-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old diabetic is discovered in an unconscious state and is transported to the Emergency Department. Upon admission, the patient's body mass index (BMI) is measured at 26 kg/m2, and a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is established.
Regarding diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: Hypokalaemia is common at presentation
Correct Answer: Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism
Explanation:Understanding Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Myths and Facts
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that can lead to life-threatening consequences. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition. Here are some important facts to help you better understand DKA:
Patients with DKA are at high risk of thromboembolism: Patients with DKA are at an increased risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), especially in the pediatric age group and in patients with type-1 diabetes. Low-molecular-weight heparin is recommended to prevent this risk.
DKA can be treated with oral hypoglycemics: This is a myth. Oral hypoglycemics are ineffective in managing DKA as the underlying cause is an imbalance between insulin and other regulatory hormones.
Respiratory acidosis is typical: Metabolic acidosis occurs in DKA, and patients may develop a compensatory respiratory alkalosis (Kussmaul respiration).
Hypokalemia is common at presentation: There is a risk of developing hypokalemia during admission due to insulin administration, but potassium levels are usually normal or high on admission.
It often occurs in type II diabetes: This is a myth. DKA usually occurs in people with type I diabetes as it is related to low insulin levels, which leads to ketogenesis.
Understanding these facts about DKA can help in its early recognition and prompt management, leading to better outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 6-month-old boy is brought to the paediatrics emergency department by his parents. His parents report that he has had a fever for 2 days with reduced activity and feeding. On examination, he is not smiling, his respiratory rate is 50 breaths/minute (normal range: 30-60 breaths/minute) and his heart rate is 155 beats/minute (100-160 beats/minute). He also has reduced skin turgor and looks pale. A nurse looks up the NICE traffic light system to identify his risk of serious illness.
What is the most concerning symptom in this patient?Your Answer: Reduced activity and feeding
Correct Answer: Reduced skin turgor
Explanation:According to the NICE traffic light system, reduced skin turgor is a red flag symptom in children. This system is used to identify the risk of serious illness in children. Decreased activity is considered an amber symptom, while age <6 months is not a red flag symptom. Age 3-6 months with a temperature of >=39ºC is an amber flag symptom, and age <3 months with a temperature of >=38°C is a red flag symptom. A respiratory rate of >60 breaths/minute is also a red flag symptom. Finally, a heart rate of >160 beats/minute in children under 12 months is an amber flag symptom.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 25-year-old female has been suffering from myalgias, pleural effusion, pericarditis, and arthralgias without any joint deformity for a few years now. What would be the most suitable next step in investigating her condition?
Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody
Explanation:The role of anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) in diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is crucial. When a patient presents with symptoms such as polyarthropathy, myalgia, pericarditis, and effusions, SLE is often the suspected diagnosis. To confirm this, doctors may use a test called ANA.
However, ANA can also be positive in other autoimmune diseases such as scleroderma, Sjogren’s syndrome, Raynaud’s disease, juvenile chronic arthritis, RhA antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, and autoimmune hepatitis. If the ANA test is negative, it is unlikely that the person has SLE.
It is important to note that ANAs are present in approximately 5% of the normal population, usually in low titres, and these individuals have no disease. Titres of lower than 1:80 are less likely to be significant, and even higher titres are insignificant with aging over age 60 years. Therefore, doctors must interpret ANA results in the context of the patient’s symptoms and medical history to make an accurate diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Which of the following factors does not contribute to a higher likelihood of developing schizophrenia or a similar psychotic disorder?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy
Correct Answer: Being brought up in an institution
Explanation:Schizophrenia and Related Factors
Nurture in an institution does not increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia. However, individuals from social classes IV and V are more prone to the condition. In the United Kingdom, the lifetime risk of schizophrenia is 1%, but this risk increases to 8-10% if there is an affected sibling. It is important to note that temporal lobe epilepsy can cause hallucinations that mimic schizophrenia. Additionally, amphetamines can induce a state that resembles hyperactive paranoid schizophrenia with hallucinations.
