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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who has recently had a gastrectomy is informed that he will experience a deficiency in vitamin B12. What is the probable physiological reasoning behind this?
Your Answer: Increased upper GI gut transit
Correct Answer: Loss of intrinsic factors
Explanation:Effects of Gastrectomy on Nutrient Absorption and Digestion
Gastrectomy, whether partial or complete, can have significant effects on nutrient absorption and digestion. One of the most important consequences is the loss of intrinsic factors, which are necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. Intrinsic factor is produced by the gastric parietal cells, which are mostly found in the body of the stomach. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed and stored in the liver, leading to megaloblastic anemia and potentially serious complications such as dilated cardiomyopathy or subacute degeneration of the spinal cord.
Another consequence of gastrectomy is the loss of storage ability, which can cause early satiety and abdominal bloating after meals. This is due to the fact that the stomach is no longer able to hold as much food as before, and the remaining small intestine has to compensate for the missing stomach volume.
Achlorohydria is another common problem after gastrectomy, as the parietal cells that produce hydrochloric acid are also lost. This can lead to a range of symptoms such as abdominal bloating, diarrhea, indigestion, weight loss, malabsorption, and bacterial overgrowth of the small intestine.
Failed gastric emptying is not a major concern after gastrectomy, as it is unlikely to cause vitamin B12 deficiency. However, increased upper GI gut transit can affect the rate of nutrient absorption and lead to symptoms such as diarrhea and weight loss. Overall, gastrectomy can have significant effects on nutrient absorption and digestion, and patients should be closely monitored for any signs of malnutrition or complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her partner due to increasing confusion and abdominal distension. Collateral history indicates increasing forgetfulness over the last 12 months and that other members of the family have had similar symptoms although further details are not available. Examination identifies hepatomegaly and ascites. The patient is noted to have a shuffling gait and tremor. Ultrasound of the liver confirms the presence of cirrhosis.
Which one of the following tests would most likely confirm the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Serum anti smooth muscle antibodies
Correct Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin
Explanation:Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Wilson’s disease is a rare genetic disorder that causes copper to accumulate in the liver and brain, leading to a range of symptoms including neuropsychiatric issues, liver disease, and parkinsonism. Diagnosis is typically based on low serum ceruloplasmin and low serum copper, as well as the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings in the cornea. Treatment involves a low copper diet and the use of copper chelators like penicillamine, with liver transplant as a potential option for severe cases. Other conditions, such as α-1-antitrypsin deficiency and autoimmune hepatitis, can cause liver disease but do not typically present with parkinsonian symptoms. Understanding the unique features of Wilson’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old accountant presents with right upper quadrant pain and abnormal liver function tests. An ultrasound scan reveals a dilated common bile duct. The patient undergoes an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure. During the procedure, the consultant asks you to identify the location of the Ampulla of Vater, which is cannulated. Can you tell me where the Ampulla of Vater enters the bowel?
Your Answer: Inferior (third part) duodenum
Correct Answer: Descending (second part) duodenum
Explanation:The Parts of the Duodenum: A Brief Overview
The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine and is divided into four parts. Each part has its own unique characteristics and functions.
Superior (first part) duodenum: This is the first part of the duodenum that connects the stomach to the small intestine.
Descending (second part) duodenum: The ampulla of Vater, where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct enter the duodenum, is located in this part. It is cannulated during ERCP to access the biliary tree.
Inferior (third part) duodenum: The ampulla of Vater does not join this part, but rather the second part.
Ascending (fourth part) duodenum: This is the last part of the duodenum that joins the jejunum, the second part of the small intestine.
Understanding the different parts of the duodenum is important for diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a painful sore inside her mouth that has been bothering her for the past week. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin for it.
During the mouth examination, the GP observes an oval-shaped, shallow ulcer with a red rim around it. The ulcer is sensitive to touch, and no other lesions are visible. The patient does not have swollen lymph nodes and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:Management of Aphthous Ulcers: Topical Steroids and Pain Control
Aphthous ulcers are a common benign oral lesion that can be triggered by local trauma or certain foods. The first-line management for this condition typically involves topical steroids and topical lidocaine for pain control. Biopsy of the lesion is not indicated unless the ulcer is not healing after three weeks and malignancy needs to be excluded. Epstein-Barr virus testing is only necessary if there are signs of oral hairy leucoplakia. Immediate specialist referral is necessary if there are signs of malignancy. Oral steroids can be considered in refractory cases, but should be used cautiously in patients with diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man was involved in a motorcycle race accident where a rod pierced his abdomen. He underwent emergency surgery and survived. After a year, he complains of abdominal pain and frequent stools, and is diagnosed with anemia. His blood tests show a vitamin B12 level of 41 (160–900 pmol/l) and serum folate of 35 ug/l (4.20 - 18.70 ug/l). He denies any dietary intolerance or rectal bleeding. What is the gold standard test for diagnosing this condition?
