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  • Question 1 - A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.

      During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)

      What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?

      Your Answer: <100 g/L

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of haematuria. He has a history of chronic atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. His blood tests reveal a Hb level of 112g/L and an INR of 9, but he is stable hemodynamically. The consulting physician recommends reversing the effects of warfarin. What blood product/s would be the most appropriate choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin concentrate ('Octaplex')

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Warfarin Reversal

      Prothrombin concentrates are the preferred treatment for reversing the effects of warfarin in cases of active bleeding and a significantly elevated INR. While packed cells are important for managing severe bleeding, they are not the recommended treatment for warfarin reversal. Cryoprecipitate, recombinant factor VII, and platelets are also not indicated for reversing the effects of warfarin. It is important to choose the appropriate treatment option based on the patient’s individual needs and medical history. Proper management of warfarin reversal can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      37.5
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's syndrome screening test around 15 weeks into her pregnancy.

      What is included in the measurement of a Down's screening blood test?

      Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      AFP Measurement for Detecting Birth Defects and Chromosomal Abnormalities

      When a woman is 15 weeks pregnant, a blood test called AFP measurement can be performed to determine if there is an increased risk of certain birth defects and chromosomal abnormalities. This test can detect open neural tube or abdominal wall defects, as well as Down’s syndrome and trisomy 18. In the past, if the results of the AFP measurement were abnormal, an ultrasound scan would be performed. However, it is possible that in the future, mid-trimester anomaly scanning may replace the use of AFP measurement altogether.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      7.3
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  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with known sickle-cell disease presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain.
      On examination, she is found to have a tachycardia of 130 bpm, with generalised abdominal tenderness and 3 cm splenomegaly. Blood tests reveal marked anaemia, and a diagnosis of splenic sequestration crisis is considered.
      Which blood vessel in the spleen is most responsible for monitoring the quality of red blood cells and removing aged ones from circulation?

      Your Answer: Splenic sinusoid

      Explanation:

      The Anatomy of the Spleen: Splenic Sinusoids, Trabecular Veins, Arteries, and Sheathed Capillaries

      The spleen is an important organ in the immune system, responsible for filtering blood and removing old or damaged red blood cells. Its unique anatomy allows it to perform this function effectively.

      One key component of the spleen is the splenic sinusoid. These sinusoids are lined with elongated, cuboidal endothelial cells that are closely associated with macrophages. The gaps between the endothelial cells and incomplete basement membrane allow for the passage of red blood cells, with younger and more deformable cells passing through easily while older or abnormal cells are more readily destroyed by the macrophages.

      The trabecular veins receive blood from the splenic sinusoids, while the trabecular arteries are branches of the afferent splenic artery. These arteries pass deep into the spleen along connective tissue trabeculae and branch into central arteries that pass through the white pulp of the spleen.

      The central arteries then lead to sheathed capillaries, which are branches of the central arteries. These capillaries open directly into the red pulp of the spleen, allowing for further filtration and removal of old or damaged red blood cells.

      Overall, the anatomy of the spleen is complex and specialized, allowing it to perform its important functions in the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      29.6
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  • Question 5 - A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle...

    Correct

    • A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle cramps, and circumoral paraesthesia. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Investigate and treat citrate toxicity

      Explanation:

      Citrate Toxicity and Hypocalcaemia in Apheresis Patients

      This patient is experiencing symptoms of citrate toxicity, which has led to hypocalcaemia. While it is possible for haemorrhage to occur at the site of venepuncture or venous access, this is typically easy to identify through clinical examination. Sepsis is an uncommon occurrence if proper aseptic precautions have been taken, and the symptoms described here are not indicative of an infection. Immediate treatment is necessary, and this can be achieved by slowing or stopping the apheresis process. Treatment options include the administration of oral or intravenous calcium replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      10.9
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  • Question 6 - Which structure, containing both white and red pulp, is responsible for trapping foreign...

    Correct

    • Which structure, containing both white and red pulp, is responsible for trapping foreign substances present in the blood?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Lymphoid Organs and Non-Lymphoid Organs

      The human body contains various organs that serve different functions. Among these are the lymphoid organs, which play a crucial role in the immune system. In this article, we will compare the characteristics of three lymphoid organs (spleen, lymph node, and thymus) with two non-lymphoid organs (heart and thyroid gland).

