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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden and severe headache. Upon examination, she...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden and severe headache. Upon examination, she is spontaneously opening her eyes and localising to painful stimuli, but is disoriented. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage can be diagnosed with a high degree of accuracy through an urgent CT scan, which can confirm the condition in 95% of patients. In most cases, a lumbar puncture is not necessary unless the patient’s medical history suggests the need for one and the CT scan results are normal. If a bloody tap is suspected, the number of red blood cells should decrease with each successive sample. If an LP is performed six hours after the onset of symptoms, the supernatant fluid should be examined for xanthochromia after centrifugation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice? ...

    Correct

    • What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice?

      Your Answer: Macintosh

      Explanation:

      Types of Laryngoscopes

      Laryngoscopes are medical instruments used to visualize the larynx and facilitate intubation. There are several types of laryngoscopes, each with its own unique features. The Miller, Oxford, and Wisconsin laryngoscopes have straight blades, while the Macintosh and McCoy laryngoscopes have curved blades. The McCoy laryngoscope is typically used for difficult intubations, as its blade tip is hinged and can be operated by a lever mechanism on the handle. Overall, the choice of laryngoscope depends on the individual patient and the specific needs of the intubation procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 57-year-old woman has undergone a mitral valve repair and is experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman has undergone a mitral valve repair and is experiencing a prolonged recovery in the cardiac intensive care unit. To aid in her management, a pulmonary artery catheter is inserted.
      What is one of the calculated measurements provided by the pulmonary artery catheter?

      Your Answer: Right ventricular pressure

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output

      Explanation:

      Measuring Cardiac Output and Pressures with a Pulmonary Artery Catheter

      A pulmonary artery catheter can provide direct and derived measurements for assessing cardiac function. Direct measurements include right atrial pressure, right ventricular pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary artery wedge pressure, core temperature, and mixed venous saturation. The catheter can also be used to calculate cardiac output using the method of thermodilution. This involves a proximal port with a heater and a distal thermistor that senses changes in temperature.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is a direct measurement that can be obtained with the catheter, reflecting left atrial filling. However, it may not always accurately reflect the pressure in the left atrium due to various factors. Right ventricular pressure is another direct measurement that can be obtained.

      Central venous saturation is a direct measure in some machines with a built-in saturation measurement probe, while in others, samples can be taken via the distal port and measured using a gas machine. Overall, a pulmonary artery catheter can provide valuable information for monitoring cardiac output and pressures in critically ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are asked to take over a patient halfway through a case to...

    Correct

    • You are asked to take over a patient halfway through a case to relieve the consultant anaesthetist for a comfort break. The patient, who is 65 years old, has an endotracheal tube (ETT) in situ and is maintained on sevoflurane and ventilated at a rate of 14 breaths per minute, with a tidal volume of 600. You notice that the carbon dioxide (CO2) trace is high (ET 6.9) and increasing quite rapidly. The maxillofacial surgeon remarks that the patient’s jaw is quite tight and asks for more muscle relaxant. You check the patient’s temperature and find that it is high at 39.6 °C.
      Which one of the following is your priority?

      Your Answer: Actively cool the patient, stop sevoflurane and give dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Managing Malignant Hyperpyrexia: An Anaesthetic Emergency

      Malignant hyperpyrexia is a life-threatening anaesthetic emergency triggered by inhalational anaesthetics and muscle relaxants in genetically susceptible individuals. It causes a hypermetabolic state, leading to increased CO2 production, oxygen consumption, heat production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, hyperkalaemia, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.

      Early signs include a rise in end-tidal CO2, rigid muscles, tachycardia, and tachypnoea. Treatment involves discontinuation of the triggering agent, rapid administration of dantrolene, active cooling, and treatment of hyperkalaemia. Dantrolene inhibits calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and reverses the hypermetabolic state.

      It is important to inform the surgeon and stop the operation. Once the initial reaction is controlled, the patient will require transfer to the ICU and monitoring for 24-48 hours.

      In contrast, giving more muscle relaxant or antibiotics is not recommended. Active management and stabilisation of the patient should precede discussion with the ICU. Malignant hyperpyrexia requires prompt recognition and management to prevent serious complications and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      25.9
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  • Question 5 - What ASA grade (American Society of Anesthesiologists) is assigned to a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • What ASA grade (American Society of Anesthesiologists) is assigned to a patient with a severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to their life?

