00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 27-year-old woman named Priya, who moved to the UK from India 8...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman named Priya, who moved to the UK from India 8 years ago, visited her GP with her husband. She was 32 weeks pregnant with her first child. Priya had experienced mild hyperemesis until week 16 but had an otherwise uneventful pregnancy. She reported feeling slightly feverish and unwell, and had developed a rash the previous night.

      Upon examination, Priya appeared healthy, with a temperature of 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation of 99% in air, heart rate of 92 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 112/74 mmHg. She had a macular rash with some early papular and vesicular lesions.

      Further questioning revealed that Priya had attended a family gathering two weeks ago, where she spent time with her young cousins. One of her cousins was later diagnosed with chickenpox. Priya's husband confirmed that she had never had chickenpox before.

      What is the appropriate next step in managing chickenpox in this case?

      Your Answer: Reassure and send the patient home

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and contract chickenpox are typically treated with oral acyclovir if they seek medical attention within 24 hours of developing the rash. Women who were not born and raised in the UK are at a higher risk of contracting chickenpox when they move to the country. The RCOG recommends prescribing oral acyclovir to pregnant women with chickenpox who are at least 20 weeks pregnant and have developed the rash within 24 hours. acyclovir may also be considered for women who are less than 20 weeks pregnant. If a woman contracts chickenpox before 28 weeks of pregnancy, she should be referred to a fetal medicine specialist five weeks after the infection. The chickenpox vaccine cannot be administered during pregnancy, and VZIG is not effective once the rash has developed. In cases where there is clear clinical evidence of chickenpox infection, antibody testing is unnecessary. Pregnant women with chickenpox should be monitored daily, and if they exhibit signs of severe or complicated chickenpox, they should be referred to a specialist immediately. Adults with chickenpox are at a higher risk of complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis, and in rare cases, death, so proper assessment and management are crucial.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      305.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with a severe exacerbation of COPD. Despite full intervention, being intubated and ventilated, he fails to respond to treatment and continues to steadily deteriorate. It is believed that the patient is now brain dead.
      The patient is unconscious, fails to respond to outside stimulation and it is believed that his heart rate and breathing are only being maintained by the ventilator. The patient has agreed in the past to be an organ donor, and brainstem death verification is sought. The consultant with six years’ experience is present to certify brainstem death; however, a further person is needed for the process.
      Which of the following people is most appropriate to certify brainstem death along with the consultant?

      Your Answer: The coroner

      Correct Answer: An ST4 doctor with five years full GMC registration

      Explanation:

      Certification of Brainstem Death: Who Can Verify and Who Cannot

      Brain death is the irreversible loss of brain function, including the brainstem. To diagnose brainstem death, all three criteria of apnoea, coma, and absence of brainstem reflexes must be present. The verification of brainstem death is typically done in the ICU, where patients are mechanically ventilated.

      According to the guidelines set by the Academy of Medical Royal Colleges, two doctors must verify brainstem death. Both doctors must have at least five years of full medical registration and be trained and competent in performing the assessment. At least one of the two doctors must be a consultant. They must both agree that all three criteria are met and that there is no reversible cause that can be treated.

      It is important to note that any doctor who has received training in death certification can certify a death following cardiorespiratory arrest. However, only doctors who meet the above criteria can verify brainstem death.

      The coroner is not involved in death verification unless the circumstances of the death are suspicious or meet strict referral criteria.

      Nursing staff should not verify death unless they have received specific training. In certifying brainstem death, two qualified doctors, one of whom must be a consultant, and both of whom must have been fully registered with the GMC for at least five years, must perform the tests.

      Relatives and next of kin should not be involved in the verification of death. They can be informed of the death as soon as it is confirmed by medical practitioners.

      Who Can Verify Brainstem Death? A Guide to Certification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 62-year-old retiree comes to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old retiree comes to the clinic with complaints of abdominal pain and bloating. He reports recurrent belching after meals and a loss of taste for Chinese food, which he used to enjoy. This has been ongoing for the past 8 years. The patient had an upper GI endoscopy 6 years ago, which was reported as normal. He has tried various over-the-counter remedies and was prescribed medication by his primary care physician, but with little relief. What is the next recommended course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment

      Correct Answer: Upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic and Treatment Options for Non-Ulcer Dyspepsia in Older Patients

      Non-ulcer dyspepsia (NUD) is a common condition characterized by upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms without any identifiable cause. However, in older patients, these symptoms may be indicative of a more serious underlying condition. Therefore, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend upper GI endoscopy for patients over the age of 55 with treatment-resistant symptoms.

      Gastric motility studies are indicated in gastric disorders like gastroparesis but are not necessary for NUD diagnosis. Proton pump inhibitors or H2 blockers may be tried if alarm symptoms are not present. Anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment may also be considered. However, acupuncture is not validated as an effective treatment for NUD.

      In summary, older patients with NUD should undergo endoscopic evaluation to rule out any serious underlying conditions. Treatment options include proton pump inhibitors, H2 blockers, and anti-Helicobacter pylori treatment, but acupuncture is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two episodes of right-sided bronchial pneumonia in the past 2 months, which have not completely resolved. He has been a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day since he was 16 years old. On examination, he has signs consistent with COPD and right-sided consolidation on respiratory examination. His BMI is 18. Further investigations reveal a right hilar mass measuring 4 x 2 cm in size on chest X-ray, along with abnormal laboratory values including low haemoglobin, elevated WCC, and corrected calcium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus

      Explanation:

      Types of Bronchial Carcinomas

      Bronchial carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originates in the bronchial tubes. There are several types of bronchial carcinomas, each with their own characteristics and treatment options.

      Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus is the most common type of bronchial carcinoma, accounting for 42% of cases. It typically occurs in the central part of the lung and is strongly associated with smoking. Patients with squamous cell carcinoma may also present with hypercalcemia.

      Bronchial carcinoids are rare and slow-growing tumors that arise from the bronchial mucosa. They are typically benign but can become malignant in some cases.

      Large cell bronchial carcinoma is a heterogeneous group of tumors that lack the organized features of other lung cancers. They tend to grow quickly and are often found in the periphery of the lung.

      Small cell bronchial carcinoma is a highly aggressive type of lung cancer that grows rapidly and spreads early. It is strongly associated with smoking and is often found in the central part of the lung.

      Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus is the least associated with smoking and typically presents with lesions in the lung peripheries rather than near the bronchus.

      In summary, the type of bronchial carcinoma a patient has can vary greatly and can impact treatment options and prognosis. It is important for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and classify the type of bronchial carcinoma to provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      209.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and distention. They have not had a bowel movement in 4 days and have not passed gas in 1 day. During the examination, hyperactive bowel sounds are heard, and a digital rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. An urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast reveals a suspicious large localized lesion in the descending colon, causing bowel obstruction and severely dilated bowel loops.

      What is the most appropriate initial surgical option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Loop ileostomy

      Correct Answer: Loop colostomy

      Explanation:

      The preferred surgical procedure for obstructing cancers in the distal colon is a loop colostomy. This involves creating a stoma with two openings, one connected to the functioning part of the bowel and the other leading into the distal colon to dysfunction and decompress it. The stoma can be reversed at a later time. However, other procedures such as AP resection, ileocolic anastomosis, and ileostomy are not appropriate for this patient’s descending colon mass.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      367.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight following a road traffic accident. He sustained extensive bruising to his chest from the steering wheel. The nurses are concerned as he has become hypotensive and tachycardic. There is a history of a previous inferior myocardial infarction some 7 years ago, but nil else of note. On examination his BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse is 95/min and regular. He looks peripherally shut down. There are muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus.
      Investigations – arterial blood gas - reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      pH 7.29 7.35–7.45
      pO2 11.9 kPa 11.2–14.0 kPa
      pCO2 6.1 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
      ECG Widespread anterior T wave inversion
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypotension, Tachycardia, and Muffled Heart Sounds Following a Road Traffic Accident: Cardiac Tamponade, Myocarditis, NSTEMI, Pericarditis, and STEMI

      A 67-year-old man presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and poor peripheral perfusion following a road traffic accident with a steering wheel injury. On examination, muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus are noted, and an ECG shows widespread anterior T-wave inversion. The patient has a history of inferior wall MI seven years ago. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals respiratory acidosis.

      The differential diagnosis includes cardiac tamponade, myocarditis, NSTEMI, pericarditis, and STEMI. While myocarditis can cause similar symptoms and ECG changes, the presence of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus suggests fluid in the pericardium and cardiac tamponade. NSTEMI and STEMI can also cause acute onset of symptoms and ECG changes, but the absence of ST elevation and the history of trauma make cardiac tamponade more likely. Pericarditis can cause muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, but the absence of peripheral hypoperfusion and the presence of non-specific ST-T changes on ECG make it less likely.

      In conclusion, the clinical scenario is most consistent with traumatic cardiac tamponade, which requires urgent echocardiography for confirmation and possible guided pericardiocentesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her general practitioner complaining of a chronic cough, weight loss and haemoptysis. She smokes ten cigarettes a day. You understand that she has begun anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) antibody treatment around 9 months earlier. On examination, her rheumatoid appears quiescent at present.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
      possible left upper lobe fibrosis
      Haemoglobin 109 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 295 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 61 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 55 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis

      A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis on a chest X-ray. Several possible causes need to be considered, including active pulmonary tuberculosis, lymphoma, rheumatoid lung disease, bronchial carcinoma, and invasive aspergillosis. While anti-TNF antibody medication for rheumatoid arthritis may increase the risk of tuberculosis and aspergillosis, it is important to rule out other potential etiologies based on clinical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The presence of soft, fluffy, and ill-defined lesions on chest X-ray may suggest active tuberculosis, while the absence of upper lobe fibrosis may argue against lymphoma or radiotherapy-induced fibrosis. Pulmonary nodules and lung fibrosis at the lung bases are more typical of rheumatoid lung disease, but calcified nodes with upper lobe fibrosis are unusual. Bronchial carcinoma may be a concern given the patient’s age and smoking history, but typically lymph nodes are not calcified. Invasive aspergillosis is more likely in immunosuppressed patients and can be detected by a CT scan and a serum galactomannan test. A comprehensive differential diagnosis can guide further evaluation and management of this complex case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      139.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department at 16:00 after...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man has been brought to the emergency department at 16:00 after taking an overdose of paracetamol. He has disclosed that he attempted suicide due to feeling overwhelmed with his postgraduate studies and has been feeling particularly lonely since he moved to university. The patient has admitted to taking 25 paracetamol tablets throughout the day since waking up at 07:00, but cannot recall when he last took some of the tablets, except that it was before 14:00. What would be the most appropriate course of action now?

      Your Answer: Immediately administer IV acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken a staggered paracetamol overdose should be treated with acetylcysteine, regardless of their plasma paracetamol concentration. Therefore, the correct approach for this patient is to administer IV acetylcysteine immediately. This is based on the 2012 Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) review of paracetamol overdose management. Activated charcoal is not appropriate in this case, as it should only be given within 1 hour of ingestion. IV naloxone is also not suitable as there is no evidence of an opioid overdose.

      Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He has been experiencing facial flushing and developed a red rash on his face a few months ago. Upon examination, there are numerous erythaematous papules scattered across his cheeks and his nose appears red and bulbous.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus, Seborrhoeic Dermatitis, Acne Vulgaris, and Nodulocystic Acne

      Skin conditions can be a source of discomfort and embarrassment for many people. Here are five common skin conditions and their features:

      Acne Rosacea is a chronic rash that affects the central face, typically in those aged 30 to 60. Symptoms include facial flushing, telangiectasia, rhinophyma, papules, and pustules. Treatment options include topical metronidazole and oral antibiotics.

      Systemic Lupus Erythaematosus is an autoimmune disorder that can affect various organs, including the skin. Common dermatological signs include a butterfly malar rash and discoid lupus.

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a chronic or relapsing form of eczema that mainly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk. Symptoms include indurated hyperpigmented plaques and creases around the nose, behind ears, and within eyebrows.

      Acne Vulgaris is a common variety of acne that affects the pilosebaceous unit. It is most common in young adults with high levels of sex hormones and is graded according to the number of comedones and inflammatory lesions seen.

      Nodulocystic Acne is a severe form of acne that affects the face, chest, and back, mainly in men. Symptoms include multiple inflamed and uninflamed nodules and scars.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and distention....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and distention. She has been feeling unwell for the past 4 hours and she has vomited three times. Her past medical history includes hypertension and an appendicectomy in her late 40s. On examination, her abdomen is distended but not peritonitic, with absent bowel sounds. Her electrolytes were assessed and are as follows:

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 105 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)

      What is the first-line management for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasogastric tube insertion and intravenous fluids with additional potassium

      Explanation:

      The initial medical management for small bowel obstruction involves the insertion of a nasogastric tube to decompress the small bowel and the administration of intravenous fluids with additional potassium. This is the correct answer as the patient is exhibiting classic symptoms of small bowel obstruction, including intense abdominal pain and early vomiting, and has a history of abdominal surgery that could have caused adhesions, the most common cause of this condition. The intravenous fluids are necessary to replace electrolytes, particularly potassium, which can be lost due to the increased peristalsis and enlargement of the proximal bowel segment. Antibiotics and intravenous fluids would be the appropriate treatment for acute pancreatitis, which presents with different symptoms and causes. Surgery is not the first-line management for small bowel obstruction, and sigmoidoscope insertion with a flatus tube is not appropriate as the patient has small bowel obstruction, not large bowel obstruction.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old shop stocking agent presents to her GP with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old shop stocking agent presents to her GP with complaints of pain in both wrists and numbness and tingling at night. She reports needing to shake her wrists in the morning to regain feeling in her fingers. Upon examination, there is no evidence of neurovascular compromise in her hands, but Phalen's test is positive. Grip strength is reduced, and wrist range of motion is normal. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wrist splinting +/- steroid injection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe breathlessness after being exposed to smoke during a house fire. He reports vomiting twice and experiencing a headache and dizziness.
      Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachypnoeic with good air entry, and his oxygen saturations are at 100% on air. He appears drowsy, but his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, and there are no signs of head injury on his neurological examination.
      What is the initial step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-flow oxygen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Smoke Inhalation Injury

      Smoke inhalation injury can lead to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and vomiting. It is important to note that normal oxygen saturation may be present despite respiratory distress due to the inability of a pulse oximeter to differentiate between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, any conscious patient with suspected CO poisoning should be immediately treated with high-flow oxygen, which can reduce the half-life of carboxyhaemoglobin from up to four hours to 90 minutes.