Your Answer: Blood IgA–tTG level
Correct Answer: Culture of small intestinal fluid
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)
Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, steatorrhoea, and megaloblastic anaemia. It is often seen in patients who have had abdominal surgery and is characterized by an overgrowth of bacteria in the small intestine. The gold standard for diagnosis of SIBO is culture of small intestinal fluid aspirate, with a duodenal aspirate showing >105 CFU/ml considered a sensitive marker for SIBO.
SIBO is thought to develop as a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, with decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility being important. Any structural defect can have an effect on gut motility, and intestinal surgery predisposes patients to diverticular formation or stricture formation, both of which will lead to an increased risk of SIBO.
Bacterial overgrowth responds to antibiotic therapy, with many antibiotics being effective in SIBO, including metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, and rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.
Other diagnostic tests for SIBO include hydrogen breath tests, which can give quick results but may be confounded by factors such as intestinal transit time, diet, smoking, and methane-producing bacteria. Serum folate levels and blood IgA-tTG levels are not diagnostic of SIBO, but intestinal biopsy specimens (unwashed) may be sent for culture.
In conclusion, SIBO is a common cause of malabsorption in the Western world, particularly in conditions where there is intestinal stasis or formation of a blind loop. Diagnosis is made through culture of small intestinal fluid aspirate, and treatment involves antibiotic therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman presents with haematemesis. She has vomited twice, producing large amount of bright red blood, although the exact volume was not measured. On examination, you discover that there is a palpable spleen tip, and spider naevi over the chest, neck and arms.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Oesophageal varices
Explanation:Causes and Management of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding
Upper gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various conditions, including oesophageal varices, Mallory-Weiss tear, peptic ulcer, gastric ulcer, and oesophagitis. In cases of suspected oesophageal varices, examination findings of splenomegaly and spider naevi suggest chronic liver failure with portal hypertension. Immediate management includes resuscitation, PPI levels, and urgent endoscopy to diagnose and treat the source of bleeding. Peptic ulcer is the most common cause of serious upper GI bleeding, but sudden-onset haematemesis of large volume of fresh blood is more suggestive of a bleed from oesophageal varices. OGD can diagnose both oesophageal varices and peptic ulcers. Oesophagitis may cause pain but is unlikely to lead to significant haematemesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, jaundice and malaise over the last three days. His initial lab results indicate elevated liver enzymes and a decreased platelet count. He has not traveled recently. The possibility of autoimmune hepatitis is being evaluated. What antibodies are the most specific for this condition?
Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody
Correct Answer: Anti-smooth muscle antibodies
Explanation:Differentiating Autoimmune Liver Disease: Antibody Tests
When a patient presents with abnormal liver function tests and a young age, autoimmune liver disease is a possible diagnosis. To confirm this, the most specific antibody test is for anti-smooth muscle antibodies, which are positive in about 80% of patients with autoimmune liver disease.
On the other hand, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are the hallmark of primary biliary cholangitis, with over 95% of patients being subtype M2 positive. Hepatitis A IgM antibodies are elevated in patients with acute hepatitis A infection, but not in autoimmune liver disease.
While raised anti-nuclear antibodies (ANAs) are seen in many autoimmune conditions, they are not very specific for autoimmune hepatitis. Positive ANAs are also seen in other diseases like systemic sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and Sjögren syndrome. Similarly, anti-Smith antibodies are seen in about 20% of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus but are not specific for autoimmune liver disease.
In conclusion, antibody tests play a crucial role in differentiating autoimmune liver disease from other liver conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old male patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. The consultant contacts the house officer and requests a prescription for prophylactic antibiotics. What is the recommended prophylactic antibiotic for this patient?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Prophylactic Antibiotics for Gut Surgery
Prophylactic antibiotics are commonly used in gut surgery to prevent wound infections, which can occur in up to 60% of cases. The use of prophylactic antibiotics has been shown to significantly reduce the incidence of these infections. Co-amoxiclav is the preferred choice for non-penicillin allergic patients, as it is effective against the types of bacteria commonly found in the gut, including anaerobes, enterococci, and coliforms.
While cefotaxime is often used to treat meningitis, it is not typically used as a prophylactic antibiotic in gut surgery. In patients with mild penicillin allergies, cefuroxime and metronidazole may be used instead. However, it is important to note that cephalosporins should be avoided in elderly patients whenever possible, as they are at a higher risk of developing C. difficile infections. Overall, the use of prophylactic antibiotics is an important measure in preventing wound infections in gut surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old traveller returns from a long period of travelling in Indonesia. He complains of persistent fever and night sweats, has lost weight and now feels a dull right upper quadrant pain. On further questioning, he admits to having lived very cheaply during his trip and to eating meat from street vendors that may have been undercooked. On examination, he is mildly jaundiced.