      Your Answer: III

      Correct Answer: IV

      Explanation:

      Anesthesia Grading Score for Patient Risk

      The American Society of Anesthesiologists developed a grading score in 1963 to assess patient risk during surgery. The score ranges from one to five and uses Roman numerals to indicate the severity of a patient’s systemic disease. Patients without systemic disease are classified as grade I, while those with mild to moderate systemic disease that does not limit their activities are classified as grade II. Patients with severe systemic disease that causes functional limitations are classified as grade III, and those with severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life are classified as grade IV. Additionally, the letter E is added to indicate emergency surgery. Finally, patients who are moribund and unlikely to survive more than 24 hours with or without surgery are classified as grade V. This grading system helps anesthesiologists determine the appropriate level of care and monitoring needed during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You have watched the anaesthetist anaesthetise a 70-year-old patient for a laparoscopic appendicectomy...

    Incorrect

    • You have watched the anaesthetist anaesthetise a 70-year-old patient for a laparoscopic appendicectomy using thiopentone and suxamethonium. She has never had an anaesthetic before. The patient is transferred from the anaesthetic room into theatre and you notice that she becomes difficult to ventilate with high airway pressures. She has an endotracheal tube (ETT) in situ, with equal chest rise and sats of 95% on 15 l of oxygen. On examining her cardiovascular system, she has a heart rate of 110 bpm with a blood pressure of 68/45 mmHg. She has an erythematosus rash across her chest and face.
      What is your first line of action?

      Your Answer: 1 ml of 1 : 10 000 adrenaline iv

      Correct Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline intramuscularly (im)

      Explanation:

      Management of Anaphylaxis: Medications and Dosages

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The first-line management for anaphylaxis is the administration of adrenaline, also known as epinephrine. The dosage of adrenaline varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline should be given intramuscularly (im), and the dose can be repeated after 5 minutes if there is no response. In children, the dosage ranges from 150 to 500 micrograms depending on age.

      Intravenous (iv) administration of adrenaline is not recommended at a concentration of 1 : 1000. However, iv adrenaline can be administered at a concentration of 1 : 10 000 by an anaesthetist, titrated according to effect. An adrenaline infusion may be necessary for cardiovascular support of the patient.

      Chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone are also part of the treatment for anaphylaxis, but adrenaline takes priority. The dosages of these drugs vary depending on the age of the patient and can be given either im or through a slow iv injection.

      It is important to note that anaphylaxis is a medical emergency, and prompt treatment with the appropriate medications is crucial for a positive outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are on an anaesthetic attachment in Day Surgery and are reviewing patients...

    Incorrect

    • You are on an anaesthetic attachment in Day Surgery and are reviewing patients preoperatively. You review a 25-year-old man who is having an elective knee arthroscopy. He has not had a general anaesthetic before, but he tells you that his father had problems following suxamethonium anaesthetic, and he had to have a muscle sample sent off to find out the cause, which came back positive. His father is still alive.
      Which of these is his father’s most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolonged paralysis

      Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Common Complications of Suxamethonium Administration

      Suxamethonium is a commonly used muscle relaxant during anesthesia. However, it can lead to several complications, including malignant hyperthermia, raised intraocular pressure, anaphylaxis, prolonged paralysis, and hyperkalemia.

      Malignant hyperthermia is a genetic myopathy that causes a hypermetabolic state, leading to circulatory collapse and death. Treatment involves recognition, removal of stimuli, continuation of anesthesia with intravenous agents, cooling, and administration of dantrolene.

      Raised intraocular pressure and intracranial pressure can occur after suxamethonium administration, but this is only relevant to patients with ocular and intracranial diseases.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur after suxamethonium administration. Diagnosis is based on signs and symptoms.

      Prolonged paralysis can occur in patients with abnormal pseudocholinesterase level or function, which is generally due to inherited genetic alleles. Diagnosis is by blood test.

      Hyperkalemia can occur after suxamethonium administration, especially in patients with severe muscle damage or recent burns. Diagnosis does not require a muscle biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - To visualize the vocal cords, where should the tip of a Macintosh laryngoscope...

    Incorrect

    • To visualize the vocal cords, where should the tip of a Macintosh laryngoscope be inserted?

      Your Answer: Posterior to the epiglottis

      Correct Answer: Into the vallecula

      Explanation:

      Macintosh Laryngoscope: A Tool for Visualizing the Vocal Cords

      The Macintosh laryngoscope is a medical instrument designed to aid in the visualization of the vocal cords. Its curved blade is specifically shaped to fit into the oral and oropharyngeal cavity. To use it, the blade is inserted through the right side of the mouth and gradually advanced, pushing the tongue to the left and out of view. The blade has a small bulbous tip that is intended to sit in the vallecula, a small depression between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis.