      Spleen
      The spleen is the largest secondary lymphoid organ. It is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen and contains both white pulp (lymphatic tissue and macrophages) and red pulp (sinusoids and red blood cells). One of its functions is to filter foreign substances from the blood.

      Lymph Node
      Lymph nodes are secondary lymphoid organs that contain structures where mature lymphocytes are stimulated by antigens to undergo further division and differentiation. They do not contain white and red pulp.

      Thymus
      The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ where T lymphocytes mature, differentiate, and proliferate. It does not contain white and red pulp.

      Heart
      The heart is the main organ of the circulatory system and does not contain white and red pulp.

      Thyroid Gland
      The thyroid gland is located in the anterior neck and is part of the endocrine system. It does not contain white and red pulp.

      In summary, lymphoid organs play a crucial role in the immune system, while non-lymphoid organs serve other functions. Understanding the characteristics of these organs can help us appreciate the complexity and diversity of the human body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6
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  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old child of African descent presents with a 2-day history of increasing...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old child of African descent presents with a 2-day history of increasing abdominal pain. It is not associated with nausea or vomiting, and the bowels are opening regularly. The child’s mother tells you that he has had a few episodes of similar symptoms in the past, but none as severe.
      On examination, the child has generalised abdominal tenderness, and splenomegaly is noted. After further investigation, the child is diagnosed with sickle-cell anaemia.
      Which organ is most responsible for the removal of sickled red blood cells from the circulatory system?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The Role of Organs in Immune Surveillance and Blood Production

      The human body has several organs that play a crucial role in immune surveillance and blood production. The spleen, for instance, is responsible for removing abnormal and aged red blood cells from circulation and monitoring the blood for immune purposes. However, in sickle-cell anaemia patients, the spleen can become non-functional due to continuous hypoxic and thrombotic insults, leading to a process called autosplenectomy.

      Lymph nodes, on the other hand, are involved in immunological surveillance of the lymph. They can swell in response to severe bacterial infections in specific body parts, such as the axillary lymph nodes in the case of a hand infection.

      The thymus is responsible for programming pre-T cells to differentiate into T cells, which are responsible for the cellular immune response against pathogenic viruses and fungi and the destruction of malignant cells. It is most active during neonatal and pre-adolescent life.

      The bone marrow is responsible for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. In sickle-cell anaemia patients, erythropoiesis in the bone marrow is stimulated.

      Finally, the liver can become a site of extramedullary erythropoiesis, which means it can produce red blood cells outside of the bone marrow.

      Overall, these organs work together to maintain a healthy immune system and blood production in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      18.8
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  • Question 8 - A 91-year-old woman with known vascular dementia presents to the Emergency Department after...

    Correct

    • A 91-year-old woman with known vascular dementia presents to the Emergency Department after a routine blood test uncovered that the patient had a sodium level of 149 mmol/l. Her carer comments that the patient’s fluid intake has been minimal over the past week. The patient’s past medical history includes a previous lacunar stroke and peripheral vascular disease. Her regular medications are atorvastatin, ramipril, amlodipine and clopidogrel. She currently is fully dependent on the assistance provided by carers. The patient’s National Early Warning (NEWS) score is 0, and her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15.
      A physical examination does not reveal any source of infection. A bedside capillary glucose is recorded as 5.8 mmol/mmol. A full set of blood tests are repeated, reported as follows:
      Full blood count and urea and electrolytes (U&Es):
      Investigations Results Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 91 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets (Plt) 215 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 3.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 66 mmol/l 50–120 mmol/l
      A routine chest X-ray and urinalysis are performed and show no abnormalities.
      Which of the following is the most suitable to correct the patient’s hypernatraemia?

      Your Answer: Oral water

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hypernatraemia: A Case Study

      Hypernatraemia is a condition characterized by an elevated sodium concentration in the blood. In this case study, the patient’s hypernatraemia is mild and caused by insufficient free water intake. It is important to rule out infection as a cause of hypernatraemia, which can increase free water loss. Mild calcification of the aortic arch is a common finding in the elderly and unrelated to the patient’s current complaint.

      Hypertonic saline infusion is not recommended as it would further increase the sodium concentration. Standard dialysis is not necessary in this case as the hypernatraemia is not profound enough. 500 ml of 10% dextrose is not appropriate as it is not equivalent to giving free water and is used to reverse hypoglycaemia. 500 ml of 0.9% saline is not the correct option for this patient, but it may be appropriate for hypovolaemic and hypotensive patients to restore circulating volume.