Bloods:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 98 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 57 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 186 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 165 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 55 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
An abdominal ultrasound scan shows a cystic mass within the right lobe of the liver.
Which of the following represents the most effective treatment for this man?Your Answer: Ultrasound-guided drainage and metronidazole po
Correct Answer: Drainage and albendazole po
Explanation:Treatment Options for Liver Cysts: Hydatid Disease and Amoebic Liver Abscess
Hydatid disease is a parasitic infection that can occur from consuming undercooked meat sold by street vendors. The majority of cysts occur in the liver, with the remaining cysts isolated to other areas of the body. The preferred treatment is drainage, either surgically or radiologically, along with the use of albendazole to reduce the risk of recurrence. Amoebic liver abscess is a potential differential diagnosis, but ultrasound findings can differentiate between the two. Metronidazole is used to manage amoebic liver cysts, while cefuroxime is used for pyogenic bacterial liver abscess. Definitive management for hydatid disease requires drainage of fluid. For amoebic liver abscess, metronidazole with or without drainage under ultrasound is the preferred treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a history of intermittent dysphagia to both solids and liquids for the past 6 months. She reports that food often gets stuck during meals and she has to drink a lot of water to overcome this. The doctor orders a chest X-ray and barium swallow, which reveal a dilated oesophagus, lack of peristalsis, and bird-beak deformity.
What diagnosis is consistent with these symptoms and test results?Your Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:Achalasia is a condition where the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax during swallowing, causing difficulty in swallowing both solids and liquids. The cause is often unknown, and diagnosis involves various tests such as chest X-ray, barium swallow, oesophagoscopy, CT scan, and manometry. Treatment options include sphincter dilation using Botox or balloon dilation, and surgery if necessary. Oesophageal web is a thin membrane in the oesophagus that can cause dysphagia to solids and reflux symptoms. Chagas’ disease, scleroderma, and diffuse oesophageal spasm are other conditions that can cause similar symptoms but have different causes and treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of difficulty swallowing that has been occurring for the past four weeks. He reports that solid foods are particularly problematic and feel as though they are getting stuck. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and osteoarthritis of the knees, for which he takes amlodipine 5 mg OD and paracetamol 1 g as required respectively. He has a 20-pack year smoking history but does not consume alcohol. On examination, the patient appears well at rest and has a normal body habitus. Abdominal examination is largely unremarkable, except for some mild epigastric discomfort. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Refer to gastroenterology for OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) under the 2-week wait criteria
Explanation:Recognizing Red Flags for Oesophageal Cancer: Referring for OGD under the 2-Week Wait Criteria
When a patient presents with subacute and first-onset dysphagia limited to solids, it suggests a new mass obstructing the oesophagus. This symptom is a red flag for oesophageal cancer, and a 2-week wait referral for OGD is necessary to prevent a delay in diagnosis. If abnormal tissue is found during the OGD, biopsies will be taken for histological analysis to confirm the diagnosis.
PPI therapy and review in a month is not appropriate for dysphagia, as it may delay a potential cancer diagnosis. Emergency hospital admission is unnecessary, as the patient is not acutely unstable. Routine outpatient gastrointestinal appointment is appropriate, but it must be performed within two weeks in accordance with the UK’s referral guidelines for potential cancer diagnoses. Acute specialist care of the elderly clinic referral is not necessary, as the patient’s age alone does not indicate a need for geriatric care.
It is important to explain to the patient that while cancer is a possibility, there may be other explanations as well. Encouraging a step-by-step approach and informing the patient that the specialist who conducts the OGD will explain things in more detail when consenting them for the procedure is appropriate. The full criteria for a 2-week wait referral for OGD includes new-onset dysphagia at any age, and additional criteria for patients over 55 years old with weight loss, epigastric abdominal pain, dyspepsia, reflux, or a history of Barrett’s oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with epigastric pain which radiates to the back. He feels nauseous and has been vomiting since arriving at the Emergency Department (ED). On questioning, the man tells you that he takes no regular medication. He was last in hospital three years ago after he fell from his bicycle when cycling under the influence of alcohol. He was not admitted. He travelled to Nigeria to visit relatives three months ago.
On examination, the man’s abdomen is tender in the epigastrium. He is jaundiced. He is also tachycardic and pyrexial. Some of his investigation results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 320 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 70 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Bilirubin 45 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
What is the best initial treatment for this man?Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Correct Answer: Admission, iv fluids, analgesia, keep nil by mouth and place a nasogastric tube
Explanation:Appropriate Treatment for Pancreatitis and Cholecystitis: Differentiating Symptoms and Initial Management
Pancreatitis and cholecystitis are two conditions that can present with similar symptoms, such as epigastric pain and nausea. However, the nature of the pain and other clinical indicators can help differentiate between the two and guide appropriate initial treatment.
