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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is taking haloperidol and reports experiencing a sensation of restlessness and an incapacity to remain seated since commencing her medication.
What is the appropriate term for this adverse effect of the drug?Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Akathisia is a condition characterized by a feeling of restlessness and an uncontrollable urge to move, which can lead to difficulty staying still. Symptoms may include foot stamping, leg crossing and uncrossing, and pacing. It is important to distinguish akathisia from psychotic agitation, as increasing the antipsychotic dose can worsen symptoms. Akathisia can occur within the first two weeks of taking a neuroleptic drug or even after several months of treatment. It has been linked to suicidal behavior and aggression towards others.
Dystonic reaction is a reversible extrapyramidal effect that can occur immediately or after a few hours or days of taking a neuroleptic drug. It causes sustained muscle contractions that lead to abnormal postures or repetitive movements, which may resemble a tremor. Oculogyric crisis is a type of dystonic reaction characterized by prolonged involuntary upward deviation of the eyes.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic medications. It is characterized by fever, muscular rigidity, altered level of consciousness, and autonomic instability. It usually occurs shortly after starting neuroleptic treatment or after a dose increase.
Drug-induced Parkinsonism (DIP) is a condition that can be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease. It is the second most common cause of Parkinsonism in the elderly. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication. DIP can be caused by typical and atypical antipsychotics, gastrointestinal prokinetics, calcium channel blockers, and antiepileptic drugs.
Tardive dyskinesia is a condition characterized by involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. It occurs in patients who have been treated with long-term neuroleptic drugs. Symptoms may persist even after stopping the medication, but they usually disappear within three years in about 60% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to see you by her parents.
They have been concerned as they feel her behaviour is difficult to manage. She is prone to temper tantrums and is easily irritable. More recently they have started taking her to a play group but she doesn't seem to want to play with the other children and likes to play on her own with the same toy all of the time. If they try to get her to play with a different toy or do any form of new activity she gets very upset.
During your assessment you note that her speech and language are very limited and there seems to be noticeable developmental delay in this area for her age. You attempt to play with her but she doesn't really acknowledge you and sits playing with her favourite toy throughout the consultation.
What is the most likely underlying disorder?Your Answer: Autism
Explanation:Understanding Neurodevelopmental Disorders
Neurodevelopmental disorders are a group of conditions that affect a child’s development and behavior. Autism, for instance, is characterized by impaired social and behavioral skills, language delay, and resistance to change. Children with autism have restricted and repetitive interests and activities, and they may also have a mild to moderate learning disability. ADHD, on the other hand, is characterized by hyperactivity, impulsiveness, and inattention. Children with ADHD are fidgety, easily distracted, and have difficulty sustaining attention. Conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder are also common neurodevelopmental disorders that affect a child’s behavior and social interactions.
Rett’s syndrome is a rare X-linked disorder that affects almost exclusively females. It is characterized by developmental regression, loss of motor skills, and loss of social and language skills between six and 18 months of age. Other features such as spasticity and seizures may also develop, leading to significant disability.
It is important to understand these neurodevelopmental disorders to provide appropriate support and interventions for affected children. Early diagnosis and intervention can greatly improve outcomes and quality of life for children with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia six weeks ago after experiencing flu-like symptoms and a productive cough. Despite having no history of asthma, she quit smoking three years ago due to hypertension. A chest x-ray was performed and showed consolidation in the left lower zone, but no pleural effusion or abnormal heart size. She was treated with amoxicillin for a week and her symptoms improved. Now, six weeks later, a follow-up x-ray shows that the consolidation has improved but not completely resolved. Her cough is mostly gone and is no longer productive, and she has not experienced any coughing up of blood or weight loss. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat the chest x-ray in 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the chest clinic
Explanation:As an ex-smoker, this woman is experiencing a gradual improvement in her consolidation, but she still has a persistent cough. It is recommended that she be referred for further evaluation under the 2 week wait rule to rule out the possibility of lung cancer.
Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer
Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.
For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.
In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.
Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with a medical history of asthma, Down syndrome, and hypothyroidism is seeking information about necessary tests and treatment. What is the typical presentation of thyroid disease in individuals with Down syndrome?
Your Answer: The risk of hyperthyroidism is not increased
Correct Answer: Using clinical features for diagnosis of hypothyroidism is unreliable
Explanation:Misconceptions and Clarifications about Hypothyroidism in Down Syndrome
There are several misconceptions about hypothyroidism in individuals with Down syndrome. One common misconception is that clinical features alone can be used to diagnose hypothyroidism. However, this is unreliable as symptoms can be caused by other conditions. Biochemical markers are essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Another misconception is that borderline blood abnormalities with a free T4 level less than 10 are an indication for treatment. However, treatment should only be started if hypothyroidism is confirmed with biochemical markers and not based on borderline results.
