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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for an annual mental health...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for an annual mental health review. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia eight years ago. He has been on medication since diagnosis and takes this daily without any side-effects. He has regular contact with the community mental health team. He is working part-time as a shop assistant, which he enjoys. He has a good appetite, sleeps well and exercises regularly.

      What is true regarding the treatment of schizophrenia in a 32-year-old man who has been diagnosed with the condition for eight years and is currently on medication without any side-effects, has regular contact with the community mental health team, works part-time, and has good appetite, sleep, and exercise habits?

      Your Answer: All patients with schizophrenia require an electrocardiogram (ECG) before starting antipsychotic medication

      Correct Answer: People with a first episode of psychosis should be offered oral antipsychotic treatment, along with psychological interventions

      Explanation:

      Mythbusting: Common Misconceptions About Schizophrenia Treatment

      1. Oral antipsychotic treatment and psychological interventions should be offered to those with a first episode of psychosis.
      2. Patients with schizophrenia should remain under the care of a psychiatrist lifelong, but can be eligible for shared care with a GP after 12 months of stability.
      3. An ECG is only necessary before starting antipsychotic medication in certain circumstances.
      4. Before starting any oral antipsychotic medication, various health factors need to be checked in all patients.
      5. The choice of antipsychotic medication should be made on an individual basis, taking into account potential side-effects.
      6. Early intervention in psychosis services should be accessed urgently for anyone presenting with a first episode of psychosis. Antipsychotic medication should not be initiated in primary care without the advice of a psychiatrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute left-sided flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute left-sided flank pain that extends to the groin. The pain is colicky and accompanied by nausea, but no fever or vomiting. The patient has a history of anxiety and depression and is currently taking sertraline. What is the recommended first-line analgesic for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral morphine

      Correct Answer: IM diclofenac

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for acute renal colic includes the use of IM diclofenac, according to guidelines. The patient’s symptoms, such as sudden and severe pain in the loin-to-groin area and nausea, suggest renal calculi. NSAIDs, including diclofenac, are the first-line choice for analgesia in renal colic. Ibuprofen cannot be given intravenously, but IV paracetamol can be used if NSAIDs are not effective or contraindicated. Opioid analgesics should only be considered if both NSAIDs and IV paracetamol are ineffective or contraindicated, due to their side effects. Therefore, IV tramadol and oral morphine are not the first-line choice for analgesia.

      The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a malignant lesion in the medial...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a malignant lesion in the medial part of her left breast. To which one of the following lymph node groups is this site most likely to drain?

      Your Answer: Tracheobronchial

      Correct Answer: Internal thoracic

      Explanation:

      Lymph Nodes and Their Locations in the Body

      Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that play a crucial role in the immune system. They filter lymphatic fluid and trap harmful substances, such as bacteria and cancer cells. Here are some of the lymph nodes found in the body and their locations:

      Internal Thoracic: These nodes are located parallel to the internal thoracic artery and vein, draining the medial part of the breast. Metastasis of breast cancer in these nodes can lead to reduced long-term survival.

      Coeliac: Found in the abdomen, these nodes drain the stomach, duodenum, spleen, pancreas, and biliary tract.

      Infraclavicular: Also known as the deltopectoral group, these nodes are located below the clavicle and receive lymph from the lateral side of the upper limb.

      Supraclavicular: These nodes are found above the clavicles and receive lymph from the chest and abdomen.

      Tracheobronchial: These nodes drain the trachea and bronchi and can be affected in lung malignancy and inflammatory conditions of the lung.

      Understanding the locations of lymph nodes can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked...

    Correct

    • As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked to give a PowerPoint presentation to the team about a 20-year-old patient who presented with sickle-cell crisis.
      With regard to sickle-cell disease, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Aplastic crisis can be precipitated by parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aplastic Crisis and Sickle-Cell Disease

      Aplastic crisis is a condition of transient bone marrow failure that can be precipitated by parvovirus B19, Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), or Streptococcus. In sickle-cell disease, aplastic crisis is usually caused by parvovirus B19 and is characterized by reticulocytopenia, symptomatic anemia, and the presence of parvovirus immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies. It is managed by monitoring and symptomatic relief with blood transfusion until normal erythrocyte function returns. Aplastic crisis is most common in individuals of Mediterranean descent.

      Sickle-cell disease is most common in individuals of Black Afro-Caribbean descent and, to a lesser extent, in individuals of Mediterranean or Middle Eastern descent. It occurs as a result of the production of an abnormal beta (β) chain in haemoglobin, caused by a mutation that changes adenine to thymine in the sixth codon of the β chain gene. This results in the formation of HbS, which circulates in the blood and forms polymers in the deoxygenated state, causing sickling of red blood cells. The resulting blood film shows elongated, thin, sickled red blood cells, target cells, and Howell–Jolly bodies.

      Splenomegaly is most usually seen in childhood, as most children with sickle-cell disease have a splenic infarction event in late childhood and develop hyposplenism. Spherocytes, on the other hand, are abnormal red blood cells with a spherical shape, seen on the blood film of spherocytosis, a form of haemolytic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are requested to assess a patient with chronic kidney disease who needs...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a patient with chronic kidney disease who needs antibiotics for a systemic bacterial infection. As the patient has renal impairment, you are apprehensive about prescribing drugs that are excreted by the kidney. The microbiology department has provided you with the culture and sensitivity results and suggested the following options for antibiotics: Ceftazidime, Metronidazole, Meropenem, Piperacillin-tazobactam, and Vancomycin. Which of these options would necessitate therapeutic drug monitoring in a patient with renal dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.

      Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the odds ratio of mortality between patients treated with drug A...

    Incorrect

    • What is the odds ratio of mortality between patients treated with drug A and those treated with drug B in a randomised controlled trial for acute myocardial infarction, where 100 patients were assigned to each group and the mortality rate in group A was 20% and in group B was 30%?

      Your Answer: 1.5

      Correct Answer: 0.58

      Explanation:

      Odds Ratio

      The Odds Ratio is a statistical measure used to determine the likelihood of an outcome occurring based on a specific exposure. It compares the odds of the outcome happening when exposed to a particular factor to the odds of the outcome happening in the absence of that factor. To calculate the Odds Ratio, a table is constructed with the number of individuals who experienced the outcome and those who did not, for both the exposed and unexposed groups. The Odds Ratio is then calculated by multiplying the number of individuals who experienced the outcome in the exposed group by the number of individuals who did not experience the outcome in the unexposed group, and dividing it by the product of the number of individuals who did not experience the outcome in the exposed group and the number of individuals who experienced the outcome in the unexposed group. The resulting value represents the Odds Ratio. the Odds Ratio is important in determining the impact of a particular exposure on an outcome and can aid in making informed decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old nurse takes an intentional overdose of paracetamol. A suicide note was...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old nurse takes an intentional overdose of paracetamol. A suicide note was discovered at the scene. Her only past health problem is long-standing, well-controlled epilepsy, for which she takes carbamazepine. She is believed to have taken approximately 30 tablets. When she reached hospital, blood samples were taken. From a collateral history, this is 6 h after ingestion.
      Blood investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 141 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 321 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 3.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 4.6 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 76 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Bilirubin 12 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 45 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 86 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      GGT 74 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 53 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Paracetamol level 110 mg/l
      What is the ideal treatment for this patient who is a 42-year-old nurse that has taken an intentional overdose of paracetamol?