For a patient with pancreatitis, initial treatment would involve admission, IV fluids, analgesia, and keeping them nil by mouth. A nasogastric tube may also be placed to help with vomiting and facilitate healing. Antibiotics and surgical intervention are not typically indicated unless there are complications such as necrosis or abscess.
In contrast, a patient with cholecystitis would receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and analgesia as initial management. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy would only be considered after further investigations such as abdominal ultrasound or MRCP.
It’s important to note that other factors, such as a recent history of travel, may also need to be considered in determining appropriate treatment. However, careful evaluation of symptoms and clinical indicators can help guide initial management and ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after complaining of abdominal pain and black stools since last night. She reports no unintentional weight loss or fresh blood in her stool. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis treated with ibuprofen and well-controlled essential hypertension with candesartan. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals an actively bleeding gastric ulcer. What major vessel supplies blood to the affected area of her gastrointestinal tract?
Your Answer: Coeliac trunk
Explanation:Blood Supply to the Digestive System: Arteries and their Branches
The digestive system receives its blood supply from several arteries and their branches. The coeliac trunk, which originates from the abdominal aorta, carries the major blood supply to the stomach through its three main divisions: the left gastric artery, the common hepatic artery, and the splenic artery. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the colon and small bowel, while the superior mesenteric artery mainly supplies the duodenum, small intestines, colon, and pancreas. The splenic artery supplies blood to the spleen and gives rise to the left gastroepiploic artery. The artery of Drummond connects the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries and is also known as the marginal artery of the colon. It is important to note that the absence of this artery is a variant and not pathological.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man, with a 25-pack-year history of smoking, presents to his General Practitioner with a 3-month history of epigastric pain. He has been unable to mow his lawn since the pain began and is often woken up at night. He finds that the pain is relieved by taking antacids. He has also had to cut back on his spicy food intake.
What is the most probable reason for this man's epigastric pain?Your Answer: Oesophagitis
Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcer
Explanation:Common Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Symptoms
Gastrointestinal conditions can cause a range of symptoms, from mild discomfort to severe pain. Here are some of the most common conditions and their symptoms:
Duodenal Ulcer: These are breaks in the lining of the duodenum, which is part of the small intestine. They are more common than gastric ulcers and are often caused by an overproduction of gastric acid. Symptoms include epigastric pain that is relieved by eating or drinking milk.
Gastric Ulcer: These are less common than duodenal ulcers and tend to occur in patients with normal or low levels of gastric acid. Risk factors are similar to those of duodenal ulcers. Symptoms include epigastric pain.
Oesophagitis: This condition occurs when stomach acid flows back into the oesophagus, causing inflammation. Treatment is aimed at reducing reflux symptoms. Patients may need to be assessed for Barrett’s oesophagus.
Pancreatitis: This condition is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas and typically presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back.
Gallstones: These are hard deposits that form in the gallbladder and can cause right upper quadrant pain. Symptoms may be aggravated by eating fatty foods. While historically more common in females in their forties, the condition is becoming increasingly common in younger age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 28-year-old man, diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) 18 months ago, presents with 2-day history of progressively worsening abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He is currently passing motion 11 times per day.
On examination, there is generalised abdominal tenderness and distension. He is pyrexial, with a temperature of 39 °C; his pulse is 124 bpm.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Erect chest X-ray Normal
Plain abdominal X-ray 12-cm dilation of the transverse colon
He also has a raised C-reactive protein (CRP).
What would be the most appropriate initial management of this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) hydrocortisone, low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), IV fluids, reassess response after 72 hours
Explanation:Management of Toxic Megacolon in Ulcerative Colitis: Medical and Surgical Options
Toxic megacolon (TM) is a rare but life-threatening complication of ulcerative colitis (UC) characterized by severe colon dilation and systemic toxicity. The initial management of TM involves aggressive medical therapy with intravenous (IV) hydrocortisone, low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), and IV fluids to restore hemodynamic stability. Oral mesalazine is indicated for mild to moderate UC or for maintenance of remission. If the patient fails to respond to medical management after 72 hours, urgent surgery, usually subtotal colectomy with end ileostomy, should be considered.
Infliximab and vedolizumab are second-line management options for severe active UC in patients who fail to respond to intensive IV steroid treatment. However, their role in the setting of TM is unclear. LMWH is required for UC patients due to their high risk of venous thromboembolism.