      By lifting the laryngoscope up and forwards, the larynx is elevated, allowing for a clear view of the vocal cords. This tool is commonly used in medical settings, such as during intubation procedures or when examining the airway. Its design allows for a safe and effective way to visualize the vocal cords, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - How can suxamethonium be described accurately? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can suxamethonium be described accurately?

      Your Answer: Is a non-depolarising muscle relaxant

      Correct Answer: May cause bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium: A Depolarising Muscle Relaxant

      Suxamethonium is a type of muscle relaxant that causes muscular fasciculations after being injected intravenously. It quickly induces neuromuscular paralysis, but recovery is spontaneous once it is metabolized by the enzyme pseudo or plasma cholinesterase, which is produced in the liver. However, certain pesticides and drugs, such as ecothiopate iodide, can inhibit cholinesterase activity and prolong the effects of suxamethonium. Additionally, reduced levels of plasma cholinesterase can be caused by liver disease, malnutrition, and pregnancy, while genetically determined abnormal enzymes can also lead to a prolonged action of suxamethonium. It’s important to note that neostigmine and other anticholinesterase drugs do not serve as reversal agents and can actually potentiate the neuromuscular block caused by suxamethonium.

      When administering suxamethonium, it’s important to be aware that bradycardia (a slow heart rate) may occur in children after the first dose and in adults after repeated doses. Premedication with atropine should be considered to prevent this. It’s also crucial to note that suxamethonium is a potent trigger of both anaphylaxis and malignant hyperpyrexia, with the incidence of anaphylaxis being highest with rocuronium, atracurium, and suxamethonium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the combination of ingredients in Hartmann's solution? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the combination of ingredients in Hartmann's solution?

      Your Answer: Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and dextrose

      Correct Answer: Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and lactate

      Explanation:

      Hartmann’s Solution Composition and Metabolism

      Hartmann’s solution, also known as lactated Ringer’s solution, is an intravenous fluid that is isotonic in nature. It contains various compounds, including sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate. A litre of this solution contains 131 mmol of sodium, 111 mmol of chloride, 5 mmol of potassium, 2 mmol of calcium, and 29 mmol of lactate.

      One of the unique features of Hartmann’s solution is the presence of lactate, which is metabolized by the liver to release bicarbonate. This process is important because bicarbonate would otherwise combine with calcium to form calcium carbonate, which can cause complications. Therefore, the metabolism of lactate helps to maintain the stability of the solution and prevent any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      6.9
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  • Question 11 - A 98-year-old gentleman is admitted for an incarcerated hernia. He has a past...

    Incorrect

    • A 98-year-old gentleman is admitted for an incarcerated hernia. He has a past medical history of chronic kidney disease stage 3, secondary to hypertension, and a background of transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs) and osteoarthritis of both knees.
      He has four good twitches on train of four testing (normal response), following which reversal of his muscle relaxant was given. Intraoperatively, he received a total of 100 micrograms of fentanyl, 20 mg of morphine and 1 g of paracetamol for pain. He has an arterial line in situ. Blood gas prior to finishing the procedure showed a pH of 7.35, PaCO2 of 5.4 kPa, HCO3− of 21 mmol/l, with a blood sugar of 7.2.
      You attempt to wean him off ventilation, but 20 minutes later he still does not want to breathe unsupported or wake up.
      What should your next course of action be?

      Your Answer: Give 100 ml of 10% glucose intravenously (iv)

      Correct Answer: Give naloxone 100 micrograms iv

      Explanation:

      Medical Interventions for a Post-Operative Patient with Reduced Consciousness

      When dealing with a post-operative patient with reduced consciousness, it is important to rule out any reversible causes before administering any medical interventions. In the case of opiate toxicity, administering naloxone, an opiate antidote, can reverse the effects of the opiates. However, if the patient’s reduced Glasgow Coma Scale score and lack of respiratory effort are not caused by hypoglycemia, giving intravenous glucose is not necessary. It is also important to consider the patient’s age and wait a little longer to rule out any reversible causes. Administering a second dose of muscle relaxant reversal is unlikely to help if the patient has adequate contraction on train of four testing. Lastly, before re-sedating the patient for a CT head, it is necessary to rule out any reversible causes such as opiate toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which volatile agent was linked to the development of fulminant hepatitis after secondary...