      Cyanide poisoning, which is comparatively rare, can also be caused by smoke inhalation. The treatment of choice for cyanide poisoning is a combination of hydroxocobalamin and sodium thiosulphate.

      Hyperbaric oxygen may be beneficial for managing patients with CO poisoning, but high-flow oxygen should be provided immediately while waiting for initiation. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen include an unconscious patient, COHb > 25%, pH < 7.1, and evidence of end-organ damage due to CO poisoning. Bronchodilators such as nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium may be useful as supportive care in cases of inhalation injury where signs of bronchospasm occur. However, in this case, compatible signs such as wheeze and reduced air entry are not present. Metoclopramide may provide symptomatic relief of nausea, but it does not replace the need for immediate high-flow oxygen. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the administration of high-flow oxygen in patients with suspected smoke inhalation injury. Managing Smoke Inhalation Injury: Treatment Options and Priorities

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 68-year-old man presents with a three-month history of typical dyspepsia symptoms, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a three-month history of typical dyspepsia symptoms, including epigastric pain and a 2-stone weight loss. Despite treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, he has not experienced any relief. He now reports difficulty eating solids and frequent post-meal vomiting. On examination, a palpable mass is found in the epigastrium. His full blood count shows a haemoglobin level of 85 g/L (130-180). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoma of stomach

      Explanation:

      Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy

      The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom. However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor.

      The patient’s symptoms should not be ignored, and prompt referral for endoscopy is necessary to rule out malignancy. Early detection and treatment of foregut malignancy can significantly improve patient outcomes. Therefore, it is essential to recognize the alarm symptoms and refer patients for further evaluation promptly. Healthcare providers should avoid prescribing PPIs as a first-line treatment for patients with alarm symptoms and instead prioritize timely referral for endoscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are asked to see a patient on the Pediatric Ward who is...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a patient on the Pediatric Ward who is suffering from severe eclampsia. Two hours previously, she began to bleed profusely from her cannula site. After checking her coagulation screen, you are suspicious she has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
      Which one of the following test result would you expect in a diagnosis of DIC?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated prothrombin time (PT)

      Explanation:

      Understanding DIC: Symptoms and Diagnostic Tests

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by abnormal clotting and bleeding at the same time. This widespread disorder of clotting is caused by both thrombin and plasmin activation. Acutely, haemorrhage often occurs as the clotting factors are exhausted. The severity of the condition is variable but can lead to severe organ failure.

      To diagnose DIC, doctors typically perform a full blood picture, coagulation screen, and a group-and-save test. Tests for DIC include elevated prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Platelet counts in DIC are typically low, especially in acute sepsis-associated DIC, but may be increased in malignancy-associated chronic DIC. Fibrinogen level is also tested, as it falls in DIC.

      Symptoms of DIC include abnormal bleeding, such as from the gums or nose, and bruising easily. Patients may also experience organ failure, such as kidney or liver failure. Treatment for DIC typically involves addressing the underlying cause, such as sepsis or cancer, and providing supportive care, such as blood transfusions or medications to prevent clotting.

      In summary, DIC is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience symptoms of abnormal bleeding or organ failure, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with vomiting and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with vomiting and abdominal distension. He has been experiencing absolute constipation for the past three days and his abdomen has become increasingly distended. He also reports feeling nauseous and has been vomiting for the last day. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and takes ramipril.

      Upon examination, the patient has a soft but significantly distended abdomen that is tympanic to percussion. Loud bowel sounds are audible. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 87 bpm, blood pressure of 135/87 mmHg, and temperature of 36.8ºC. An abdominal x-ray reveals a 'coffee-bean' sign, indicating a sigmoid volvulus.

      What is the initial management approach for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decompression via rigid sigmoidoscopy and flatus tube insertion

      Explanation:

      Flatus tube insertion is the primary management approach for unruptured sigmoid volvulus.

      In elderly patients, sigmoid volvulus is a common condition that can be initially treated without surgery by decompressing the bowel using a flatus tube. This approach is preferred as surgery poses a higher risk in this age group. Flatus tube decompression typically leads to resolution of the volvulus without recurrence. If flatus tube decompression fails or recurrence occurs despite multiple attempts, the next step is to insert a percutaneous colostomy tube to decompress the volvulus.

      Conservative management is not appropriate for patients with absolute constipation as the volvulus can become ischemic and perforate, which is associated with a high mortality rate. Anti-muscarinic agents are used to treat pseudo-obstruction, not volvulus. There is no evidence to support the need for a Hartmann’s procedure as perforation is not a concern.

      Understanding Volvulus: A Condition of Twisted Colon

      Volvulus is a medical condition that occurs when the colon twists around its mesenteric axis, leading to a blockage in blood flow and closed loop obstruction. Sigmoid volvulus is the most common type, accounting for around 80% of cases, and is caused by the sigmoid colon twisting on the sigmoid mesocolon. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, occurs in around 20% of cases and is caused by the caecum twisting. This condition is more common in patients with developmental failure of peritoneal fixation of the proximal bowel.

      Sigmoid volvulus is often associated with chronic constipation, Chagas disease, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and psychiatric conditions like schizophrenia. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, is associated with adhesions, pregnancy, and other factors. Symptoms of volvulus include constipation, abdominal bloating, abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting.

      Diagnosis of volvulus is usually done through an abdominal film, which shows signs of large bowel obstruction alongside the coffee bean sign for sigmoid volvulus. Small bowel obstruction may be seen in caecal volvulus. Management of sigmoid volvulus involves rigid sigmoidoscopy with rectal tube insertion, while caecal volvulus usually requires operative management, with right hemicolectomy often being necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old primigravida patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida patient presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of light per-vaginal spotting. Based on her last menstrual period date, she is 8 weeks and 4 days gestation and has not yet undergone any scans. She reports no abdominal pain or flooding episodes and has no prior medical history. A transvaginal ultrasound scan reveals a closed cervical os with a single intrauterine gestational sac, a 2 mm yolk sac, and a crown-rump length measuring 7.8mm, without cardiac activity. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of miscarriage can be made when a transvaginal ultrasound shows a crown-rump length greater than 7mm without cardiac activity. In this case, the patient has experienced a missed miscarriage, as the ultrasound revealed an intrauterine foetus of a size consistent with around 6 weeks gestation, but without heartbeat. The closed cervical os and history of spotting further support this diagnosis. A complete miscarriage, inevitable miscarriage, and partial miscarriage are not applicable in this scenario.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of mild abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of mild abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and is otherwise feeling well. On examination, she is tender in the right iliac fossa and has a small amount of blood in the vaginal vault with a closed cervical os. There is no cervical excitation. Her vital signs are stable, with a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, heart rate of 80 bpm, temperature of 36.5ºC, saturations of 99% on air, and respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute. A urine dip reveals blood only, and a urinary pregnancy test is positive. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for immediate assessment at the Early Pregnancy Unit

      Explanation:

      A woman with a positive pregnancy test and abdominal, pelvic or cervical motion tenderness should be immediately referred for assessment due to the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. Arranging an outpatient ultrasound or reassuring the patient is not appropriate. Urgent investigation is necessary to prevent the risk of rupture. Expectant management may be appropriate for a woman with vaginal bleeding and no pain or tenderness, but not for this patient who has both.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is presented to his pediatrician for a routine check-up. The pediatrician observes that the neonate's urethral meatus is situated on the ventral aspect of the penile shaft, instead of the distal glans penis. What other congenital anomaly is this neonate more likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is often accompanied by cryptorchidism in neonates, indicating a potential issue with embryological urogenital migration that may be linked to endocrine disruptions during pregnancy, such as low serum androgens. Imperforate anus, obstructive uropathy with a patent urachus, and posterior urethral valve are not associated with hypospadias and would present with different symptoms or complications.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presented to her GP with a four month history of progressive distal sensory loss and weakness of both legs and arms. The weakness and numbness had extended to the elbows and knees.

      On examination, cranial nerves and fundoscopy were normal. Examination of the upper limb revealed bilaterally reduced tone and 3/5 power.

      Lower limb examination revealed some mild weakness of hip flexion and extension with marked weakness of dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. Both knee and ankle jerks were absent and both plantar responses were mute. There was absent sensation to all modalities affecting both feet extending to the knees.

      A lumbar puncture was performed and yielded the following data:

      Opening pressure 14 cm H2O (5-18)

      CSF protein 0.75 g/L (0.15-0.45)

      CSF white cell count 10 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      CSF white cell differential 90% lymphocytes -

      CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells)

      Nerve conduction studies showed multifocal motor and sensory conduction block with prolonged distal latencies.

      What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (CIDP)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history is consistent with a subacute sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy, which could be caused by inflammatory neuropathies such as CIDP or paraproteinaemic neuropathies. CIDP is characterized by progressive weakness and impaired sensory function in the limbs, and treatment includes corticosteroids, plasmapheresis, and physiotherapy. Guillain-Barré syndrome is an acute post-infectious neuropathy that is closely linked to CIDP. Cervical spondylosis would cause upper motor neuron signs, while HMSN is a chronic neuropathy with a family history. Multifocal motor neuropathy is a treatable neuropathy affecting motor conduction only.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of feeling weak all over. He has been experiencing difficulty standing up from his chair and climbing stairs for the past 6 months. He also reports feeling constantly tired and down, but denies any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. During a routine blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 146 g/L (Male: 135-180), Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC 7.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), TSH 4.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5), Creatine kinase 428 U/L (35 - 250), eGFR 68 ml/min (<90), and ESR 42 mm/hr <(age / 2). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, raised creatine kinase, and no rash is polymyositis. This inflammatory disease is commonly caused by Anti-Jo-1 and is more prevalent in male patients over 40 years old. The absence of a rash is a distinguishing factor from dermatomyositis, which also causes muscle weakness but presents with a rash. Polymyalgia rheumatica is not a likely diagnosis as it does not cause muscle weakness, and rhabdomyolysis is unlikely due to the chronic nature of the patient’s symptoms and mildly elevated creatine kinase levels. Treatment for polymyositis typically involves corticosteroids and/or immunosuppressants such as methotrexate.

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she waits in the reception area, she suddenly experiences severe breathlessness with stridor. She had mentioned to someone else in the room that she was stung by an insect on her way to the clinic. Based on your assessment, you determine that she is having an anaphylactic reaction to the sting. What would be the appropriate dose and route of administration for adrenaline in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular 1:1000 (500 micrograms)

      Explanation:

      Recommended Injection Route for Anaphylactic Reactions

      Anaphylactic reactions require immediate treatment, and one of the most effective ways to administer medication is through injection. The recommended route of injection is intramuscular, which involves injecting the medication into the muscle tissue. While the subcutaneous route can also be used, it is not as effective as the intramuscular route. In some cases, intravenous adrenaline 1:10000 may be used, but only under the supervision of a specialist. It is important to follow the guidelines provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK) for the emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions. By administering medication through the recommended injection route, healthcare providers can effectively manage anaphylactic reactions and potentially save lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A woman in her early thirties is considering pregnancy while taking paroxetine. She...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early thirties is considering pregnancy while taking paroxetine. She is concerned about any potential negative effects on her pregnancy. What guidance should you provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is advised that paroxetine be avoided during pregnancy unless the benefits outweigh the risk, as paroxetine can lead to an increased risk of congenital malformations

      Explanation:

      When considering the use of Paroxetine during pregnancy, it is important to note that it can increase the risk of congenital malformations, especially during the first trimester. The use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be carefully evaluated, weighing the potential benefits against the risks. While there is a small increased risk of congenital heart defects when using SSRIs during the first trimester, using them during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all potential risks before deciding to use Paroxetine or any other SSRIs during pregnancy.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old male arrived at the emergency department with a humeral shaft fracture...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male arrived at the emergency department with a humeral shaft fracture after falling from a rooftop during a party. He admits to taking recreational drugs before the incident but is unsure of what he consumed. After receiving analgesia, he undergoes surgery to fix his fracture with a coaptation splint and functional brace. The next day, he reports suprapubic pain and difficulty urinating, leading to a diagnosis of acute urinary retention. What drug is the probable cause of his urinary retention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morphine sulfate

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention is a common side effect of opioid analgesia, with morphine sulfate being a frequent culprit. While cannabis contains THC, which produces a psychoactive effect, it is not typically associated with acute urinary retention. Cocaine overdose can cause cardiovascular and sympathetic effects, but not an increased risk of urinary retention. Ketamine use may lead to ketamine bladder syndrome, which causes urinary frequency and urgency rather than retention.

      Drugs that can cause urinary retention

      Urinary retention is a condition where a person is unable to empty their bladder completely. This can be caused by various factors, including certain medications. Some drugs that may lead to urinary retention include tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline, anticholinergics such as antipsychotics and antihistamines, opioids, NSAIDs, and disopyramide. These drugs can affect the muscles that control the bladder, making it difficult to urinate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old man received a two unit blood transfusion 1 hour ago. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man received a two unit blood transfusion 1 hour ago. He reports feeling a strange sensation in his chest, like his heart is skipping a beat. You conduct an ECG which reveals tall tented T waves in multiple leads.
      An arterial blood gas (ABG) test shows:
      Na+: 136 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
      K+: 7.1 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Cl–: 96 mmol/l (normal 95–105 mmol/l).
      What immediate treatment should be administered based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia: Calcium Gluconate, Normal Saline Bolus, Calcium Resonium, Insulin and Dextrose, Dexamethasone

      Understanding Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia is a condition where the potassium levels in the blood are higher than normal. This can lead to ECG changes, palpitations, and a high risk of arrhythmias. There are several treatment options available for hyperkalaemia, each with its own mechanism of action and benefits.