Overall, while environmental factors may play a role in the development of schizophrenia, genetics and neurological conditions are also significant factors to consider. It is important to seek professional help if experiencing symptoms of schizophrenia or related conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic for follow-up. He has chronic cardiomyopathy with heart failure and is on a medication regimen of furosemide, spironolactone, ramipril, carvedilol, and digoxin. He is currently stable with a blood pressure reading of 120/75 mmHg, no signs of cardiac failure, and an exercise tolerance of 250 m. However, he reports experiencing breast tenderness. Which medication is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Medications and Breast Tenderness: Understanding the Causes
Breast tenderness is a common side effect of some medications. One such medication is spironolactone, even at low doses. However, patients should continue taking spironolactone if they can tolerate the side effect, as it is the only diuretic that has been proven to have a positive effect on cardiac outcomes in patients with moderate to severe cardiac failure. If they cannot tolerate spironolactone, alternatives such as amiloride or eplerenone may be considered. Digoxin can also cause breast tenderness, but the incidence is lower compared to spironolactone. Furosemide is unlikely to cause breast tenderness, while ramipril and carvedilol are not known to cause this side effect. It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man in the United Kingdom presents with fever and cough. He smells strongly of alcohol and has no fixed abode. His heart rate was 123 bpm, blood pressure 93/75 mmHg, oxygen saturations 92% and respiratory rate 45 breaths per minute. Further history from him reveals no recent travel history and no contact with anyone with a history of foreign travel.
Chest X-ray revealed consolidation of the right upper zone.
Which of the following drugs is the most prudent choice in his treatment?Your Answer: Meropenem
Explanation:Understanding Klebsiella Pneumoniae Infection and Treatment Options
Klebsiella pneumoniae (KP) is a common organism implicated in various infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract infection, intra-abdominal abscesses, or bacteraemia. Patients with underlying conditions like alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic lung disease are at higher risk of contracting KP. The new hypervirulent strains with capsular serotypes K1 or K2 are increasingly being seen. In suspected cases of Klebsiella infection, treatment is best started with carbapenems. However, strains possessing carbapenemases are also being discovered, and Polymyxin B or E or tigecycline are now used as the last line of treatment. This article provides an overview of KP infection, radiological findings, and treatment options.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
As a junior doctor in the emergency department, you are asked by a senior doctor to examine a child with a persistent cough. However, they caution you against examining the child's throat as it may lead to airway obstruction. What could be the possible diagnosis for this case?
Your Answer: Bronchiolitis
Correct Answer: Croup
Explanation:It is not recommended to conduct a throat examination on a patient with croup as it may lead to airway obstruction. This risk is higher in cases of acute epiglottitis, which is a less common condition. However, for the other conditions, throat examination is not contraindicated.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman is admitted to the Acute Gynaecology Ward with per vaginum bleeding. She is 14 weeks pregnant and has had a scan confirming an intrauterine pregnancy. She reports lower abdominal cramping and bleeding for the last two days, which prompted admission to await an ultrasound scan. You are an FY1 doctor and are called to see her as she has increasing pain and is crying in distress. On examination, she is sweaty and uncomfortable. Abdomen is soft in the upper region, but firm and very tender suprapubically. Observations show temperature 38.7 °C, heart rate 130 bpm, blood pressure 95/65, respiratory rate 22 and oxygen saturations 97% on air. Checking her pad shows fresh bleeding and speculum examination is difficult due to pain, but there is a smelly discharge and you think you see tissue sitting in the os. You manage to get IV access and starts fluid resuscitation.
What is the most important next step in management?Your Answer: Call your registrar
Explanation:Immediate Management of Septic Miscarriage: Steps to Take
Septic miscarriage is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. If a patient presents with increasing pain, bleeding, and fever, along with clinical signs of sepsis, it is important to inform senior doctors immediately. Here are the steps to take:
1. Call your registrar: Senior doctors need to know about the patient urgently, coming to review and liaising with coordinators to get the patient to theatre as soon as possible.
2. Bloods and blood cultures: This is the most important thing to do after informing seniors. She is already shocked, so getting IV access now is essential. Bloods such as a group and crossmatch need to be sent, along with blood cultures.
3. Transvaginal ultrasound scan: Transvaginal ultrasound scan has no place in the immediate management. The diagnosis is obvious from the history and examination.