      Your Answer: Give iv acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol overdose can lead to acute liver failure, with as little as 10-15 grams being enough to cause harm. It’s important to be aware of the presence of paracetamol in over-the-counter medications, as this can contribute to accidental overdose. If a single ingestion occurs, a paracetamol level should be checked after 4 hours to determine if treatment is necessary. In cases of staggered overdose or delayed presentation, treatment should be given without delay. Acetylcysteine is the preferred treatment, but hypersensitivity reactions may occur. The intravenous administration of saline and regular liver function tests are necessary, and activated charcoal is only effective within the first hour of ingestion. Methionine is no longer recommended as an alternative to acetylcysteine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks guidance. She is presently on day 10 of her cycle and has missed her last two pills. Before this, she took her pill accurately every day. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 10 hours ago and is unsure if she should take emergency contraception to avoid pregnancy.

      What advice should she be given?

      Your Answer: To arrange oral emergency contraception

      Correct Answer: No emergency contraception is required and to continue taking her pill as normal

      Explanation:

      If the patient has missed two pills between days 8-14 of her cycle but has taken the previous 7 days of COCP correctly, emergency contraception is not necessary according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health. Since the patient is not in need of emergency contraception, offering her a hormonal-based emergency contraceptive would be inappropriate. However, if emergency contraception is required, options include EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse or Levonelle (levonorgestrel) up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse. Inserting a copper IUD to prevent pregnancy would also be inappropriate in this case. If the patient is having difficulty remembering to take her pill correctly and is interested in long-acting contraception, counseling her on options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection would be appropriate. It should be noted that contraceptive injections are not used as a form of emergency contraception and advising a patient to take emergency contraception within 12 hours would be incorrect.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old woman, who is 30 weeks pregnant, reports feeling breathless during a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman, who is 30 weeks pregnant, reports feeling breathless during a routine prenatal appointment. Upon examination, you observe that everything appears normal except for mild hyperventilation. What is the probable discovery during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Decrease in total lung capacity

      Explanation:

      Changes in Physiological Parameters during Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, various physiological changes occur in a woman’s body to support the growing fetus. One of these changes is a decrease in total lung capacity by approximately 200 ml. This reduction is due to a decrease in residual volume caused by the fetus. However, the basal metabolic rate increases during pregnancy. Additionally, cardiac output can increase by up to 40%, while the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) normally increases. Maternal oxygen consumption also rises during pregnancy to meet the oxygen demands of the fetus, leading to an increase in minute volume. These changes in physiological parameters are essential for the healthy development of the fetus and the mother’s well-being during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with his wife, complaining of feeling excessively tired during the day. He has been prescribed donepezil for Alzheimer's disease (AD), and he has observed some improvement in his cognitive abilities with this medication. However, his wife reports that he struggles to sleep at night and is becoming increasingly lethargic during the day.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Rivastigmine

      Correct Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alzheimer’s Disease: Choosing the Right Treatment

      Alzheimer’s Disease (AD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. Patients with AD often experience sleeping difficulties due to changes in circadian rhythms and medication side-effects. Trazodone, an atypical antidepressant, is often used as adjunctive treatment in patients with AD to manage insomnia. Along with sleep hygiene measures, such as avoidance of naps, daytime activity, and frequent exercise, trazodone is likely to help this patient’s sleeping problems.

      Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, is used to manage the psychotic manifestations of AD. However, the clinical scenario has not provided any evidence that the patient is suffering from psychosis. Rivastigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is unlikely to benefit the patient who is already taking a similar medication.

      Memantine, an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, can be used as adjunctive treatment or monotherapy in patients who do not tolerate cholinesterase inhibitors. However, this patient is experiencing sleeping difficulty and is more likely to benefit from a medication that specifically targets this clinical problem.

      Tacrine, a centrally acting anticholinesterase inhibitor medication, was previously used for the management of AD. However, due to its potent side-effect profile of fatal hepatotoxicity, it is now rarely used. Additionally, tacrine is unlikely to help this patient’s insomnia.

      Choosing the right medication for AD requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and potential side-effects. Trazodone may be a suitable option for managing insomnia in patients with AD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty breathing....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty breathing. Upon further inquiry, he reveals a history of attempted suicide and ingestion of a significant amount of antifreeze earlier in the day. His vital signs indicate a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min, pulse of 73 beats/min, temperature of 37.1ºC, blood pressure of 126/84mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 98%. Additionally, his breath has a sweet smell during examination. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's toxicity?

      Your Answer: Intravenous ethanol

      Correct Answer: Fomepizole

      Explanation:

      Fomepizole is the recommended management for ethylene glycol toxicity. This patient’s symptoms, including tachycardia and sweet-smelling breath, suggest ethylene glycol toxicity, which is commonly found in antifreeze. Severe cases may also present with altered mental state and seizures. Activated charcoal should not be used in cases of poisoning with any kind of alcohol, including ethylene glycol. Haemodialysis should only be used in severe cases of metabolic acidosis or electrolyte disturbance, deteriorating renal failure, or cases requiring prolonged antidote use. While ethanol may be considered in cases of ethylene glycol toxicity, NICE recommends fomepizole as the initial management as ethanol can cause inebriation and requires regular monitoring.

      Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.

      In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.

      Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      111.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant for the past two days. He reports feeling like he has the flu and his wife says he has had a fever for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is 38.1ºC, blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and he is tender in the right upper quadrant. Additionally, his sclera have a yellow-tinge. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice, and pain in the right upper quadrant indicates Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which is commonly associated with ascending cholangitis. This combination of symptoms is not typically seen in cases of acute cholecystitis.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash. The boy has been experiencing itching for the past 3 days and has developed a fever along with the rash. During the examination, it is observed that the rash consists of macules, papules, crusted lesions, and vesicles that have spread across most of his body. The father has been administering ibuprofen to the boy for relief from fever and discomfort.
      What is the probable diagnosis, and why is ibuprofen not recommended in this case?

      Your Answer: The risk of kidney damage

      Correct Answer: The increased risk of necrotising fasciitis

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this patient are consistent with chickenpox, including lesions at various stages of healing, fever, and itching. However, it is important to note that the use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of necrotising fasciitis in chickenpox patients. While ibuprofen is a suitable NSAID for patients of all ages, it is important to avoid aspirin due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome in children with chickenpox. Short-term use of ibuprofen during acute febrile illnesses is unlikely to cause significant gastrointestinal side effects.

      Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.

      Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia

      Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old epileptic woman presents to the clinic with her partner, reporting several instances of tonic-clonic seizures. They plan to start a family within the next year and seek advice. She is currently controlling her epilepsy with sodium valproate. What is the most appropriate recommendation for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Refer to an epilepsy specialist for evaluation and recommendation of antiepileptic medication changes

      Explanation:

      Minimizing Teratogenicity in Antiepileptic Medications for Women Wishing to Start a Family

      For women with epilepsy who wish to start a family, it is crucial to minimize exposure to teratogenic antiepileptic medications while still controlling their seizures. Sodium valproate, a commonly used antiepileptic drug, is highly teratogenic and associated with congenital malformations and neural tube defects. Therefore, it is recommended to change medication prior to conception, as advised by an epilepsy specialist after a thorough evaluation of risks and benefits.

      One option may be to add levetiracetam to the current medication regimen, as it is a pregnancy category C drug that may help control seizures. However, carbamazepine or lamotrigine may be preferred based on limited evidence.

      Stopping sodium valproate and starting phenytoin is not recommended, as phenytoin also carries a significant risk of teratogenicity and has toxic and side effects.

      Increasing the dose of sodium valproate is not advised, as it can negatively affect fetal neurodevelopment.

      Similarly, stopping sodium valproate and adding phenobarbital is not indicated, as phenobarbital is also associated with an increased risk of teratogenicity.

      Overall, it is important for women with epilepsy who wish to start a family to consult with an epilepsy specialist to evaluate and recommend appropriate antiepileptic medication changes to minimize teratogenicity while still controlling seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the clinic with complaints of constant fatigue,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the clinic with complaints of constant fatigue, joint pains, and stiffness in her hands and feet, which are worse in the morning. She also has a new rash on both cheeks. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities in her respiratory, cardiovascular, or gastrointestinal systems. There is no joint swelling, but there is mild tenderness in the metacarpo-phalangeal joints of both hands and metatarso-phalangeal joints of both feet. She has a mildly erythematosus papular rash on both cheeks. You suspect systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and order a set of blood tests to help exclude this condition. Which blood test would be most helpful in ruling out SLE?

      Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old man is pulled from the water onto the shore by lifeguards...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is pulled from the water onto the shore by lifeguards after being seen struggling in strong currents. He was underwater for six minutes before being rescued. As a bystander on the beach, you assist in the resuscitation efforts while waiting for the ambulance. The man is unconscious and not breathing. You open his airway.
      What is the next best course of action in attempting to revive this individual?

      Your Answer: Begin continuous chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute

      Correct Answer: Give five rescue breaths before commencing chest compressions

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Bystander CPR in Drowning Patients

      Drowning patients are at high risk of hypoxia and require immediate intervention. Bystander CPR is crucial in these cases, and it is recommended to give five initial rescue breaths, supplemented with oxygen if available. If the victim does not respond, chest compressions should be started at a rate of 100-120 per minute, with two rescue breaths given for every 30 compressions. Continuous chest compressions are essential for cerebral circulation during cardiac arrest, and rescue breaths should be given until the ambulance arrives. Compression-only CPR is likely to be ineffective in drowning patients and should be avoided. Remember, early intervention can save lives in drowning cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful and red right...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful and red right eye with photophobia for the past 2 days. He usually wears contact lenses but has been using glasses since the onset of pain. The patient has a medical history of allergic rhinitis and takes cetirizine daily.

      During the examination, the doctor observes dilated conjunctival and episcleral vessels, mild eyelid swelling, and increased tearing in the right eye. The left eye appears normal, and the patient's corrected visual acuity is 6/6 in the left eye and 6/12 in the right eye.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe chloramphenicol drops and advise the patient to avoid contact lenses until his symptoms have resolved

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to eye casualty

      Explanation:

      If a person wearing contact lenses experiences a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out the possibility of microbial keratitis.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman visits the Menopause Clinic with complaints of severe vasomotor symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits the Menopause Clinic with complaints of severe vasomotor symptoms such as hot flashes and night sweats. Despite experiencing light periods, she is worried about undergoing hormone replacement therapy (HRT) due to a past deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy 18 years ago. Although she has not required any long-term treatment since then, she is anxious about the increased risk of clotting associated with HRT. without other risk factors, what is the most suitable form of HRT for her?

      Your Answer: Transdermal combined HRT patches

      Explanation:

      Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) Options for Women with a History of DVT

      Women with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) need to be cautious when considering Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) options. Here are some options:

      1. Transdermal Combined HRT Patches: This option is the best as it bypasses the enterohepatic circulation, reducing the effect on the hepatic clotting system.

      2. Oral Continuous Combined HRT: This option is only suitable for postmenopausal women who have not had a period for over a year.

      3. Oral Sequential Combined HRT: This option is suitable for perimenopausal women who are still having periods. However, oral preparations increase the risk of clots, compared to transdermal preparations.

      4. Raloxifene: This is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that reduces osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It has effects on lipids and bone but does not stimulate the endometrium or breast.

      5. Tibolone: This synthetic steroid has oestrogenic, progestational, and androgenic properties. It is only suitable for postmenopausal women who had their last period more than a year ago.

      In conclusion, women with a history of DVT should consult their healthcare provider before starting any HRT option. Transdermal combined HRT patches may be the safest option for these women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - As a doctor on the renal ward, you come across a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • As a doctor on the renal ward, you come across a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is experiencing pain in their right calf. The patient reports that they noticed the pain after waking up this morning. Upon examination, you notice that the calf is mildly erythematosus, painful, and hard to touch. The circumference of the right leg is 3.5 cm more than the left. The patient's physical observations are recorded, which show a respiratory rate of 13 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations of 99% on air, blood pressure of 110/85 mmHg, heart rate of 64 beats per minute, and a temperature of 36.7ºC. The patient is alert and well orientated.

      You review the patient's most recent blood results, which indicate the following: Na+ 141 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29), Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 184 µmol/L (55 - 120), and eGFR 12 ml/min (>90).

