. However, it doesn’t offer any sun protection. To ensure proper protection, it is recommended to apply sunscreen first and then apply DEET on top.

      Malaria is a serious disease caused by the Plasmodium falciparum protozoa, with around 1,500-2,000 cases reported each year in patients returning from endemic countries. The majority of these cases occur in patients who did not take prophylaxis. It is important to consult up-to-date charts for recommended regimens for malaria zones before prescribing. There are several drugs available for prophylaxis, including Atovaquone + proguanil (Malarone), Chloroquine, Doxycycline, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Proguanil (Paludrine). Pregnant women and children are at higher risk of serious complications and should avoid travel to malaria endemic regions if possible. However, if travel is essential, prophylaxis should be taken, and DEET can be used to repel mosquitoes. Doxycycline is only licensed for use in children over the age of 12 years.

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  • Question 134 - A 25-year-old man recently returned from India, presents with a 10-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man recently returned from India, presents with a 10-day history of intermittent diarrhoea, fever (39 oC), headache and a non-productive cough. His pulse is 70 and regular, and his spleen is palpable.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Typhoid

      Explanation:

      Typhoid Fever: Symptoms, Causes, and Complications

      Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella enterica, specifically S typhi and S paratyphi. It is primarily spread through contaminated food and drink, and is most commonly reported in the UK among individuals who have traveled to the Indian sub-continent. Symptoms typically appear 10-20 days after exposure and may include diarrhea, fever, headaches, cough, and constipation. Other signs may include Rose spots, a relative bradycardia, and eye complications.

      As the infection progresses, patients may experience sustained pyrexia, abdominal distension, and splenomegaly. By the third week, weight loss and delirium may occur, along with a liquid, green-yellow pea soup diarrhea. In severe cases, death can result from toxaemia, myocarditis, intestinal hemorrhage, or gut perforation.

      It is important to consider other mosquito-borne illnesses, such as dengue fever and malaria, in the differential diagnosis of febrile patients returning from endemic areas. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing typhoid fever and preventing complications.

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  • Question 135 - The school nurse is preparing for a visit from the health inspector tomorrow....

    Incorrect

    • The school nurse is preparing for a visit from the health inspector tomorrow. She seeks guidance on the appropriate temperature range (in Celsius) for storing vaccines in the fridge. What is the standard temperature range that vaccines should be stored at, unless otherwise stated by the manufacturer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: +2C to +8C

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations: Types and Precautions

      Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.

      It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.

      In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.

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  • Question 136 - A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes in with a swollen red finger and tenderness in his left armpit, one day after being bitten by his pet dog. What is the most effective treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Infected Dog Bites

      Dog bites have a 10% chance of becoming infected, with the most common organisms being anaerobic mouth flora and Pasteurella multocida. Capnocytophaga spp. and Streptococcus pyogenes are also possible. The recommended treatment is co-amoxiclav, which is effective against all likely organisms. Herpes simplex infection is rare in dog bites, but monkey bites can transmit the virus. Fungal infections in dogs do not typically infect bites, so fluconazole is not necessary. Flucloxacillin is ineffective against anaerobic bacteria, and metronidazole doesn’t cover aerobic Gram-negative organisms.

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  • Question 137 - A 35-year-old woman complains of discharging itchy eyes.
    Select from the list the single...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of discharging itchy eyes.
      Select from the list the single feature that would most suggest a bacterial cause.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eyes glued together in the morning by discharge

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conjunctivitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Conjunctivitis, commonly known as pink eye, is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, the thin layer that covers the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelids. While viral conjunctivitis is more common in children, bacterial conjunctivitis is less common but more prevalent in adults. The most common causes of bacterial conjunctivitis are Staphylococcus spp., Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and Moraxella catarrhalis, while adenovirus is the most common cause of viral conjunctivitis.

      Symptoms of bacterial conjunctivitis include itchy eyes, mucopurulent discharge, and a positive history of infectious conjunctivitis. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a watery discharge and the presence of follicles. Bacterial conjunctivitis is usually bilateral, but if symptoms persist on one side, a review of the diagnosis is necessary.

      There is an ongoing debate about the use of antibiotics in treating bacterial conjunctivitis, as the condition is self-limiting, and the benefits of antibiotics are marginal. Current guidelines do not recommend staying away from school or work.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for conjunctivitis is crucial in managing the condition effectively. If you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical attention promptly to receive the appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 138 - A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started one week ago. On examination, her vagina is erythematous. She also has dysuria and dyspareunia.
      What is the most suitable diagnostic method in General Practice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Culture of a vaginal swab

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Trichomoniasis in Women

      Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. In women, it can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and pain during sex. To diagnose trichomoniasis, several diagnostic methods are available.

      Culture of a vaginal swab is the standard for diagnosis. It is more sensitive and specific than microscopy. Swab specimens may be obtained by the patient, making it useful in resource-poor settings. The GP may also consider testing for other sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia and gonorrhoea.

      Cervical smear has a low sensitivity for detecting Trichomonas and is not used for this purpose. The ‘whiff test’ (amine odour test) and vaginal pH test are not accurate means of diagnosing trichomoniasis as they may also indicate bacterial vaginosis.

      Wet-mount microscopy has historically been used to diagnose trichomoniasis in women. However, it has a low sensitivity in detecting T vaginalis and specimens have to be examined fresh.

      In conclusion, culture of a vaginal swab is the most reliable method for diagnosing trichomoniasis in women.

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  • Question 139 - Which statement regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRSA is often sensitive to trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Understanding MRSA: Causes, Transmission, and Treatment

      MRSA, or Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, is a type of bacteria that can be acquired in both hospital and community settings. While it is carried by many people without causing harm, it can also cause serious infections. MRSA can be spread through direct contact or airborne infection. When treatment is necessary, a combination of doxycycline, fusidic acid, or trimethoprim with rifampicin is typically effective. However, it is important to note that fusidic acid and rifampicin should not be used alone due to the risk of resistance developing. Understanding the causes, transmission, and treatment of MRSA is crucial in preventing its spread and managing infections.

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  • Question 140 - At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age should a patient be vaccinated against pneumococcus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 67-year-old man who has no significant medical history of note other than gout

      Explanation:

      The pneumococcal vaccine is only necessary for asthmatics who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system. Having multiple sclerosis doesn’t warrant the pneumococcal vaccine. The 67-year-old man is eligible for the vaccine based on his age, not his medical background.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

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  • Question 141 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who is in the second trimester of her...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who is in the second trimester of her pregnancy. She presents to you with a red, hot swelling of her right big toe. She suspects that she may have been bitten by an insect in that area last week. She reports that the redness has started to spread onto the dorsum of her right foot over the past few days.

      Sarah is stable hemodynamically and has no fever. Her right big toe has a cellulitic appearance. You observe that she has an allergy to penicillin.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 7 day course of oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      If a patient is allergic to penicillin, erythromycin is the preferred antibiotic for treating cellulitis during pregnancy. Clarithromycin, another macrolide antibiotic, is the alternative choice for penicillin-allergic patients, but it should be avoided during pregnancy.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 142 - A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy, the son of farmers, is brought to the clinic appearing quite ill. He has been experiencing fever, vomiting, diarrhea, leg pain, and headache overnight. He appears pale, has cold extremities, neck stiffness, and a few spots that blanch on pressure.
      What is the most crucial management option to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular penicillin and admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Early Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Meningitis

      Suspected meningococcal meningitis should be treated as an emergency, even in the absence of a non-blanching rash. The rash may be nonspecific or absent early on in the disease. Any patient with suspected bacterial meningitis or suspected meningococcal septicaemia should be admitted to the hospital immediately. In cases where there may be a delay in admission, Benzylpenicillin should be given. The recommended dose of benzylpenicillin is 1200 mg for adults, 600 mg for those aged 1-9 years, and 300 mg for those aged < 1 year. Cefotaxime may be used as an alternative in cases of penicillin allergy. Antibiotics should be injected intravenously or intramuscularly (IM) in adults and IM in children, with the recommended site of IM injection being the quadriceps muscle. GPs should carry these drugs (up-to-date) in their bags.