      The most appropriate treatment option for this patient is to provide free water, which can be achieved by administering 5% dextrose. It is important to monitor the patient’s sodium levels and fluid intake to prevent further complications. The decision to start hypertonic saline infusion or dialysis should be made by a consultant in severe cases of hypernatraemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman on vacation complained of a swollen left calf. She mentioned...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman on vacation complained of a swollen left calf. She mentioned having the 'factor V Leiden mutation'. Can you explain the pathophysiology of this mutation?

      Your Answer: Activated protein C resistance

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden: A Genetic Condition Affecting Blood Clotting

      Factor V is a protein that acts as a cofactor to allow the generation of an enzyme called thrombin, which is responsible for cleaving fibrinogen to fibrin. This process leads to the formation of a dense meshwork that makes up the majority of a clot. Activated protein C (aPC) is a natural anticoagulant that limits clotting by degrading factor V. However, in individuals with Factor V Leiden, a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, the coagulation factor cannot be destroyed by aPC.

      Factor V Leiden is caused by a single nucleotide substitution of adenine for guanine in the gene encoding factor V. This mutation changes the protein’s 506th amino acid from arginine to glutamine, which prevents efficient inactivation of factor V. As a result, factor V remains active, leading to overproduction of thrombin and excess fibrin generation, which in turn causes excess clotting.

      In summary, Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that affects blood clotting by preventing the efficient inactivation of factor V. This leads to excess clotting, which can increase the risk of developing blood clots and related complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor....

    Correct

    • A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?

      Your Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).

      It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 11 - A 36-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of breath, fever and a productive cough. She has suffered multiple severe infections over the past five years; however, she has no other past medical history.
      On examination, you note intercostal recessions and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. She has significant coarse crepitations in her right lower lobe.
      You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
      Temperature: 39.8 °C
      Heart rate: 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
      Blood pressure: 150/94 mmHg (lying) 146/90 mmHg (standing)
      Oxygen saturation: 86% on room air
      Her initial investigation findings are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 14.4 × 109/l 4–11. × 109/l
      Neutrophils 12800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
      Lymphocytes 1400 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 110 g/dl 115–155 g/dl
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 360 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Her chest X-ray shows significant consolidation in the right lower lobe.
      A blood film comes back and shows the following: sickled erythrocytes and Howell–Jolly bodies.
      A sputum culture is grown and shows Streptococcus pneumoniae, and the patient’s pneumonia is managed successfully with antibiotics and IV fluid therapy.
      What condition is predisposing this patient to severe infections?

      Your Answer: Acute chest pain crisis

      Correct Answer: Splenic dysfunction

      Explanation:

      The patient has sickle cell disease and a history of recurrent infections, indicating long-term damage to the spleen. The blood film shows signs of splenic disruption, such as Howell-Jolly bodies, and a low lymphocyte level, which may be due to reduced lymphocyte storage capacity in the shrunken spleen. This is different from a splenic sequestration crisis, which is an acute pediatric emergency. The current admission may be an acute chest pain crisis, but it is not the cause of the recurrent infections. The patient does not have acute lymphoblastic leukemia, as there is no evidence of blastic cells or pancytopenia. Advanced HIV is a possibility, but the blood film suggests sickle cell disease. While the patient is at risk of an aplastic crisis, it typically occurs in younger patients after a parvovirus B19 infection, which is not present in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 12 - A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body. He has been a smoker for 30 years, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, pulse 80/minute, respiratory rate 18/minute, and blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg. An angiogram of the brain shows blockage in a branch of the middle cerebral artery. Laboratory results indicate a haemoglobin A1c level of 80 mmol/mol (9.5%). Which component of blood lipids is the most significant factor in contributing to his condition?

      Your Answer: Oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

      Explanation:

      The patient had a stroke likely caused by cerebral atherosclerosis or embolic disease from the heart due to ischaemic heart disease from atherosclerosis. LDL brings cholesterol to arterial walls, and when there is increased LDL or hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, there is more degradation of LDL to oxidised LDL which is taken up into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages to help form atheromas. Chylomicrons transport exogenous products and are formed in intestinal epithelial cells. HDL particles remove cholesterol from the circulation and transport it back to the liver for excretion or re-utilisation. Lipoprotein lipase hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins and promotes cellular uptake of chylomicron remnants, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids. VLDL transports endogenous triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol and cholesteryl esters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath. He has...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, pallor and shortness of breath. He has been battling with an indolent colon carcinoma for the past 5 years. He also suffers from insulin-dependent diabetes, hypertension, coronary artery disease and rheumatoid arthritis. He has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks. He denies any history of melaena or haematochezia and has been amenorrhoeic for decades. A bedside stool guaiac test is negative for any blood in the stool. He is well nourished, reports taking daily supplements and is not a vegetarian. He reports that his haematocrit is 0.28 (0.35–0.55) and haemoglobin level 100 g/l (115–155 g/l).
      What additional findings would you expect to observe in his full blood count?