4. Ultrasound abdomen: Abdominal ultrasound can be performed after the patient is initially managed and is out of danger. For the current scenario, it is important to inform a senior registrar as the condition may deteriorate. After giving the call to registrar emergency management should be initiated according to A-E assessment.
5. Give analgesia and try to repeat the speculum examination: She is already shocked, and to delay treatment to try and examine again would be dangerous.
By following these steps, you can ensure that the patient receives the urgent care she needs to manage septic miscarriage.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 49-year-old man is admitted with chronic alcoholic liver disease. He gives little history himself. On examination, he has grade 1 encephalopathy, a liver enlarged by 4 cm and clinically significant ascites.
Which one of the following combinations is most reflective of synthetic liver function?Your Answer: Prothrombin time and albumin
Explanation:Understanding Liver Function Tests: Indicators of Synthetic and Parenchymal Function
Liver function tests are crucial in determining the nature of any liver impairment. The liver is responsible for producing vitamin K and albumin, and any dysfunction can lead to an increase in prothrombin time, indicating acute synthetic function. Albumin, on the other hand, provides an indication of synthetic liver function over a longer period due to its half-life of 20 days in serum.
While prothrombin time is a reliable indicator, alkaline phosphatase (ALP) would be raised in obstructive (cholestatic) disease. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) represent liver parenchymal function, rather than synthetic function. It’s important to note that both can be normal despite significantly decreased synthetic function of the liver.
While albumin does give an indication of liver function, it can be influenced by many other factors. ALP, on the other hand, would be raised in cholestatic disease. It’s important to consider all these factors when interpreting liver function tests, as neither ALT nor ALP would indicate synthetic function of the liver.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
If you were searching for evidence on which age group is most susceptible to experiencing psychiatric disturbances while taking Tamiflu, which type of study would be the most likely source of information?
Your Answer: Randomised controlled trial (RCT)
Correct Answer: Nested case-control study
Explanation:Investigating Rare Case Reports of Psychiatric Disturbance and Drug Safety
By definition, rare case reports of psychiatric disturbance cannot be identified through standard clinical development programmes that involve studying up to 5,000 patients. Conducting another randomized controlled trial (RCT) is unlikely to yield significant data. Managed healthcare databases may not provide sufficient information to establish causality, and cohort studies may not have a large enough number of index events to draw conclusions about drug safety. Therefore, a nested case-control study is the most appropriate approach to investigate any potential link between psychiatric disturbance and the drug. This type of study involves comparing a collection of cases with control patients to identify any differences. By using this method, researchers can gather more detailed information and draw more accurate conclusions about the safety of the drug. Proper investigation of rare case reports is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of patients who use the drug.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged Bangladeshi man presents to the emergency department with back pain and fever. An MRI is performed and a diagnosis of discitis is made. A CT guided biopsy is performed and cultures were taken. They come back showing Staphylococcus aureus as the causative organisms and antibiotic therapy was started based on sensitivity testing. 2 weeks later he returns to the emergency department as he has spiked another fever and the back pain is worsening.
What could be the reason for the deterioration of symptoms in this middle-aged Bangladeshi man with discitis despite antibiotic therapy?Your Answer: Pott's Disease of the spine
Correct Answer: Epidural abscess
Explanation:The patient’s worsening fever and pain, despite being given antibiotics that were effective against the organism causing the discitis, suggest the presence of an abscess that cannot be reached through the systemic circulation. One possible complication of discitis is an epidural abscess, which is characterized by fever and back pain. While acute pyelonephritis can also cause back pain, it typically radiates from the loin to the groin and may be accompanied by urinary symptoms. Vertebral metastasis is unlikely in this patient without a history of cancer and with the presence of spiking temperatures. Pott’s disease, caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, can present with similar symptoms but is not the cause of this patient’s infection, which is caused by Staphylococcus aureus. An epidural hematoma can cause severe back pain, but the absence of fever and no history of trauma make it an unlikely diagnosis.
Understanding Discitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discitis is a condition characterized by an infection in the intervertebral disc space, which can lead to serious complications such as sepsis or an epidural abscess. The most common cause of discitis is bacterial, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most frequent culprit. However, it can also be caused by viral or aseptic factors. The symptoms of discitis include back pain, pyrexia, rigors, and sepsis. In some cases, neurological features such as changing lower limb neurology may occur if an epidural abscess develops.