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  • Question 143 - A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is housebound due to her disability.
      Which vaccination should she receive annually?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Annual influenza Vaccination

      influenza vaccines are designed to protect against the two subtypes of human influenza A (H3N2 and H1N1) and influenza B viruses. However, due to changes in the surface antigens of the virus, the composition of the vaccine must be modified annually. To ensure global recommendations on vaccine composition and surveillance for potential pandemic viruses, the World Health Organisation maintains a network of collaborating laboratories.

      Annual re-immunisation is particularly recommended for those at the highest risk of morbidity, including patients in chronic care facilities (especially the elderly), those with chronic cardiopulmonary, lung or renal diseases, diabetes mellitus, haemoglobinopathies, and those who are immunocompromised. It is also offered annually to patients aged 65 and over.

      While protection may be less effective in the elderly than in children, immunisation has been shown to reduce the incidence of bronchopneumonia, mortality, and hospital admission. In children aged 1-5, it has been shown to reduce influenza-associated respiratory illness in the 1- to 15-year age group by up to 90%, and may reduce influenza-associated otitis media by up to 30%.

      In conclusion, annual influenza vaccination is crucial for protecting vulnerable populations and reducing the spread of the virus.

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  • Question 144 - A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old nun returns from a trip to Nigeria with fever and deranged LFTs. She has an ALT of 2500 U/l and bilirubin of 75 μ mol/l. She was fully vaccinated before travel. She also took mefloquine malaria prophylaxis.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis E

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis E: A Likely Diagnosis for Abnormal Liver Function Tests

      Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by various factors, but in this case, hepatitis E is the most likely diagnosis. While hepatitis A vaccine is effective in preventing hepatitis A, it is not the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Acute hepatitis B is less likely as it is transmitted through blood or sexual contact. Malaria and dengue fever may also cause abnormal liver function tests, but not to the extent seen in this patient.

      Hepatitis E is a viral infection that is acquired through the faeco-oral route. Unlike hepatitis A, it has no chronic form but has a higher mortality rate of 1-2%. Pregnant women in their last trimester are at a higher risk of death from hepatitis E. Outbreaks of hepatitis E are more common in developing countries.

      It is important to note that both hepatitis A and E can cause fulminant liver failure in patients with underlying liver disease. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing these conditions.

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  • Question 145 - A 16-year-old male presents with a severe sore throat, fever and lethargy. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents with a severe sore throat, fever and lethargy. On examination he is noted to have cervical lymphadenopathy. He has now been unwell for 5 days. A blood test is taken the next day:

      Hb 15.0 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 8.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Neuts 2.5 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Lymphs 5.0 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
      Mono 0.4 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
      Eosin 0.2 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)
      Heterophil antibody test POSITIVE

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Infectious mononucleosis typically resolves on its own and doesn’t require active treatment. However, it is important to advise patients to refrain from participating in contact sports for 8 weeks as there is a risk of splenic rupture.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

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  • Question 146 - A 10-year-old boy presents with an episode of diarrhoea followed by jaundice.
    Select the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with an episode of diarrhoea followed by jaundice.
      Select the single most likely pathogen.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A virus

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A: A Self-Limiting Liver Infection

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection that causes acute and self-limiting hepatitis. It is often preceded by flu-like symptoms and a brief diarrheal illness, especially in children. Unlike other forms of hepatitis, there is no chronic viral carriage or long-term liver damage associated with hepatitis A. The virus is transmitted orally and has an incubation period of 2 to 6 weeks. The most common mode of transmission is through the ingestion of contaminated food or water that has been contaminated with fecal matter from an infected person.

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  • Question 147 - What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) after air travel for individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings have a role in reducing the risk of VTE in moderate or high risk patients

      Explanation:

      For patients at moderate or high risk, compression stockings are the most suitable preventative measure, with low molecular weight heparin potentially necessary for those at very high risk. Aspirin is not recommended by any current UK guidelines. Although it is sensible to maintain good hydration, there is no evidence to suggest that it effectively prevents VTE, as noted by SIGN in their guideline.

      Travel-Related Thrombosis and Guidelines for Prevention

      Long-haul air travel has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), commonly known as economy class syndrome. However, there is no universal agreement on how to advise patients regarding VTE prevention during travel. The British Committee for Standards in Haematology, SIGN, and Clinical Knowledge Summaries have all produced guidelines, but they differ in their recommendations.

      The most recent CKS guidelines suggest a risk-based approach. Patients with no major risk factors for VTE do not require special measures. However, those with major risk factors should consider wearing anti-embolism stockings, which can be bought or prescribed. In cases of very high risk, such as a long-haul flight following recent major surgery, delaying the flight or seeking specialist advice regarding the use of low-molecular weight heparin may be necessary.

      It is important to note that all guidelines agree that there is no role for aspirin in VTE prevention for low, medium, or high-risk patients. A 2001 study in the New England Journal of Medicine showed that the risk of pulmonary embolism increases with travel distance, with 4.8 cases per million for travel over 10,000 km. While the Civil Aviation Authority doesn’t provide specific guidance on VTE prevention, healthcare providers can use these guidelines to help patients make informed decisions about their travel plans.

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  • Question 148 - A patient who is an intravenous drug user has contracted hepatitis C. What...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is an intravenous drug user has contracted hepatitis C. What percentage of such patients in their age group will develop chronic hepatitis C infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 55-85%

      Explanation:

      Develop a persistent infection.

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 149 - A 19-year-old man is concerned about blood-borne viruses after getting a tattoo while...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is concerned about blood-borne viruses after getting a tattoo while backpacking abroad. He wants to get tested for HIV and hepatitis B and C, but you advise him that the tests may not show any infection yet. When should he return for an HIV blood test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to conduct HIV testing in asymptomatic patients 4 weeks after a potential exposure. This is the optimal time frame for detecting most infections through tests for antibodies and p24 antigen. Additionally, it may be beneficial to perform an HIV test upon presentation in case of a prior infection (although 1 week may be too soon for detection), and a follow-up test at 12 weeks should be offered to confirm the absence of infection.

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

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  • Question 150 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of feeling constantly...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of feeling constantly fatigued for the past 3 months. She has a history of intravenous drug use and routine testing reveals abnormal liver enzyme tests, including a significant increase in alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Although she is not jaundiced, the GP suspects that she may be suffering from acute hepatitis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be positive in this patient if this suspicion is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C antibody

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Hepatitis C: Understanding the Clinical Features and Testing Methods

      Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that often goes undetected due to the lack of specific symptoms. Fatigue, a common symptom, is not enough to suspect hepatitis C unless other risk factors are present. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate HCV, but a positive serology test is needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test is usually positive three months after exposure, but may take up to nine months. HCV RNA testing is used to confirm ongoing infection, and negative results should be repeated after six months. Chronic infection is common in HCV, affecting about 80% of those infected.