      Your Answer: Increased ferritin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaemia of Chronic Disease: Increased Ferritin and Decreased TIBC

      Anaemia of chronic disease is a type of anaemia that is commonly seen in patients with chronic inflammatory conditions. It is characterised by a low haemoglobin level and low haematocrit, but unlike iron deficiency anaemia, it is associated with increased ferritin levels and decreased total iron-binding capacity (TIBC). This is because ferritin is a serum reactive protein that is elevated in response to the underlying inflammatory process.

      Diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease requires the presence of a chronic inflammatory condition and anaemia, which can be either normocytic or microcytic. It is important to note that a haemoglobin level of <80 g/l is very rarely associated with this type of anaemia. Treatment involves addressing the underlying disorder causing the anaemia and monitoring the haemoglobin level. Blood transfusion is only used in severe cases. It is important to differentiate anaemia of chronic disease from other types of anaemia. For example, it is characterised by a low reticulocyte count, and not reticulocytosis. Serum transferrin receptor is not affected in anaemia of chronic disease and would therefore be normal. Additionally, TIBC is reduced in anaemia of chronic disease, whereas it is increased in iron deficiency anaemia. Finally, anaemia of chronic disease is associated with either microcytosis or normocytosis, whereas macrocytosis is associated with other types of anaemia such as folate deficiency, vitamin B12 deficiency, alcohol excess, and myelodysplastic disease. In summary, understanding the unique features of anaemia of chronic disease, such as increased ferritin and decreased TIBC, can aid in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after consuming 30 tablets...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after consuming 30 tablets of warfarin which belonged to her mother. She has diarrhoea but has no mucosal bleeding. She admits to previously attending a psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviour. She has no remarkable medical history. Her mother has a history of recurrent venous thrombosis for which she is taking warfarin.
      What will the patient’s coagulation screen likely be?

      Your Answer: Elevated prothrombin time, international normalised ratio, activated partial thromboplastin time and normal platelet counts

      Explanation:

      Warfarin poisoning is characterized by elevated prothrombin time (PT), international normalized ratio (INR), and activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), along with normal platelet counts. This is due to the drug’s ability to block the function of vitamin K epoxide reductase, leading to a depletion of the reduced form of vitamin K that serves as a cofactor for gamma carboxylation of vitamin-K-dependent coagulation factors. As a result, the vitamin-K-dependent factors cannot function properly, leading to elevated PT and INR, normal or elevated APTT, and normal platelet counts. Thrombocytopenia with normal PT, INR, and APTT can be caused by drugs like methotrexate and carboplatin isotretinoin, which induce direct myelosuppression. Decreased factor VIII levels are seen in haemophilia A, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and von Willebrand disease, but not in warfarin overdose. Isolated APTT elevation is seen in heparin overdose, while elevated fibrinogen levels can be seen in inflammation, acute coronary syndrome, and stroke, but not in warfarin overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of breath, palpitations and difficulty balancing.
      On examination, her vitals are heart rate 110 bpm at rest and 140 bpm on ambulation, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, temperature 37 ° C and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. She is pale. Her lungs are clear to auscultation; her heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs or gallops; her abdomen is soft and non-tender; she is moving all extremities equally, and a stool guaiac test is heme-negative. Her gait is wide and she has difficulty balancing. She has decreased sensation to fine touch in her feet. Her mini-mental status exam is normal.
      Blood work shows:
      Haematocrit: 0.19 (0.35–0.55)
      Mean cell volume: 110 fl (76–98 fl)
      White blood cell count: 5 × 109/l (4–11 × 109/l)
      Which one of the following findings would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord

      Correct Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Causes and Symptoms of Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. The most common cause of this deficiency is the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without it, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency and anaemia. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include fatigue, lethargy, dyspnoea on exertion, and neurological symptoms such as peripheral loss of vibration and proprioception, weakness, and paraesthesiae. If left untreated, it can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and demyelination of the spinal cord, causing ataxia.