It is also important to note that screening tests for thyroid disease in individuals with Down syndrome are recommended every 1-2 years, not every three years as in the general population. This is because thyroid disease is more common in individuals with Down syndrome, with hypothyroidism being the most common.
Additionally, while individuals with Down syndrome are at an increased risk for both hypo- and hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism is much more common. Contrary to another misconception, the risk of thyroid disease in individuals with Down syndrome actually increases with age, rather than diminishing.
Overall, it is important to have accurate information about hypothyroidism in individuals with Down syndrome to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to your afternoon clinic. She has been feeling off since losing her job 3 weeks ago. She is tearful during the consultation and reports having trouble sleeping, with early morning waking, a decreased appetite resulting in some weight loss, a decreased libido, and difficulty concentrating. She feels stuck in her current situation and is unsure if there is a way out. She occasionally has thoughts of how it might be better if I wasn't here and thinks about death, but these are fleeting and not associated with any specific thoughts or plans of suicide. When asked directly, she says she couldn't do that to her family. She tells you that her mother once took pills for nerves, but she can't remember anything else.
Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.Your Answer: Mirtazepine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate Depressive Episode
A woman is experiencing a moderate depressive episode, as evidenced by her low mood lasting for more than two weeks and the presence of a somatic syndrome. The most appropriate treatment option in this case is citalopram, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. However, some patients may experience a rise in anxiety and sleep disturbances during the initial titration, which can be managed by adding nocturnal sedation such as zopiclone for a short period.
Other treatment options include risperidone, an antipsychotic with mood-stabilizing properties, and valproate, which can be used as a mood-stabilizer but should be used with caution in women of childbearing age. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline have more side-effects than SSRIs and are not typically used as first-line treatment. Mirtazapine, another antidepressant, is usually only used when an SSRI has failed.
In conclusion, citalopram is the most appropriate treatment option for a moderate depressive episode, but it is important to monitor for potential side-effects and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has reached out for a telephone consultation regarding her recent cervical smear results. She underwent the routine screening programme and is currently not experiencing any symptoms. Her last cervical smear was conducted 3 years ago and was reported as normal. She has not been vaccinated against human papillomavirus (HPV). The results of her recent test are as follows:
- High-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV): POSITIVE.
- Cytology: ABNORMAL (high-grade dyskaryosis).
What would be the next course of action in managing her condition?Your Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology
Correct Answer: Referral to colposcopy for consideration of large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Explanation:The appropriate technique to treat cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2 or CIN3) is urgent large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ). This procedure is commonly performed in the same appointment or in a prompt subsequent appointment. Cryotherapy may also be an option to remove the abnormal cells. Offering the HPV vaccination is not a correct answer as it is only offered to girls and boys aged 12 to 13. A repeat cervical smear within 3 months is also not a correct answer, as it is only offered if the high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) test result is unavailable or cytology is inadequate. Routine referral to gynaecology is also not indicated, as the patient would already be followed up by the colposcopy service.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You prescribe an antibiotic to an elderly patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Two days later they come to see you, reporting that they have developed a blistering rash over their chest and trunk. They are otherwise well, and there is no obvious cause for their symptoms. They stopped the antibiotics when the rash appeared and do not wish to restart them. Reading the British National Formulary (BNF), you learn that a rash is not a reported side-effect of the drug. The rash settles down after three days.
What is the most appropriate advice?Your Answer: Refer for skin prick testing to see if the patient is allergic to the antibiotic
Correct Answer: Complete a Yellow Card
Explanation:The Importance of Completing a Yellow Card for Adverse Drug Reactions
The Yellow Card Scheme is a valuable tool for collecting data on adverse effects of drugs, even when it is uncertain whether the drug caused the reaction. If there is a possibility that the medication caused the reaction, completing a Yellow Card is recommended.
If a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication, it is best to avoid that medication. However, if clinical reasons require confirmation, referral to an allergy clinic for skin prick testing may be necessary.
If a patient presents with a rash, it is important to consider potential causes such as food allergens or washing powder. However, rashes due to allergic reactions or irritants typically have a different appearance than other types of rashes.
Performing blood tests to exclude viral causes of a rash may not be necessary if the rash has already resolved and the patient is feeling well.
It is important to be honest with patients about the possibility that a medication may have caused a reaction. Reassuring them without further investigation may not be the best course of action. Completing a Yellow Card can help improve drug safety and prevent future adverse reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis.
Select from the list the single most important item that should be regularly monitored.Your Answer: Renal function
Explanation:Renal Adverse Drug Reactions Associated with NSAIDs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they come with a relatively high incidence of renal adverse drug reactions. These reactions are caused by changes in renal haemodynamics, which are usually mediated by prostaglandins that are affected by NSAIDs. Patients with renal impairment should avoid these drugs if possible, or use them with caution. It is important to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration and monitor renal function. NSAIDs may cause sodium and water retention, leading to deterioration of renal function and possibly renal failure. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential renal adverse drug reactions associated with NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.