      Other viral infections, such as hepatitis B and Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), may also cause liver abnormalities. Jaundice is more common in hepatitis B, while EBV typically causes mild elevation of serum transaminases. Testing for IgM and IgG antibodies can help diagnose acute or past infections. Enzyme levels, such as alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase, may also be used to differentiate between viral infections.

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  • Question 151 - influenza is a viral respiratory illness that can cause mild to severe symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • influenza is a viral respiratory illness that can cause mild to severe symptoms and can lead to complications such as pneumonia.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aerosol transmission can occur before the onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Understanding influenza: From Epidemics to Pandemics

      influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a highly contagious respiratory illness caused by influenza viruses. The incubation period of influenza is typically two days, but can range from one to four days. Aerosol transmission may occur one day before the onset of symptoms, making it easy for the virus to spread.

      Up to 15% of the population can develop influenza in any given year, with an average of 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week. An epidemic is declared when the GP consultation rate for new cases of influenza or flu-like illness exceeds 400 per 100,000 population per week.

      Clinicians usually diagnose influenza based on clinical criteria alone when the virus is circulating in the community. Investigations are typically reserved for community surveillance purposes.

      The influenza virus undergoes minor mutations to one or both of its surface antigens, known as antigenic drift. This causes seasonal epidemics, where people have only partial immunity from previous infection or vaccination. As a result, the vaccine requires annual changes.

      An influenza pandemic is an epidemic of an influenza virus that spreads on a worldwide scale and infects a large proportion of the human population. This occurs due to the emergence of influenza A virus that is genetically significantly different from the circulating human influenza A viruses, known as antigenic shift. These pandemics occur irregularly, with the 1918 Spanish flu being the most serious pandemic in history with a high mortality.

      Understanding the nature of influenza, from its epidemics to pandemics, is crucial in developing effective prevention and control strategies.

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  • Question 152 - A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
    Select from...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old-boy has diarrhoea. Campylobacter is grown from a stool sample.
      Select from the list the commonest source of infection in the UK.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contaminated food

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter Enteritis: A Common Bacterial Infection of the Gut

      Campylobacter enteritis is a prevalent bacterial infection of the gut in industrialized countries, affecting people of all ages, especially young adults. In the United Kingdom alone, there are approximately 55,000 laboratory isolations reported annually, with an incidence rate of 100/100,000. However, the actual incidence rate is likely to be ten times higher than reported.

      The consumption of raw or barbecued meats, particularly poultry, carries a significant risk of infection. Broiler chickens are the most common source of Campylobacter spp, and almost all retailed chickens are contaminated. Therefore, self-infection or cross-contamination to other foods can occur if proper hygiene is not observed. Other sources of infection include unpasteurized milk, contaminated water, and pets with diarrhea. Person-to-person spread is also possible.

      Campylobacter is a notifiable disease in the UK. Although the condition is often self-limiting, antibiotic treatment may be necessary in severe cases, worsening disease, immunocompromised individuals, or symptoms lasting more than seven days. Erythromycin is the first-line antibiotic of choice, with a recommended dosage of 250-500mg for up to seven days.

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  • Question 153 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP after discovering a tick on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP after discovering a tick on her right arm following a hike in the woods. She reports feeling fine and there is no apparent rash upon inspection.

      What is the optimal method for removing the tick?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fine-tipped tweezers

      Explanation:

      To effectively remove a tick, it is best to use fine-tipped tweezers. The tick should be grasped as close to the skin as possible and pulled upwards with firm pressure. It is important to avoid using blunt-nose tweezers, petroleum jelly, or heat from a hot match as these methods can increase the risk of infection or cause the tick to regurgitate into the bite. After removal, the area should be thoroughly cleaned.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 154 - A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that produces clear sputum and feeling generally unwell for the past three days. The physician provides him with a prescription for antibiotics to be filled at a later time. What is the estimated percentage of patients who will ultimately take antibiotics using this approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 33%

      Explanation:

      The Debate on Delayed Prescribing for Antibiotics

      Delayed prescribing has been a topic of debate for many years, particularly in relation to reducing antibiotic prescriptions for respiratory tract infections. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) currently advocates for this strategy, but its effectiveness and acceptability among patients remain in question.

      In 2013, Cochrane conducted a review of 10 studies on the delayed prescription of antibiotics for acute respiratory tract infections. The review found that delayed prescribing reduced antibiotic use from 93% to 32%, regardless of the method used (e.g. post-dated script, same-day script with advice to use after 48 hours). However, patient satisfaction levels were not significantly affected by delayed prescribing.

      Critics of delayed prescribing argue that patient satisfaction levels were just as high for patients who were refused antibiotics. Despite the ongoing debate, delayed prescribing remains a potential strategy for reducing unnecessary antibiotic use.

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  • Question 155 - You are working in the urgent care centre, where John, a 44-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the urgent care centre, where John, a 44-year-old man comes to see you with a laceration to his right lower leg. He explains that 2 hours ago he was using a sharp tool to cut wood when it slipped and hit deep into his foot.

      On examination, there is a 6 cm laceration on the lateral aspect of John's right lower leg which is 4 cm deep. There is a lot of sawdust visible inside the wound.

      John is unsure about his tetanus immunisation history and there is no further information about this in his records.

      What is the most appropriate option to manage John's wound with regards to tetanus prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin should be given

      Explanation:

      If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin, unless the wound is minor and less than six hours old. In the case of Sarah, who has a tetanus-prone wound contaminated with soil, she requires treatment with human tetanus immunoglobulin. According to NICE guidelines, if a person’s immunisation status is unknown or uncertain, an immediate dose of vaccine should be given, followed by a full five-dose course if necessary to ensure future immunity. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin. Waiting to confirm the tetanus immunisation history is not recommended, as tetanus prophylaxis needs to be given urgently. Advising that no tetanus prophylaxis is required is also incorrect, especially in the case of a tetanus-prone wound, which requires both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin.

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses. This is considered to provide long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage. Tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment, wounds containing foreign bodies, and compound fractures. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

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  • Question 156 - Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's wedding. She is aware of the risk of Zika virus and uses an insect repellent containing DEET on all exposed areas. What additional precautions should she take upon returning to the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of foetus

      Explanation:

      There is compelling evidence that Zika virus can cause congenital microcephaly and other neurological developmental disorders in fetuses. The National Travel Health Network and Centre (NaTHNaC) has issued guidelines for pregnant women traveling to areas affected by Zika virus, advising them to postpone non-essential travel until after pregnancy and to avoid becoming pregnant while in these areas and for eight weeks after returning home, regardless of whether they experienced symptoms of Zika infection or not. Pregnant women who have traveled to a Zika virus area should seek immediate medical attention, and regular ultrasound scans throughout pregnancy are recommended to detect microcephaly. Asymptomatic women do not need routine testing for Zika virus PCR via blood, urine, or amniotic fluid. However, women who develop Zika virus symptoms during or within two weeks of traveling to a Zika virus area should be tested for Zika virus PCR, and their fetuses should be monitored through serial ultrasounds. If microcephaly is detected on ultrasound, amniocentesis may be considered to check for Zika PCR, but only after weighing the risks and benefits. Chorionic villous sampling, fundal height measurements, and cardiac monitoring are not useful for testing for Zika virus.