      Based on the patient's symptoms and medical history, what is the most appropriate initial treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Treatment dose dalteparin

      Correct Answer: Unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      Patients with severe renal impairment are more likely to experience bleeding when treated with LMWH compared to UFH for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). NICE guidelines recommend specific anticoagulants based on the patient’s eGFR. For patients with an eGFR of 15-50 ml/min, a DOAC is recommended, while for those with an eGFR of <15 ml/min, UFH or dose-adjusted LMWH is recommended. In this case, UFH is the appropriate choice as it is the only NICE-recommended treatment for a DVT in patients with an eGFR <15 ml/min and has a lower risk of bleeding than LMWH at treatment dose. Rivaroxaban is the first-line treatment for a DVT in patients with an eGFR >15 ml/min. An inferior vena cava filter is not used in the acute management of a DVT but may be considered for patients with recurrent DVTs and difficulty with conventional anticoagulation. While a reduced dose of LMWH or UFH may be used in patients with an eGFR <15 ml/min, treatment dose LMWH is not recommended. Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used. Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a swollen neck and upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a swollen neck and upon examination, you find an unusual neck mass that raises suspicion of thyroid cancer. You arrange for a fine-needle aspiration and a histology report from a thyroid lobectomy reveals chromatin clearing, nuclear shape alteration, and irregularity of the nuclear membrane. There is no evidence of C cell differentiation, and the patient has no family history of cancer. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid

      Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid cancer can take different forms, with papillary carcinoma being the most common and typically affecting women between 35 and 40 years old. This type of cancer has a good long-term prognosis. Medullary carcinoma arises from C cells that produce calcitonin and CEA, and can be sporadic or associated with a genetic syndrome. Follicular carcinoma is difficult to diagnose through FNA and requires a full histological specimen to confirm, with distinguishing features being vascular and capsule invasion. Anaplastic carcinoma is the most aggressive thyroid tumor, typically affecting older individuals and lacking biological features of the original thyroid cells. Thyroid lymphomas are rare and typically affect women over 50 with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of deteriorating eyesight. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of deteriorating eyesight. She reports difficulty distinguishing between colors, central vision impairment, 'floaters', and tension-like headaches. Upon examination, her visual acuity is 20/50 in the right eye and 20/70 in the left eye. Ophthalmoscopy reveals a red spot on the macula surrounded by a ring of retinal epithelial pigment loss resembling a 'bull's eye'. The patient has poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis, and is obese. She is currently taking metformin, methotrexate, and hydroxychloroquine. What is the most probable cause of her visual disturbance?

      Your Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Explanation:

      Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe and permanent retinopathy, which is characterized by reduced color differentiation, reduced central visual acuity, and floaters. The typical appearance of bull’s eye maculopathy on ophthalmoscopy is also associated with hydroxychloroquine use. Therefore, hydroxychloroquine is the correct answer in this case.

      Diabetic retinopathy is an unlikely diagnosis as it is usually detected early through the diabetic eye screening program. It presents with similar symptoms to drug-induced retinopathy, such as floaters and blurred vision, and can cause reduced central vision if the macula is affected. However, the bull’s eye maculopathy described in this case is not typical of diabetic maculopathy.

      Central retinal artery occlusion is caused by a disruption of retinal blood supply and typically results in sudden vision loss. On ophthalmoscopy, a cherry-red fovea with retinal whitening is usually observed. Bilateral involvement is uncommon.

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with headaches, vomiting, retro-orbital pain, pulsatile tinnitus, and visual disturbance, most commonly peripheral visual fields. Papilloedema is usually observed on ophthalmoscopy, which is not described in this case.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.6
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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. After a heated argument, the patient ingested a packet of her father's depression medication and locked herself in her room. When the door was forced open, she was found lying on the floor in a drowsy state. As part of her evaluation, an electrocardiogram was performed, revealing a sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 98 beats per minute, PR interval of 100ms, QRS of 150ms, and QTc interval of 420ms. What is the most appropriate course of action based on these findings?

      Your Answer: DC cardioversion

      Correct Answer: IV sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      In tricyclic overdose, the QRS complex widens and can lead to ventricular tachycardia. IV sodium bicarbonate can be given to achieve cardiac stability. SSRIs do not widen the QRS but prolong the QT. DC cardioversion is not appropriate in this case. IV dextrose is not useful in reversing toxicity. IV lorazepam is used for seizures but not needed currently. Flecainide is contraindicated in tricyclic overdose.

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of epistaxis and has been experiencing a fever....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of epistaxis and has been experiencing a fever. Upon examination by an ENT specialist, she was found to have serous otitis media. Further tests revealed protein +++ and 20 RBC/hpf in her urine, while her serum rheumatoid factor was negative. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a disease that can develop slowly or suddenly, and its full range of symptoms may take years to appear. The initial symptoms of GPA include severe nosebleeds, sinusitis, nasal ulcers, ear infections, hearing loss, coughing, and chest pain. Renal involvement is also common, with glomerulonephritis causing proteinuria, haematuria, and red cell casts. Serum complement levels are usually normal or elevated, while the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is elevated, and leukocytosis and anaemia may be present. Unlike other autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies and LE cells are not present in GPA. However, high levels of antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are almost always present, making it a useful marker for diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

      Symptoms of GPA can be varied and may take time to develop fully. Renal involvement is a common feature of the disease, and proteinuria, haematuria, and red cell casts are often seen. Serum complement levels are usually normal or elevated, while the ESR is elevated, and leukocytosis and anaemia may be present. Unlike other autoimmune diseases, antinuclear antibodies and LE cells are not present in GPA. However, high levels of ANCA are almost always present, making it a useful marker for diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The patient in the picture has a slow-growing facial lump and has been...

    Correct

    • The patient in the picture has a slow-growing facial lump and has been referred to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Clinic. He denies any other symptoms and is in good health. Radiology confirms a parotid swelling. What is the most likely pathology he has?

      Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Explanation:

      Possible Parotid Gland Conditions and Their Characteristics

      The parotid gland is a salivary gland located in front of the ear. It can be affected by various conditions, including pleomorphic adenoma, lymphoma, parotid adenitis, parotid abscess, and adenocarcinoma.

      Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It is a slow-growing, mixed benign tumour that can potentially become malignant and has a high chance of recurrence. Surgical removal through a parotidectomy is the current treatment approach.

      Lymphoma is a possibility in the parotid gland, but it is less common than pleomorphic adenoma. Patients with lymphoma may have constitutional symptoms, such as night sweats, weight loss, and fever.

      Parotid adenitis is inflammation of the parotid gland, which can occur for various reasons. It may be unilateral or bilateral, as seen in mumps. Inflammatory conditions typically cause more tenderness than swelling.

      Parotid abscess is a collection of pus in the parotid gland. However, the unusual shape of the gland in combination with normal overlying skin is not typical of abscesses or inflammation.

      Adenocarcinoma of the parotid gland is a malignant tumour that can involve the facial nerve. However, the lack of facial nerve involvement and the relative size of the tumour make adenocarcinoma unlikely in this case.

      In summary, the characteristics of each condition can help differentiate between them, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 64-year-old postmenopausal woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dyspareunia, increased...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old postmenopausal woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dyspareunia, increased urinary frequency, and vaginal dryness. She reports no vaginal bleeding, discharge, or haematuria, and there are no signs of vasomotor or psychological menopausal symptoms. What is the accurate statement about treating vaginal atrophy in postmenopausal women?