      One of the most effective treatments for hyperkalaemia is calcium gluconate. This medication works by reducing the excitability of cardiomyocytes, which stabilizes the myocardium and protects the heart from arrhythmias. However, calcium gluconate does not reduce the potassium level in the blood, so additional treatments are necessary.

      A normal saline bolus is not an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia. Similarly, calcium resonium, which removes potassium from the body via the gastrointestinal tract, is slow-acting and will not protect the patient from arrhythmias acutely.

      Insulin and dextrose are commonly used to treat hyperkalaemia. Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, which decreases serum potassium levels. Dextrose is needed to prevent hypoglycaemia. This treatment reduces potassium levels by 0.6-1.0 mmol/L every 15 minutes and is effective in treating hyperkalaemia. However, it does not acutely protect the heart from arrhythmias and should be given following the administration of calcium gluconate.

      Dexamethasone is not a treatment for hyperkalaemia and should not be used for this purpose.

      In conclusion, calcium gluconate is an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia and should be administered first to protect the heart from arrhythmias. Additional treatments such as insulin and dextrose can be used to reduce potassium levels, but they should be given after calcium gluconate. Understanding the different treatment options for hyperkalaemia is essential for providing appropriate care to patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old patient with psoriasis, hypothyroidism and psychotic depression complains of painful aphthous-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient with psoriasis, hypothyroidism and psychotic depression complains of painful aphthous-like ulcers that started 3 weeks ago after beginning a new medication. Which medication is the most probable cause of their symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate is known to cause mucositis, while lithium can lead to thyrotoxicosis but not oral ulcers. Levothyroxine may also cause thyrotoxicosis but not mouth ulcers. Atorvastatin does not typically cause mouth ulcers, with the most common side effects being myalgia and skin flushing. It is important to note that only methotrexate has mucositis listed as a side effect in the BNF.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman who is 13 weeks pregnant had pre-eclampsia in her previous...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 13 weeks pregnant had pre-eclampsia in her previous pregnancy and underwent a caesarean section at 36 weeks gestation. Her blood pressure has been normal since then and today. What intervention should be suggested to decrease the likelihood of pre-eclampsia recurrence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a blood pressure reading...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a blood pressure reading of 150/100 mmHg. Upon examination, there were no other notable findings. Can you identify which of the following indicates a possible diagnosis of secondary hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Nephritic Syndrome and Essential Hypertension

      When evaluating a patient with hypertension, it is important to consider the presence of other symptoms and laboratory findings that may suggest an underlying condition. In this case, the presence of proteinuria indicates a nephritic syndrome, which is not consistent with a diagnosis of essential hypertension. On the other hand, features such as left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) and arteriolar narrowing (AV nipping) are commonly seen in patients with hypertension.

      It is also important to note that the patient’s normal renal clearance and normal potassium levels are compatible with essential hypertension. Therefore, while hypertension may be the primary diagnosis, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying nephritic syndrome and perform further testing if necessary. By carefully evaluating all available information, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 15-year-old patient, with learning difficulties and poorly controlled epilepsy, is admitted following...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old patient, with learning difficulties and poorly controlled epilepsy, is admitted following a tonic−clonic seizure which resolved after the administration of lorazepam by a Casualty officer. Twenty minutes later, a further seizure occurred that again ceased with lorazepam. A further 10 minutes later, another seizure takes place.
      What commonly would be the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Managing Status Epilepticus: Medications and Treatment Options

      Epilepsy is a manageable condition for most patients, but in some cases, seizures may not self-resolve and require medical intervention. In such cases, benzodiazepines like rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam are commonly used. However, if seizures persist, other drugs like iv phenytoin may be administered. Paraldehyde is rarely used, and topiramate is more commonly used for seizure prevention. If a patient experiences status epilepticus, informing the intensive care unit may be appropriate, but the priority should be to stop the seizure with appropriate medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of fatigue and weakness. She has been experiencing difficulty getting up from chairs, lifting objects, and climbing stairs for the past 2 months. However, she has no issues with other movements like knitting or writing. Upon examination, she has bilateral hip and shoulder weakness. Blood tests reveal the following results: calcium 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5), free thyroxine (T4) 12.4 pmol/L (9.0 - 18), creatine kinase (CK) 1752 U/L (35 - 250), and ESR 62 mm/hr (< 40). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Polymyositis: An Inflammatory Disorder Causing Muscle Weakness

      Polymyositis is an inflammatory disorder that causes symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness. It is believed to be a T-cell mediated cytotoxic process directed against muscle fibers and can be idiopathic or associated with connective tissue disorders. This condition is often associated with malignancy and typically affects middle-aged women more than men.

      One variant of the disease is dermatomyositis, which is characterized by prominent skin manifestations such as a purple (heliotrope) rash on the cheeks and eyelids. Other features of polymyositis include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, dysphagia, and dysphonia. Interstitial lung disease, such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia, is seen in around 20% of patients and indicates a poor prognosis.

      To diagnose polymyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including an elevated creatine kinase, EMG, muscle biopsy, and anti-synthetase antibodies. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are seen in a pattern of disease associated with lung involvement, Raynaud’s, and fever.

      The management of polymyositis involves high-dose corticosteroids tapered as symptoms improve. Azathioprine may also be used as a steroid-sparing agent. Overall, polymyositis is a challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which therapy is unsuitable for the given condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which therapy is unsuitable for the given condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical excision for a cavernous haemangioma 3 cm × 4 cm on the arm

      Explanation:

      Cavernous Haemangiomas and Alopecia Areata: Conditions and Treatment Options

      Cavernous haemangiomas are benign growths that typically appear within the first two weeks of life. They are usually found on the face, neck, or trunk and are well-defined and lobulated. Surgical excision is not recommended, but treatment may be necessary if the growths inhibit normal development, such as obstructing vision in one eye. Treatment options include systemic or local steroids, sclerosants, interferon, or laser treatment.

      Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes hair loss in discrete areas. Treatment options include cortisone injections into the affected areas and the use of topical cortisone creams. It is important to note that both conditions require medical attention and treatment to prevent further complications. With proper care and treatment, individuals with cavernous haemangiomas and alopecia areata can manage their conditions and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - You are a junior doctor working at an inpatient psychiatry unit. You have...

    Incorrect

    • You are a junior doctor working at an inpatient psychiatry unit. You have been asked to assess a patient by the nursing staff as they are currently occupied by a distressed patient and relative. The patient you've been asked to review has known schizophrenia and wishes to leave the unit. However, following consultation with the patient, you are concerned they are exhibiting features of an acute psychotic episode.
      Which section of the Mental Health Act (2007) could be used to detain the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Section 5(2)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act (2007)

      The Mental Health Act (2007) provides a legal framework for patients with confirmed or suspected mental disorders that pose a risk to themselves or the public. The Act outlines specific guidelines for detention, treatment, and the individuals authorized to use its powers. Here are some of the key sections of the Mental Health Act:

      Section 5(2): This section allows for the temporary detention of a patient already in the hospital for up to 72 hours, after which a full Mental Health Act assessment must be conducted. A doctor who is fully registered (FY2 or above) can use this section to detain a patient.

      Section 3: This section is used for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, with the exact mental disorder being treated stated on the application. It can be renewed for a further six months if required, and the patient has the right to appeal.

      Section 2: This section allows for compulsory admission for assessment of presumed mental disorder. The section lasts for 28 days and must be signed by two doctors, one of whom is approved under Section 12(2), usually a consultant psychiatrist, and another doctor who knows the patient in a professional capacity, usually their GP.

      Section 5(4): This section can be used by psychiatric nursing staff to detain a patient for up to 6 hours while arranging review by appropriate medical personnel for further assessment and either conversion to a Section 5(2). If this time elapses, there is no legal right for the nursing staff to detain the patient. In this scenario, the nursing staff are unavailable to assess the patient.

      Section 7: This section is an application for guardianship. It is used for patients in the community where an approved mental health practitioner (AMHP), usually a social worker, requests compulsory treatment requiring the patient to live in a specified location, attend specific locations for treatment, and allow access for authorized persons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 58-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and tremors. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and tremors. He reports excessive sweating earlier in the day. During the examination, hyperreflexia is observed. The patient has a medical history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Additionally, he has been experiencing back pain and has been prescribed tramadol. What is the probable reason for this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of serotonin syndrome include hyperreflexia, confusion, tremor, and sweating. Patients who take multiple drugs that affect serotonin, such as tramadol and an SSRI, are at risk of developing this condition. While delirium can cause confusion, it is less likely to cause tremors and sweating, especially considering the patient’s medication history. Alzheimer’s disease is a slowly progressing condition that leads to a decline in cognitive function over time.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a displaced femoral shaft fracture. No other injuries are found during the primary or secondary surveys. The fracture is treated with closed, antegrade intramedullary nailing. The next day, the patient becomes increasingly confused and agitated. Upon examination, he is pyrexial, hypoxic with SaO2 at 90% on 6 litres O2, tachycardic, and normotensive. A non-blanching petechial rash is observed over the torso during systemic examination. What is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      This individual displays physical indications and a recent injury that are consistent with fat embolism syndrome. In the early stages, meningococcal sepsis is not commonly linked to hypoxia. Likewise, pyrexia is not typically associated with pulmonary emboli.

      Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment

      Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.

      Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or trauma, but does admit to smoking around ten cigarettes a day since his early teenage years. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a potential spontaneous pneumothorax and proceeds to insert a chest drain for treatment. In terms of the intercostal spaces, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The direction of fibres of the external intercostal muscle is downwards and medial

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Intercostal Muscles and Neurovascular Bundle

      The intercostal muscles are essential for respiration, with the external intercostal muscles aiding forced inspiration. These muscles have fibers that pass obliquely downwards and medial from the lower border of the rib above to the smooth upper border of the rib below. The direction of these fibers can be remembered as having one’s hands in one’s pockets.

      The intercostal neurovascular bundle, which includes the vein, artery, and nerve, lies in a groove on the undersurface of each rib, running in the plane between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. The vein, artery, and nerve lie in that order, from top to bottom, under cover of the lower border of the rib.

      When inserting a needle or trocar for drainage or aspiration of fluid from the pleural cavity, it is important to remember that the neurovascular bundle lies in a groove just above each rib. Therefore, the needle or trocar should be inserted just above the rib to avoid the main vessels and nerves. Remember the phrase above the rib below to ensure proper insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving despite having regular sexual intercourse. The woman reports having a 28-day menstrual cycle, maintaining a normal diet, and not engaging in strenuous physical activity. During examination, her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 68 and regular, and BMI is 24 without abnormalities found in her abdomen. What blood test would be most effective in determining if she is ovulating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Tests for Ovulation and Pregnancy

      In order to determine whether ovulation is occurring in a woman with a regular 28 day cycle, the most useful test is the measurement of day 21 progesterone levels. On the other hand, if a woman suspects she may be pregnant, a urinary pregnancy test can detect the presence of beta HCG hormone.

      If a woman is experiencing absent periods and a pregnancy test is negative, measuring prolactin levels may be useful. This is especially true if there are other signs of hyperprolactinaemia, such as milk leakage on nipple stimulation.

      It is important to note that oestrogen levels are not helpful in determining whether ovulation is occurring. However, if polycystic ovarian syndrome is suspected, measuring the LH/FSH ratio may be useful. By the different hormonal tests available, women can better monitor their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 45-year-old patient is undergoing treatment with recombinant human growth hormone (GH). What...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient is undergoing treatment with recombinant human growth hormone (GH). What is a known side effect of GH therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised intracranial pressure

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Recombinant Human Growth Hormone Treatment

      Recombinant human growth hormone (hGH) treatment is associated with several side effects. One of the most common side effects is raised intracranial pressure (ICP) with a normal MRI, which is a secondary form of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH). This is believed to be caused by the antidiuretic effect of hGH, particularly in patients with impaired renal homeostasis. However, in patients with intact homeostatic mechanisms, hGH can elevate plasma renin and aldosterone, which counteracts the antidiuretic effect. If IIH is diagnosed, hGH treatment should be stopped and resumed at a lower dose if IIH resolves.

      Aside from IIH, other recognized side effects of hGH include slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE), malignancies, gynaecomastia, and impaired glucose metabolism. However, melanoma, osteoporosis, prostatic hypertrophy, and prolongation of the QT interval are not commonly recognized side effects of hGH treatment. It is important to monitor patients closely for these side effects and adjust treatment accordingly to minimize any potential harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right-sided back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of right-sided back pain and dysuria that has been bothering her for the past two days. The pain is constant and severe, and it radiates from her renal angle to her groin. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.1ºC, her heart rate is 101 bpm, her blood pressure is 139/91 mmHg, and she has a tender renal angle with a palpable mass on the right side of her abdomen. What is the most appropriate investigation to evaluate her abdominal mass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the renal tract

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient’s symptoms is a ureteric stone causing obstruction in the right kidney, resulting in hydronephrosis. A physical examination may reveal a palpable mass. To confirm the diagnosis, an ultrasound of the renal tract is the best initial investigation as it can detect any obstruction in the renal tract. It is important to avoid exposing the patient to unnecessary radiation, especially if they are under 20 years old or women of childbearing age. The first-line treatment for hydronephrosis is a nephrostomy, which is performed under ultrasound guidance. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis without contrast is recommended to identify the cause of the obstruction. Contrast agents are not useful in this situation as they make stones invisible on the scan. An intravenous urogram is also not helpful as it does not provide 3-dimensional images of the kidneys. A urine dip may show blood, which could suggest stone pathology, but it cannot determine the cause of the palpable mass.

      Hydronephrosis is a condition where the kidney becomes swollen due to urine buildup. There are various causes of hydronephrosis, including pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, calculi, tumors of the renal pelvis, stenosis of the urethra, urethral valve, prostatic enlargement, extensive bladder tumor, and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Unilateral hydronephrosis is caused by one of these factors, while bilateral hydronephrosis is caused by a combination of pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, and tumors of the renal pelvis.