      Understanding Zika Virus

      Zika virus is a type of infection that is transmitted through mosquito bites. It belongs to the flavivirus genus and Flaviviridae family, and was first discovered in 1947 in Uganda. While most people who contract the virus do not experience any symptoms, those who do may experience a mild fever, rash, joint pain, red eyes, muscle pain, headache, and itching. In rare cases, Zika virus has been linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome in adults. However, the most concerning aspect of Zika virus is its potential to cause birth defects in babies born to infected mothers. The virus can be transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta, and has been linked to microcephaly and other congenital abnormalities. Due to this risk, the World Health Organization has declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern. It is important to take precautions to avoid mosquito bites in areas where Zika virus is present, and for pregnant women to take extra care to protect themselves from infection.

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  • Question 157 - A 20-year-old woman is surprised to find out she has Chlamydia despite not...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman is surprised to find out she has Chlamydia despite not experiencing any symptoms. You comfort her by explaining that it is typical for Chlamydia to be asymptomatic, which is why screening is recommended. What proportion of women with Chlamydia do not show symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Opportunistic chlamydia screening is crucial due to the significant number of men who carry the infection without showing any symptoms.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

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  • Question 158 - A 43-year-old man presents to the urgent treatment centre with a concern about...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man presents to the urgent treatment centre with a concern about a tick that he found attached to his calf after walking in the nearby woods. There are no signs of infection or erythema in the surrounding skin.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remove the tick using fine-tipped tweezers, grasping the tick firmly by the head as close to the skin as possible and pulling firmly upwards

      Explanation:

      To effectively remove a tick, it is recommended to use fine-tipped tweezers and grasp the tick as close to the skin as possible. Pulling upwards firmly is important to keep the head and body of the tick intact and prevent the body from detaching. If the body detaches, the mouthparts may be left in the skin and cause a local infection. After removal, the bite area should be cleaned with antiseptic or soap and water, and the patient should monitor for any changes for several weeks.

      It is not recommended to remove the tick with a fine-toothed comb or attempt to soak it off with saline solution, as these methods may cause the head to detach.

      Prophylactic antibiotics are not recommended by NICE for preventing Lyme disease in patients with tick bites.

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.

      Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.

      To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.

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  • Question 159 - A 32-year-old care worker presents with 3 days of fever, abdominal cramps and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old care worker presents with 3 days of fever, abdominal cramps and profuse diarrhoea. You send a stool sample for culture and the result confirms campylobacter infection.
      What is a true statement about this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is usually acquired through eating chicken

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter: The Leading Cause of Diarrhoea in the UK

      Campylobacter sp. is the primary cause of diarrhoea in the UK, with a high incidence rate. Although it usually resolves on its own within five days, it can persist for up to four weeks. In rare cases, it can lead to reactive arthritis. Treatment options include ciprofloxacin, clarithromycin, erythromycin, or azithromycin.

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  • Question 160 - At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation...

    Incorrect

    • At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation for Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At 15 months of age

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Understanding Immunisation Schedules

      Immunisation schedules are crucial to understand, especially with recent changes to UK guidance in January 2020. One significant change relates to the timing of pneumococcal immunisation. Additionally, hepatitis B vaccination is routinely available as part of the NHS vaccination schedule. It is offered to all babies at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, as well as those at increased risk of hepatitis B or its complications.

      It is essential to memorise the latest schedule, as it may feature in your exam. We have included a reference to a summary guide below for your convenience. Understanding immunisation schedules is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccinations at the correct time.

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  • Question 161 - You have a telephone consultation with a 25-year-old man to discuss the results...

    Incorrect

    • You have a telephone consultation with a 25-year-old man to discuss the results of a stool sample. He saw a colleague of yours 4 days ago with a 72-hour history of bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient's symptoms have now resolved and he feels well.

      Stool sample result:
      Growth of Campylobacter jejuni
      Shigella Not isolated
      Salmonella Not isolated
      Ova, cysts and parasites Not detected

      What is the most suitable course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment is required

      Explanation:

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection resolves on its own without the need for treatment. This is the case for the patient in this scenario, as their symptoms have completely disappeared. However, if the symptoms are severe or persist for more than a week, the first-line treatment is clarithromycin. Ciprofloxacin is an alternative treatment option but not the first choice. Vancomycin is not used to treat Campylobacter infection as it is used for C. difficile infections. There is no need to repeat the stool sample as the patient is clinically well and their diarrhea has resolved.

      Campylobacter is a type of bacteria that is responsible for causing the majority of cases of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. It is a Gram-negative bacillus that is spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, as well as diarrhoea that is often bloody and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and doesn’t require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the symptoms are severe or if the patient is immunocompromised. Clinical Knowledge summaries also suggest antibiotics if the symptoms are severe, such as high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day, or if the symptoms have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. However, the BNF notes that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection can include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis.

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  • Question 162 - In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting...

    Incorrect

    • In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting with residents and quickly spreading to staff. Which organism is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Norovirus Gastroenteritis: Symptoms, Incubation Period, and Prevention

      Norovirus gastroenteritis, commonly known as winter vomiting disease, is a highly contagious illness that often occurs during the winter season. However, outbreaks can happen anytime and in various settings, including hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. The incubation period ranges from 12 to 48 hours, with symptoms such as fever, nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The disease is self-limiting and usually lasts between 12 and 60 hours. While it poses a risk to frail or immunocompromised individuals, strict hygiene measures can prevent the spread of the virus.

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  • Question 163 - A 35-year-old man has multiple, painful, vesicles and erosions on an erythematous base...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has multiple, painful, vesicles and erosions on an erythematous base in an area on the left side of the abdomen corresponding to the T10 dermatome. Lesions have been present for a week. He had similar lesions on the opposite flank 18 months before. He also has a solitary verrucous papule on the shaft of the penis. He has had multiple unprotected sexual exposures with commercial sex workers.
      Select from the list the single most important investigation in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Unusual Symptoms and Recommended Tests for a Man with Recurrent Shingles and Penile Wart

      The man in question is experiencing a recurrent attack of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, which is an unusual occurrence. This symptom is often associated with HIV infection, where opportunistic infections become prevalent as the disease progresses. Other symptoms that may occur include oral candida, oral hairy leukoplakia, recurrent ulcerating herpes simplex, seborrhoeic dermatitis, tinea infections, warts, and molluscum contagiosum.

      To screen for syphilis, a treponemal enzyme immunoassay for immunoglobulin M (EIA IgM) test is recommended. Additionally, a full sexual health screen should be offered to the patient, along with an HIV test. It is important to note that the patient will already have varicella zoster IgG from their original Chickenpox infection.

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  • Question 164 - A patient who was an intravenous drug user in the 1980s requests a...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who was an intravenous drug user in the 1980s requests a hepatitis C test. What should be done in response?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an anti-HCV antibody test

      Explanation:

      HCV RNA tests are typically not requested unless the antibody test comes back positive.

      Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

      After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.

      The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.

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  • Question 165 - A 30-year-old aid worker returns from a 6-month placement in the former Soviet...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old aid worker returns from a 6-month placement in the former Soviet Union with a severe sore throat. He has a fever and generalised weakness and is restless. Examination reveals a swollen neck, tender lymph nodes and a white membrane over his throat. When you take a swab from the throat there is contact bleeding.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Diphtheria: A Rare but Serious Disease

      Diphtheria is a rare disease in Western Europe, but it still exists in the former USSR. The disease has an incubation period of 2-6 days and causes severe sore throat, malaise, and a pseudomembrane over the throat. Removing the pseudomembrane can cause bleeding. The toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae can lead to myocarditis and bulbar palsy. Diagnosis is done through a throat swab, and treatment involves macrolide antibiotics and antitoxin in severe cases. People traveling to areas where diphtheria is endemic should get vaccinated against the disease.