Prompt recognition and management of TM is crucial to prevent mortality. A multidisciplinary approach involving gastroenterologists, surgeons, and critical care specialists is recommended for optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with complaints of difficulty swallowing. He mentions that solid food like meat often gets stuck in his throat. He is also beginning to lose weight and have difficulty swallowing thick liquids like soups. There is some pain on swallowing. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and depression. His current medications include amlodipine and sertraline. He has no drug allergies. He has a 30-pack-year history of smoking and drinks approximately 3–4 pints of beer per day. He is unsure of his family medical history, as he was adopted.
Physical examination is normal, and his observations are shown below:
Temperature 37.1°C
Blood pressure 145/81 mmHg
Heart rate 71 bpm
Respiratory rate 14 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 97% (room air)
Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Oesophageal Pathology: Indications and Limitations
Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic test for patients with progressive dysphagia and odynophagia, especially those with risk factors for oesophageal malignancy. Abdominal plain film and ultrasound are rarely diagnostic and should be used sparingly, with specific indications such as inflammatory bowel disease or bowel obstruction. Chest plain film may be useful in detecting free gas in the mediastinum, but is not necessary for stable patients. Oesophageal manometry is indicated for diffuse oesophageal spasm, which presents differently from the progressive dysphagia seen in the patient described above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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You are asked to see a 78-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit who is complaining of abdominal pain.
Which of the following is not an indication for an abdominal X-ray?Your Answer: Investigation of suspected gallstones
Explanation:When to Use Abdominal X-Ray: Indications and Limitations
Abdominal X-ray is a common diagnostic tool used to evaluate various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal tract. However, its usefulness is limited in certain situations, and other imaging modalities may be more appropriate. Here are some indications for performing an abdominal X-ray:
1. Clinical suspicion of obstruction: Dilated loops of bowel may be seen on X-ray in the context of bowel obstruction.
2. Suspected foreign body: A plain abdominal X-ray can help identify foreign bodies in the gastrointestinal tract, especially in children.
3. Abdominal foreign body: Many foreign objects may be visualized on X-ray, but a thorough history should be obtained to determine the nature of the object and potential complications.
4. Constipation: Depending on the clinical picture, an abdominal X-ray may reveal impaction or a cause for the patient’s constipation.
However, an abdominal X-ray is not indicated in the investigation of suspected gallstones, as many stones are radiolucent, and other imaging modalities such as ultrasound, MRCP, and ERCP are more sensitive. Therefore, the decision to use an abdominal X-ray should be based on the specific clinical scenario and the limitations of the test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about his alcohol consumption. He admits to drinking two bottles of wine (750ml capacity) every night along with six pints of 5% beer.
(A bottle of wine typically contains 12% alcohol)
What is the total number of units this man is consuming per night?Your Answer: 40
Correct Answer: 36
Explanation:Understanding Units of Alcohol
Alcohol consumption is often measured in units, with one unit being equal to 10 ml of alcohol. The strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equivalent to one unit, while a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6% is also one unit. Half a standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is also one unit.
To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can use the ABV and the volume of the drink. For instance, one bottle of wine with nine units is equivalent to two bottles of wine or six pints of beer, both of which contain 18 units.
It’s important to keep track of your alcohol consumption and stay within recommended limits. Drinking too much can have negative effects on your health and well-being. By understanding units of alcohol, you can make informed decisions about your drinking habits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of fatigue, weakness, and worsening itchiness. Upon examination, there are no significant findings. Blood tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
Test Result
Full blood count Normal
Renal profile Normal
Alkaline phosphatase Elevated
γ-glutamyl transferase Elevated
Alanine and aspartate aminotransferase Normal
Bilirubin Slightly elevated
Antimitochondrial antibody MÂ2 (AMA) Positive
Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA) Negative
Anti-liver/kidney microsomal antibody (anti-LKM) Negative
Hepatitis screen Negative
HIV virus type 1 and type 2 RNA Negative
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)
Explanation:Autoimmune Liver Diseases: Differentiating PBC, PSC, and AIH
Autoimmune liver diseases, including primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC), and autoimmune hepatitis (AIH), can present with non-specific symptoms and insidious onset. However, certain demographic and serological markers can help differentiate between them.
PBC is characterized by chronic granulomatous inflammation of small intrahepatic bile ducts, leading to progressive cholestasis, cirrhosis, and portal hypertension. It is often diagnosed incidentally or presents with lethargy and pruritus. AMA M2 subtype positivity is highly specific for PBC, and treatment involves cholestyramine for itching and ursodeoxycholic acid. Liver transplantation is the only curative treatment.
PSC is a disorder of unknown etiology characterized by non-malignant, non-bacterial inflammation, fibrosis, and strictures of the intra- and extrahepatic biliary tree. It is more common in men and frequently found in patients with ulcerative colitis. AMA is negative, and diagnosis is based on MRCP or ERCP showing a characteristic beaded appearance of the biliary tree.