      Diagnosis can be made with a vitamin B12 level test, which reveals anaemia, often pancytopenia, and a raised MCV. A blood film reveals hypersegmented neutrophils, megaloblasts, and oval macrocytes. Treatment involves replacement of vitamin B12.

      Other possible causes of vitamin B12 deficiency include intestinal tapeworm, which is rare, and gastrointestinal malignancy, which causes iron deficiency anaemia with a low MCV. Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord describes anterolateral sclerosis (ALS), which is characterised by progressive muscle weakness and would not cause anaemia or loss of sensation. Enlargement of the ventricles on head CT indicates hydrocephalus, which could explain the wide-based gait but not the anaemia and other symptoms. A haemoglobin A1c of 12.2% is associated with diabetes, which could explain decreased peripheral sensation to fine touch but would not be associated with megaloblastic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal swelling and discomfort along with breathlessness. Upon examination, he appears unwell and pale. The liver is palpable 12 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 15 cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The following investigations were conducted:

      Hb 59 g/L (130-180)
      RBC 2.1 ×1012/L -
      PCV 0.17 l/l -
      MCH 30 pg (28-32)
      MCV 82 fL (80-96)
      Reticulocytes 1.4% (0.5-2.4)
      Total WBC 23 ×109/L (4-11)
      Normoblasts 8% -
      Platelets 280 ×109/L (150-400)
      Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7)
      Lymphocytes 5.2 ×109/L (1.5-4)
      Monocytes 1.3 ×109/L (0-0.8)
      Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
      Basophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.1)
      Metamyelocytes 5.1 ×109/L -
      Myelocytes 1.6 ×109/L -
      Blast cells 0.4 ×109/L -

      The blood film shows anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and occasional erythrocyte tear drop cells. What is the correct term for this blood picture?

      Your Answer: Leukoerythroblastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Leukoerythroblastic Reactions and Myelofibrosis

      Leukoerythroblastic reactions refer to a condition where the peripheral blood contains immature white cells and nucleated red cells, regardless of the total white cell count. This means that even if the overall white cell count is normal, the presence of immature white cells and nucleated red cells can indicate a leukoerythroblastic reaction. Additionally, circulating blasts may also be seen in this condition.

      On the other hand, myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear drop cells. These cells are not typically seen in other conditions and are therefore considered a hallmark of myelofibrosis. Tear drop cells are red blood cells that have been distorted due to the presence of fibrous tissue in the bone marrow. This condition can lead to anemia, fatigue, and other symptoms.

      Overall, both leukoerythroblastic reactions and myelofibrosis are conditions that can be identified through specific characteristics in the peripheral blood. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these findings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 17 - What is true regarding the production of pooled plasma derivatives? ...

    Correct

    • What is true regarding the production of pooled plasma derivatives?

      Your Answer: The end product is a freeze dried product

      Explanation:

      Preparation of Plasma Derivatives

      The preparation of plasma derivatives, such as factor VIII, involves pooling several thousand plasma donations, typically 20,000 or 5,000 kg of plasma at a time. To avoid the risk of vCJD, pooled plasma has been sourced from outside the UK since 1999. The process includes several chemical steps, including ethanol extraction, chromatography, and viral inactivation, resulting in a freeze-dried product. These products have a long shelf life of several months to years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her mother takes her to the emergency doctor at their GP clinic later that day as the bleeding has not stopped. The cut is not very big and is on the girl's calf. They immediately applied pressure to the wound and then a bandage, however on examination the wound is still bleeding a little bit. The girl's mother knows that there is a bleeding disorder in her family.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Give desmopressin and tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bleeding Disorders: Haemophilia A and Von Willebrand Disease

      Haemophilia A, a genetic bleeding disorder affecting men, is characterized by a propensity to bleed with minor injuries. Diagnosis is made through a prolonged APTT on a background of normal PT and bleeding time. Treatment for minor bleeds includes desmopressin and tranexamic acid, while major bleeds require infusion with recombinant factor 8. Fresh-frozen plasma and platelets are used in major trauma as replacement therapy, while heparin is an anticoagulant and should be avoided. Von Willebrand factor is given once the diagnosis of Von Willebrand disease is confirmed. Children with severe haemophilia A should receive prophylactic infusion of factor 8 at least once a week until physical maturity, and those undergoing elective surgery or pregnant women will require prophylactic treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old man with acute myeloid leukemia is experiencing inadequate response to platelet...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with acute myeloid leukemia is experiencing inadequate response to platelet transfusions despite treatment. He is currently 2 weeks post-chemotherapy, without fever, and only minor bruising as a symptom. What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage his platelet refractoriness?