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  • Question 166 - A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is not known to be a carrier of blood-borne viral infections and is thought to be a low risk of having such an infection.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take blood for virology (HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C) from the injured worker

      Explanation:

      Risks and Guidelines for Healthcare Workers Exposed to Bloodborne Pathogens

      Healthcare workers are at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. While the risk of transmission is low, it is important to follow clear guidelines from the Department of Health to ensure the safety of the worker.

      If a healthcare worker is exposed to blood, they should have blood taken for virology to check for HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. If there is a significant risk of HIV, post-exposure prophylaxis with antiretroviral therapy should be started as soon as possible. HIV status and hepatitis serology should be rechecked at 3 and 6 months, and liver function tests should be performed and repeated at these intervals as well. Female workers should also have their β-hCG level checked to exclude pregnancy.

      Ideally, a sample of blood should be obtained from the donor to determine if they are a potential source of infection. Healthcare workers should already be immune to hepatitis B from previous immunization, but if not, they may need to receive the vaccine.

      In summary, healthcare workers should be aware of the risks associated with exposure to bloodborne pathogens and follow the appropriate guidelines to ensure their safety.

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  • Question 167 - A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with COPD and currently receives the yearly...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has been diagnosed with COPD and currently receives the yearly flu shot. What should be done regarding the pneumococcal vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should be given it as a one-off

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease require a booster every 5 years, while most adults only need one dose.

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

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  • Question 168 - A 9-year-old girl presents with her mother. She has an itchy scalp and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with her mother. She has an itchy scalp and you diagnose head lice. You recommend malathion - the mother inquires about potential side effects. What is a typical side effect of malathion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Malathion and Head Lice Treatment

      Malathion, a common treatment for head lice, can cause skin irritation, especially if alcoholic lotions are used instead of aqueous solutions in those with eczema. If the scalp itself is eczematous or secondarily infected, irritation is more likely, which may affect compliance with the treatment regimen. However, in the author’s experience as a seasoned GP, the main issue with lotions in the treatment of head lice is their ineffectiveness.

      Parents should be advised to regularly inspect their child’s hair for eggs and live lice, and regular wet combing can be effective. Keeping the hair short, where practical, can also help. Unfortunately, children are often at the mercy of their classmates’ diligence, as re-infection is common. Therefore, it is important for parents to be vigilant and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of head lice.

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  • Question 169 - A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and is prescribed a course of amoxicillin. She comes back after 2 weeks with complaints of dysuria, pruritus vulvae, and a white vaginal discharge.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vulvovaginal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Treating Vulvovaginal Candidiasis

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is a common condition that affects approximately 75% of women in their reproductive years. It is caused by an overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area and can be triggered by various factors such as pregnancy, diabetes, and the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. While routine culture is not necessary for diagnosis, it is important to rule out underlying conditions such as type 2 diabetes in older women.

      Treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis typically involves the use of topical or oral antifungal medications such as azoles or triazoles. In cases where an azole has failed, nystatin may be more effective, especially if the infection is caused by Candida glabrata rather than Candida albicans. It is also important to note that approximately 10% of women with vulvovaginal candidiasis have a mixed infection with bacteria, which may require additional testing and treatment.

      Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for vulvovaginal candidiasis can help women effectively manage this common condition.

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  • Question 170 - What is the single correct statement about the management of Chickenpox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement about the management of Chickenpox?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children on long-term steroids should be treated with aciclovir at the onset of the rash

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Prevention of Varicella Infections in Different Populations

      Varicella, commonly known as Chickenpox, is a viral infection that primarily affects children. In healthy children, treatment is not necessary unless they are systemically unwell, which may indicate a bacterial infection. However, immunocompromised individuals should be treated at the first signs of disease.

      For healthy individuals at increased risk of severe varicella infections, such as those older than 14 years, oral acyclovir may be considered. This medication, taken at a dose of 800 mg five times a day for seven days, can reduce the duration of lesions and other symptoms.

      Pregnant women who are not immune to varicella are at risk of passing the infection to their children. The infectivity period lasts from a few days before the onset of lesions until the lesions crust over. School exclusion is typically required for five days.

      Overall, understanding the appropriate treatment and prevention measures for varicella infections in different populations is crucial for managing this common childhood illness.

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  • Question 171 - A 65-year-old woman has pain and a rash made up of vesicles on...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has pain and a rash made up of vesicles on an erythematous background. The rash is on the right flank and right side of the abdomen in an area corresponding to the T12 dermatome and started 3 days ago.
      Select the single most suitable management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir 800 mg five times a day

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

      Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, can cause severe pain and complications. However, systemic antiviral treatment can reduce the severity and duration of pain, as well as viral shedding and complications. It is crucial to start treatment within 72 hours of the onset of rash and continue for 7-10 days.

      Immunocompromised patients are at a higher risk of severe infection and should be treated with a parenteral antiviral drug. If the person is at a higher risk of severe shingles or complications, such as continued vesicle formation, older age, or severe pain, the drug can be started up to a week after the onset of symptoms.

      Aciclovir is a common antiviral drug used to treat shingles, but alternatives such as valaciclovir 1000 mg three times a day or famciclovir 500 mg three times a day for 7 days can also be used. It is essential to seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

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  • Question 172 - A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday to Spain with diarrhoea. This began...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday to Spain with diarrhoea. This began on the third night of a long weekend trip to Madrid. She has been opening her bowels more than eight times per day over the past 24 hours. There had been associated nausea which was stopping her from maintaining an adequate fluid intake, but she is now tolerating fluids by mouth.

      On examination her BP is 130/78 lying, and 126/76 standing with a corresponding increase in her pulse rate. Her mouth looks dry and she has poor skin turgor. Her abdomen is soft and minimally tender and there are very active bowel sounds.

      Which one of the following represents the most appropriate management for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Travellers’ Diarrhoea

      Travellers’ diarrhoea is commonly caused by E. coli and typically lasts for 72 hours. In healthy individuals, oral rehydration salts and paracetamol can effectively manage the symptoms. However, if the patient is unable to tolerate oral fluids and is significantly dehydrated, hospital admission may be necessary.

      In severe cases of campylobacter or salmonella, where the patient is already weakened by chronic illness, ciprofloxacin may be prescribed. Meanwhile, metronidazole may be used as an option for giardiasis.

      It is important to note that travellers’ diarrhoea can be prevented by practicing good hygiene, such as washing hands frequently and avoiding contaminated food and water sources.

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  • Question 173 - A 50-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis of HIV. He is asymptomatic and has no notable medical history. His CD4 count is currently at 290 cells/µL. What is the optimal timing for initiating antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As soon as HIV is diagnosed

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated immediately upon diagnosis of HIV.

      Delaying treatment until symptoms or AIDS-defining illnesses occur is not recommended, as it can lead to increased morbidity and mortality.

      The BNF recommends offering antiretroviral treatment to all HIV-positive patients, regardless of their CD4 count.

      A CD4 count below 200 cells/µL indicates progression to AIDS, and a count below 50 cells/µL may result in poor response to antiretroviral therapy.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

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  • Question 174 - Which of the following antibiotics is safe for nursing mothers to use? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics is safe for nursing mothers to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      The use of trimethoprim during breastfeeding is deemed safe.