AIH is a disorder of unknown cause characterized by autoantibodies directed against hepatocyte surface antigens. It can present acutely with signs of fulminant autoimmune disease or insidiously. There are three subtypes with slightly different demographic distributions and prognoses, and serological markers such as ASMA, anti-LKM, and anti-soluble liver antigen antibodies can help differentiate them.
A hepatitis screen is negative in this case, ruling out hepatitis C. A pancreatic head tumor would present with markedly elevated bilirubin and a normal autoimmune screen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 20-year old man presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit complaining of sudden onset abdominal pain. What physical examination finding is most indicative of a possible diagnosis of appendicitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tenderness over McBurney’s point
Explanation:Common Abdominal Exam Findings and Their Significance
Abdominal exams are an important part of diagnosing various medical conditions. Here are some common findings and their significance:
Tenderness over McBurney’s point: This is a sign of possible appendicitis. McBurney’s point is located a third of the way from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus.
Grey–Turner’s sign: Flank bruising is a sign of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which is commonly associated with acute pancreatitis.
Murphy’s sign: This suggests cholecystitis. The examiner places their hand below the right costal margin and the tender gallbladder moves inferiorly on inhalation, causing the patient to catch their breath.
Tinkling bowel sounds: High-pitched, ‘tinkling’ bowel sounds are typically associated with mechanical bowel obstruction.
Absent bowel sounds: This is suggestive of paralytic ileus, which most commonly occurs after abdominal surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease presents with intractable watery diarrhoea and weight loss. He has multiple gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers, which are poorly responding to medications such as antacids and omeprazole. Gastric acid output and serum gastrin level are elevated. Serum gastrin level fails to decrease following a test meal. On abdominal computerised tomography (CT) scan, no masses are found in the pancreas or duodenum.
Which one of the following drugs is useful for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gastrinoma: Octreotide, Somatostatin Antagonist, Bromocriptine, Pergolide, and Leuprolide
Gastrinoma is a rare condition characterized by multiple, recurrent, and refractory peptic ulcer disease, along with watery diarrhea and weight loss. The diagnosis is supported by an elevated serum gastrin level that is not suppressed by the test meal. While neoplastic masses of gastrinoma may or may not be localized by abdominal imaging, treatment options are available.
Octreotide, a synthetic somatostatin, is useful in the treatment of gastrinoma, acromegaly, carcinoid tumor, and glucagonoma. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone in several endocrine systems, and a somatostatin antagonist would increase gastrin, growth hormone, and glucagon secretion. However, it has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, hyperprolactinemia, and pituitary tumors. Pergolide, another dopamine receptor agonist, was formerly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but is no longer administered due to its association with valvular heart disease. Neither medication has a role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, is used in the treatment of sex hormone-sensitive tumors such as prostate or breast cancer. It also has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma. Overall, octreotide remains the primary treatment option for gastrinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of intravenous (iv) drug abuse 16 years ago is referred by his doctor with abnormal liver function tests. He has significantly raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT). He tests positive for hepatitis C RNA and genotyping reveals genotype 1 hepatitis C. Liver biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration with some evidence of early hepatic fibrosis with associated necrosis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct acting antivirals (DAAs)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hepatitis C: Direct Acting Antivirals and Combination Therapies
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can lead to serious long-term health complications such as cirrhosis and liver cancer. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended as first-line therapy for hepatitis C, as direct acting antivirals (DAAs) have proven to be more effective. DAAs target different stages of the hepatitis C virus lifecycle and have a success rate of over 90%. Treatment typically involves a once-daily oral tablet regimen for 8-12 weeks and is most effective when given before cirrhosis develops.
While ribavirin alone is not as effective, combination therapies such as PEG-interferon α and ribavirin have been used in the past. However, for patients with genotype 1 disease (which has a worse prognosis), the addition of a protease inhibitor to the treatment regimen is recommended for better outcomes.
It is important to note that blood-borne infection rates for hepatitis C are high and can occur after just one or two instances of sharing needles during recreational drug use. Testing for hepatitis C involves antibody testing, followed by RNA and genotyping to guide the appropriate combination and length of treatment.