    Incorrect

    • Which volatile agent was linked to the development of fulminant hepatitis after secondary exposure?

      Your Answer: Desflurane

      Correct Answer: Halothane

      Explanation:

      Halothane Hepatitis and Precautions

      Halothane hepatitis is a condition that can range from minor liver function issues to severe liver failure. It occurs when liver damage appears within 28 days of exposure to halothane, after excluding other known causes of liver disease. About 75% of patients with halothane hepatitis have antibodies that react to halothane-altered antigens. Therefore, it is important to take precautions when using halothane.

      Halothane should be avoided if there has been a previous exposure within three months, if there is a known adverse reaction to halothane, if there is a family history of adverse reactions, or if there is pre-existing liver disease. These precautions can help prevent the occurrence of halothane hepatitis and ensure the safety of patients. It is important to carefully consider the use of halothane and take necessary measures to avoid any potential harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are due to transfer a critically unwell patient from theatre to intensive...

    Incorrect

    • You are due to transfer a critically unwell patient from theatre to intensive care. The oxygen cylinder is size D (contains 340 l of oxygen when full) and has been running for 12 minutes. The oxygen is running at 10 l/min. How long do you have to transfer the patient before the oxygen cylinder is empty?

      Your Answer: 36 minutes

      Correct Answer: 28 minutes

      Explanation:

      Calculating Oxygen Remaining in a Cylinder

      When using an oxygen cylinder, it’s important to know how much oxygen is left to avoid running out. To calculate the remaining oxygen, you need to know the cylinder size and the flow rate. For example, if a cylinder has 340 litres of oxygen and is flowing at 10 litres per minute, how much oxygen is left after 6 minutes?

      In 6 minutes, 60 litres of oxygen would have already been used (6 min × 10 l/min = 60 l). To find out how much oxygen is left, subtract the amount used from the total amount: 340 – 60 = 280 litres. Then, divide the remaining gas (280 l) by the flow rate (10 l/min) to get the remaining time: 280/10 = 28 minutes.

      It’s important to note that if the flow rate is higher or the cylinder size is smaller, the remaining time will be shorter. Therefore, it’s crucial to monitor the oxygen levels and have a backup cylinder on hand in case of emergency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old man who lives alone in a cabin is brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who lives alone in a cabin is brought to the Emergency Department by his son. He was found lying on the floor unconscious but later regained consciousness. He now reports experiencing a headache, nausea, difficulty breathing, and feeling faint. He does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use any recreational drugs.
      Which of the following tests is most likely to result in a likely diagnosis of carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning?

      Your Answer: Measurement of arterial PO2 levels

      Correct Answer: Multi-wavelength oximetry analysis

      Explanation:

      Multi-Wavelength Oximetry Analysis for Diagnosis of CO Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning can be diagnosed through a thorough history and physical examination, but measuring the presence of dissolved CO in blood is necessary. Multi-wavelength oximeters can detect carboxyhaemoglobin and methaemoglobin in addition to oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin. Normal CO levels are 1-3%, and any higher levels confirm CO poisoning. Arterial p(O2) levels remain unchanged in CO poisoning, so they cannot be used for diagnosis. CT scans can rule out other causes of neurological complications, and ECGs and cardiac enzyme measurements are necessary for patients with higher exposures or pre-existing cardiac conditions. Standard pulse oximetry cannot distinguish between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin and is not useful for diagnosing CO poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      8.5
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  • Question 15 - You are requested to evaluate a 50-year-old individual who underwent a left total...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 50-year-old individual who underwent a left total knee replacement two days ago. The patient reports experiencing weakness in the movement of their right foot since the surgery. They are curious if the spinal anesthesia administered during the procedure could be the cause, despite no complications being reported at the time. Apart from this issue, the patient is in good health. Upon clinical examination, you observe a suspected foot drop as there is a weakened dorsiflexion of the right foot. What is the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: Cerebrovascular accident

      Correct Answer: Poor intra-operative positioning and padding

      Explanation:

      Post-Operative Foot Drop Caused by Prolonged Pressure on Common Peroneal Nerve

      Prolonged pressure on the common peroneal nerve during anaesthesia is a well-known cause of post-operative foot drop. It is important to ensure that patients are adequately padded on the fibula head when positioning them under general or regional anaesthesia for extended periods of time. While a central neurological cause is unlikely to cause such well-defined peripheral nerve lesions, it is essential to take precautions to prevent nerve damage during surgery.