      Your Answer: Prescribe HLA matched platelets

      Correct Answer: Check for a one hour post platelet transfusion platelet count

      Explanation:

      Management of Refractory Platelet Transfusions

      Patients who do not respond to platelet transfusions should be evaluated to ensure that their platelet counts are increasing adequately. The best way to do this is by taking a blood sample one or two hours after the transfusion. If the patient’s platelet counts are still low, further investigation is necessary. However, it is not appropriate to request HLA-matched platelets or a directed platelet donation at this stage.

      Continuing to give random platelet transfusions is also not recommended. Platelets are necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to determine why the transfusions are not working. Therefore, checking for HLA antibodies is the next step in the management of refractory platelet transfusions. Once the cause of the refractory response is identified, appropriate treatment can be initiated.

      In summary, managing refractory platelet transfusions involves evaluating the patient’s response to the transfusions, checking for HLA antibodies, and determining the underlying cause of the refractory response. Platelets are still necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to address the underlying issue to ensure that the transfusions are effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His blood tests revealed a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 121 mm in the first hour. Serum protein electrophoresis revealed an M band in the gamma globulin region with a total IgG level of 70 g/l. Bone marrow biopsy shows plasma cells in the marrow of 11%. A skeletal survey reveals no abnormalities. Other blood tests revealed:
      Test Parameter Normal range
      Calcium 2.60 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Creatinine 119 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Phosphate 1.30 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase 399 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
      His body weight was 80 kg.
      What is his condition better known as?

      Your Answer: Smouldering myeloma

      Explanation:

      Smouldering myeloma is a stage between monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) and myeloma. To diagnose this condition, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of at least 30 g/l and monoclonal plasma cells of at least 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, but no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients with smouldering myeloma should be closely monitored as they are at high risk of developing symptomatic myeloma.

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant neoplasm where there is clonal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the secretion of a monoclonal antibody and light immunoglobulin chains that cause organ damage. Patients with multiple myeloma present with various symptoms, including lethargy, bone pain, pathological fractures, renal impairment, amyloidosis, and pancytopenia due to marrow infiltration. To diagnose multiple myeloma, the patient must have a monoclonal antibody in serum and/or urine, clonal plasma cells of at least 10% on bone marrow biopsy, and evidence of end-organ damage.

      MGUS is a condition where low levels of paraprotein are detected in the blood, but they are not causing clinically significant symptoms or end-organ damage. To diagnose MGUS, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of less than or equal to 30 g/l, monoclonal plasma cells of less than or equal to 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, and no evidence of end-organ damage.

      Non-secretory myeloma is a rare variant of multiple myeloma where the bone marrow findings and end-organ damage are similar to myeloma, but there is no detectable monoclonal protein in the serum or urine. This makes it difficult to diagnose.

      Plasma cell leukemia is a rare and aggressive form of multiple myeloma characterized by high levels of plasma cells circulating in the peripheral blood. It can occur as a primary condition or a secondary leukaemic transformation of multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
    On examination, his left plantar response was...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
      On examination, his left plantar response was extensor, and deep tendon jerks were increased on the left side. A computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain revealed a right-middle cerebral artery territory infarct. He was not known to have diabetes or hypertension. He was not receiving any drugs, either.
      His blood count revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 331 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophil count 145 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Metamyelocyte 3000/mm3
      Platelet 490 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Peripheral smear Many band forms, myelocytes, basophils
      What is the next appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer: Leukapheresis

      Explanation:

      Leukapheresis and Other Treatment Options for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia with High White Blood Cell Count and Ischaemic Stroke