To diagnose discitis, imaging tests such as MRI are used due to their high sensitivity. A CT-guided biopsy may also be required to guide antimicrobial treatment. The standard therapy for discitis involves six to eight weeks of intravenous antibiotic therapy. The choice of antibiotic depends on various factors, with the most important being the identification of the organism through a positive culture, such as a blood culture or CT-guided biopsy.
Complications of discitis include sepsis and epidural abscess. Therefore, it is essential to assess the patient for endocarditis, which can be done through transthoracic echo or transesophageal echo. Discitis is usually due to haematogenous seeding of the vertebrae, which implies that the patient has had a bacteraemia, and seeding could have occurred elsewhere. Understanding the causes, symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of discitis is crucial in managing this condition and preventing its complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old female visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She has recently started a new relationship after a divorce and wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her BMI is 32 kg/m², and she is an ex-smoker, having quit two years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day. During her teenage years, she experienced frequent migraines without aura, and she has a medical history of factor V Leiden disease and gestational hypertension during her 2-year-old daughter's pregnancy. What is the most significant contraindication to the combined oral contraceptive based on her medical history?
Your Answer: High BMI
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden
Explanation:The combined oral contraceptive has only one absolute contraindication in a patient’s history, which is factor V Leiden (a UKMEC 4 level indicating an unacceptable health risk). Other elements of the patient’s history fall into UKMEC 3, where the disadvantages generally outweigh the benefits. However, it is important to note that some concurrent UKMEC 3 contraindications may become absolute contraindications when combined. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully study guidelines before prescribing.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old male with a medical history of ulcerative colitis and gout presents to the emergency department with a sore throat and coughing up green sputum for the past three days. He reports pain when breathing in and has never had a chest infection before. He is currently in remission for an acute flare of ulcerative colitis and is taking azathioprine. One month ago, he started a medication for his gout, but he cannot recall the name and did not bring it with him.
Upon examination, bibasal crepitations and increased vocal fremitus are noted at the bases of his chest. His throat is erythematosus with exudate around the tonsils. He has a fever of 38.9ºC, a heart rate of 97/min, and a respiratory rate of 24/min. Blood tests reveal low levels of white blood cells and a high CRP. A chest x-ray shows bibasal consolidation.
Based on his clinical presentation and medication history, you suspect that the medication started for his gout has interacted with his azathioprine, leading to agranulocytosis. What is the most likely medication that he started for his gout?Your Answer: Colchicine
Correct Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:The interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol can lead to severe bone marrow suppression. This can result in pancytopenia, which can allow for the development of tonsillitis/pharyngitis and community acquired pneumonia due to low white blood cells. Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that metabolizes 6-mercaptopurine, reducing the amount of inactivated 6-mercaptopurine (active form of azathioprine). This leads to more active 6-mercaptopurine being incorporated into the DNA in bone marrow precursors, reducing the production of platelet cell lines and red and white blood cell lines. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications such as colchicine, diclofenac, and naproxen do not cause bone marrow suppression and are therefore incorrect answers.
Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman who is P1 G2 is 30 minutes post-partum of an uncomplicated delivery. Suddenly, she starts gasping for breath and appears cyanosed with a blood pressure of 83/65 mmHg, heart rate of 120 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 33/min. She becomes unresponsive. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism
Explanation:The symptoms and time frame mentioned in the question strongly suggest an amniotic fluid embolism, which typically occurs during or within 30 minutes of labor and is characterized by respiratory distress, hypoxia, and hypotension. On the other hand, intracranial hemorrhage is usually preceded by a severe headache, while convulsions are indicative of eclampsia and drug toxicity. The symptoms experienced by the patient during normal labor would not be expected in cases of drug toxicity. Additionally, hypoxia is not a typical symptom of drug toxicity.
Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy that can result in a high mortality rate. It occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a reaction that leads to various signs and symptoms. While several risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unclear. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.
The majority of cases of amniotic fluid embolism occur during labor, but they can also occur during a cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of this condition include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs may include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. Diagnosis is primarily clinical and based on exclusion, as there are no definitive diagnostic tests available.
Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires a multidisciplinary team and critical care unit. Treatment is mainly supportive, focusing on addressing the patient’s symptoms and stabilizing their condition. Given the high mortality rate associated with this condition, prompt recognition and management are crucial for improving outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man has been referred to a neurologist by his GP due to recent concerns with his speech. He has been experiencing difficulty verbalising his thoughts and finds this frustrating. However, there is no evidence to suggest a reduced comprehension of speech.
He struggles to repeat sentences and well-rehearsed lists (such as months of the year and numbers from one to ten). He is also unable to name common household objects presented to him. Additionally, he constructs sentences using the incorrect tense and his grammar is poor.
Imaging studies reveal that the issue is located in the frontotemporal region of the brain.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Broca’s aphasia
Correct Answer: Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA)
Explanation:Different Types of Aphasia and Their Characteristics
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of characteristics. Progressive non-fluent aphasia (PNFA) primarily affects speech and language, causing poor fluency, repetition, grammar, and anomia. Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, is a fluent aphasia that causes impaired comprehension and repetition, nonsensical speech, and neologisms. Broca’s aphasia is a non-fluent aphasia that affects the ability to communicate fluently, but does not affect comprehension. Semantic dementia affects semantic memory, primarily affecting naming of objects, single-word comprehension, and understanding the uses of particular objects. Finally, conductive dysphasia is caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, resulting in anomia and poor repetition but preserved comprehension and fluency of speech. Understanding the characteristics of each type of aphasia can help in the diagnosis and treatment of individuals with language disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 1-year-old child is brought to the emergency room with poor muscle tone, gasping respirations, cyanosis, and a heart rate of 80 bpm. The child's APGAR score is 3 and is placed in the sniffing position for airway maintenance. However, there are no changes noted on reassessment. After positive pressure ventilation for 30 seconds, the child is now showing shallow respirations and a heart rate of 50 bpm. Chest compressions are initiated. What is the recommended compression: ventilation ratio for this child?
Your Answer: 5:02
Correct Answer: 3:01
Explanation:If a newborn is healthy, they will have good tone, be pink in color, and cry immediately after delivery. A healthy newborn’s heart rate should be between 120-150 bpm. However, if the infant has poor tone, is struggling to breathe, and has a low heart rate that is not improving, compressions are necessary. According to newborn resuscitation guidelines, compressions and ventilations should be administered at a 3:1 ratio. Therefore, the correct course of action in this scenario is to perform compressions.
Newborn resuscitation involves a series of steps to ensure the baby’s survival. The first step is to dry the baby and maintain their body temperature. The next step is to assess the baby’s tone, respiratory rate, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, five inflation breaths should be given to open the lungs. After this, the baby’s chest movements should be reassessed. If the heart rate is not improving and is less than 60 beats per minute, compressions and ventilation breaths should be administered at a rate of 3:1.
It is important to note that inflation breaths are different from ventilation breaths. The aim of inflation breaths is to sustain pressure to open the lungs, while ventilation breaths are used to provide oxygen to the baby’s body. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can increase the chances of a newborn’s survival and ensure that they receive the necessary care to thrive. Proper newborn resuscitation can make all the difference in a baby’s life, and it is crucial that healthcare professionals are trained in these techniques.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman came to her GP with a complaint of painless blurring and distortion of central vision and difficulty with night vision that has been going on for 2 years. She reports that her vision is sometimes poor and sometimes better. During the examination using a direct ophthalmoscope, yellow deposits were observed at the macula. What is the initial treatment for this patient's eye condition?
Your Answer: Pan-retinal photocoagulation
Correct Answer: Vitamin supplementation
Explanation:Vitamin supplementation containing vitamins C and E, beta-carotene, and zinc can delay the progression of dry age-related macular degeneration (AMD) from intermediate to advanced stages. However, there is no other treatment available for dry AMD, and management is mainly supportive. Pan-retinal photocoagulation is not used for either dry or wet AMD. Anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) intravitreal injection is reserved for wet AMD, where there is choroidal neovascularization. This treatment stops abnormal blood vessels from leaking, growing, and bleeding under the retina. Focal laser photocoagulation is sometimes used in wet AMD, but anti-VEGF injections are now the preferred treatment. Photodynamic therapy can be used in wet AMD when anti-VEGF is not an option or for those who do not want repeated intravitreal injections. The patient in question has dry AMD, with metamorphopsia as a symptom and yellow deposits at the macula known as drusen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old girl is referred to the optometrist by her GP due to her mother's concern about a squint. The optometrist diagnoses her with exotropia and offers treatment options, including intermittent eye patching. However, before any treatment can be started, the family moves to a different area and misses their follow-up appointments. The mother does not seek further attention for her daughter's exotropia.