      Treatment for post-operative foot drop is typically conservative, and the transient neuropraxia can often pass. However, in some cases, this may result in permanent injury. It is crucial to monitor patients closely after surgery and provide appropriate care to prevent further complications. By taking preventative measures and providing proper post-operative care, healthcare professionals can help reduce the risk of post-operative foot drop and other nerve injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the correct information about Entonox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct information about Entonox?

      Your Answer: Takes approximately 30 minutes before producing effective analgesia

      Correct Answer: Is an effective short term analgesic

      Explanation:

      Entonox: A Mixture of Nitrous Oxide and Oxygen

      Entonox is a gas mixture of 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen that is stored in cylinders. The cylinders have a French blue body with blue and white quarters at the top. It is important to note that if the gas mixture cools below its pseudocritical temperature of −6°C, the nitrous oxide and oxygen may separate out through a process called lamination. This can result in a potentially dangerous and hypoxic gas being administered.

      Despite being a flammable mixture, Entonox is not considered explosive. It is effective in providing short-term analgesia and is safe for both infants and mothers. The onset of action occurs approximately 30 seconds after inhalation, and the duration of action after analgesia is approximately one minute.

      It is important to distinguish nitrous oxide (N2O) from nitric oxide (NO) as they are not the same. Overall, Entonox is a useful gas mixture for providing short-term pain relief, but it must be stored and administered properly to avoid any potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      5.8
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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath over the past six months. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with aortic stenosis. What physical sign is the most reliable indicator of the severity of the valvular disease?

      Your Answer: Character of the apex beat

      Correct Answer: Length of the murmur

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve becomes narrowed, causing the heart to work harder to pump blood out to the body. Despite this increased workload, the apex beat in aortic stenosis is not displaced but has a heaving character. Additionally, the pulse is typically of small volume and slow rising. The second heart sound may be inaudible or paradoxically split.

      It is important to note that the intensity of the murmur is not a reliable indicator of the severity of the disease. As the cardiac output is reduced with more severe disease, the murmur may become less intense. However, the murmur tends to become longer as the disease progresses, due to the longer ejection time needed. These characteristics can help healthcare professionals diagnose and monitor aortic stenosis in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      21.6
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following is not involved in managing chronic pain caused by...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not involved in managing chronic pain caused by cancer?

      Your Answer: Clodronate

      Correct Answer: Pinaverium

      Explanation:

      Medications for Pain Relief in Various Conditions

      Pinaverium is a medication that is commonly used to reduce the duration of pain in individuals with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). On the other hand, carbamazepine is used to treat neuropathic pain that is associated with malignancy, diabetes, and other disorders. Clodronate is another medication that is used to treat malignant bone pain and hypercalcaemia by inhibiting osteoclastic bone resorption.

      Corticosteroids are also used to treat pain caused by central nervous system tumours. These medications work by reducing inflammation and oedema, which in turn relieves the pain caused by neural compression. Nifedipine is another medication that is used to relieve painful oesophageal spasm and tenesmus that is associated with gastrointestinal tumours.

      Lastly, oxybutynin is a medication that is used to relieve painful bladder spasm. Overall, these medications are used to treat pain in various conditions and can provide relief to individuals who are experiencing discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In case there is no intravenous access available, what is the next most...

    Incorrect

    • In case there is no intravenous access available, what is the next most favored way to administer adrenaline during a cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular

      Correct Answer: Intraosseous

      Explanation:

      Intraosseous Access as an Alternative to Intravenous Access in Emergency Situations

      In emergency situations where intravenous access cannot be obtained quickly, intraosseous access should be attempted as it is preferred over endotracheal access. According to the Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines, if intravenous access cannot be established within the first 2 minutes of resuscitation, gaining intraosseous access should be considered. This is particularly important during a cardiac arrest when epinephrine is an essential resuscitation drug. The recommended dose for intraosseous access is the same as intravenous access, which is 1 mg of 1:10,000 adrenaline each 3-5 minutes. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be trained in intraosseous access as it can be a life-saving alternative when intravenous access is not possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      26.4
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  • Question 20 - What is the preferred intravenous induction agent for anesthesia in day case procedures?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the preferred intravenous induction agent for anesthesia in day case procedures?

      Your Answer: Etomidate

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Different Anesthetic Agents

      Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic agent with an elimination half-life of four hours. It is commonly used for day case procedures and sedation in intensive care units. On the other hand, etomidate is no longer preferred due to its side effects such as postoperative nausea and vomiting, venous thrombosis, and interference with glucocorticoid production. Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, can cause hallucinations and nightmares. Methohexitone may lead to involuntary muscular movement and epileptiform activity on an EEG. Lastly, thiopentone has the longest elimination half-life of 12 hours, which can cause a prolonged hangover effect.