      To investigate hydronephrosis, ultrasound is the first-line test to identify the presence of hydronephrosis and assess the kidneys. IVU is used to assess the position of the obstruction, while antegrade or retrograde pyelography allows for treatment. If renal colic is suspected, a CT scan is used to detect the majority of stones.

      The management of hydronephrosis involves removing the obstruction and draining urine. In cases of acute upper urinary tract obstruction, a nephrostomy tube is used, while chronic upper urinary tract obstruction is treated with a ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty. The CT scan image shows a large calculus in the left ureter with accompanying hydroureter and massive hydronephrosis in the left kidney.

      Overall, hydronephrosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving following two unprovoked seizures in 48 hours. What advice do you give the patient regarding their ability to drive their car?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: They must inform the DVLA and will be unfit to drive for at least six months

      Explanation:

      If an individual experiences a seizure, they must inform the DVLA. Depending on the circumstances, they may be unfit to drive for six months or up to five years if they drive a bus or lorry. It is important to note that the DVLA must always be informed of any neurological event that could affect driving ability. An assessment by a DVLA medical examiner is not conducted, but a private or NHS neurologist should evaluate the individual’s fitness to drive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which statement about breast screening is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about breast screening is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In young patients with a BRCA mutation, mammographic screening has a low sensitivity for detecting tumours

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer Screening and Genetic Mutations

      In younger patients, mammograms may not be as effective in detecting breast cancer due to denser breast tissue. MRI and ultrasound may be more helpful in these cases. However, mammography is more sensitive in older patients as their breast tissue is generally less dense. Routine mammographic screening for women aged 50-70 can reduce breast cancer mortality by 25%. The value of screening for women aged 40-49 is still debated, and there is no evidence for routine screening below this age. Patients with BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations should receive screening at a younger age due to increased risk.

      The most common genetic change in human neoplasia is p53 mutations, which are associated with more aggressive breast cancer and worse overall survival. However, the frequency of p53 mutations in breast carcinoma is lower than in other solid tumors, with an overall frequency of approximately 20%. Certain types of breast carcinoma, such as medullary, have a higher frequency of p53 mutations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 47-year-old man with HIV and a CD4 count of 46 is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with HIV and a CD4 count of 46 is found to have 'owl's eye' inclusion bodies on histological tissue staining. Which virus is this finding suggestive of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      CMV and Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      CMV is a virus that typically affects individuals with a weakened immune system. While a CD4 count of less than 400 is often used as a threshold for diagnosis, CMV disease is rare in HIV-positive patients unless their CD4 count drops below 50. A positive PCR result can confirm a diagnosis of CMV, which should be treated with ganciclovir. On the other hand, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which have a distinct owl’s eye appearance.

      In summary, CMV and Hodgkin’s lymphoma are two distinct medical conditions that require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. While CMV is an opportunistic virus that affects immunocompromised individuals, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that can affect anyone. By the key differences between these two conditions, healthcare professionals can provide more effective care to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 24-year-old male victim of an acid attack has been brought to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male victim of an acid attack has been brought to the resus department. He has sustained burns on approximately 25% of his body surface area and weighs 60kg. The medical team needs to determine the amount of fluid resuscitation required for the next 24 hours using the Parkland formula based on his weight and the extent of burns. What is the volume of fluid resuscitation that should be administered to this patient over the next 24 hours?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6000mls

      Explanation:

      Fluid Resuscitation for Burns

      Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.

      The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.

      It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to his GP by his mother due to complaints of bilateral leg weakness and difficulty walking, which has been progressively worsening over the past few years. The patient's father, who passed away from a heart attack four years ago, also had similar issues with his legs. During the examination, the patient was found to have pes cavus, bilateral foot drop, and a stamping gait. Additionally, he had bilateral areflexia and flexor plantar responses, as well as glove-and-stocking sensory loss to the ankle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charcot–Marie–Tooth

      Explanation:

      Neurological Conditions: A Comparison

      Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome, Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord, Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP), Old Polio, and Peripheral Vascular Disease are all neurological conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system. However, each condition has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria.

      Charcot–Marie–Tooth Syndrome is a hereditary sensorimotor polyneuropathy that presents with foot drop, pes cavus, scoliosis, and stamping gait. A strong family history supports the diagnosis.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of the Cord is mostly due to vitamin B12 deficiency and presents with a loss of proprioception and vibration sense, spasticity, and hyperreflexia. Risk factors include malabsorption problems or being vegan.

      Chronic Idiopathic Demyelinating Polyneuropathy (CIDP) causes peripheral neuropathy that is mainly motor. It is associated with anti-GM1 antibody, motor conduction block on nerve conduction studies, and elevated protein in the cerebrospinal fluid. It can be treated with intravenous immunoglobulin, prednisolone, plasmapheresis, and azathioprine.

      Old Polio presents with a lower motor neuron pattern of weakness without sensory signs. The signs are often asymmetrical, and the lower limbs are more commonly affected than the upper limbs. Patients may have contractures and fixed flexion deformities from long-standing immobility.

      Peripheral Vascular Disease is accompanied by a history of pain, often in the form of calf claudication on walking, and is unlikely to cause the clinical signs described in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 26-year-old man presents to the clinic with an enlarged testicle. During a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the clinic with an enlarged testicle. During a self-examination in the shower, he noticed that his left testicle was significantly larger than the right. He reports no specific symptoms, but mentions a recent weight loss of 5kg over the past 4 months, which he attributed to a new diet. Additionally, he has been experiencing general fatigue for the past month.

      The patient has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications. He is sexually active with his partner of 2 years and denies alcohol, smoking, and recreational drug use. There are no other notable symptoms upon further questioning.

      On clinical examination, there is an enlarged, non-tender, left testicle, but no other abnormalities are detected. There is no palpable lymphadenopathy or gynaecomastia.

      What is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound testes

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound is the initial test for investigating a testicular mass. It is common for there to be a slight size difference between the two testes. The first step is to perform an ultrasound to identify the mass and confirm its presence. If the mass appears to be cancerous, tumor markers should be measured. In cases where the ultrasound results are unclear, an MRI may be necessary.

      Understanding Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.

      The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 67-year-old man presents with sepsis due to a non-healing diabetic ulcer. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with sepsis due to a non-healing diabetic ulcer. He underwent a below-knee amputation in theatre and is now on his second day of recovery. Despite receiving regular paracetamol (1g four times daily) and morphine 10 mg as needed (maximum 4-hourly), he is requesting morphine every 4 hours and still experiencing pain. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, asthma, and hypertension. What is the most appropriate treatment option for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start patient controlled analgesia

      Explanation:

      Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA) is the most appropriate option for managing post-operative pain, as it allows the patient to self-administer opioid analgesia as needed for breakthrough pain. This method is commonly used in cases involving amputation. Other options, such as adding regular co-codamol or ibuprofen, are not suitable due to the patient’s maximum dose of paracetamol and asthma, respectively. Continuing the current analgesia is also not recommended as the patient is still experiencing pain. Switching from as-required morphine to regular doses would not make a significant difference in pain relief.

      Pain management can be achieved through various methods, including the use of analgesic drugs and local anesthetics. The World Health Organisation (WHO) recommends a stepwise approach to pain management, starting with peripherally acting drugs such as paracetamol or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). If pain control is not achieved, weak opioid drugs such as codeine or dextropropoxyphene can be introduced, followed by strong opioids such as morphine as a final option. Local anesthetics can also be used to provide pain relief, either through infiltration of a wound or blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves.

      For acute pain management, the World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists (WFSA) recommends a similar approach, starting with strong analgesics in combination with local anesthetic blocks and peripherally acting drugs. The use of strong opioids may no longer be required once the oral route can be used to deliver analgesia, and peripherally acting agents and weak opioids can be used instead. The final step is when pain can be controlled by peripherally acting agents alone.

      Local anesthetics can be administered through infiltration of a wound with a long-acting agent such as Bupivacaine, providing several hours of pain relief. Blockade of plexuses or peripheral nerves can also provide selective analgesia, either for surgery or postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anesthesia are other options, with spinal anesthesia providing excellent analgesia for lower body surgery and epidural anesthesia providing continuous infusion of analgesic agents. Transversus Abdominis Plane block (TAP) is a technique that uses ultrasound to identify the correct muscle plane and injects local anesthetic to block spinal nerves, providing a wide field of blockade without the need for indwelling devices.

      Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) allows patients to administer their own intravenous analgesia and titrate the dose to their own end-point of pain relief using a microprocessor-controlled pump. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine are commonly used, but caution is advised due to potential side effects and toxicity. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, with NSAIDs being more useful for superficial pain and having relative contraindications for certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a fever, poor feeding, and cough. The infant has received all routine vaccinations. Upon examination, the baby is alert and responsive, but there is increased work of breathing. Coarse crackles and a wheeze can be heard throughout the chest. The infant's heart sounds and ECG are normal, and a lumbar puncture is performed and reported as unremarkable. However, one hour later, the patient experiences a cardiac arrest. What is the most probable underlying cause of this arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      The most frequent reason for children’s cardiac arrest is respiratory issues, with bronchiolitis being the most common cause. Bronchiolitis is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and poor feeding, as well as physical examination findings like wheezing, crackles, and increased respiratory effort. Congenital cardiac disease is an incorrect option since the patient has normal cardiac findings and ECG. Croup is also an incorrect option as it causes a distinct barking noise and is more prevalent in children aged 6 months to 2 years. Meningitis is another incorrect option as it typically results in an unwell infant with a fever and rapid breathing, but the analysis of cerebrospinal fluid would show abnormalities, which is not the case for this patient.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 75-year-old man visited his GP complaining of sudden, painless vision loss in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visited his GP complaining of sudden, painless vision loss in his right eye that occurred 2 hours ago. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes requiring insulin, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Upon further inquiry, he mentioned experiencing brief flashes of light before a dense shadow that began in the periphery and moved towards the center. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition that can cause a sudden and painless loss of vision. It is characterized by a dense shadow that starts in the peripheral vision and gradually moves towards the center, along with increased floaters and flashes of light.

      Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is a condition where the blood flow to the retina of one eye is blocked, resulting in sudden loss of vision in that eye. This is usually caused by an embolus and does not typically present with floaters, flashing lights, or dense shadows.

      Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion can cause sudden vision loss in one eye, but it is often described as blurry or distorted vision rather than the symptoms seen in retinal detachment.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arthritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arthritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 50-year-old man is struggling with hypertension that is not responding to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is struggling with hypertension that is not responding to his current medications. His GP added ramipril to his amlodipine and doxazosin two months ago, but his blood pressure remains high at 162/75 mmHg. The GP decides to increase the ramipril dose to 1.25 mg once daily. However, the patient already has mild renal impairment due to his hypertension, so the GP follows NICE guidance and orders further renal function testing in two weeks. Unfortunately, the patient's creatinine level has increased from 150 to 210 μmol/L. What should the GP's next course of action be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to renal services for further investigation

      Explanation:

      Possible Renal Artery Stenosis in Resistant Hypertension

      When a patient experiences a rise in their serum creatinine of more than 30% after starting an ACE inhibitor, it may suggest that they have underlying renal artery stenosis causing their resistant hypertension. However, a rise of less than 23% can be considered normal, and it is recommended to repeat blood tests in two weeks to ensure that the creatinine levels are not increasing.

      A renal ultrasound may not provide a clear answer, and it is ideal to perform an angiogram to confirm the diagnosis. This can be done as a CT or MR angiogram for planning purposes, or as a combined angiogram with or without angioplasty if renal artery stenosis is found. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of renal artery stenosis in patients with resistant hypertension and a significant rise in serum creatinine after starting an ACE inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 49-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a weak and painful right...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a weak and painful right leg that has been bothering him for a week. Upon examination, the GP observes a foot drop on the right side with 3/5 power for dorsiflexion, as well as a bilateral sensory peripheral neuropathy that is worse on the right side. The GP also notices weakness of wrist extension on the left, which the patient had not previously mentioned. The patient's chest, heart, and abdomen appear normal, and his urine dipstick is clear. His medical history is significant only for asthma, which was diagnosed four years ago.

      The patient's FBC reveals a white cell count of 6.7 x109/l (normal range: 4 - 11), with neutrophils at 4.2 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 7), lymphocytes at 2.3 x109/l (normal range: 1.5 - 4), and eosinophils at 2.2 x109/l (normal range: 0.04 - 0.4). His ESR is 68mm/hr (normal range: 0 - 15), and his biochemistry is normal except for a raised CRP at 52 mg/l. Nerve conduction studies show reduced amplitude sensory signals bilaterally and patchy axonal degeneration on the right side with reduced motor amplitude.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Mononeuritis Multiplex

      Mononeuritis multiplex is a condition characterized by the inflammation of multiple nerves, resulting in both sensory and motor symptoms. While several conditions can cause this, eGPA is the most likely diagnosis for this patient due to his history of adult onset asthma and significantly raised eosinophil count. The painful loss of function, raised inflammatory markers, and reduced amplitude nerve conduction studies also suggest an inflammatory cause of his neuropathy.

      While amyloidosis is a possibility, the patient has no history of a disorder that might predispose to secondary amyloid, and no signs of systemic amyloidosis. B12 deficiency and diabetes mellitus are unlikely causes of mononeuritis multiplex, as they do not typically present with this pattern of neuropathy. Lyme disease is also unlikely, as the patient has no rash or arthritis and no history of tick bite.

      In summary, while several conditions can cause mononeuritis multiplex, the patient’s history and test results suggest eGPA as the most likely diagnosis. It is important to consider other possibilities, such as amyloidosis, but the inflammatory nature of the patient’s symptoms points towards eGPA as the primary cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum check-up. She did not...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for her 6-week postpartum check-up. She did not breastfeed and had a normal delivery. She wants to begin using contraception but is worried about any potential delay in her ability to conceive again within the next 1-2 years. What factor is most likely to cause a delay in her return to normal fertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progesterone only injectable contraception

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A mother observes that her 2-year-old son has small eye openings, a small...