      Your Answer: Following cessation of treatment, symptoms recur

      Explanation:

      Management of Vaginal Atrophy in Menopausal Women

      Menopausal women often experience vaginal atrophy due to oestrogen deficiency, leading to a variety of symptoms such as dyspareunia, burning, irritation, vaginal discharge, and bleeding. It is crucial to rule out urinary and sexually transmitted infections and perform a speculum examination to exclude malignancy in the presence of vaginal bleeding. Topical therapy is the first-line management for vaginal atrophy, which can be either hormonal or non-hormonal. Hormonal treatments are more effective but have more side-effects, while non-hormonal treatments provide symptom relief to a number of patients. A combination of both therapies is also an option for maximal symptom relief. Systemic hormonal replacement therapy is offered to women who have both vaginal and systemic menopausal symptoms. Vaginal bleeding is a common side-effect of hormonal treatment and requires further investigation if it persists after the first six months of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which one of the following statements regarding digoxin is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding digoxin is accurate?

      Your Answer: It has negative inotropic properties

      Correct Answer: Toxicity can occur in patients with digoxin levels in the therapeutic range

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. Upon examination, her...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. Upon examination, her abdomen is found to be tender all over. Laparoscopy reveals the presence of numerous small lesions between her liver and abdominal wall, while her appendix appears to be unaffected. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis)

      Explanation:

      Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is characterized by hepatic adhesions, which are not present in any of the other options. Therefore, the diagnosis is based on the presence of lesions rather than just the symptoms described. This syndrome is a complication of PID that causes inflammation of the liver capsule, known as Glisson’s Capsule.

      Gynaecological Causes of Abdominal Pain in Women

      Abdominal pain is a common complaint among women, and it can be caused by various gynaecological disorders. To diagnose these disorders, a bimanual vaginal examination, urine pregnancy test, and abdominal and pelvic ultrasound scanning should be performed in addition to routine diagnostic workup. If diagnostic doubt persists, a laparoscopy can be used to assess suspected tubulo-ovarian pathology.

      There are several differential diagnoses of abdominal pain in females, including mittelschmerz, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, ectopic gestation, and pelvic inflammatory disease. Mittelschmerz is characterized by mid-cycle pain that usually settles over 24-48 hours. Endometriosis is a complex disease that may result in pelvic adhesional formation with episodes of intermittent small bowel obstruction. Ovarian torsion is usually sudden onset of deep-seated colicky abdominal pain associated with vomiting and distress. Ectopic gestation presents as an emergency with evidence of rupture or impending rupture. Pelvic inflammatory disease is characterized by bilateral lower abdominal pain associated with vaginal discharge and dysuria.

      Each of these disorders requires specific investigations and treatments. For example, endometriosis is usually managed medically, but complex disease may require surgery and some patients may even require formal colonic and rectal resections if these areas are involved. Ovarian torsion is usually diagnosed and treated with laparoscopy. Ectopic gestation requires a salpingectomy if the patient is haemodynamically unstable. Pelvic inflammatory disease is usually managed medically with antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A seven-week-old baby presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-week-old baby presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of feeding difficulties and worsening respiratory distress. The infant has no significant medical history. During examination, a precordial ejection systolic murmur is heard and the lips appear bluish in color. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of fallot

      Explanation:

      TGA is a type of cyanotic congenital heart disease that presents within the first few days of life, while TOF typically presents at 1-2 months of age. In this case, the infant’s symptoms of decompensated heart disease with cyanosis rule out VSD, coarctation, and PDA, leaving TGA and TOF as possible diagnoses. The timing of the presentation suggests TGA as the more likely option, as it is duct dependent and presents early after birth. TOF, on the other hand, typically occurs later as the RV hypertrophy increases and causes a right to left shunt. TOF is characterized by VSD, RV hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis, and an overriding aorta, with a boot-shaped heart on chest x-ray and RVH on ECG. Treatment involves surgical repair around 6 months of age and management of cyanotic spells with b-blockers.

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.8
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. Which of the following is expected to be elevated in her urine levels?

      Your Answer: Dehydroepiandrosterone

      Correct Answer: Metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Urinary Metabolites as Diagnostic Markers for Adrenal Disorders

      Adrenal disorders such as phaeochromocytomas, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and Cushing syndrome can be diagnosed by measuring specific urinary metabolites. For example, metanephrines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and homovanillic acid (HVA) are the principal metabolic products of adrenaline and noradrenaline, and their elevated levels in urine indicate the presence of phaeochromocytomas. Similarly, increased urinary excretion of pregnanetriol and dehydroepiandrosterone are indicative of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Free urinary cortisol levels are elevated in Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, fatty tissue deposits, and other symptoms. Additionally, increased urinary excretion of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid is seen in functioning carcinoids. However, it is important to note that elevated levels of these metabolites can also occur in other conditions such as extreme stress states or medication use. Therefore, careful interpretation of urinary metabolite levels is necessary for accurate diagnosis of adrenal disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.7
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  • Question 30 - At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist...

    Correct

    • At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist for a colectomy. The referral letter mentions that the patient has been screened for a genetic abnormality and that a mutation was found in a gene on chromosome 5q21.
      What is the most likely underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

      Explanation:

      Inherited Conditions Predisposing to Colorectal Carcinoma

      There are several inherited conditions that increase an individual’s risk of developing colorectal carcinoma. These conditions can be divided into two groups: polyposis syndromes and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.

      The polyposis syndromes can be further divided into adenomatous polyposis and hamartomatous polyposis. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common and important of the polyposis syndromes. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is associated with the development of over 100 polyps in the large bowel by the mid-teens. Patients with FAP typically undergo prophylactic colectomy before the age of 30.

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is one of the hamartomatous polyposis conditions and is characterized by the presence of pigmented lesions on the lips. Patients with this syndrome are predisposed to cancers of the small and large bowel, testis, stomach, pancreas, and breast.

      Familial juvenile polyposis is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that occurs in children and teenagers.

      Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer is the most common inherited condition leading to colorectal cancer. It is caused by defects in mismatch repair genes and carries a 70% lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer.

      Cowden’s disease is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that causes macrocephaly, hamartomatous polypoid disease, and benign skin tumors.

      In summary, understanding these inherited conditions and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention of colorectal carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      5.9
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  • Question 31 - A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia. In theatre, the hernial sac is noted to lie medial to the inferior epigastric artery.
      To weakness of which of the following structures can the hernia best be attributed?

      Your Answer: Muscular fibres of transversus abdominis

      Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Explanation:

      Types of Abdominal Hernias and Their Characteristics

      Abdominal hernias occur when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak point in the abdominal wall. There are different types of abdominal hernias, each with its own characteristics and symptoms.

      Direct Inguinal Hernia

      A direct inguinal hernia occurs medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac is pushed directly through a weak point in the conjoint tendon, which is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This type of hernia is more common in men and worsens with exercise, coughing, or straining.

      Aponeurosis of External Oblique

      In a direct inguinal hernia, the bowel sac does not push through the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle.

      Muscular Fibres of Internal Oblique

      A ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the anterior abdominal muscles, such as the internal oblique. It can be incisional or occur at any site of muscle weakening. Epigastric hernias occur above the umbilicus, and hypogastric hernias occur below the umbilicus.