      In summary, different anesthetic agents have their own advantages and disadvantages. It is important to choose the appropriate agent based on the patient’s condition and the type of procedure being performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      28
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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old man on the Medical Ward develops status epilepticus. He is immediately...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man on the Medical Ward develops status epilepticus. He is immediately attended by the Foundation Year One Doctor who notices that his airway has been compromised. The patient is immediately examined and found to be haemodynamically stable, with a history of hypertension and asthma. The anaesthetist immediately performs a rapid sequence induction and intubation (RSII) to clear the patient’s airway.
      Which of the following inducing agents used in RSII is most likely to be used in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Common Inducing Anaesthetic Agents and Their Uses

      Propofol, etomidate, ketamine, midazolam, and thiopental are all commonly used inducing anaesthetic agents with varying properties and uses.

      Propofol is the drug of choice for RSII procedures in normotensive individuals without obvious cardiovascular pathology. It has amnesic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant properties, but no analgesic effects.

      Etomidate provides haemodynamic stability without histamine activity and minimal analgesic effects. It is used in RSI procedures in patients with raised intracranial pressure and cardiovascular conditions, often in combination with fentanyl.

      Ketamine is a non-competitive glutamate N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor blocker that produces dissociative anaesthesia. It can be used for induction of anaesthesia in patients with hypotension, status asthmaticus, and shock, but is avoided in hypertensive patients due to relative contraindications.

      Midazolam is a benzodiazepine with anticonvulsive, muscle relaxant, and anaesthetic actions. At higher doses or in combination with other opioids, it induces significant cardiovascular and respiratory depression.

      Thiopental is administered intravenously as an inducing anaesthetic agent or as a short-acting anaesthetic. It is also used as an anticonvulsant agent and to decrease intracranial pressure in neurosurgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      8.4
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  • Question 22 - You are asked to see a patient on the high dependency unit following...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a patient on the high dependency unit following an elective repair of her abdominal aortic aneurysm. Her last haemoglobin was 75 g/L (130-180) and your consultant has told you to give her four units of blood urgently.

      The nurse informs you that the patient's date of birth is incorrect on the blood she is about to give, although all other details are correct. The patient mentions that this has happened before. She has previously received six units of blood in theatre without any issues.

      What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Stop the blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      Importance of Correct Patient Identification in Transfusions

      Transfusions are a crucial aspect of medical treatment, but incorrect patient identification of samples and blood products can lead to fatal consequences. In fact, it is the most common cause of death following transfusion. Therefore, it is essential to ensure that patient identification is accurate and consistent throughout the process.

      If there are any inconsistencies or doubts about the patient’s identity, it is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and inform the laboratory. This step can prevent serious harm or even death. It is better to err on the side of caution and take the necessary steps to ensure that the patient receives the correct blood product.

      In emergency situations where blood is needed immediately, and there is uncertainty about the patient’s identity, group O negative blood may be used. However, this should only be a temporary solution until the patient’s identity is confirmed, and the appropriate blood product can be administered.

      In conclusion, patient identification is a critical aspect of transfusions, and any errors or inconsistencies should be addressed immediately to prevent harm to the patient. It is better to take the necessary precautions and ensure that the patient receives the correct blood product, even if it means delaying the transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      9.4
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, asthma and porphyria requires emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, asthma and porphyria requires emergency surgery. His blood pressure and asthma are under control. What is the most suitable anaesthetic induction agent for the rapid sequence induction (RSI) procedure?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      An Overview of Common Anaesthetic Induction Agents and Their Advantages and Adverse Effects

      Propofol, ketamine, fentanyl, methohexital, and thiopental are commonly used anaesthetic induction agents. Propofol is the preferred choice for most people due to its rapid onset and offset of action, antiemetic and anticonvulsive effects, bronchodilation, and decreased cerebral metabolic oxygen demand and cerebral blood pressure. Ketamine is ideal for hypotensive patients due to its rapid onset, analgesic effects, bronchodilation, and maintenance of airway reflexes and respiratory drive. Fentanyl is an opiate analgesic used for pain relief, while methohexital is used for electroconvulsive therapy. Thiopental is a barbiturate used in general and regional anaesthesia. However, each agent has its own set of advantages and adverse effects that must be considered before use. For example, ketamine can increase intracranial pressure, cardiac output, and blood pressure, while thiopental can cause bronchoconstriction and is contraindicated in asthmatics and patients with a history of porphyria. It is important to carefully evaluate each patient’s medical history and condition before selecting an appropriate anaesthetic induction agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 24 - A 60kg woman with a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 l is...