Overall, the combination of PEG-interferon, ribavirin, and a protease inhibitor is no longer used in the treatment of hepatitis C, as newer and more effective therapies have been developed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of epigastric pain, vomiting and weight loss. The surgeon suspects gastric cancer and sends her for endoscopy. Where is the cancer likely to be located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardia
Explanation:Location of Gastric Cancers: Changing Trends
Gastric cancers can arise from different parts of the stomach, including the cardia, body, fundus, antrum, and pylorus. In the past, the majority of gastric cancers used to originate from the antrum and pylorus. However, in recent years, there has been a shift in the location of gastric cancers, with the majority now arising from the cardia. This change in trend highlights the importance of ongoing research and surveillance in the field of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. Investigation has revealed that he has distal disease only. He has a moderate exacerbation of his disease with an average of 4–5 episodes of bloody diarrhoea per day. There is no anaemia. His pulse rate is 80 bpm. He has no fever. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are normal.
Which is the most appropriate medication to use in the first instance in this exacerbation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Distal Ulcerative Colitis
Distal ulcerative colitis can cause moderate exacerbation, which is characterized by 4-6 bowel movements per day, pulse rate <90 bpm, no anemia, and ESR 30 or below. The first-line therapy for this condition includes topical or oral aminosalicylate, with mesalazine or sulfasalazine being the most commonly used options. However, these medications can cause side-effects such as diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and hypersensitivity. In rare cases, they may also lead to peripheral neuropathy and blood disorders. Codeine phosphate is not used in the management of ulcerative colitis, while ciclosporin is reserved for acute severe flare-ups that do not respond to corticosteroids. Infliximab, a monoclonal antibody against tumour necrosis α, is used for patients who are intolerant to steroids or have not responded to corticosteroid therapy. However, it can cause hepatitis and interstitial lung disease, and may reactivate tuberculosis and hepatitis B. Steroids such as prednisolone can be used as second-line treatment if the patient cannot tolerate or declines aminosalicylates or if aminosalicylates are contraindicated. Topical corticosteroids are usually preferred, but oral prednisolone can also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for a regular follow-up. During the examination, the doctor observes clubbing, hepatomegaly, and episcleritis, which are known signs linked with CD. What other non-intestinal symptom is commonly associated with CD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Extra-Intestinal Manifestations and Skin Conditions Associated with Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), including Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC), can present with extra-intestinal manifestations, with some features being more prevalent in one than the other. Joint complications are the most common, but other manifestations include eye inflammation, joint pain and stiffness, and liver and biliary tree issues. Additionally, CD can present with skin conditions such as pyoderma gangrenosum, while UC is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma.
Other skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica and palmar erythema, are not associated with IBD. Erythema multiforme is a drug-related skin rash, while lichen planus is a skin rash of unknown cause that is not associated with IBD. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these extra-intestinal manifestations and skin conditions when evaluating patients with IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. His serum amylase level is 1020 u/l, and acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the following factors is NOT included in the modified Glasgow severity scoring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum amylase
Explanation:Markers for Severity and Mortality in Pancreatitis
Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Several markers can help assess the severity of the disease and predict mortality. The modified Glasgow severity score is a useful tool for stratifying patients based on their clinical presentation. A score of 3 or above indicates severe pancreatitis and the need for transfer to the Intensive Therapy Unit.
Serum amylase is a diagnostic marker for pancreatitis, but its levels may be normal even in severe cases. Elevated amylase levels can also occur in other acute conditions, such as acute cholecystitis or intestinal obstruction. Therefore, it should not be used as a serial marker for assessing disease progression. Instead, serial C-reactive protein levels are more useful for this purpose.
Serum albumin is an important marker of mortality in pancreatitis. A fall in albumin level can contribute to peripheral edema and difficulty in maintaining blood pressure. Age is another predictor of mortality, as it is associated with co-morbidities. Corrected calcium is a useful marker for severe pancreatitis, as it indicates the precipitation of calcium in the abdomen, causing hypocalcemia. Finally, white cell count is a marker of inflammation and can indicate the spread of the disease.
In conclusion, a combination of these markers can help clinicians assess the severity of pancreatitis and predict mortality. Early recognition and management of severe cases can improve outcomes and reduce morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is referred by his GP for an endoscopy due to recurrent indigestion. During the procedure, a small duodenal ulcer is discovered and Helicobacter pylori is found to be present. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Omeprazole, amoxicillin and metronidazole
Explanation:Helicobacter Pylori and Peptic Ulceration
Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacteria that is classified as a gram negative curved rod. It has been linked to the development of peptic ulceration by inhibiting the processes involved in healing. In fact, up to 90% of patients with duodenal ulceration and 70% of cases of peptic ulceration may be caused by Helicobacter infection.
To treat this condition, therapy should focus on acid suppression and eradication of Helicobacter. Triple therapy is the most effective treatment, which involves using a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole along with two antibiotics such as amoxicillin and metronidazole or clarithromycin. This treatment is required for one week, and proton pump therapy should continue thereafter.