    Incorrect

    • A mother observes that her 2-year-old son has small eye openings, a small body, and low-set ears. During the examination, the pediatrician also observes a flat philtrum, a sunken nasal bridge, short palpebral fissures, and a thin upper lip. What could be the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal alcohol abuse

      Explanation:

      Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a mother abuses alcohol during pregnancy. This can lead to various physical and developmental abnormalities in the fetus, including intrauterine growth restriction, small head size, underdeveloped midface, small jaw, a smooth ridge between the nose and upper lip, small eye openings, and a thin upper lip. Affected infants may also exhibit irritability and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

      Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

      Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.

      The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.

      It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 33-year-old female who cannot tolerate methotrexate is initiated on azathioprine for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female who cannot tolerate methotrexate is initiated on azathioprine for her rheumatoid arthritis. During routine blood monitoring, the following results are obtained:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 7.9 g/dl
      - Platelets (Plt): 97 * 109/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 2.7 * 109/l

      What are the factors that can increase the risk of azathioprine toxicity in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Before starting treatment with azathioprine, it is important to check for the presence of thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) deficiency, which occurs in approximately 1 in 200 individuals. This deficiency increases the risk of developing pancytopenia related to azathioprine.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 32-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of new and concerning...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of new and concerning symptoms. He has a medical history of schizophrenia, which was diagnosed at the age of eighteen and is currently managed with olanzapine. He has not undergone any surgical procedures and is generally in good health.
      What are the symptoms he is likely to be experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polyuria and polydipsia

      Explanation:

      Long-term use of atypical antipsychotics can result in glucose dysregulation and diabetes, with polyuria and polydipsia being common symptoms. While these drugs are preferred for treating schizophrenia due to their reduced extrapyramidal side effects, they can also cause metabolic dysregulation leading to insulin resistance and diabetes. Diarrhoea is an unlikely side effect, as these drugs tend to cause constipation instead. Sexual dysfunction is a more common side effect than priapism, and the mechanism behind it is not fully understood. Tinnitus is not a likely side effect in this case, as the patient does not have a history of depression or SSRI use. Weight gain is the most common side effect of long-term atypical antipsychotic use, due to the metabolic disturbances they cause.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerning symptoms that have been occurring on and off for the past few months. She reports experiencing episodes of weakness accompanied by rapid, involuntary movements of her arms. Additionally, she has been experiencing persistent tingling sensations, occasional double vision, electric shocks down her arms and trunk when she flexes her neck, and constipation. Based on these symptoms, what would be the most appropriate initial test to diagnose her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Multiple Sclerosis: The Importance of MRI

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a debilitating disease that affects many individuals, particularly women. Symptoms can range from spastic weakness to loss of vision, making it difficult to diagnose. However, the first line investigation for somebody with MS is an MRI of the brain and spinal cord. This is because MRI is much more sensitive for picking up inflammation and demyelination than a CT scan, and it does not involve irradiation. Additionally, lumbar puncture can be used to detect IgG oligoclonal bands, which are not present in the serum. While other tests such as antibody testing and slit-lamp examination of the eyes may be useful, they are not first line investigations. It is important to diagnose MS early to prevent further damage to myelin sheaths and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - What is a common side effect of olanzapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a common side effect of olanzapine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Olanzapine

      Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause several side effects. One of the most common side effects is akathisia, which is characterized by restlessness and an inability to sit still. Other side effects associated with the use of olanzapine include agranulocytosis, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperglycaemia, depression, and anxiety. Agranulocytosis is a condition where the body’s immune system is unable to produce enough white blood cells, which can lead to infections. Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition where the body produces too much of the hormone prolactin, which can cause breast enlargement and lactation in both men and women. Hyperglycaemia is a condition where the body has high levels of glucose in the blood, which can lead to diabetes. Depression and anxiety are also common side effects of olanzapine, which can be particularly problematic for individuals with pre-existing mental health conditions. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking olanzapine and to speak with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 41-year-old female with a history of Leber's optic atrophy visits her doctor....

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old female with a history of Leber's optic atrophy visits her doctor. She and her husband are planning to have children and she wants to know the likelihood of passing on her condition. She vaguely remembers her geneticist mentioning something about mitochondria but can't recall the specifics of the inheritance pattern. Assuming her husband does not carry the same gene defect, what is the chance that their child will inherit the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0%

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial disorders encompass a range of conditions, such as leigh syndrome, mitochondrial diabetes, MELAS syndrome, and MERFF syndrome.

      Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.

      Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 28-year-old amateur football player arrives at the emergency department complaining of knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old amateur football player arrives at the emergency department complaining of knee pain. During the game, she experienced a popping sensation in her left knee. Upon examination, her knee is swollen, and she cannot fully extend it. Which diagnostic test is most likely to reveal the underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      When it comes to detecting lateral and medial meniscal tears, an MRI is the most sensitive option available. It surpasses the other choices in terms of sensitivity and should be requested for all patients who are suspected of having a meniscal injury. Ultrasound may be challenging to perform due to the patient’s probable swelling and pain. An X-ray may be necessary for patients with arthritis or a history of repeated meniscal tears.

      Understanding Meniscal Tear and its Symptoms

      Meniscal tear is a common knee injury that usually occurs due to twisting injuries. Its symptoms include pain that worsens when the knee is straightened, a feeling that the knee may give way, tenderness along the joint line, and knee locking in cases where the tear is displaced. To diagnose a meniscal tear, doctors may perform Thessaly’s test, which involves weight-bearing at 20 degrees of knee flexion while the patient is supported by the doctor. If the patient experiences pain on twisting the knee, the test is considered positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his right upper quadrant. He reports that the pain is sharp and worsens when he takes a breath. Over the past few days, he has been feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath, and he has been coughing up bloody, purulent sputum. He has a fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea. He recently returned from a week-long vacation during which he consumed 20 units of alcohol per day. What is the most probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Upper quadrant abdominal pain can be a symptom of lower lobe pneumonia.

      Despite the patient’s complaint of abdominal pain, their other symptoms suggest that they may have pneumonia. The presence of signs of infection (such as fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea), along with shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum, all point towards a diagnosis of pneumonia. This question serves to emphasize that pneumonia can sometimes manifest as abdominal pain, particularly in cases of lower lobe pneumonia.

      It is important to note that hepatitis, gallstones, and pancreatitis do not typically cause shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum. Additionally, the patient’s history of high alcohol intake is not relevant to this question.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 60-year-old man comes to you with complaints of increasing shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to you with complaints of increasing shortness of breath on exertion over the past year. During the examination, you observe early finger clubbing and bibasal fine crackles on auscultation. You suspect that he may have pulmonary fibrosis.
      What is the imaging modality considered the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest

      Explanation:

      Imaging Modalities for Pulmonary Fibrosis and Pulmonary Embolus

      When it comes to diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary embolus, there are several imaging modalities available. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is considered the gold standard for suspected pulmonary fibrosis as it provides detailed images of the lung parenchyma. On the other hand, computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard for suspected pulmonary embolus. A chest X-ray may be useful initially for investigating patients with suspected pulmonary fibrosis, but HRCT provides more detail. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) chest scan is used for certain patients with suspected pulmonary embolus, but not for pulmonary fibrosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) chest is not commonly used for either condition, as HRCT remains the preferred imaging modality for pulmonary fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate depression presents to his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate depression presents to his GP after being prescribed a new medication by his psychiatrist. He reports experiencing a significant increase in appetite and subsequent weight gain, as well as constant fatigue and difficulty concentrating at work.
      What medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      If a patient does not respond well to initial depression treatments or experiences adverse effects from their current medication, it is common practice to switch them to a different antidepressant. In such cases, it is reasonable to assume that the patient has already been prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, making sertraline an unlikely option. Advanced treatments like lithium and carbamazepine are typically reserved for severe mood disorders and are therefore not probable in this scenario. This leaves…

      Switching Antidepressants for Depression

      When switching antidepressants for depression, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), it is recommended to cross-taper slowly. This involves gradually reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. Similarly, when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine, withdrawal should occur before starting venlafaxine at a low dose and increasing slowly.

      Overall, switching antidepressants for depression should be done with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional to ensure a safe and effective transition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 21-year-old man is assaulted outside a nightclub and struck with a baseball...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is assaulted outside a nightclub and struck with a baseball bat on the left side of his head. He is taken to the emergency department and placed under observation. As his Glasgow coma score (GCS) declines, he falls into a coma. What is the most probable haemodynamic parameter that he will exhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Before coning, hypertension and bradycardia are observed. The brain regulates its own blood supply by managing the overall blood pressure.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the surgery to renew her prescription for oral...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the surgery to renew her prescription for oral contraception. She is in good health, has no symptoms, and is not taking any medications. She does not smoke and has a BMI of 23 kg/m2. However, her blood pressure has been measured at 170/100 mmHg on multiple occasions. A thorough physical examination reveals no abnormalities, and her medical records show no history of hypertension.

      The following test results were obtained:
      - Sodium: 145 mmol/L (normal range: 137-144)
      - Potassium: 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 4.0 mmol/L (normal range: 2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 89 mol/L (normal range: 60-110)
      - Bicarbonate: 35 mmol/L (normal range: 20-28)

      What is the most likely cause of her visit to the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is the most likely diagnosis for a young patient with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. While the prevalence of this condition in unselected hypertensive patients is around 2%, it should be actively excluded in patients with these symptoms. A spot urine potassium test can be used as an initial investigation for hypokalaemia, with a level above 30 mmol/l indicating that GI loss and laxative abuse are unlikely. An elevated aldosterone:renin ratio is present in primary hyperaldosteronism, and blood test requirements should be discussed with the laboratory before investigation.

      While diuretic abuse can cause hypokalaemia, it is much less common than primary hyperaldosteronism, and hypertension is not typically present. Cushing’s syndrome, which is associated with hypokalaemia and alkalosis, can be screened for with a 24-hour urinary cortisol test, but this condition is less likely in a patient without other features of the syndrome. Addison’s disease, or hypoadrenalism, can be screened for with a short Synacthen test, which is used to detect hyperpigmentation, hypotension, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism should be considered as a potential diagnosis in young patients with hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Proper testing and screening can help rule out other potential causes of these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - You suspect your colleague John has been taking more ‘sick days’ than needed....

    Incorrect

    • You suspect your colleague John has been taking more ‘sick days’ than needed. You happened to see one of his social media posts of him out for lunch when he was allegedly at home because he was sick.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to your friend in private about what is really going on

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions to Take When Concerned About a Friend’s Behavior

      When you notice a friend’s behavior that is concerning, it can be difficult to know what to do. However, there are appropriate actions to take that can help your friend and maintain your relationship. The most appropriate action is to speak to your friend in private about what is really going on. This gives your friend the chance to open up to you and share any issues they may be going through. Reporting your friend to their educational or clinical supervisor should be done in stages, starting locally and working your way up. Spreading rumors about your friend is unprofessional and will not solve the issue. Sharing your concerns with another friend who knows your friend well can also be helpful, but it is important to approach your friend first. By taking appropriate actions, you can help your friend and maintain a healthy relationship.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. His serum amylase level is 1020 u/l, and acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the following factors is NOT included in the modified Glasgow severity scoring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum amylase

      Explanation:

      Markers for Severity and Mortality in Pancreatitis

      Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Several markers can help assess the severity of the disease and predict mortality. The modified Glasgow severity score is a useful tool for stratifying patients based on their clinical presentation. A score of 3 or above indicates severe pancreatitis and the need for transfer to the Intensive Therapy Unit.

      Serum amylase is a diagnostic marker for pancreatitis, but its levels may be normal even in severe cases. Elevated amylase levels can also occur in other acute conditions, such as acute cholecystitis or intestinal obstruction. Therefore, it should not be used as a serial marker for assessing disease progression. Instead, serial C-reactive protein levels are more useful for this purpose.

      Serum albumin is an important marker of mortality in pancreatitis. A fall in albumin level can contribute to peripheral edema and difficulty in maintaining blood pressure. Age is another predictor of mortality, as it is associated with co-morbidities. Corrected calcium is a useful marker for severe pancreatitis, as it indicates the precipitation of calcium in the abdomen, causing hypocalcemia. Finally, white cell count is a marker of inflammation and can indicate the spread of the disease.

      In conclusion, a combination of these markers can help clinicians assess the severity of pancreatitis and predict mortality. Early recognition and management of severe cases can improve outcomes and reduce morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 65-year-old woman is admitted with an unstable open tib-fib fracture after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is admitted with an unstable open tib-fib fracture after a road traffic collision. There is neurovascular compromise; however, there is no overt bleeding, and the decision is made to bleep the on-call consultants in vascular and trauma and orthopaedics to take the patient to theatre. She is on warfarin for atrial fibrillation (AF), and her international normalised ratio (INR) is currently 3.2 (normal value <1.1).
      What is the most appropriate intervention before surgery, with regard to her INR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer Prothrombinex™ 35–50 iu/kg

      Explanation:

      Interventions for High INR in Emergency Surgery

      When a patient requires emergency surgery and has a high INR, urgent reversal of anticoagulation is necessary. Administering Prothrombinex™ intravenously can act as a rapid reversal agent before taking the patient to theatre. While the benefits of surgery may outweigh the risks, the raised INR should not be ignored. Oral vitamin K is typically used when a patient’s INR is >10.0, but no overt bleeding is present and the patient is not due for theatre. If the patient is going to theatre the following day, 3 mg of vitamin K IV would be appropriate. Fresh frozen plasma is a second-line intervention to Prothrombinex™. It is crucial to retest the INR a few hours after administering vitamin K and take further actions based on the subsequent result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of lethargy. He denies any...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of lethargy. He denies any other systemic symptoms. During the physical examination, a non-pulsatile mass is palpated in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen, which does not move with respiration. Additionally, he has pale conjunctivae. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to local colorectal service

      Explanation:

      The presence of an abdominal mass along with symptoms of lethargy and pallor may indicate the likelihood of colorectal cancer, which could also lead to anaemia.

      Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which diagnostic test is most effective in identifying the initial stages of Perthes'...

    Incorrect

    • Which diagnostic test is most effective in identifying the initial stages of Perthes' disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ Disease: Diagnosis and Imaging

      Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ disease is a condition where the femoral head undergoes osteonecrosis, or bone death, without any known cause. The diagnosis of this disease can be established through plain x-rays of the hip, which are highly useful. However, in the early stages, MRI and contrast MRI can provide more detailed information about the extent of necrosis, revascularization, and healing. On the other hand, a nuclear scan can provide less detail and expose the child to radiation. Nevertheless, a technetium 99 bone scan can be helpful in identifying the extent of avascular changes before they become evident on plain radiographs.

      In summary, Legg-Calvé-Perthes’ disease is a condition that can be diagnosed through plain x-rays of the hip. However, MRI and contrast MRI can provide more detailed information in the early stages, while a technetium 99 bone scan can help identify the extent of avascular changes before they become evident on plain radiographs. It is important to consider the risks and benefits of each imaging modality when diagnosing and monitoring this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - As a junior doctor on a surgical ward, you are tasked with admitting...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor on a surgical ward, you are tasked with admitting a 65-year-old woman with cholecystitis. She is scheduled for emergency surgery to remove her gallbladder the next day and is the first on the list. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin 1g twice daily. Her recent HbA1c has come back elevated at 95 mmol/mol, but she has not yet seen her GP to discuss this. Her admission bloods show normal renal function. The ward nurse asks for guidance on how to manage the patient's diabetes mellitus during the perioperative period. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A variable rate insulin infusion should be started

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes who are on insulin and are either undergoing major surgery or have poorly controlled diabetes will typically require a variable rate intravenous insulin infusion (VRIII). However, if the patient is only missing one meal and is on oral antidiabetic treatment, medication manipulation on the day of surgery may suffice. It is important to check hospital guidelines and discuss the patient with the surgical and anaesthetic team.

      If the patient’s recent HbA1c shows poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, a VRIII is likely necessary. The decision to omit metformin in the peri-operative period depends on the risk of acute kidney injury. If the patient has a low risk and is only missing one meal, they can continue their metformin, but should omit the lunchtime dose if taken three times a day. If there is a higher risk or the patient is missing more than one meal, metformin should be omitted from the time they start fasting.

      Leaving poorly controlled diabetes untreated during surgery increases the risk of complications such as wound and respiratory infections and post-operative kidney injury. Therefore, a VRIII is the safer option. Long-term insulin treatment can be assessed by the patient’s community team once the patient is medically stable.

      If the patient is listed for emergency surgery, managing their diabetes peri-operatively is appropriate to prevent their condition from worsening. However, if the surgery is elective, it may be best to wait until the diabetes is better managed.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 68-year-old male comes to your clinic with an inflamed left big toe,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to your clinic with an inflamed left big toe, and you diagnose it as his second gout episode this year. His recent blood tests show normal kidney function. What is the next best step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence allopurinol once the inflammation has settled and the patient is no longer in pain

      Explanation:

      The administration of Allopurinol should commence after the subsiding of inflammation and relief from pain in the patient.

      Allopurinol is a medication used to prevent gout by inhibiting xanthine oxidase. Traditionally, it was believed that urate-lowering therapy (ULT) should not be started until two weeks after an acute attack to avoid further attacks. However, the evidence supporting this is weak, and the British Society of Rheumatology (BSR) now recommends delaying ULT until inflammation has settled to make long-term drug decisions while the patient is not in pain. The initial dose of allopurinol is 100 mg once daily, with the dose titrated every few weeks to aim for a serum uric acid level of less than 300 µmol/l. Colchicine cover should be considered when starting allopurinol, and NSAIDs can be used if colchicine cannot be tolerated. ULT is recommended for patients with two or more attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

      The most significant adverse effects of allopurinol are dermatological, and patients should stop taking the medication immediately if they develop a rash. Severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR), drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS), and Stevens-Johnson syndrome are potential risks. Certain ethnic groups, such as the Chinese, Korean, and Thai people, are at an increased risk of these dermatological reactions. Patients at high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele. Allopurinol can interact with other medications, such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. Azathioprine is metabolized to the active compound 6-mercaptopurine, which is oxidized to 6-thiouric acid by xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine, so a much-reduced dose must be used if the combination cannot be avoided. Allopurinol also reduces renal clearance of cyclophosphamide, which may cause marrow toxicity. Additionally, allopurinol causes an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline by inhibiting its breakdown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results of her smear test show that she is positive for hrHPV (high-risk human papillomavirus), but her cytology is normal. She is advised to come back for another smear test in a year's time. When she returns, her results show that she is still positive for hrHPV, but her cytology is normal. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat smear again in 12 months

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines for cervical cancer screening recommend using hrHPV as the first screening test. If the result is negative, the patient can return to routine recall. However, if the result is positive, the sample is examined for cytology. If the cytology is normal, the patient is asked to return for screening in 12 months instead of the usual 3 years. If the hrHPV result is negative at the 12-month follow-up, the patient can return to routine recall. But if the result is positive again, as in this scenario, and the cytology is normal, the patient should attend another screening in 12 months. If the cytology is abnormal at any point, the patient should be referred for colposcopy. If the patient attends a third screening in another 12 months and the hrHPV result is still positive, she should be referred for colposcopy regardless of the cytology result.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 20-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of pain in his right lower quadrant that started from his belly button. The medical team suspects appendicitis and evaluates him for surgery. He has no medical history, drinks approximately 13 units per week, and smokes 5 cigarettes daily. He currently resides with his parents and works as a plumber for 4 days each week. Based on this information, what is his current ASA classification?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ASA II

      Explanation:

      The patient’s ASA grade is 2 because of their history of smoking and drinking. Grade 2 includes individuals who smoke or consume alcohol socially. To be classified as grade 1, one must be in good health, not smoke, and consume little to no alcohol.

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 5-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father. He is worried about a 'lump' in the left side of her scrotum that has developed over the past week. The baby has been eating well, has not had any diarrhea or cold symptoms, and does not seem to be in any discomfort.
      During the examination, a swelling is detected on the left side of the scrotum. It is possible to get above the swelling. The left testicle is easily palpable, but the right testicle is difficult to feel due to the swelling. On transillumination, the left hemiscrotum lights up.
      What is the most appropriate course of action based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure that it is not sinister and will likely resolve by 1 year

      Explanation:

      This young boy is showing signs of a hydrocele, which may not have been noticed at birth. Hydroceles tend to become more visible as fluid accumulates. Aspiration is not recommended as it is invasive and unnecessary in this case. Specialist intervention is also not required unless the hydrocele persists beyond 18 months to 2 years of age. It is not expected to resolve within a week, but this is not a cause for concern. Hydroceles are typically self-resolving and do not cause any immediate complications. Therefore, the mother does not need to return unless the hydrocele persists beyond this time. Expectant management and reassurance are appropriate as hydroceles are not painful and generally do not cause complications. Ultrasound is not necessary as the diagnosis is clinical, but it may be considered if there is any doubt on history or examination, such as to rule out an inguinal hernia.

      A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles occur when the processus vaginalis remains open, allowing peritoneal fluid to drain into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within a few months. Non-communicating hydroceles occur when there is excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles can develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.

      The main feature of a hydrocele is a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually located anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum and can be transilluminated with a pen torch. If the hydrocele is large, the testis may be difficult to palpate. Diagnosis can be made clinically, but ultrasound is necessary if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.

      Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation, such as an ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause, such as a tumor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - An infant born with trisomy 21 begins to vomit shortly after his first...

    Incorrect

    • An infant born with trisomy 21 begins to vomit shortly after his first feed. The emesis is green and occurs after each subsequent feeding. His abdomen is also distended, most noticeably in the epigastrum. A baby-gram demonstrates a ‘double bubble’ in the abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duodenal atresia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Bilious Vomiting: Differential Diagnosis

      Neonates with bilious vomiting present a diagnostic challenge, as there are several potential causes. In the case of a neonate with trisomy 21, the following conditions should be considered:

      1. Duodenal atresia: This condition is characterized by narrowing of the duodenum, leading to bilious vomiting after feeding. Abdominal X-rays show a double bubble sign, indicating normal gastric bubble and duodenal dilation proximal to the obstruction.

      2. Biliary atresia: This condition involves a blind-ended biliary tree and can cause indigestion, impaired fat absorption, and jaundice due to bile retention.

      3. Pyloric stenosis: This condition is characterized by thickening of the gastric smooth muscle at the pylorus, leading to forceful, non-bilious vomiting within the first month of life. An olive-shaped mass may be felt on abdominal examination.

      4. Tracheoesophageal fistula: This condition involves a communication between the trachea and esophagus, leading to pulmonary infection due to aspiration and abdominal distension due to air entering the stomach.

      5. Imperforate anus: This condition is suggested when the neonate does not pass meconium within the first few days of life.

      A thorough evaluation, including imaging studies and surgical consultation, is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neonatal bilious vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - What is the term used to describe the process of a drug entering...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of a drug entering the bloodstream?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absorption

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics: How Drugs are Processed by the Body

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the processes involved in how drugs are processed by the body. It encompasses four main processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion. Absorption refers to the uptake of the drug from the gut lumen and entry into the circulation. Distribution involves the spread of the drug throughout the body, which can affect its ability to interact with its target. Metabolism involves the deactivation of the drug molecule through reactions in the liver. Excretion involves the removal of the drug from the body.

      The absorption of a drug is crucial for it to have any effect on the body. The method of absorption depends on the chemical structure of the drug. Intravenous or intramuscular injections result in prompt and straightforward absorption, while oral drugs may be absorbed in the stomach or intestines. Some drugs require specialized mechanisms for uptake, such as lipophilic medications that may be taken up in micelles with fat-soluble vitamins. Active transport mechanisms can also take up molecules that resemble hormones or molecules made by the body.

      pharmacokinetics is essential for healthcare professionals to determine the appropriate dosage and administration of drugs. By knowing how drugs are processed by the body, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the maximum benefit from their medications while minimizing any potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 20-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal appointment following a positive pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal appointment following a positive pregnancy test. She has no significant medical or family history and reports no smoking or alcohol consumption. Her BMI is 30.9kg/m², blood pressure is within normal limits, and a urine dipstick is unremarkable. What tests should be offered to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain. The pain is exacerbated by lying down, relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to the left shoulder. He has recently undergone two cycles of radiotherapy for prostate cancer. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm, which appears to fade on inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals low-voltage QRS complexes.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid using a 20 ml syringe and 18G needle under echocardiographic guidance. An ECG should be obtained to rule out MI and PE. GTN spray is used to manage MI, but it is not part of the treatment for tamponade. DC cardioversion is used for unstable cardiac arrhythmias, not tamponade. A fluid challenge with 1 liter of sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the tamponade. LMWH is used to manage pulmonary embolus, but it is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if the cause is haemopericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. He denies any fever, weight loss or recent travel. Past medical history included hypertension and appendicectomy for an inflamed appendix 3 years ago.

      On examination, there is a firm mass over the abdominal wall. The overlying skin is dusky with signs of ischaemia and necrosis.

      Given the signs of ischaemia, you perform a venous blood gas (VBG).

      pH 7.22 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 3.1kPa (4.5-6.0)
      pO2 5.1kPa (4.0-5.3)
      HCO3- 15 mmol/L (22-26)

      Routine work-up to investigate the underlying cause reveals:

      Hb 128 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 13 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Bilirubin 15 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 50 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 39 u/L (3 - 40)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Richter's hernia

      Explanation:

      Richter’s hernia can cause strangulation without any signs of obstruction. This is because the bowel lumen remains open while the bowel wall is compromised. A VBG test may reveal metabolic acidosis, indicated by a low pH, low bicarbonate, and low pCO2 due to partial respiratory compensation. This type of acidosis can occur due to lactate build-up. Unlike Richter’s hernia, small bowel obstruction is less likely to cause a firm, red mass on the abdominal wall. Conditions such as diabetic ketoacidosis and pancreatitis may cause abdominal pain and metabolic acidosis, but they do not explain the presence of a firm mass on the abdominal wall or the skin’s dusky appearance. Ascending cholangitis typically presents with Charcot’s triad, which includes right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, but this is not the case here. In some cases, it may also cause confusion and hypotension, which is known as Reynold’s pentad.

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Clinic complaining of feeling unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Clinic complaining of feeling unwell for the past few days. She has been experiencing nasal discharge, sneezing, fatigue, and a cough. Her 3-year-old daughter recently recovered from very similar symptoms. During the examination, her pulse rate is 62 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.2 °C. What is the probable causative organism for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rhinovirus

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Most Common Causative Organisms of the Common Cold

      The common cold is a viral infection that affects millions of people worldwide. Among the different viruses that can cause the common cold, rhinoviruses are the most common, responsible for 30-50% of cases annually. influenzae viruses can also cause milder symptoms that overlap with those of the common cold, accounting for 5-15% of cases. Adenoviruses and enteroviruses are less common causes, accounting for less than 5% of cases each. Respiratory syncytial virus is also a rare cause of the common cold, accounting for only 5% of cases annually. When trying to identify the causative organism of a common cold, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms, recent exposure to sick individuals, and prevalence of different viruses in the community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from the husband of a 50-year-old patient who is registered at your practice. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. According to her husband, for the past three days, she has been talking nonsensically and experiencing hallucinations. An Approved Mental Health Professional is contacted and heads to the patient's residence. Upon arrival, you encounter a disheveled and emaciated woman sitting on the pavement outside her home, threatening to physically harm you. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call the police

      Explanation:

      If the patient is exhibiting violent behavior in a public place, it is advisable to contact the police and have her taken to a secure location for a proper evaluation. It is important to note that Metformin does not lead to hypoglycemia.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A neighbor has a grandchild diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot and asks you...