      Breastfeeding Contraindications: Drugs and Other Factors to Consider

      Breastfeeding is generally recommended for infants as it provides numerous benefits for both the baby and the mother. However, there are certain situations where breastfeeding may not be advisable. One of the major contraindications is the use of certain drugs by the mother, which can be harmful to the baby. Antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as endocrine medications like levothyroxine, can be given to breastfeeding mothers. On the other hand, drugs like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, and benzodiazepines should be avoided.

      Aside from drugs, other factors like galactosaemia and viral infections can also make breastfeeding inadvisable. In the case of HIV, some doctors believe that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of transmission, especially in areas where infant mortality and morbidity rates are high.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these contraindications and to provide appropriate guidance to mothers who are considering breastfeeding. By doing so, they can help ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 175 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate is found to have a urinary tract infection. Which antibiotic should be avoided if possible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

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  • Question 176 - A 38-year-old teacher has been experiencing bouts of coughing for the past week,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher has been experiencing bouts of coughing for the past week, after recovering from a mild respiratory illness. The coughing fits have been so intense that they have caused vomiting and symptoms of a possible rib fracture. The teacher is concerned that he may have contracted pertussis from his students, but he remembers being vaccinated against it as a child. Can you explain the level of protection provided by childhood immunizations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunity following immunisation usually wanes within 3 years

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Immunity and Vaccination

      Pertussis immunity tends to decrease over time, and even if a person was vaccinated as a child, they can still contract the disease as an adult. The duration of immunity following acellular pertussis vaccination is not entirely clear, but it is suggested to last for five to six years. However, a booster given in the second year of life can prolong immunity to six to nine years. For this reason, a booster dose was introduced into the childhood immunisation schedule in 2001. Children born before November 1996 would not have received the booster dose, and their immunity is likely to have waned.

      When pertussis vaccination was first introduced in the 1950s, a whole-cell pertussis vaccine was used. In 2001, the booster introduced was an acellular vaccine, and in 2004, the primary course whole-cell vaccine was replaced by the five component diphtheria/tetanus/acellular pertussis/inactivated polio/Haemophilus influenza type b (DTaP/IPV/Hib) vaccine. Adults who received the unboosted whole-cell pertussis primary course and nothing since are highly likely to have waning immunity.

      Despite the waning of immunity, it is still important to immunise children. This is because immunisation can help protect them during the time of greatest vulnerability to the effects of pertussis infection.

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  • Question 177 - A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and myalgia. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8°C and there are no other notable findings. You advise her to take fluids and paracetamol and to contact you if her symptoms do not improve. She returns after a week with a worsening cough that is now accompanied by blood and a severe headache. During the examination, you observe a faint macular rash on her face, and she has mild tachypnoea but minimal chest signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psittacosis

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis: A Rare Illness Caused by Bird Exposure

      Psittacosis is a rare illness caused by Chlamydophila psittaci, which is carried by birds, particularly parrots. The incubation period is 1-4 weeks, and symptoms include myalgia, cough, headache, and flu-like symptoms. It presents as a community-acquired pneumonia with marked signs of systemic illness, including fever and lassitude. Other symptoms include a non-productive cough, dyspnoea, sore throat, nosebleeds, and occasionally pleuritic chest pain. Severe headache and photophobia are common, and gastrointestinal symptoms may occur. Rose spots, called Horder’s spots, can appear on the face. The chest x-ray may look worse than the clinical signs suggest, and bradycardia and splenomegaly are common. Treatment is with tetracycline, and the prognosis is good if early antibiotic therapy is given.

      Compared to influenza, which typically lasts for 3-5 days, psittacosis has a more gradual onset and lasts longer. L pneumophila is another possible cause of atypical pneumonia, but exposure to birds points to psittacosis. Typical community-acquired pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia, has a more acute onset and significant focal chest signs. Therefore, it is important to consider psittacosis in patients with bird exposure and atypical pneumonia symptoms.

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  • Question 178 - A rather embarrassed 27-year-old man is seen at the out-of-hours centre complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A rather embarrassed 27-year-old man is seen at the out-of-hours centre complaining of dysuria and discharge from his penis. This started about a week earlier and is increasingly uncomfortable. He is normally fit and well. You send a urethral swab for microscopy and culture and urine sample for NAAT & microscopy & culture. The results come back showing a few pus cells in his urine but no growth on either culture & negative NAAT.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: nonspecific urethritis

      Explanation:

      Common Genitourinary Conditions and Diagnostic Methods

      Chronic prostatitis is a condition that often results in pain in the perineal area. Gonorrhoea, on the other hand, can be diagnosed through a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) using urine samples in men or through a positive culture of urethral discharge. Urinary tract infections (UTIs) can be detected through a midstream urine culture. Meanwhile, balanitis xerotica et obliterans is a chronic condition characterized by atrophic white patches on the foreskin and glans penis. These conditions can be diagnosed through various diagnostic methods, which are essential in determining the appropriate treatment plan.

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  • Question 179 - A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing dinner. Upon examination, you note a three inch laceration on her left hand which is cleaned and sutured. She recalls receiving a tetanus booster shot approximately 10 years ago and has received a total of five tetanus vaccines throughout her life. What is the appropriate recommendation for tetanus prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be given tetanus immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination Not Required for Low-Risk Wound

      This woman’s wound is clean and low-risk, with a very low chance of being contaminated with tetanus bacteria. Fortunately, she has already received five doses of the tetanus vaccine in the past, which means she should not require any further vaccination. It is important to note that tetanus vaccination is crucial for individuals who have not received the vaccine or have not completed the recommended doses. However, in this case, the woman can rest assured that she is protected against tetanus and can focus on proper wound care to promote healing.

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  • Question 180 - A 27-year-old woman calls for guidance. She is 10 weeks pregnant and works...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman calls for guidance. She is 10 weeks pregnant and works in a daycare with young children. She is seeking advice on which infections to avoid during early pregnancy. What viral illness is most likely to cause birth defects in the baby if the mother contracts it during the first trimester?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Maternal Rubella and Fetal Damage

      Maternal rubella infection during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy can result in fetal damage in as many as 90% of infants, with multiple defects being common. However, the risk of fetal damage decreases to 10-20% by 16 weeks gestation. After 16 weeks, fetal damage due to maternal rubella infection is rare. It is important for pregnant women to ensure they are vaccinated against rubella to prevent potential harm to their developing fetus.

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  • Question 181 - You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 22-year-old man who visited you 4 weeks ago with symptoms of bloody diarrhoea and vomiting. He was diagnosed with Campylobacter jejuni after a stool sample test. He believes that he contracted the infection from consuming undercooked chicken at a barbecue 3 days before the onset of his symptoms.

      Although he feels much better now, with the cessation of bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, and fever, he still experiences loose stools 3-4 times a day, along with abdominal pain and bloating after eating food. He maintains a regular diet.

      What is the most probable diagnosis from the given options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary lactose intolerance

      Explanation:

      If a patient who previously had gastroenteritis and maintains a normal diet continues to experience changes in their bowel habits, the most probable diagnosis is acquired lactose intolerance.

      The most likely explanation for this scenario is secondary lactose intolerance, which occurs when the lining of the gut is damaged and temporarily unable to produce sufficient lactase. This damage can be caused by any condition that irritates and harms the gut, such as gastroenteritis. This type of lactose intolerance is usually temporary, and avoiding dairy products for a few weeks or months allows the gut to heal. Over time, the gut’s ability to produce lactase will recover, and the patient will be able to consume dairy products again.