Overall, it is important to address Helicobacter pylori infection in patients with peptic ulceration to promote healing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An FY1 doctor on the surgical assessment unit reviews the result of a blood test of one of the admitted elderly patients. It appears that the elderly patient has had an acute rise in his plasma urea levels.
In which of the following conditions would you expect a raised plasma urea level in an elderly patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer
Explanation:Causes of Hyperuricaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Gastrointestinal Bleeding and Urea Production
Hyperuricaemia, or elevated levels of uric acid in the blood, can be caused by various medical conditions. One of the factors that contribute to this condition is gastrointestinal bleeding, particularly in the upper part of the digestive system. When there is bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract, such as in cases of gastric ulcer, the blood that is excreted undergoes digestion as it passes through the small intestine. This results in an increased production of urea, a by-product of blood digestion, which is then absorbed into the bloodstream. However, reduced renal perfusion in patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding can further exacerbate the levels of urea in the blood, as excretion becomes less effective.
It is important to note that not all types of gastrointestinal bleeding are associated with hyperuricaemia. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding, such as in cases of diverticular disease, does not cause a rise in urea levels. This is because blood released in the lumen of the large bowel does not undergo the same amount of digestion as it does in the small intestine. Instead, the large bowel primarily functions to reabsorb water and sodium.
Other medical conditions, such as intracranial haemorrhage and ulcerative colitis, are not directly linked to hyperuricaemia. However, significant bleeding in any part of the body can indirectly cause this condition by leading to kidney hypoperfusion and pre-renal acute kidney failure.
In summary, understanding the relationship between gastrointestinal bleeding and urea production can help in identifying the causes of hyperuricaemia. While upper gastrointestinal bleeding can lead to elevated levels of urea in the blood, lower gastrointestinal bleeding and other medical conditions may not have the same effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year due to recurring episodes of abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. She is concerned about the possibility of bowel cancer, as her father passed away from it at the age of 86. She has no other relevant family history. She also mentions that she needs a refill for her salbutamol inhaler, which she takes for her recently diagnosed asthma. Additionally, she has noticed an increase in hot flashes and wonders if she is experiencing early menopause. She has lost some weight, which she attributes to her healthy diet. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET)
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Gastrointestinal Neuroendocrine Tumour (NET)
A patient presenting with symptoms of diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing may have a gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET), also known as carcinoid syndrome. It is important to consider NET in the differential diagnosis, even in relatively young patients, as the average delay in diagnosis is 2-3 years.
Appropriate investigations include routine blood tests, gut hormone measurement, 24-hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) measurement, cross-sectional imaging, and gastrointestinal endoscopy. Management options include somatostatin analogues, peptide receptor radiotargeted therapy (PRRT), and molecularly targeted treatments such as sunitinib or everolimus.
Health/illness-related anxiety, or hypochondriasis, should be a diagnosis of exclusion, and physical causes should be addressed first. Irritable bowel syndrome may cause similar symptoms, but without hot flashes or asthma. Colorectal or gastric adenocarcinoma may also be considered, but the symptoms are more consistent with a NET.
Most gastrointestinal NETs are low grade, and even in metastatic disease, the median overall survival is around 10 years. Early diagnosis and appropriate management can improve outcomes for patients with NET.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is referred to hospital for severe recurrent chest pain related to mealtimes. She had experienced these episodes over the past 3 years, particularly when food became stuck in her chest. The chest pain was not associated with physical activity or exertion. Additionally, she reported occasional nocturnal coughs and regurgitation. A chest X-ray taken during one of the chest pain episodes revealed a widened mediastinum. She did not have any other gastrointestinal issues or abdominal pain. Despite being prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), she did not experience any relief. What is the most effective test to confirm the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry study
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Achalasia: Oesophageal Manometry Study and Other Modalities
Achalasia is a motility disorder of the oesophagus that causes progressive dysphagia for liquids and solids, accompanied by severe chest pain. While it is usually idiopathic, it can also be secondary to Chagas’ disease or oesophageal cancer. The diagnosis of achalasia is confirmed through oesophageal manometry, which reveals an abnormally high lower oesophageal sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing.
Other diagnostic modalities include a barium swallow study, which may show a classic bird’s beak appearance, but is not confirmatory. A CT scan of the thorax may show a dilated oesophagus with food debris, but is also not enough for diagnosis. Upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is needed to rule out mechanical obstruction or pseudo-achalasia.
Treatment for achalasia is mainly surgical, but botulinum toxin injection or pharmacotherapy may be tried in those unwilling to undergo surgery. Drugs used include calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil. Oesophageal pH monitoring is useful in suspected gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), but is not diagnostic for achalasia.
In summary, oesophageal manometry is the best confirmatory test for suspected cases of achalasia, and other diagnostic modalities are used to rule out other conditions. Treatment options include surgery, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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