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia can cause an extremely high white blood cell count, leading to hyperviscosity of the blood and an increased risk of ischaemic events such as stroke. While anticoagulation medications are important, they do not address the underlying issue of the high cell count. Leukapheresis is a procedure that can reduce the white cell volume by 30-60%, making it a crucial emergency treatment option. Other treatments, such as hydroxyurea and imatinib, can also be used to control disease burden. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is effective in treating chronic myeloid leukaemia with the Philadelphia chromosome translocation. Aspirin and heparin have limited roles in this scenario. While aspirin is recommended for long-term therapy after an ischaemic stroke, it does not address the hypercoagulable state caused by the high white blood cell count. Heparin is not used in the treatment of ischaemic strokes. Overall, leukapheresis should be the first step in emergency management for chronic myeloid leukaemia with a high white blood cell count and ischaemic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb 105 g/L (130-180), RBC 4.5 ×1012/L, Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52), MCV 75 fL (80-96), MCH 32.5 pg (28-32), Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400), WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0), Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0), Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1), Others 0.14 ×109/L. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this FBC result?

      Your Answer: Ferritin concentration

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of FBC Results

      When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), a microcytosis with low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and anaemia (low Hb) is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia. To confirm this, a ferritin test should be requested, followed by an investigation into the source of blood loss if iron deficiency is confirmed. If faecal occult blood is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary. On the other hand, macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV is caused by folate and B12 deficiency, while hypothyroidism is associated with elevated MCV. While a bone marrow biopsy can also show iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary in a primary care setting. Therefore, interpreting FBC results requires a thorough of the different types of anaemia and their associated causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 23 - A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal pain and exhibits tenderness upon palpation. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Pigment Gallstones and High Haem Turnover

      In cases of chronic haemolysis, such as sickle cell disease or thalassaemia, the presence of unconjugated bilirubin in bile can lead to the formation of pigment gallstones. These stones are black in color and are caused by the precipitation of calcium bilirubinate from solution. The high concentration of unconjugated bilirubin in bile is a result of the increased turnover of haemoglobin. This can cause pain and discomfort for the patient. It is important to manage the underlying condition causing the high haem turnover to prevent the formation of pigment gallstones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a two-month history of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath during physical activity. She is currently using a progesterone-only oral contraceptive and taking hydrocortisone 10 mg twice daily and fludrocortisone 100 µg per day. Her glycaemic control has been reasonable, with a last HbA1c of 65 mmol/mol (20-46), and she is receiving mixed insulin twice daily. On examination, she appears pale. A full blood count reveals the following results: haemoglobin 52 g/L (120-160), MCV 115 fL (80-96), WCC 4.2 ×109/L (4-11), platelets 126 ×109L (150-400), and MCH 32 pg (28-32). The blood film shows multilobed nuclei in neutrophils and macrophages. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic Anemia and Pernicious Anemia

      This patient is suffering from a macrocytic anemia, specifically a megaloblastic anemia, which is characterized by multilobed nuclei. The most probable cause of this condition is a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is commonly associated with pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is part of the autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome, which is linked to other autoimmune disorders such as Addison’s disease, type 1 diabetes, Sjögren’s disease, and vitiligo. Although there are other potential causes of macrocytosis, none of them are evident in this patient. Hypothyroidism, for example, does not cause megaloblastic anemia, only macrocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest pain, fever and a cough, which he has had for five days. Examination revealed signs of jaundice and the spleen was not big enough to be palpable.
      You take some basic observations:
      Temperature: 38 °C
      Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
      O2 saturation: 86%
      Heart rate: 134 bpm (regular)
      Blood pressure (lying): 134/86 mmHg
      Blood pressure (standing): 132/90 mmHg
      His initial investigation findings are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal
      White cell count (WCC) 13.8 × 109/l 4–11.0 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 7000 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
      Lymphocytes 2000 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 110 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 300 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Troponin l 0.01 ng/ml < 0.1 ng/ml
      D-dimer 0.03 μg/ml < 0.05 μg/ml
      Arterial blood gas (ABG) showed type 1 respiratory failure with a normal pH. Chest X-ray showed left lower lobe consolidation.
      The patient was treated successfully and is due for discharge tomorrow.
      Upon speaking to the patient, he reveals that he has suffered two similar episodes this year.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what medication should the patient be started on to reduce the risk of further episodes?