      While other possibilities exist, inflammatory bowel disease and coeliac disease are less likely than lactose intolerance and are not typically associated with confirmed gastroenteritis.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is a rare complication of gastroenteritis, particularly with certain strains of E.coli, but it typically presents with haematuria and decreased urine output.

      The final option is unlikely since it appears that the infection has improved.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.

      Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.

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  • Question 182 - A woman wants advice about air travel while pregnant. She wants to visit...

    Incorrect

    • A woman wants advice about air travel while pregnant. She wants to visit her mother who is unwell. The flight will be 6 hours in duration. She will be 28 weeks pregnant at the time of the flight. There have been no complications during this pregnancy. She wants to know how late into the pregnancy she is allowed to fly.

      What would you advise her about air travel for an uncomplicated single pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Most airlines will not let a person fly after week 24 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Airline Restrictions for Pregnant Passengers

      Most airlines have restrictions on pregnant passengers flying beyond a certain gestation period. For single, uncomplicated pregnancies, the limit is usually week 37, while for those carrying twins or more, it is week 32. This is due to the increased risks of medical conditions and the possibility of going into labor while in the air.

      In addition to these restrictions, pregnant passengers should also be advised on how to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during flights longer than four hours. This includes walking when possible, doing in-seat exercises, staying hydrated, and wearing compression stockings. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) provides a helpful patient leaflet on this topic.

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  • Question 183 - A 30-year-old man is concerned about his risk of HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is concerned about his risk of HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) after learning that his previous partner has been diagnosed with AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome). Their last sexual encounter was two years ago, and he is currently in good health with no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer him testing for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody

      Explanation:

      The standard diagnostic and screening test for HIV now includes a combination of HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody testing. Therefore, the correct option is to offer the patient testing for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. Monitoring for those with confirmed HIV infection involves measuring CD4 lymphocyte cell count and viral load, which is not applicable in this case as the patient doesn’t have a confirmed diagnosis. A full blood count may show features suggesting HIV, but it is not a diagnostic test for HIV. NICE recommends offering an HIV test in primary care to those who request testing, have risk factors for HIV, have another sexually transmitted infection, have an AIDS-defining condition, an indicator condition, or clinical features of HIV infection. Therefore, offering the patient testing for a full blood count or stating that testing is not required as he is asymptomatic are incorrect options.

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

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  • Question 184 - A new case of Chickenpox has been reported at the daycare yesterday. A...

    Incorrect

    • A new case of Chickenpox has been reported at the daycare yesterday. A mother attends with her 4-year-old son and is anxious because she is going away for a week’s holiday on the next day. She wonders how soon her son will develop symptoms.
      Select from the list the option within which the incubation period for Chickenpox lies.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medium (7-21 days)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incubation Periods and Latent Periods in Diseases

      Incubation period refers to the time between exposure to a pathogenic organism and the onset of symptoms. This period can range from minutes to even 30 years, depending on the disease. Latent period, on the other hand, is the time from infection to infectiousness. While the two terms may be synonymous, a distinction is sometimes made between them.

      Examples of diseases with short incubation periods include norovirus, influenza, and scarlet fever. Diseases with medium incubation periods include roseola, measles, and pertussis. Mumps, erythema infectiosum, and rubella have long incubation periods, while infectious mononucleosis and hepatitis A have extra-long incubation periods. Hepatitis B has an incubation period greater than six weeks.

      Clinical latency occurs in diseases like AIDS, where people infected with HIV may not show any symptoms or signs of AIDS despite having a large viral load. It is important to understand incubation and latent periods in diseases to prevent their spread and manage their symptoms effectively.

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  • Question 185 - A 9-year-old girl presents with mild pyrexia, headache, sore throat, anorexia and abdominal...

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    • A 9-year-old girl presents with mild pyrexia, headache, sore throat, anorexia and abdominal pain. She has tiny grey-white papulovesicles and shallow ulcers with surrounding erythema, approximately 1-2 mm in diameter on her uvula, soft palate and tonsils. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackievirus

      Explanation:

      Viral Causes of Sore Throat: Herpangina and Adenovirus

      Herpangina is a viral infection caused by the Coxsackie A virus, which is most prevalent during the summer and autumn months. Although it primarily affects individuals under the age of 16, adults can also be affected. The virus is named after the town of Coxsackie in New York State. Fortunately, the infection is typically self-limiting.

      Adenovirus is the most common viral cause of sore throat. Unlike herpangina, the degree of neck lymph node enlargement is usually minimal, and the throat may not appear red. However, the pain can be severe.

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  • Question 186 - Which one of the following statements regarding pneumococcal vaccine is true for individuals?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding pneumococcal vaccine is true for individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adults should receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine rather than the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

      Explanation:

      The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.

      The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.

      Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.

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  • Question 187 - A 65-year-old man has come to see you to discuss whether he requires...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has come to see you to discuss whether he requires antibiotics prior to undergoing a root canal procedure. His dentist has suggested that he consult with his GP due to his history of infective endocarditis. Upon reviewing his electronic medical record, you discover that he has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Additionally, he has native valvular heart disease and his previous infection was caused by staphylococcus. Presently, he appears to be in good health and is not experiencing any acute medical problems.

      As per NICE guidelines, what treatment is recommended in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No specific treatment

      Explanation:

      In the UK, it is not standard practice to use antibiotic prophylaxis as a preventive measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures.

      Changes in Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis

      In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released new guidelines regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis. These guidelines significantly altered the list of procedures for which prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract procedures, and respiratory tract procedures no longer require prophylaxis. However, NICE does recommend that any infections in individuals at risk of infective endocarditis be promptly investigated and treated to reduce the risk of developing endocarditis. Additionally, if an individual at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy due to a suspected infection at the site of a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis.

      It is important to note that these recommendations differ from those of the American Heart Association and European Society of Cardiology, which still advocate for antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.

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  • Question 188 - A father is worried about the possibility of his daughter contracting influenza. His...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried about the possibility of his daughter contracting influenza. His daughter is healthy and in good shape. As per the NHS immunisation recommendations, when should the child be offered the flu vaccine for the first time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-3 years

      Explanation:

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 189 - A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional haemoptysis, fever, night sweats and weight loss that has been going on for 2 months. His CXR reveals extensive bilateral apical cavitation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Cavitating Tuberculosis

      Cavitating tuberculosis is the likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as cough, fever, weight loss, and haemoptysis, along with a chest X-ray appearance. Although lung cancer could be a possible alternative diagnosis, the symptoms strongly suggest a tuberculous infection.

      The recommended treatment for the initial phase of cavitating tuberculosis is a daily combination of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs should be continued for two months. After the initial phase, treatment should continue for an additional four months with isoniazid and rifampicin. Combination preparations are available to make compliance easier for the patient. It is important to follow the prescribed treatment plan to ensure successful recovery from cavitating tuberculosis.