What potential future health risks may this child be more susceptible to due to the lack of treatment for her exotropia?Your Answer: Hypotropia
Correct Answer: Amblyopia
Explanation:If childhood squints are not corrected, it may result in amblyopia, also known as ‘lazy eye’. This condition is more likely to occur if the child has exotropia, where one eye deviates outward. However, it can be treated with patching. There is no increased risk of developing esotropia, hypermetropia, hypertropia, or hypotropia due to non-compliance with exotropia treatment, as these are different forms of squint.
Squint, also known as strabismus, is a condition where the visual axes are misaligned. There are two types of squints: concomitant and paralytic. Concomitant squints are more common and are caused by an imbalance in the extraocular muscles. On the other hand, paralytic squints are rare and are caused by the paralysis of extraocular muscles. It is important to detect squints early on as they can lead to amblyopia, where the brain fails to process inputs from one eye and favours the other eye over time.
To detect a squint, a corneal light reflection test can be performed by holding a light source 30cm from the child’s face to see if the light reflects symmetrically on the pupils. The cover test is also used to identify the nature of the squint. This involves asking the child to focus on an object, covering one eye, and observing the movement of the uncovered eye. The test is then repeated with the other eye covered.
If a squint is detected, it is important to refer the child to secondary care. Eye patches may also be used to help prevent amblyopia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with an acutely painful and swollen right knee.
On examination, the knee is tender and has a reduced range of motion. She is unable to weight bear on her right leg.
Her observations are as follows, heart rate 98 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, blood pressure 110/76 mmHg, oxygen saturation 98%, temperature 38.2ºC.
An aspiration of the joint is performed, producing a sample of yellow-looking synovial fluid from the knee joint.
She has no other past medical history but admits that she missed a gynecology appointment recently.
What is the most likely organism to be cultured from the synovial fluid?Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:The most frequently identified organism in young adults with septic arthritis is Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This is evident in the case of the young woman who presents with acute knee pain, swelling, fever, limited range of motion, and inability to bear weight. While Chlamydia trachomatis can cause joint pain, it typically results in reactive arthritis, which has a more prolonged history, does not cause fever, and produces a sterile joint aspirate. Septic arthritis caused by Escherichia coli is rare, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa is not a common cause of this condition.
Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.
To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 26-year-old nursing student has visited her GP clinic for her first cervical screening. She is curious about the testing procedure and knows that the sample will be screened for high-risk strains of HPV. The student inquires with the practice nurse about the next steps if the smear test comes back positive in the lab.
What follow-up test will be conducted if the smear test shows high-risk HPV (hrHPV) positivity?Your Answer: Cytology testing
Explanation:Cytological examination of a cervical smear sample is only conducted if it tests positive for high risk HPV (hrHPV). If the sample is negative for hrHPV, there is no need for cytology testing.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.
On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.
Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.
A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:
Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)
CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)
CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)
CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -
CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)
Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.
What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy (HMSN)
Correct Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)
Explanation:The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman attending Oncology has metastatic breast cancer with bony metastases in her pelvis and femur. She has hip pain at rest, not relieved by paracetamol and naproxen.
Which of the following analgesic options would be most specific for metastatic bone pain?Your Answer: Oral gabapentin
Correct Answer: Intravenous ibandronate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Metastatic Bone Pain
Metastatic bone pain can be a challenging symptom to manage in patients with advanced cancer. Here are some treatment options:
Intravenous Ibandronate: This bisphosphonate is administered intravenously and is effective in controlling pain from bony metastases.
Oral Gabapentin: Gabapentin is a medication used to treat neuropathic pain.
Oral Oxycontin: Oxycontin is an opioid that can relieve pain, but it is not specific to metastatic bone pain.