      Muscular Fibres of Transversus Abdominis

      Another type of ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the transversus abdominis. It becomes more prominent when the patient is sitting, leaning forward, or straining. Ventral hernias can be congenital, post-operative, or spontaneous.

      Superficial Inguinal Ring

      An indirect inguinal hernia is the most common type of abdominal hernia. It occurs in men and children and arises lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac protrudes through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal and then through the superficial inguinal ring, extending into the scrotum. It may be asymptomatic but can also undergo incarceration or strangulation or lead to bowel obstruction.

      Understanding the Different Types of Abdominal Hernias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      29.1
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  • Question 32 - A 6-month-old infant is scheduled for routine immunisations. All recommended immunisations have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is scheduled for routine immunisations. All recommended immunisations have been administered so far. What vaccinations should be given at this point?

      Your Answer: Hib/Men C + MMR + PCV

      Correct Answer: Hib/Men C + MMR + PCV + Men B

      Explanation:

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 33 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. He denies any fever, weight loss or recent travel. Past medical history included hypertension and appendicectomy for an inflamed appendix 3 years ago.

      On examination, there is a firm mass over the abdominal wall. The overlying skin is dusky with signs of ischaemia and necrosis.

      Given the signs of ischaemia, you perform a venous blood gas (VBG).

      pH 7.22 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 3.1kPa (4.5-6.0)
      pO2 5.1kPa (4.0-5.3)
      HCO3- 15 mmol/L (22-26)

      Routine work-up to investigate the underlying cause reveals:

      Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 13 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Bilirubin 15 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 50 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 39 u/L (3 - 40)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Correct Answer: Richter's hernia

      Explanation:

      Richter’s hernia can cause strangulation without any signs of obstruction. This is because the bowel lumen remains open while the bowel wall is compromised. A VBG test may reveal metabolic acidosis, indicated by a low pH, low bicarbonate, and low pCO2 due to partial respiratory compensation. This type of acidosis can occur due to lactate build-up. Unlike Richter’s hernia, small bowel obstruction is less likely to cause a firm, red mass on the abdominal wall. Conditions such as diabetic ketoacidosis and pancreatitis may cause abdominal pain and metabolic acidosis, but they do not explain the presence of a firm mass on the abdominal wall or the skin’s dusky appearance. Ascending cholangitis typically presents with Charcot’s triad, which includes right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, but this is not the case here. In some cases, it may also cause confusion and hypotension, which is known as Reynold’s pentad.

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A patient has returned to the ward, following a neurosurgical procedure to remove...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has returned to the ward, following a neurosurgical procedure to remove a large benign cyst. Over the next few hours, she becomes less alert and the neurosurgeon is recalled. The patient is unable to deviate her right eye medially. At rest, her eye appears to point downwards and laterally and the right pupil appears to be dilated.
      Which nerve has been affected?

      Your Answer: Trochlear

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerves Involved in Eye Movement and Vision

      The movement of the eye is controlled by seven extraocular muscles, each with a specific function. The levator palpebrae superioris elevates the upper eyelid, while the superior rectus elevates the eyeball and the inferior rectus depresses it. The medial rectus adducts the eyeball, while the lateral rectus abducts it. The superior oblique depresses, abducts, and medially rotates the eyeball, and the inferior oblique elevates, abducts, and laterally rotates it. These muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve, except for the superior oblique and lateral rectus, which are supplied by the trochlear and abducens nerve, respectively.

      The trochlear nerve is responsible for the motor function of the superior oblique muscle, while the optic nerve is associated with vision. The abducens nerve controls the lateral rectus muscle, and damage to this nerve results in the inability to laterally gaze. The ciliary nerve contains sensory and sympathetic fibers that innervate the dilator pupillae muscle, triggering its contraction and causing pupillary dilation. However, it is not involved in the movement of the eye.

      Injury to the oculomotor nerve can lead to a down and out eyeball, externally rotated and depressed, due to the unopposed actions of the lateral rectus and superior oblique. Diseases like diabetes or stroke affect the somatic fibers preferentially and do not affect the pupil, while direct compression or injury of the nerve affects parasympathetic fibers and leads to pupil dilation. A trochlear nerve palsy causes the eye to be adducted, elevated, and externally rotated, while optic nerve injury results in partial or complete visual loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 72-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine check-up. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine check-up. During the examination, she seems generally healthy but slightly fatigued and experiences some breathlessness at rest. Her pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 72 bpm, while her blood pressure is 126/78 mmHg. Upon further examination, no concerning issues are found. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
      What is the probable reason for this woman's development of atrial fibrillation (AF)?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Correct Answer: Lone AF

      Explanation:

      Management of Atrial Fibrillation: The ABCD Approach

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common arrhythmia that can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. Treatment options for AF depend on the classification and can be categorized into rate control, rhythm control, and anticoagulation. The ABCD approach is a useful tool for managing AF.

      A – Anticoagulation: Patients with AF are at an increased risk for thromboembolic disease, and anticoagulation should be considered in high-risk patients where the benefit outweighs the risk of hemorrhage.

      B – Better symptom control: Rate control is aimed at controlling the ventricular response rate to improve symptoms. Rhythm control is aimed at restoring and maintaining sinus rhythm to improve symptoms.

      C – Cardiovascular risk factor management: Management of underlying cardiovascular risk factors such as hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia can help reduce the risk of AF recurrence and complications.

      D – Disease management: Management of underlying conditions associated with AF, such as valvular heart disease and heart failure, can help improve AF outcomes.

      In summary, the ABCD approach to managing AF involves anticoagulation, better symptom control, cardiovascular risk factor management, and disease management. This approach can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0.4
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  • Question 36 - A 28-year-old G2P1 attends the clinic at 37 weeks’ gestation, complaining of ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old G2P1 attends the clinic at 37 weeks’ gestation, complaining of ongoing nausea and vomiting for most of the pregnancy. Blood tests show abnormal results for sodium, alkaline phosphatase, and creatinine. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Arrange admission for intravenous (iv) hydration

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient and follow up in 1 week

      Explanation:

      Management of Abnormal Alkaline Phosphatase in Pregnancy

      Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme produced by the placenta during pregnancy. If a pregnant patient presents with elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, it can be concerning. However, in the absence of other abnormal blood results and symptoms, further work-up is not indicated. The most appropriate management in this situation is to reassure the patient and follow up in one week.

      It is important to note that dehydration and severe electrolyte abnormalities can cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. However, if there is no evidence of these issues, there is no need for admission for intravenous hydration.

      Additionally, an urgent ultrasound of the liver is not necessary if the rest of the liver enzymes are normal. Induction of labor is not indicated in this situation either.

      If the patient has cholestasis of pregnancy, cholestyramine may be used to bind bile acids. However, if the patient has normal bile acids and no evidence of cholestasis, cholestyramine is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      2.2
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  • Question 37 - A 56-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after ingesting a significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after ingesting a significant amount of prescription drugs. She was discovered at home with empty bottles of imipramine nearby. Despite appearing drowsy, she informs the doctor that she took the medications about 8 hours ago.