      Your Answer: Hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Sickle Cell Disease and Acute Chest Pain Crisis

      A patient with sickle cell disease is experiencing an acute chest pain crisis, likely due to a lower respiratory tract infection. Hydroxycarbamide is recommended as a preventative therapy to reduce the risk of future crises by increasing the amount of fetal hemoglobin and reducing the percentage of red cells with hemoglobin S. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not necessary as the patient has a raised white blood cell count. Inhaled beclomethasone is not appropriate as asthma or COPD are not likely diagnoses in this case. Oral prednisolone may be used as a preventative therapy for severe asthma, but is not recommended for COPD and is not appropriate for this patient’s symptoms. A tuberculosis (TB) vaccination may be considered for primary prevention, but would not be useful for someone who has already been infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. She reports feeling well and has not experienced any significant issues since the procedure.

      What blood test is the most effective in monitoring for the recurrence of trophoblastic disease?

      Your Answer: Beta-HCG

      Explanation:

      Hydatidiform Mole and Trophoblastic Disease

      A hydatidiform mole is a type of abnormal pregnancy that only generates placental tissue. However, approximately 10% of cases of hydatidiform mole can transform into malignant trophoblastic disease. To assess if there is any retained tissue or recurrence/malignant transformation, the best way is to measure the levels of HCG, which is primarily produced by the placenta. On the other hand, alpha-fetoprotein, CEA, and CA-125 are tumour markers associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, colonic carcinoma, and ovarian carcinoma, respectively. It is important to note that progesterone levels are not useful in determining the prognosis of trophoblastic disease. the characteristics and markers of hydatidiform mole and trophoblastic disease is crucial in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types

      Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.

      While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 28 - What are the criteria that must be met for blood used in an...

    Correct

    • What are the criteria that must be met for blood used in an exchange transfusion for a neonate?

      Your Answer: Plasma reduced whole blood in CPD less than 5-days-old and irradiated

      Explanation:

      Requirements for Exchange Transfusion

      Exchange transfusion is a medical procedure that necessitates the use of blood that has been processed to meet specific criteria. The blood used must be plasma-reduced whole blood, irradiated, and less than five days old. These requirements are necessary to ensure that the blood is free from any contaminants that could cause adverse reactions in the patient. Additionally, the Rh group of the blood used must either be Rh negative or identical to the neonate to prevent haemolytic transfusion reactions. These precautions are taken to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient undergoing the exchange transfusion. Proper blood selection is crucial in ensuring the success of the procedure and minimizing the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman with sickle-cell disease is being evaluated in Haematology Outpatients. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with sickle-cell disease is being evaluated in Haematology Outpatients. She has been admitted several times due to sickle-cell crisis and abdominal pain, and there is suspicion of multiple splenic infarcts. What blood film abnormalities would indicate hyposplenism?

      Your Answer: Howell–Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      Blood Film Abnormalities and Their Significance

      Blood film abnormalities can provide important diagnostic information about a patient’s health. One such abnormality is Howell-Jolly bodies, which are nuclear remnants found in red blood cells and indicate hyposplenism. Other abnormalities seen in hyposplenism include target cells, Pappenheimer cells, increased red cell anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, and spherocytes. Patients with hyposplenism are at increased risk of bacterial infections and should be vaccinated accordingly.

      Rouleaux formation, on the other hand, is a stack of red blood cells that stick together, forming a rouleau. This occurs in conditions where plasma protein is high, such as multiple myeloma, some infections, Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia, and some cancers.

      Schistocytes are irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells that occur due to mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as hemolytic anemia. They are not typically seen in hyposplenism.

      Tear drop cells, which are seen in conditions where there is abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis, are also not seen in hyposplenism.

      Finally, toxic granulation occurs during inflammatory processes such as bacterial infection or sepsis and refers to neutrophils which contain dark, coarse granules. It is not present in hyposplenism.

      In summary, understanding blood film abnormalities and their significance can aid in the diagnosis and management of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of...

    Correct

    • The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of transfusion) analysis?

      Your Answer: Wrong identification or mislabelling of patient or sample

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Transfusion Errors

      Mislabelling of samples, requests, or misidentifying recipients are the most frequent causes of transfusion errors. This was confirmed by the SHOT study, which examined transfusion errors and near-misses in a nationwide audit in the United Kingdom. Although other errors, such as cross-match errors, incorrect storage, and transfusion reactions due to undetected antibodies, do occur, they are infrequent.

      In summary, the SHOT study found that the most common causes of transfusion errors are related to labelling and identification. Therefore, it is crucial to implement strict protocols and procedures to ensure that samples and requests are correctly labelled and recipients are accurately identified to prevent these errors from occurring. While other errors may occur, they are rare and can be mitigated through proper training and adherence to established guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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