    Incorrect

    • A neighbor has a grandchild diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot and asks you about this condition.
      Which of the following is a characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Heart Defects and Acquired Valvular Defects

      Congenital heart defects are present at birth and can affect the structure and function of the heart. Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart defect that includes right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, right-sided outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. On the other hand, patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and atrial septal defect (ASD) are not part of the tetralogy of Fallot but are commonly occurring congenital heart defects.

      PDA is characterized by a persistent communication between the descending thoracic aorta and the pulmonary artery, while ASD is characterized by a defect in the interatrial septum, allowing shunting of blood from left to right. If left untreated, patients with a large PDA are at risk of developing Eisenmenger syndrome in later life.

      Acquired valvular defects, on the other hand, are not present at birth but develop over time. Aortic stenosis is an acquired valvular defect that results from progressive narrowing of the aortic valve area over several years. Tricuspid stenosis, which is caused by obstruction of the tricuspid valve, can be a result of several conditions, including rheumatic heart disease, congenital abnormalities, active infective endocarditis, and carcinoid tumors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the past six months. She recently experienced moderate vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Additionally, she has gained around 14 pounds in weight during this time. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Secondary Amenorrhea and Miscarriage: A Possible Sign of Pregnancy

      Secondary amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months in women who have previously had regular cycles, can be a sign of pregnancy. In cases where a patient with secondary amenorrhea experiences a miscarriage, it is important to consider the possibility of pregnancy. This information is highlighted in the book Williams Gynecology, 4th edition, authored by Barbara L. Hoffman, John O. Schorge, Lisa M. Halvorson, Cherine A. Hamid, Marlene M. Corton, and Joseph I. Schaffer.

      The authors emphasize the importance of considering pregnancy as a possible cause of secondary amenorrhea, especially in cases where a miscarriage has occurred. This highlights the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in their assessment of patients with secondary amenorrhea and to consider pregnancy as a possible diagnosis. Early detection of pregnancy can help ensure appropriate prenatal care and management, which can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

      In conclusion, secondary amenorrhea followed by a miscarriage should raise suspicion of pregnancy. Healthcare providers should be aware of this possibility and consider pregnancy as a potential diagnosis in patients with secondary amenorrhea. Early detection and appropriate management of pregnancy can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her medications abruptly. She has a medical history of asthma, depression, and occasional tennis elbow pain, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler, citalopram, and paracetamol, respectively. What is the most probable outcome if she discontinues her medications suddenly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      When it comes to discontinuing medication, it’s important to note the specific drug being used. Abruptly stopping a salbutamol inhaler or paracetamol is unlikely to cause any adverse effects. However, stopping a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) like citalopram can lead to discontinuation symptoms. Gastrointestinal side-effects, such as diarrhoea, are commonly seen in SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, it’s recommended to gradually taper off SSRIs. Blunted affect is not likely to occur as a result of sudden discontinuation, but emotional lability and mood swings may be observed. Cyanopsia, or blue-tinted vision, is not a known symptom of SSRI discontinuation, but it can be a side effect of other drugs like sildenafil. While hypertension has been reported in some cases, it’s less common than gastrointestinal symptoms. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is often reported upon sudden discontinuation of SSRIs.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A mother gives birth to her first baby. The baby begins vomiting persistently...

    Incorrect

    • A mother gives birth to her first baby. The baby begins vomiting persistently during the fourth week of life. The paediatrician performs a physical examination of the baby and feels a small mass about the size of an olive in the epigastrium.
      Which of the following is this child likely to exhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders: Pyloric Stenosis, Pancreas Divisum, Biliary Stenosis, and Duodenal Atresia

      Pyloric Stenosis: A newborn presenting with non-bilious vomiting during the third week of life and an ‘olive’ in the epigastrum on physical examination is indicative of pyloric stenosis. This condition occurs when the pylorus, the region of the stomach that serves as the junction between the stomach and the duodenum, becomes obstructed, preventing duodenal material from traveling to more proximal structures.

      Pancreas Divisum: Pancreas divisum is a condition in which the ventral and dorsal anlage of the pancreas fail to fuse during embryology, leading to pancreatitis and pancreatic insufficiency. This occurs because the pancreatic duct fails to form, forcing pancreatic secretions through two smaller dorsal and ventral ducts that cannot support the required flow of secretions. Pancreatic juices accumulate and dilate the smaller ducts, leading to pancreatitis.

      Biliary Stenosis: Biliary stenosis can lead to digestion problems, as the narrow biliary tree prevents bile from reaching the duodenum. Patients with this condition may experience cramping pain when ingesting fatty foods, and fat-soluble vitamin deficiency can develop.

      Duodenal Atresia: Duodenal atresia refers to a blind-ended duodenum, which causes bilious vomiting shortly after beginning to feed. This condition is associated with trisomy 21, but there is no evidence of trisomy 21 in this scenario, and the vomiting has begun after the third week of life.

      Overall, these pediatric gastrointestinal disorders have distinct presentations and require different diagnostic approaches. It is important for healthcare providers to consider all possible conditions when evaluating a patient with gastrointestinal symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, hepatosplenomegaly and ascites.
      What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension

      Hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension can have various causes, including pre-hepatic, hepatic, and post-hepatic problems. One potential cause is Budd-Chiari syndrome, which results from hepatic vein thrombosis and is associated with pregnancy and oral contraceptive use. Alcoholic cirrhosis is another possible cause, but is unlikely in the absence of alcohol excess. Pylephlebitis, a rare complication of appendicitis, is not consistent with the case history provided. Splenectomy cannot explain the palpable splenomegaly in this patient. Tricuspid valve incompetence can also lead to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly, but given the postpartum status of the patient, Budd-Chiari syndrome is a more probable diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 47-year-old woman with primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with a 2 week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with primary sclerosing cholangitis presents with a 2 week history of pain under her right rib cage and 2 days history of yellow skin and pale stools. She has also experienced a weight loss of 2 stone over the last 6 months. What would be the appropriate tumour marker investigation for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA 19–9

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Associated Cancers

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood. They can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring certain types of cancer. Here are some common tumor markers and the cancers they are associated with:

      – CA 19-9: This marker is associated with cholangiocarcinoma, but can also be positive in pancreatic and colorectal cancer.
      – CA 15-3: This marker is associated with breast cancer.
      – AFP: This marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and teratomas.
      – CEA: This marker is associated with colorectal cancer.
      – CA 125: This marker is associated with ovarian, uterine, and breast cancer.

      It is important to note that tumor markers are not always specific to one type of cancer and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture of the membranes. Following the procedure, a vaginal examination reveals a palpable umbilical cord. What position should she be advised to assume?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: On all fours, on the knees and elbows

      Explanation:

      When a woman experiences cord prolapse, the correct position for her is on all fours, with her knees and elbows on the ground. This condition can be caused by artificial rupture of the membranes, and it is important to keep the cord warm and moist while preparing for a caesarian section. The Trendelenburg position, which involves tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in abdominal surgery to shift abdominal contents upwards. The Lloyd Davis position, which involves separating the legs and tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in rectal and pelvic surgery. The McRoberts manoeuvre, which involves hyperflexing the legs tightly to the abdomen, is used in cases of shoulder dystocia during delivery, but not for cord prolapse. The lithotomy position, which involves raising the legs in stirrups and separating them, is used in obstetrics and gynaecology for various procedures, but not for cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain for the last day. She reports that she has had some bloody vaginal discharge. She is currently sexually active. She has a fever of 38.1 °C. On examination, she has uterine tenderness and there is severe cervical motion tenderness.
      What is the most important initial investigation in helping to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Initial Investigations in a Patient with Lower Abdominal Pain: A Case Study

      When a patient presents with lower abdominal pain, it is important to conduct initial investigations to determine the underlying cause. In this case study, the patient exhibits symptoms consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is crucial to rule out an ectopic pregnancy as it can lead to serious complications.

      Pregnancy Test: The most important initial investigation for women of childbearing age who present with abdominal pain is a pregnancy test. This test can quickly determine if the patient is pregnant and if an ectopic pregnancy is a possibility.

      Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR): While an ESR test can identify infection and inflammation, it is of limited diagnostic or therapeutic benefit in this case and would not affect the patient’s management.

      Abdominal Ultrasound: Although an abdominal ultrasound can identify potential issues, such as an ectopic pregnancy, a pregnancy test should take priority in this case.

      Cervical and Urethral Swab: A swab can identify sexually transmitted diseases that may be causing pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is not the most important initial investigation.

      Full Blood Count: While a full blood count can identify potential infections and provide a baseline for admission, it is unlikely to help reach a diagnosis and is not the most important initial investigation.

      In conclusion, initial investigations are crucial in determining the underlying cause of lower abdominal pain. In this case, a pregnancy test is the most important initial investigation to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, followed by other tests as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 6-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a widespread rash on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a widespread rash on her cheeks, neck, and trunk. The rash does not appear on her palms. The texture of the rash is rough and it appears red. The child's mother reports that she has been experiencing a sore throat for the past 48 hours. The child has no known allergies. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral penicillin V for 10 days and he is safe to return to school after 24 hours

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for scarlet fever in patients who do not require hospitalization and have no penicillin allergy is a 10-day course of oral penicillin V. Patients should also be advised not to return to school until at least 24 hours after starting antibiotics. Scarlet fever is characterized by a red, rough, sandpaper-textured rash with deep red linear appearance in skin folds and sparing of the palms and soles. Calamine lotion and school exclusion until scabs have crusted over is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for chicken pox. High-dose aspirin is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for Kawasaki disease. No medication is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, as it is a bacterial infection that requires antibiotic therapy. Oral acyclovir for 10 days is not the correct treatment for scarlet fever, but rather for shingles caused by herpes varicella zoster virus.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - What actions can result in a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus of...

    Incorrect

    • What actions can result in a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus of the tibia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eversion

      Explanation:

      Three Sequential Injuries Caused by Pronated Foot and Abducting Force

      The injury mechanism that occurs when a pronated foot experiences an abducting force on the talus can result in up to three sequential injuries. The first injury is a transverse fracture of the medial malleolus, which is caused by a tense deltoid ligament. The second injury occurs when the abducting talus stresses the tibiofibular syndesmosis, resulting in a tear of the anterior tibiofibular ligament. Finally, continued abduction of the talus can lead to an oblique fracture of the distal fibula.

      This sequence of injuries can be quite serious and may require medical attention. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with a pronated foot and to take steps to prevent injury. This may include wearing appropriate footwear, using orthotics or other supportive devices, and avoiding activities that put excessive stress on the foot and ankle. By taking these precautions, individuals can reduce their risk of experiencing these types of injuries and maintain their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals first-degree heart block, tall P-waves, and flattened T-waves. Upon arterial blood gas analysis, her results are as follows: pH 7.55 (normal range 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 30 mmol/L (normal range 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 5.8kPa (normal range 4.5-6kPa), p02 11kPa (normal range 10-14kPa), and Chloride 85mmol/L (normal range 95-108mmol/L). What is the underlying cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The palpitations experienced by this patient are likely due to hypokalaemia, as indicated by their ECG. The ABG results reveal a metabolic alkalosis, with low chloride levels suggesting that the cause is likely due to prolonged vomiting resulting in the loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. This could also explain the hypokalaemia observed on the ECG. The absence of acute nausea and vomiting suggests that this may be a chronic issue, possibly indicating bulimia nervosa as the underlying condition, unless there is a previous medical history that could account for persistent vomiting.

      Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging

      Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.

      Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with a history of back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with a history of back pain that has been getting worse over the past year. The pain and stiffness are more severe in the morning but improve with exercise. During your examination, you notice a flexural rash with poorly defined areas of erythema, dry skin, and lichenification. All observations appear normal. The blood test results show an ESR of 84 mm/hr (normal range: 0-22) and a CRP of 6 mg/L (normal range: 0-10). ANA, RhF, and Anti-CCP tests are all negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Exercise is typically beneficial for inflammatory back pain, such as that seen in ankylosing spondylitis. The patient’s symptoms, including morning stiffness and improvement with exercise, suggest an inflammatory cause, which is supported by the significantly elevated ESR. While there are several possible diagnoses, including seropositive and seronegative spondyloarthropathies, the most likely explanation is ankylosing spondylitis. Psoriatic arthritis is an incorrect answer, as the patient’s rash is more consistent with dermatitis than psoriasis. Osteoarthritis is also unlikely given the patient’s age and clinical history, while reactive arthritis is less likely due to the duration of symptoms and lack of urethritis or conjunctivitis.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of myalgia and...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of myalgia and fatigue. She has no significant medical history. In the past, she had a rash on her cheeks that did not improve with anti-fungal cream.
      During the examination, her vital signs are normal, and there is no joint swelling or redness. However, she experiences tenderness when her hands are squeezed. Sarah's muscle strength is 5/5 in all groups.
      Sarah's maternal aunt has been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and she is worried that she might have it too.
      Which of the following blood tests, if negative, can be a useful test to rule out SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANA

      Explanation:

      A useful test to rule out SLE is ANA positivity, as the majority of patients with SLE are ANA positive. While CRP and ESR may rise during an acute flare of SLE, they are not specific to autoimmune conditions. ANCA is an antibody found in patients with autoimmune vasculitis.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 25-year-old female has been discharged from hospital after being diagnosed with schizophrenia....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female has been discharged from hospital after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. She is now being seen in the GP clinic and is concerned about her prognosis. Prior to her illness, she was a high-functioning accountant. Her symptoms began gradually and mainly involved auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions, which are currently under control. What factor in her case suggests a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gradual onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      The gradual onset of schizophrenia is associated with a worse long-term outcome, making it a poor prognostic indicator for this patient. However, her gender (being female) and good pre-illness functioning are both positive prognostic indicators. Additionally, her predominant positive symptoms (auditory hallucinations and delusions) suggest a better prognosis compared to predominant negative symptoms. Lastly, being diagnosed at a younger age (such as in her teens) would have resulted in a poorer prognosis.

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - How is the distribution of a drug throughout the body quantified? ...