Oral Tramadol: Tramadol is an analgesic medication that can be taken orally, but according to NICE guidelines, ibandronic acid is the recommended treatment for metastatic bony pain.
Intravenous Morphine Sulfate: Intravenous morphine is not the preferred medication in palliative care, as it can be difficult to obtain intravenous access in frail patients. Subcutaneous delivery may be an alternative option.
Overall, the choice of treatment will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, as well as the severity of their pain. A multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and the patient’s family can help to ensure that the patient receives the best possible care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a lump under his chin that causes him pain and swelling, especially after eating a big meal. The facial nerve appears to be functioning normally. Upon examination, there is a tender swelling in the submandibular triangle.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Warthin’s tumour
Correct Answer: Sialolithiasis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Submandibular Swelling: Understanding the Causes
Submandibular swelling can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to understand the differential diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment. One of the most common causes is sialolithiasis, which is the formation of stones within the salivary glands. This condition obstructs the salivary ducts and can lead to infection, resulting in pain and swelling after eating. Sialolithiasis is more common in men over the age of 40 and typically affects the submandibular gland.
Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that causes dry mouth, dry eyes, and swelling of the salivary glands, usually bilaterally. However, unilateral acute pain and swelling after eating are more typical of a salivary stone, rather than Sjögren syndrome.
Pleomorphic adenomas are benign tumors that usually present as a painless lump, slowly enlarging over time. They do not typically cause acute pain and swelling.
Warthin’s tumor is another slow-growing lump that is commonly found in the tail of the parotid gland. Unlike sialolithiasis, it does not cause pain.
Adenoid cystic carcinoma is a malignant tumor that presents as a slowly enlarging mass over the parotid area. It does not typically cause pain, but if left unchecked, it can invade local structures such as the facial nerve.
In conclusion, understanding the differential diagnosis of submandibular swelling is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Sialolithiasis, Sjögren syndrome, pleomorphic adenomas, Warthin’s tumor, and adenoid cystic carcinoma are all potential causes, and each requires a different approach to management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of pharyngitis and is prescribed amoxicillin for a week. She also requests a refill of her oral contraceptive pill, bendroflumethiazide, lansoprazole, and naproxen, which she has been taking for the past nine months due to a skiing injury.
After three weeks, she returns to the doctor with joint pains and a mild rash. Blood tests reveal a creatinine level of 356 µmol/L and an eosinophilia of 1.7 ×109/L (NR 0-0.4). The doctor refers her to renal services with a suspected diagnosis of tubulointerstitial nephritis.
Which medication is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:The most likely cause of tubulointerstitial nephritis in this case is amoxicillin, which can cause acute inflammation of the tubules and interstitium of the kidney. TIN can also be caused by other drugs, infections, and autoimmune disorders. Treatment involves removing the causative agent and using oral steroids to dampen inflammation. Chronic TIN can lead to end stage renal failure. Drug-induced TIN is usually due to hypersensitivity reactions and is characterized by raised IgE levels and eosinophilia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 68-year-old male presents with delayed wound healing ten days after a varicose vein surgery. The wound in the thigh is now painful and red. A swab of the ulcer shows a significant presence of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What antibiotic would be suitable for treating this infection?
Your Answer: Vancomycin
Explanation:MRSA in Hospital Settings
MRSA, or Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, is a common issue in hospitals. Patients may carry the bacteria without showing any symptoms, or they may develop an infection. In fact, around 40-50% of hospitalised patients with MRSA will experience an infection. These infections can manifest in various ways, such as surgical wounds, ulcers or venous access sites, and hospital-acquired pneumonias. It is crucial to treat MRSA infections, and the drug of choice is vancomycin since the bacteria is resistant to other antibiotics. MRSA and its potential impact on hospitalised patients is essential for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further spread of the bacteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 28 year old patient is brought in by ambulance to the emergency department. He is a known intravenous drug user and is currently presenting with mild respiratory depression, reduced level of consciousness, and pinpoint pupils. What would be the most appropriate medication for initial management?