    Incorrect

    • A 60kg woman with a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 l is pre-oxygenated adequately for 3 minutes. Oxygen extraction per minute is 250 ml.
      How long will the patient have in theory before they begin to desaturate?

      Your Answer: 5 minutes

      Correct Answer: 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pre-Oxygenation and Desaturation Time

      Pre-oxygenation is a crucial step in ensuring adequate oxygenation during medical procedures. In a 70-kg man, the functional residual capacity (FRC) is approximately 2.5 liters. If pre-oxygenated adequately, all of the FRC will be 100% oxygen, and oxygen extraction per minute is 250 ml. This means that the patient will have 10 minutes of adequate oxygenation in the absence of ventilation before desaturation occurs.

      However, if only 21% (room air) was in the FRC, the patient would only have 2 minutes before they started to desaturate. It is important to note that the oxygen extraction rate is 250 ml per minute in a 70-kg male. A person who has been adequately preoxygenated will not start to desaturate until double this time period, which is 10 minutes.

      Therefore, if the patient is oxygenated on room air only, the correct answer for desaturation time would be 2.5 minutes. However, if the patient has been adequately preoxygenated, they will desaturate well before 25 minutes is reached. Understanding pre-oxygenation and desaturation time is crucial in ensuring patient safety during medical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 25 - How should neuropathic pain be managed? ...

    Incorrect

    • How should neuropathic pain be managed?

      Your Answer: It is more difficult to relieve nociceptive pain than neuropathic pain

      Correct Answer: Anticonvulsants are prescribed in similar doses to the treatment of epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Neuropathic Pain and Treatment Options

      Neuropathic pain is a chronic condition that affects neuronal membrane excitability and often results in allodynia, hyperalgesia, and hyperpathia. Unlike nociceptive pain, neuropathic pain is less responsive to opioids and can be more difficult to treat. To manage this type of pain, coanalgesics such as antidepressants, anticonvulsants, and antiarrhythmics are commonly prescribed. Anticonvulsants are typically administered at similar doses and schedules as in the treatment of epilepsy. The analgesic response to mexiletine can be predicted by evaluating the improvement in pain after an intravenous lidocaine infusion. Amitriptyline, on the other hand, has a faster analgesic response than its antidepressant effect, with pain relief occurring within a week of treatment. Overall, managing neuropathic pain requires a multifaceted approach that may involve a combination of medications and other therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      16
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  • Question 26 - The following blood gas values were obtained on a different ventilated patient.
    pH 7.4...

    Incorrect

    • The following blood gas values were obtained on a different ventilated patient.
      pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)
      pO2 95 mmHg (90-120)
      Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (23-26)
      pCO2 30 mmHg (35-45)
      What is the most appropriate explanation for these results?

      Your Answer: Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis.

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Alkalosis: Causes and Effects

      Respiratory alkalosis is a condition that occurs when a person hyperventilates, leading to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) in the alveoli. This decrease in PaCO2 causes an increase in the ratio of bicarbonate concentration (HCO3) to PaCO2, which in turn increases the pH of the blood. As a result, the patient may appear to have an alkalosis with a high pH of 7.5, low pCO2, and normal PO2. However, the body tries to compensate for this by lowering the bicarbonate concentration. This condition can be caused by a variety of factors, including anxiety, fever, hypoxia, and pulmonary disease. It can also be a side effect of certain medications or a result of high altitude. Treatment for respiratory alkalosis depends on the underlying cause and may include addressing the underlying condition, breathing techniques, or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      17
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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and he has been prescribed intravenous (IV) fluids. Three days later, he reports feeling short of breath, and on examination, he has widespread fine crackles and pitting sacral oedema. His notes show that he has been receiving 2 litres of fluid a day and that he weighs 50 kg. You treat him, and once his symptoms have resolved, you're-calculate his daily maintenance fluid requirements.
      Which of the following options is the most suitable amount of daily fluid to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Fluid Requirements for a Patient with Fluid Overload

      When determining a patient’s fluid requirements, it is important to consider their weight and any underlying medical conditions. For this particular patient, who weighs 48 kg, her maintenance fluid requirement is between 1200-1440 ml per day, calculated using 25-30 ml/kg/day.