    Incorrect

    • How is the distribution of a drug throughout the body quantified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      Body Fluid Compartments

      Pharmacokinetics involves the processes of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs in the body. The distribution of a drug is determined by its chemical structure, size, and ability to transport itself across membranes. The volume of distribution (Vd) describes what happens to the drug once it is in the body. For a typical 70 kg adult, a Vd of ,14 L indicates that the drug is spread among the extracellular fluid space only, while a Vd greater than 42 L suggests that the drug is likely to be lipophilic and its distribution is not limited to the body’s fluid. Some drugs with very high Vds will be preferentially distributed in the body’s fat reserves.

      The Vd is a theoretical concept that essentially describes how much fluid is needed to hold the given dose of a drug to maintain the same plasma concentration. The body fluid compartments include the intracellular fluid (ICF), which is the fluid inside the cells, and the extracellular fluid (ECF), which is the fluid outside the cells. The ECF is further divided into the interstitial fluid (ISF), which is the fluid between the cells, and the plasma, which is the fluid component of blood. The distribution of a drug will depend on its ability to cross the cell membrane and its affinity for different body compartments. the body fluid compartments and the volume of distribution is important in determining the appropriate dosage and duration of drug therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is recuperating from cavernous venous sinus thrombosis. The wall of the sinus has impacted all nerves passing through it.
      What is the most prominent clinical indication of cranial nerve impairment caused by this pathological condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral corneal reflex absent

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal Nerve Dysfunction and its Effects on Facial and Oral Function

      The trigeminal nerve is responsible for carrying sensory and motor information from the face and oral cavity to the brain. Dysfunction of this nerve can lead to various symptoms affecting facial and oral function.

      One common symptom is the absence of the ipsilateral corneal reflex, which is carried by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. Damage to this nerve interrupts the reflex arc of the corneal reflex.

      Another symptom is the inability to resist forced lateral mandibular excursion with the mouth partially open. This is due to damage to the pterygoid muscles, which are innervated by the motor fibers in the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

      Loss of sensation over the lower lip is also a result of trigeminal nerve dysfunction. The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve carries general somatic afferent nerves from the lower lip.

      Similarly, loss of somatic sensation over the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is also carried by the trigeminal nerve.

      Lastly, the facial nerve innervates the buccinator muscle, which is responsible for the ability to blow out the cheeks. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to perform this action.

      Overall, dysfunction of the trigeminal nerve can have significant effects on facial and oral function, highlighting the importance of this nerve in everyday activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 60-year-old man presents to the Accident & Emergency Department following an overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to the Accident & Emergency Department following an overdose of one of his medications. On initial triage, his blood pressure is found to be 72/48 mmHg, heart rate 34 bpm and his serum blood glucose is recorded as 1.4 mmol/l. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus bradycardia. He has a past medical history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to be responsible for this patient’s symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Toxidrome Analysis: Identifying the Causative Agent in a Hypoglycaemic Patient

      In cases of hypoglycaemia, it is important to consider all possible causative agents before initiating treatment. In this scenario, the patient presents with hypoglycaemia, bradycardia, and hypotension. After reviewing the patient’s medication history, the most likely agent responsible for this toxidrome is bisoprolol, a cardioselective beta-blocker commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and dysrhythmias.

      While amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, can cause hypotension in overdose, it is unlikely to cause the marked hypoglycaemia seen in this case. Digoxin, a cardiovascular agent, can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias, but the patient’s sinus bradycardia and hypoglycaemia make it a less likely causative agent than bisoprolol. Insulin overdose results in neuroglycopenia, but it would not lead to bradycardia and hypotension. Metformin overdose rarely results in hypoglycaemia, but the major concern is lactic acidosis.

      Treatment for bisoprolol overdose involves airway management, fluid resuscitation, and glucagon therapy. Additional treatment options include vasopressors and lipid emulsion therapy. It is important to consider all possible causative agents and their specific toxidromes before initiating treatment for hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man, with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm presents for his annual review.
      What size abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) would indicate the need for urgent elective surgery of the aneurysm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An increase of >1 cm per year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring and Repair of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) are a potentially life-threatening condition that require careful monitoring and, in some cases, elective repair. The current guidelines for monitoring and repair depend on the size of the aneurysm and its rate of growth.

      An increase of >1 cm per year indicates a need for elective repair, as does an AAA with a diameter greater than 5.5 cm. Symptomatic aneurysms or those causing complications also require repair. Endovascular repair is often preferred over open surgery.

      For AAAs between 3.0-5.4 cm, monitoring via ultrasound is required. AAAs between 4.5-5.4 cm require more frequent monitoring (every 3 months) than those between 3.0-4.4 cm (annual monitoring). An increase of 0.5-1 cm per year does not necessarily indicate a need for repair.

      Regular monitoring and timely repair can help prevent the potentially fatal complications of AAA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is scheduled for a blood glucose check at the antenatal clinic due to her history of gestational diabetes during her first pregnancy. After undergoing the oral glucose tolerance test, her fasting glucose level is found to be 7.2mmol/L and her 2hr glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer for the management of gestational diabetes is insulin. If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis, insulin should be initiated. Diet and exercise/lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient for managing gestational diabetes and medication is necessary. Empagliflozin and glibenclamide are not appropriate treatments for gestational diabetes. Glibenclamide may only be considered if the patient has declined insulin.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 9-year-old is admitted with suspected appendicitis and undergoes a laparoscopic appendicectomy. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old is admitted with suspected appendicitis and undergoes a laparoscopic appendicectomy. He is given 0.45% sodium chloride for postoperative care. Upon review by the surgical team, he presents with symptoms of headache, confusion, and gait disturbance. The following laboratory results are obtained: Na+ 128 mmol/l, K+ 4.0 mmol/l, urea 5 mmol/l, creatinine 60µmol/l, and glucose 4.0mmol/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemic encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s low sodium levels can be attributed to two factors. Firstly, the excessive intake of water has diluted the sodium chloride in the body. Secondly, stress and trauma are known to cause SIADH, which in turn leads to the secretion of ADH. This hormone opens up aquaporin channels, allowing water to enter the bloodstream and further lowering sodium levels.

      Guidelines for Post-Operative Fluid Management

      Post-operative fluid management is a crucial aspect of patient care, and the composition of intravenous fluids plays a significant role in determining the patient’s outcome. The commonly used intravenous fluids include plasma, 0.9% saline, dextrose/saline, and Hartmann’s, each with varying levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, and lactate. In the UK, the GIFTASUP guidelines were developed to provide consensus guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids.

      Previously, excessive administration of normal saline was believed to cause little harm, leading to oliguric postoperative patients receiving enormous quantities of IV fluids and developing hyperchloraemic acidosis. However, with a better understanding of this potential complication, electrolyte balanced solutions such as Ringers lactate and Hartmann’s are now preferred over normal saline. Additionally, solutions of 5% dextrose and dextrose/saline combinations are generally not recommended for surgical patients.

      The GIFTASUP guidelines recommend documenting fluids given clearly and assessing the patient’s fluid status when they leave theatre. If a patient is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic, oral fluid intake should be restarted as soon as possible. Patients with urinary sodium levels below 20 should be reviewed, and if a patient is oedematous, hypovolaemia should be treated first, followed by a negative balance of sodium and water, monitored using urine Na excretion levels.

      In conclusion, post-operative fluid management is critical, and the GIFTASUP guidelines provide valuable guidance on the administration of intravenous fluids. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive appropriate fluid management, leading to better outcomes and reduced complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 25-year-old woman in hospital with terminal cancer has suddenly deteriorated over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman in hospital with terminal cancer has suddenly deteriorated over the last week. She can no longer communicate her decisions with regard to her health care. She had previously made an advanced decision that stated she did not want to be put on a ventilator.
      In which one of the following scenarios would the advanced decision be considered valid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The decision may stand valid even if not made via a solicitor

      Explanation:

      Validity of Advanced Directives: Factors to Consider

      When creating an advanced directive, it is important to ensure that it is valid and legally binding. Here are some factors to consider:

      1. Solicitor involvement: While it is not necessary to involve a solicitor in creating an advanced directive, it is advisable to do so to ensure that all wishes are documented clearly in accordance with the Mental Capacity Act.

      2. Witnessing: The decision to refuse life-sustaining treatment must be both signed by the patient AND witnessed in the presence of someone else who can vouch for its authenticity. If the directive was not witnessed, it is not valid.

      3. Age: A person must be aged 18 or over to make an advanced decision, so being 17 would invalidate the directive.

      4. LPA decisions: When deciding between decisions stated on an advanced directive and those made by a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA), it is the decision that was made most recently which takes priority. In this case, as the advanced directive was created before the LPA was appointed, it is the best interest’s decision made by the LPA that is considered.

      5. Written documentation: The decision must be written down, a verbal decision is not acceptable and will not be considered valid.

      By considering these factors, individuals can ensure that their advanced directives are valid and legally binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department with worsening periorbital oedema,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department with worsening periorbital oedema, erythema, and drainage in her left eye. During examination, mild proptosis is observed. To further investigate her symptoms, a point of care ultrasound is conducted, revealing retro-orbital soft tissue prominence and oedema with echogenic fat. What is the appropriate treatment plan for this patient based on the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous antimicrobial

      Explanation:

      Hospital admission for IV antibiotics is necessary for patients with orbital cellulitis due to the potential for cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial spread. It is imperative that all patients with a clinical diagnosis of orbital cellulitis be admitted to the hospital and receive an ophthalmic evaluation as soon as possible. Oral antimicrobial treatment is inadequate in this situation, as intravenous antibiotic therapy is required to manage this medical emergency. Failure to treat orbital cellulitis promptly may result in blindness or even death. Therefore, no antimicrobial other than intravenous antibiotics is appropriate for this condition. Topical antimicrobial treatment is also insufficient for managing orbital cellulitis.

      Understanding Orbital Cellulitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Orbital cellulitis is a serious infection that affects the fat and muscles behind the orbital septum within the orbit, but not the globe. It is commonly caused by upper respiratory tract infections that spread from the sinuses and can lead to a high mortality rate. On the other hand, periorbital cellulitis is a less severe infection that occurs in the superficial tissues anterior to the orbital septum. However, it can progress to orbital cellulitis if left untreated.

      Risk factors for orbital cellulitis include childhood, previous sinus infections, lack of Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccination, recent eyelid infections or insect bites, and ear or facial infections. Symptoms of orbital cellulitis include redness and swelling around the eye, severe ocular pain, visual disturbance, proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, eyelid edema, and ptosis. In rare cases, meningeal involvement can cause drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting.

      To differentiate between orbital and preseptal cellulitis, doctors look for reduced visual acuity, proptosis, and ophthalmoplegia, which are not consistent with preseptal cellulitis. Full blood count and clinical examination involving complete ophthalmological assessment are necessary to determine the severity of the infection. CT with contrast can also help identify inflammation of the orbital tissues deep to the septum and sinusitis. Blood culture and microbiological swab are also necessary to determine the organism causing the infection.

      Management of orbital cellulitis requires hospital admission for IV antibiotics. It is a medical emergency that requires urgent senior review. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and reduce the risk of mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 38-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP. She had been self-isolating at home for several months due to the COVID-19 pandemic and continued to feel anxious about going out even after the lockdown was lifted.

      Prior to the pandemic, she had experienced a traumatic event and was struggling with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). She had also recently lost her job and was facing financial difficulties.

      During a telephone consultation with her GP 4 weeks ago, she was diagnosed with moderate depression and referred for computerised cognitive behavioural therapy. She was also advised to increase her physical activity levels.

      However, her mental health had since deteriorated, and she was experiencing difficulty sleeping, early morning awakening, and occasional thoughts of self-harm. She expressed reluctance to engage in one-to-one psychological treatments.

      The GP discussed the next steps in managing her depression and PTSD.

      What treatment options should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence citalopram

      Explanation:

      For patients with ‘less severe’ depression, SSRIs are the recommended first-line antidepressant. However, in the case of a patient with moderate depression who is not responding well to low-level therapy and has refused psychological treatments, an antidepressant should be offered. While mirtazapine and venlafaxine are valid options, they are not considered first-line. NICE recommends considering the higher likelihood of patients stopping treatment with venlafaxine due to side effects and its higher cost compared to SSRIs, which are equally effective. Mirtazapine and venlafaxine are typically reserved as second-line agents when the response to an SSRI has been poor. NICE advises offering an SSRI first-line as they have fewer side effects than other antidepressants and are just as effective. In this patient’s case, referral to a crisis team is unlikely as he has not expressed any true suicidal plans or intent.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
      eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
      Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 78 g/l
      Males: 135–175 g/l
      Females: 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apixaban

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of right-sided iliac fossa pain, right tip shoulder pain and a scanty brown per vaginum (PV) bleed. She missed her last menstrual period which was due eight weeks ago. She has an intrauterine device (IUD) in place.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

      One of the most likely diagnoses for a woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This is especially true if the patient has a history of using an intrauterine device (IUD), has missed a period, and experiences scanty bleeding. However, other possible differential diagnoses include appendicitis, ovarian cysts, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Appendicitis may cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other symptoms and history suggest an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. A femoral hernia is inconsistent with the clinical findings. Ovarian cysts may also cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other features from the history point to an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not consistent with the history described, as there is no offensive discharge and no sexual history provided. Additionally, pelvic inflammatory disease does not cause a delay in the menstrual period.

      It is important to always test for pregnancy in any woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain, regardless of contraception use or perceived likelihood of pregnancy. Early diagnosis and treatment of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy can be life-saving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided lower abdominal pain that has been on and off for 3 days. Her mother brought her in, and the patient reports no vomiting or diarrhea. She has a regular menstrual cycle, which is 28 days long, and her last period was 10 days ago. The patient denies any sexual activity. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, pulse 85 bpm, and temperature 37.7 oC. The abdomen is soft, without distension, and no rebound or guarding present. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 118 (115–155 g/l), white cell count of 7.8 (4–11.0 × 109/l), C-reactive protein of 4 (<5), and a serum b-human chorionic gonadotropin level of zero. An ultrasound of the abdomen reveals a small amount of free fluid in the pouch of Douglas, along with normal ovaries and a normal appendix.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mittelschmerz