      During the examination, the patient is found to be hypotensive, tachycardic, and drowsy. An ECG reveals a QRS width of 162ms. What treatment should be given?

      Your Answer: Activated charcoal

      Correct Answer: Intravenous bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      In cases of tricyclic overdose, the presence of a widened QRS complex or arrhythmia on ECG requires immediate administration of IV bicarbonate as the first-line therapy. Activated charcoal may not be effective if the patient presents more than 2 hours after ingestion. Amiodarone should be avoided as it can worsen hypotension and conduction abnormalities. Glucagon is not indicated for tricyclic overdose, as it is used for beta-blocker overdose. Magnesium sulphate is not useful in the management of tricyclic overdose, but is used for torsades de pointes and eclampsia.

      Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.

      Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant and experiencing severe vomiting, making it difficult for her to retain fluids. What is the best method to determine the severity of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Serial creatinine levels

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) scoring system

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What result would suggest the requirement for regular antenatal administration of anti-D prophylaxis at 28 weeks?

      Your Answer: Rhesus positive mothers who are not sensitised

      Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mothers who are not sensitised

      Explanation:

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - In a double blind, randomised, placebo controlled trial of a new medication looking...

    Incorrect

    • In a double blind, randomised, placebo controlled trial of a new medication looking at reduction in blood pressure, 200 patients were enrolled with 100 patients receiving the new medication and 100 patients receiving placebo.

      In the treatment group, blood pressure decreased from a mean of 150/90 mmHg to 130/80 mmHg. In the control group, blood pressure decreased from a mean of 148/88 mmHg to 140/85 mmHg. The authors concluded that the new medication was effective in reducing blood pressure as p=0.02 (2-tailed test).

      Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: The alternative hypothesis is that placebo is more effective than drug A

      Correct Answer: The alternative hypothesis is that drug A is more effective or less effective than placebo

      Explanation:

      The alternative hypothesis in a two-tailed statistical hypothesis testing is that there is a difference between the variables being tested. In the case of comparing a new diuretic to a placebo, the alternative hypothesis would be that there is a difference in their potassium reducing effect, meaning the new diuretic is either more or less effective than the placebo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 41 - A 25-year-old individual is undergoing testing for asthma. Prior to administering bronchodilators, their...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old individual is undergoing testing for asthma. Prior to administering bronchodilators, their FEV1/FVC ratio is measured at 0.85, with the FVC at 90% of normal. What does this indicate?

      Your Answer: Reduced function due to smoking

      Correct Answer: Normal examination

      Explanation:

      The FEV1/FVC ratio is a key measurement in lung function tests. In normal subjects, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio is less than 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the FEV1, which is the volume of air that can be expelled in one second. However, if the ratio is normal, it indicates that the individual has a healthy respiratory system.

      In cases of restrictive lung disease, the FVC is reduced, which can also affect the FEV1/FVC ratio. In such cases, the ratio may be normal or even high. Therefore, it is important to interpret the FEV1/FVC ratio in conjunction with other lung function test results to accurately diagnose and manage respiratory conditions. This ratio can help healthcare professionals identify potential lung problems and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 28-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain during bowel movements for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of pain during bowel movements for the past few days. He notices a small amount of fresh, bright-red blood on the toilet paper. He has been having one or two bowel movements per day, which is normal for him, but lately, he has been experiencing hard stools. He is concerned about the pain he will feel during his next bowel movement. He has no other symptoms, fever, or recent weight loss. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. The doctor diagnoses him with an anal fissure. What would be an appropriate management option at this point?

      Your Answer: Referral for botulinum toxin injection

      Correct Answer: Bulk-forming laxatives

      Explanation:

      When someone has an anal fissure, they typically experience painful rectal bleeding that appears bright red. The recommended course of action in this case would be to use bulk-forming laxatives and provide dietary guidance on consuming more fluids and fiber. These conservative methods are usually sufficient for treating most cases of acute anal fissures. Additionally, topical analgesics and anesthetics may be utilized.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old woman who has a history of Crohn's disease complains of painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who has a history of Crohn's disease complains of painful rectal bleeding. She reports that the bleeding happens after passing stool and it is bright red. What could be the probable cause of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Recto-uterine fistula

      Correct Answer: Fissure in ano

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences pain while passing stool and notices bleeding after defecation, it could indicate the presence of a fissure in ano. Although thrombosed haemorrhoids may also cause painful rectal bleeding, a fissure is more probable in this case. Additionally, individuals with Crohn’s disease are more prone to developing fissures. While rectal cancer can also cause rectal bleeding, it is unlikely to occur in a 36-year-old.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0.7
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  • Question 44 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting crusting of both eyelids that is more severe in the morning and accompanied by an itchy feeling. She states that she has not experienced any changes in her vision. Upon examining her eyelids, the doctor observes crusting at the eyelid edges that are inflamed and red. The conjunctivae seem normal, and the pupils react equally to light. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Entropion

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Blepharitis: This condition presents with crusting of both eyelids, redness, swelling, and itching. It can be treated with eyelid hygiene and warm compress. If these measures are not effective, chloramphenicol ointment can be used.

      Chalazion: A painless swelling or lump on the eyelid caused by a blocked gland. Patients report a red, swollen, and painful area on the eyelid, which settles within a few days but leaves behind a firm, painless swelling. Warm compresses and gentle massaging can encourage drainage.

      Conjunctivitis: Patients with conjunctivitis present with conjunctival erythema, watery/discharging eye, and a gritty sensation. Most cases are self-limiting, but some patients will require topical antibiotics if symptoms have not resolved.

      Entropion: This condition is when the margin of the eyelid turns inwards towards the surface of the eye, causing irritation. It is more common in elderly patients and requires surgical treatment.

      Hordeolum: An acute-onset localised swelling of the eyelid margin that is painful. It is usually localised around an eyelash follicle, in which case plucking the affected eyelash can aid drainage. Styes are usually self-limiting, but eyelid hygiene and warm compress can help with resolution.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 45 - A 75-year-old woman undergoes a left hemicolectomy for colon cancer. The pathology report...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman undergoes a left hemicolectomy for colon cancer. The pathology report reveals that the tumour has invaded the muscle layer surrounding the colon but there is no lymph node involvement or distant metastasis on the CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis. What is the Dukes stage of the tumour in this patient?

      Your Answer: C

      Correct Answer: B

      Explanation:

      The tumour in this patient is classified as Duke Stage B, as it has invaded the local tissue outside of the mucosa but does not involve any lymph nodes, which would make it Duke Stage C. Duke Stage D would involve distant metastases. Staging is crucial in determining prognosis and further management.