      However, this patient has developed fluid overload and pulmonary edema, likely due to receiving 2 liters of fluid per day. While this may have been necessary initially due to fluid loss from bowel obstruction, it is now important to step down to normal maintenance levels.

      Giving the patient 1500-2000 ml of fluid per day would still be too much, as evidenced by examination findings of pitting sacral edema and widespread fine crackles. The maximum amount of fluid needed for maintenance therapy is 1440 ml per day.

      It is crucial to monitor fluid intake and adjust as necessary to prevent further complications from fluid overload. Giving too much fluid, such as 2500-3500 ml per day, can be harmful for a patient with fluid overload and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 28 - A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were found to have perforated from a septic appendix. This has resulted in part of their bowel being removed and a stoma formation. The patient has been on the table for two and a half hours. Their core temperature at the end of the operation is 35.1 °C.
      Which mechanism accounts for most heat lost?

      Your Answer: Convection

      Correct Answer: Radiation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heat Loss During Surgery: The Role of Radiation, Convection, Conduction, Evaporation, and Respiration

      During surgery, the body can lose heat through various mechanisms. Radiation, which accounts for 40% of heat loss, depends on factors such as body temperature and the environment. To combat this, patients are covered with warming methods like the Bair Hugger™. Convection, or air movement, contributes to 30% of heat loss, while conduction (5%) occurs through contact with the operating table and surrounding air. Evaporation (15%) is higher if the abdomen is open, and humidity is kept at 50% in the theatre to reduce it. Finally, respiration accounts for 10% of heat loss. Understanding these mechanisms can help healthcare professionals better manage patient temperature during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old cyclist, who was in a car accident, needs to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old cyclist, who was in a car accident, needs to have a central venous line (CVL) inserted. Which of the following statements is the most precise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CVL placement is required for the administration of adrenaline infusion

      Explanation:

      Central Venous Lines: Placement, Uses, and Complications

      Central venous lines (CVLs) are commonly used in medical settings for various purposes, including the administration of inotropes such as adrenaline, parenteral nutrition, blood products, fluids, and measurement of central venous pressures. However, the use of CVLs is not without risks and complications, which include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax.

      When it comes to the placement of CVLs, the site of choice is the subclavian vein, although the complication risk is higher. Femoral lines are more susceptible to infection due to the flora within the groin area. Consideration of the age of all lines should be made on daily review within the Intensive Care Unit/High Dependency Unit environment, as routine replacement of a CVL every fortnight is uncommon.

      Lastly, a check radiograph for placement is recommended on insertion of both subclavian and internal jugular lines to confirm correct placement within the superior vena cava and to exclude a procedural pneumothorax. However, this does not need to be repeated on removal, as there are no needles or incisions involved in the removal of the line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 30 - You are conducting a pre-assessment for a 28-year-old man who is scheduled to...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a pre-assessment for a 28-year-old man who is scheduled to undergo a colectomy for treatment resistant ulcerative colitis. This will be his first surgery. Your intended anaesthetic plan involves using propofol and sevoflurane as induction agents and suxamethonium as a muscle relaxant. What aspects of the patient's medical history and condition would cause you to modify your anaesthetic plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient’s mother was ‘unable to move’ for 5 h after having an abdominal hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Anesthesia in a Patient with Medical History

      When administering anesthesia to a patient, it is important to take into account their medical history and any potential risk factors. Here are some considerations for a patient with specific medical history:

      Anesthesia Considerations for a Patient with Medical History

      – Prolonged Paralysis: If a patient has a family or personal history of prolonged paralysis after receiving suxamethonium, it may be necessary to consider using a different muscle relaxant during surgery.
      – Asthma: Patients with asthma are at a higher risk of airway irritation during endotracheal intubation. However, in some surgeries, intubation is necessary and careful monitoring is required.
      – Blood Pressure: While a blood pressure of 110/75 may be normal for a 26-year-old male, it is important to review the patient’s past blood pressure measurements to ensure that this is the case. Induction agents with profound cardiovascular effects should be avoided if the patient is in shock.
      – Family History of Cardiac Arrest: If a patient has a family history of cardiac arrest, it is important to review the facts of the case and consider any independent risk factors that may have contributed to the event.
      – Penicillin Allergy: While anesthesia agents do not contain penicillin, it is important to document any allergies in case the patient requires antibiotics after surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthetics & ITU (13/28) 46%
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