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  • Question 190 - A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on anti-tuberculosis therapy. However, three weeks into the treatment, his INR has increased to 5.6. Which medication is the most likely cause of this increase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      When answering questions about liver enzymes, it is crucial to determine whether the question pertains to induction or inhibition. Candidates should avoid hastily providing drugs that cause induction as the answer. Inhibited liver enzymes can result in an elevated INR. Additionally, isoniazid is known to inhibit the P450 system.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

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  • Question 191 - A 50-year-old man has had a painful right ear for 5 days. Moving...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has had a painful right ear for 5 days. Moving the ear is painful. The external auditory canal is swollen and tender.
      Select the single most likely infecting organism.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Otitis Externa: Causes and Complications

      Acute otitis externa is a condition characterized by inflammation of the outer ear canal. While infection is the most likely cause, skin diseases and irritants may also contribute to the condition. In the acute phase, there may be little discharge. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause, followed by other Gram-positive and Gram-negative species. Fungal pathogens like Candida albicans and Aspergillus species may also be responsible, especially after prolonged treatment with antibiotics. Malignant otitis externa, a rare but life-threatening complication, occurs when the infection spreads to the mastoid and temporal bones. It is usually caused by P. aeruginosa or S. aureus and affects elderly people with diabetes or those who are immunocompromised. Symptoms include intense pain and headache.

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  • Question 192 - A 25-year-old man has been feeling sick for 48 hours with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has been feeling sick for 48 hours with a fever and headache. He is a frequent smoker. He woke up that morning to discover an itchy vesicular rash mostly on his face and trunk.
      What is the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Chickenpox

      Chickenpox is a common viral illness that can be treated with aciclovir if caught early. Most doctors would prescribe this medication to patients over the age of 12 within the first 24 hours of the rash appearing. Aciclovir can help reduce the severity of the illness, but it is ineffective if started later. The recommended dose is 800 mg taken five times daily for seven days.

      Children usually have milder symptoms and only require symptomatic treatment. However, non-immune pregnant women who come into contact with Chickenpox may be given varicella zoster immunoglobulin to reduce the severity of the illness. If a rash develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy, aciclovir may be given. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or someone you know has Chickenpox.

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  • Question 193 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-15% of adults fail to respond or respond poorly to 3 doses of the vaccine

      Explanation:

      An anti-HBs check is necessary only for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease who are at risk of occupational exposure.

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management

      Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.

      Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 194 - A 20-year-old female scheduled an appointment with her GP. She was 28-weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female scheduled an appointment with her GP. She was 28-weeks pregnant and reported a rash.

      She mentioned being outside in the warm weather and feeling a bite on her left lower leg. The area became extremely itchy and she spent most of the night scratching it. The next morning, she woke up with a hot, swollen, and tender spot where she had been bitten. Throughout the day, she began to feel ill and developed a fever.

      Upon examination, the patient appeared fatigued. Her temperature was 38ºC, oxygen saturation was 97% on air, heart rate was 100 beats per minute, respiratory rate was 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure was 122/81 mmHg. The examination revealed a red, hot, swollen area of tender skin on her left lower leg, measuring approximately 4 cm in diameter. The diagnosis was cellulitis.

      The patient had no significant medical history, but did have a documented allergy to penicillin.

      Which of the following treatment options is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant patient has a penicillin allergy and is diagnosed with cellulitis, the recommended antibiotic is erythromycin as per the NICE antimicrobial guidance. Flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav should not be prescribed in this case. It is important to note that doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, is contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed.

      Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.

      To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.

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  • Question 195 - A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.

      Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.

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  • Question 196 - One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been...

    Incorrect

    • One of your younger colleagues confides in you that she has just been diagnosed with hepatitis B. She has not told anyone else as she is worried she may lose her job. She is currently working as a nurse in the local hospital. You try to persuade her to inform occupational health but she refuses. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform your colleagues employing body

      Explanation:

      Patient safety is the top priority, as stated in the updated GMC guidelines.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

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  • Question 197 - As part of a medication review for a 75-year-old patient, who had a...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a medication review for a 75-year-old patient, who had a previous admission complicated by C. difficile infection, which of the following commonly prescribed medications should be potentially discontinued due to its association with an increased risk of C. difficile infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) have been identified as a risk factor for C. difficile infection (CDI), with evidence suggesting that they increase the likelihood of infection more than H2 antagonists. As a result, patients with CDI or those at high risk of infection, such as those who have previously experienced CDI, should have their use of PPIs reviewed. Other factors that increase the risk of CDI include advancing age, the use of antibiotics (especially broad-spectrum antibiotics and multiple courses), inflammatory bowel disease, extended hospital stays, immunosuppression, and gastrointestinal surgery.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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  • Question 198 - A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on his hand after being bitten by a dog outside his home yesterday. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate management in addition to copious irrigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Remove any foreign body and leave the wound open, administer co-amoxiclav.

      Explanation:

      Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

      Dog bites can cause serious injuries and infections. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage them properly. According to a clinical review published in the British Medical Journal in 2007, the following steps should be taken:

      1. Copious irrigation with tap water or normal saline is essential.
      2. Any foreign body (e.g. teeth) should be removed, with debridement where necessary.
      3. Closure of the wound should be delayed where possible.
      4. Antibiotics should be administered according to the risk of infection.
      5. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated for all high-risk wounds and patients.
      6. Bites to the hands, wrists, and genitalia are considered high-risk as are patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
      7. Co-amoxiclav is the antibiotic of choice as it covers all commonly expected organisms.
      8. For those with a true penicillin allergy, tetracycline or doxycycline plus metronidazole or a combination with clindamycin should be used.
      9. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin alone should not be used for prophylaxis as they do not cover the virulent Pasteurella multocida, commonly found in dog bites.
      10. Tetanus immunoglobulin and toxoid should be given to all patients with a history of two or fewer immunisations.

      It is important to note that if the patient was not bitten abroad, there is no risk of rabies.

      Proper Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review

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  • Question 199 - A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old nurse has a needlestick injury after taking blood from a patient known to be HIV positive.
      Select the single most appropriate immediate management after hand-washing for 10 minutes.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiretroviral therapy

      Explanation:

      Reducing the Risk of HIV and Hepatitis B Transmission in Healthcare Workers

      Healthcare workers are at risk of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B through needlestick injuries or other percutaneous and mucous membrane exposures. The average risk of HIV infection after such exposure is 0.3%, while the risk of hepatitis B transmission is higher. The risk is greatest for deep injuries, visible blood on the device, direct cannulation of blood vessels, or advanced HIV disease in the source patient.

      To reduce the risk of HIV transmission, healthcare workers should receive post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) as soon as possible after exposure. A small study showed an 80% reduction in seroconversion with zidovudine, and current recommendations include two nucleoside inhibitors and a protease inhibitor for 1 month. Nevirapine is not recommended due to adverse reactions.

      In addition to PEP, healthcare workers should receive hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 72 hours if the source is HBeAg positive or unknown, and they have negative serology. All healthcare workers should also be offered hepatitis B immunisation if they have not been immunised or are non-immune, following baseline serology testing.

      A careful risk assessment and information provision are crucial in the management of occupational exposure to HIV and hepatitis B in healthcare workers.

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  • Question 200 - You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • You come across an 8-year-old patient in your clinic who presents with a fever, rash, and strawberry tongue, and you diagnose them with scarlet fever. According to Public Health England, what is the timeframe within which you must submit a Notifiable Diseases form?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 72 hours

      Explanation:

      In England and Wales, clinicians are required by law to report cases of scarlet fever as it is a notifiable disease. They do not need to wait for laboratory confirmation before notifying their local health protection team. Public Health England advises that the necessary forms should be filled out immediately upon suspicion of a notifiable disease and submitted within 72 hours. In case of an emergency, verbal notification should be made within 24 hours.

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.

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