Your Answer: Flumazenil
Correct Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Medication Antidotes: Understanding the Role of Naloxone, Flumazenil, N-acetyl-L-cysteine, Adrenaline, and Atropine
Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Pinpoint pupils, reduced level of consciousness, and respiratory depression are common symptoms of opioid toxicity. Naloxone should be administered in incremental doses to avoid full reversal, which can cause withdrawal symptoms and agitation.
Flumazenil is a specific antidote for benzodiazepine sedation. However, it would not be effective in cases of pupillary constriction.
N-acetyl-L-cysteine is the antidote for paracetamol overdose, which can cause liver damage and acute liver failure.
Adrenaline is used in cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis, but it has no role in the treatment of opiate toxicity.
Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist used to treat symptomatic bradycardia. However, it can cause agitation in the hours following administration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hand pains that have been bothering her for several years. She reports that the pains started in both wrists a few years ago and have since spread to several joints in her fingers. The pain tends to worsen after use and improves with rest. Although the affected joints feel stiff upon waking, this only lasts for a few minutes. The patient reports that she can still complete tasks without any difficulty.
During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness in the carpometacarpal joints and several distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) on both sides. There are also painless nodes that can be felt over several DIPs. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by involvement of the carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joints, as well as the presence of painless swellings known as Heberden’s nodes. Gout, pseudogout, and psoriatic arthritis are less likely diagnoses due to their acute presentation, involvement of different joints, and/or lack of a psoriasis history.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 9-year-old girl presents with symptoms of left knee pain. The pain has been present on most occasions for the past four months and the pain typically lasts for several hours at a time. On examination; she walks with an antalgic gait and has apparent left leg shortening. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perthes Disease
Explanation:Hip pain in the 10-14 year age group can have various causes, some of which may also result in knee pain. The most common disorder is transient synovitis of the hip, but it usually does not persist for more than 3 months. An osteosarcoma typically does not cause limb shortening unless there is a pathological fracture. While a slipped upper femoral epiphysis can lead to a similar presentation, it usually occurs later and in patients with different characteristics.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 54-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-week history of productive cough and fever. She has had no sick contacts or foreign travel. She has a background history of mild intermittent asthma and is a non-smoker. She has been taking paracetamol and salbutamol. On clinical examination, her respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% (on room air), blood pressure 136/82 mmHg and temperature 38.2 °C. On chest auscultation, there is mild expiratory wheeze and coarse crackles in the right lung base.
What is the most appropriate management of this woman?Your Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days
Explanation:Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia in a Woman with a CRB-65 Score of 0
When managing a woman with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and a CRB-65 score of 0, the recommended treatment is amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days. If there is no improvement after three days, the duration of treatment should be extended to seven to ten days.
If the CRB-65 score is 1 or 2, dual therapy with amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily and clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for 7-10 days, or monotherapy with doxycycline for 7-10 days, should be considered. However, in this case, the CRB-65 score is 0, so this is not necessary.
Admission for intravenous (IV) antibiotics and steroids is not required for this woman, as she is relatively well with mild wheeze and a CRB-65 score of 0. A chest X-ray is also not necessary, as she is younger and a non-smoker.
Symptomatic management should be continued, and the woman should be advised to return in three days if there is no improvement. It is important to prescribe antibiotics for people with suspected CAP, unless this is not appropriate, such as in end-of-life care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old man is recovering on the medical ward after suffering from a pulmonary embolism. He has stage-5 chronic kidney disease and was considered a high bleeding risk, so unfractionated heparin was chosen as the safest anticoagulant. After 6 days of treatment, he developed a rash on his right arm that looks like a bruise, is red, and appears swollen. He also complains of itchiness. The diagnosis is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). What is the most appropriate management option for this patient's anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Stop heparin and monitor blood results
Correct Answer: Switch to a direct thrombin inhibitor (argatroban)
Explanation:Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is caused by auto-antibodies against heparin and platelet factor IV. It typically occurs 5-10 days into heparin treatment, resulting in blood clots and low platelets. Anticoagulation is still necessary, and a direct thrombin inhibitor like argatroban can be used. Reducing heparin dosage is not sufficient, and stopping heparin without starting another anticoagulant is not recommended. Switching to LMWH still poses a risk of auto-antibody formation, and warfarin is not ideal due to the patient’s bleeding risk.
Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.
Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)