      While Dukes staging is still widely used, TNM classification is gradually replacing it for colorectal tumours. Tumours that are still within the mucosal wall are classified as T1 or T2, while those that have spread outside the mucosal wall are classified as T3 or T4. Lymph node involvement is classified as N0 (no involvement), N1 (up to 3 regional lymph nodes), or N2 (4 or more regional lymph nodes). Metastasis is classified as either M0 (no metastasis) or M1 (metastasis present).

      Duke Stage B can be classified as either T3N0M0 or T4N0M0.

      Dukes’ Classification: Stages of Colorectal Cancer

      Dukes’ classification is a system used to describe the extent of spread of colorectal cancer. It is divided into four stages, each with a different level of severity and prognosis. Stage A refers to a tumour that is confined to the mucosa, with a 95% 5-year survival rate. Stage B describes a tumour that has invaded the bowel wall, with an 80% 5-year survival rate. Stage C indicates the presence of lymph node metastases, with a 65% 5-year survival rate. Finally, Stage D refers to distant metastases, with a 5% 5-year survival rate (although this increases to 20% if the metastases are resectable).

      Overall, Dukes’ classification is an important tool for doctors to use when determining the best course of treatment for patients with colorectal cancer. By understanding the stage of the cancer, doctors can make more informed decisions about surgery, chemotherapy, and other treatments. Additionally, patients can use this information to better understand their prognosis and make decisions about their own care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0.8
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  • Question 46 - A 22-year-old woman brings her 8-week-old baby to an emergency GP appointment. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman brings her 8-week-old baby to an emergency GP appointment. The mother reports that her baby is extremely fussy in the evenings, crying incessantly and pulling up their legs. The baby was delivered vaginally at full term and is exclusively breastfed. The baby's weight is normal and there are no other health concerns. Upon examination, everything appears to be normal. What course of action would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Paediatric review

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and support

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, which is often worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, there is no known cure for infantile colic. However, there are some remedies that parents can try to alleviate the symptoms. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries advise against the use of simethicone or lactase drops, such as Infacol® and Colief®, respectively. These remedies have not been proven to be effective in treating infantile colic.

      Parents can try other methods to soothe their baby, such as holding them close, rocking them gently, or using a pacifier. Some parents also find that white noise or music can help calm their baby. It is important to remember that infantile colic is a temporary condition that usually resolves on its own by the time the baby is three to four months old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0.7
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  • Question 47 - Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?

      Your Answer: Low-grade fever

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 48 - What is a true statement about the femoral nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the femoral nerve?

      Your Answer: Passes superficial to the inguinal ligament

      Correct Answer: Has a deep branch which becomes the saphenous nerve

      Explanation:

      The Nerves of the Thigh

      The thigh is innervated by several nerves, including the femoral nerve, sciatic nerve, and lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The femoral nerve is formed within the psoas major muscle and emerges from its lateral border to lie between the psoas and iliacus muscles in the iliac fossa. It then travels beneath the inguinal ligament and lies lateral to the femoral artery in the femoral triangle before entering the thigh.

      As it enters the thigh, the femoral nerve divides into a posterior division, which becomes the saphenous nerve as it enters the adductor canal. The saphenous nerve supplies the skin over the medial aspect of the leg and foot. The anterior division of the femoral nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior thigh, including the quadriceps femoris muscle.

      The sciatic nerve, which is the largest nerve in the body, divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves in the popliteal fossa. The tibial nerve supplies the muscles of the posterior thigh and leg, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the muscles of the lateral leg.

      Finally, the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve supplies the skin over the lateral thigh. This nerve arises from the lumbar plexus and travels through the pelvis before entering the thigh. It supplies the skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh but does not supply any muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 49 - A 39-year-old male is being released from the cardiology unit on amiodarone due...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old male is being released from the cardiology unit on amiodarone due to the recent diagnosis of atrial fibrillation. What side effect of this medication should you advise him on?

      Your Answer: Nephrotoxicity

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone, a class III anti-arrhythmic agent used to manage various arrhythmias, is well-known for its side effects, which are frequently tested in medical student exams. One of its major side effects is pulmonary fibrosis, along with thyroid disturbances, skin discoloration, and additional arrhythmias. However, it is not typically linked to diarrhea, oligomenorrhea, or kidney damage, although it can cause liver damage.

      Amiodarone is a medication that can have several adverse effects on the body. One of the most common side effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Additionally, the use of amiodarone can lead to the formation of corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, and a ‘slate-grey’ appearance. Other potential adverse effects include thrombophlebitis and injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is important to note that amiodarone can also interact with other medications, leading to potentially dangerous outcomes. For example, the medication can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, which can result in an increased INR. Additionally, amiodarone can increase digoxin levels, which can lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients who are taking amiodarone and to be aware of potential drug interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 50 - Mrs Johnson is a 79-year-old lady who has been admitted with a urinary...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Johnson is a 79-year-old lady who has been admitted with a urinary tract infection. She has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), for which she takes inhalers. Her abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) was 8/10 on admission. A midstream urine sample was sent for microbiology and the report indicates a pure growth of Escherichia coli sensitive to trimethoprim and co-amoxiclav. After receiving 48 hours of intravenous co-amoxiclav, she is now on appropriate oral antibiotic therapy.
      You are called to the ward at 0100 h as Mrs Johnson is increasingly agitated and confused. She now has an AMTS of 2/10 and is refusing to stay in bed. Her vital signs are normal, and respiratory, cardiovascular, abdominal and neurological examinations reveal some fine crepitations at both lung bases, but no other abnormality. Her Glasgow Coma Score (GCS) is 14.
      What is the most appropriate next management option?

      Your Answer: Prescribe lorazepam 0.5 mg orally (po) to help Mrs Smith settle

      Correct Answer: Advise nursing in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Delirium in Mrs Smith: Nursing in a Well-Lit Environment with Frequent Reassurance and Reorientation

      Acute delirium is a common condition that can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, metabolic problems, hypoxia, intracranial vascular insults, and toxins. When assessing a patient with acute delirium, it is crucial to exclude life-threatening or reversible causes through a thorough history, clinical examination, and appropriate investigations.

      In the case of Mrs Smith, who has new confusion with preserved consciousness, there is no evidence of acute clinical illness, and she is receiving appropriate treatment for a urinary tract infection. Therefore, the most appropriate management is to nurse her in a well-lit environment with frequent reassurance and reorientation. Sedating medication, such as lorazepam or haloperidol, should only be considered as a last resort if the patient is at risk of harm due to delirium.

      It is not necessary to arrange an urgent CT head or a full septic screen unless there are specific indications. Instead, optimizing the patient’s environment can help resolve delirium and improve outcomes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute delirium in patients like Mrs Smith.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/6) 17%
Breast (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/8) 25%
Clinical Sciences (0/3) 0%
Gynaecology (3/4) 75%
Obstetrics (2/5) 40%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (0/4) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/3) 33%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Colorectal (1/2) 50%
Neurosurgery (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
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