She complains of a dry cough, myalgia, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has a temperature of 38.3°C and auscultation of the chest reveals bibasal crepitations.
She had seen the out of hours GP two days previously who had prescribed her amoxicillin but this has not produced a clinical response.
Blood tests show:
Haemoglobin 136 g/L (130-180)
WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 12.2 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 0.9 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Sodium 121 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 176 µmol/L (60-110)
What is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Legionella pneumophilia
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii
Explanation:Legionnaires Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Gram-negative bacillus, Legionella pneumophilia. The disease is usually associated with contaminated water cooling systems, air conditioning units, or showers. However, sporadic cases can also occur. People who travel and stay in hotels or resorts with poorly maintained air conditioning or showers are at risk of exposure to the bacteria.
The symptoms of Legionnaires disease can vary and may include gastrointestinal upset, flu-like symptoms, diarrhea, jaundice, headache, and confusion. Patients may also experience a decrease in their white blood cell count, resulting in lymphopenia. Additionally, the disease can cause the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), leading to hyponatremia. Abnormal liver and renal biochemistry occur in about half of patients.
Amoxicillin is not an effective treatment for Legionnaires disease. Instead, macrolides such as erythromycin or clarithromycin are typically used. Some doctors prefer to use quinolones as the first choice of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A researcher is conducting a study that compares a new exercise program for improving cognitive function in adults over 60 with existing methods. Her null hypothesis is that there is no difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and existing cognitive function improvement methods. After collecting sufficient data, she wants to calculate the probability of finding a statistically significant difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and the existing methods.
Which value is this referring to?Your Answer: P-value
Correct Answer: Power
Explanation:The correct term for the probability of detecting a statistically significant difference is power. It is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false and can be calculated as ‘1 – probability of a type II error’. The null hypothesis value is not a specific value used in statistics, but rather a statement that two treatments are equally effective. P-value is not the correct answer as it refers to the probability of obtaining a result by chance. Type I error value is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true, while a type II error is accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate?
Your Answer: Diltiazem is the most negatively inotropic calcium channel blocker
Correct Answer: Short-acting formulations of nifedipine should not be used for angina or hypertension
Explanation:The BNF cautions that the use of short-acting versions of nifedipine can result in significant fluctuations in blood pressure and trigger reflex tachycardia.
Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of increasing soreness, redness, and discharge from her left eye. She describes a gritty sensation in the affected eye but denies any foreign body exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and admits to wearing contact lenses for up to 16 hours daily. She has stopped using contact lenses since the onset of symptoms and is currently wearing glasses.
During the examination, the left eye appears inflamed and red with excessive tearing, while the right eye is normal. No abnormalities are observed in the periorbital tissues, and the patient's visual acuity is normal with glasses.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Advise to not wear contact lenses for the next seven days
Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:If a contact lens wearer complains of a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out microbial keratitis. While conjunctivitis is the most common cause of a red eye, it can be managed with antibiotics in primary care. However, contact lens wearers are at a higher risk of developing microbial keratitis, which can lead to serious complications such as visual loss. It can be difficult to distinguish between the two conditions, and a slit-lamp examination is necessary. Therefore, immediate referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary. Contact lenses should not be used, and medical treatment is required. It is important to note that steroid eye drops should not be prescribed for acute red eye from primary care. While artificial tears can be helpful for uncomplicated dry eyes, they are not recommended in cases of infection.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).
Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.
Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 13
Incorrect
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As a GP for a busy clinic, your final patient of the day is an 8-year-old boy with a rash. He has been experiencing cold symptoms for a few days and today a bright red rash appeared on his cheeks. The rash has now spread across his entire body, except for his palms and the soles of his feet. During the examination, everything appears normal except for the rash. You provide reassurance to the boy and his mother that this is slapped cheek syndrome and that the rash should disappear within a week. They inquire about how long he should stay home from school. What is your recommendation?
Your Answer: She should stay off school until 24 hours from the onset of the rash
Correct Answer: Exclusion from school is not necessary
Explanation:There is no need to exclude a child with slapped cheek disease from school or childcare setting as they are no longer contagious once the rash appears.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of fever, dry cough, chest pain and worsening shortness of breath. He experienced a mild headache, myalgia and malaise the day before. He has been healthy in recent weeks and works as an air conditioning system installer and repairer. There are no known underlying medical conditions. What is the most probable causative organism for this infection?
Your Answer: Legionella species
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Pneumonia: A Case Study
Pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be caused by various pathogens. In this case study, the patient presents with symptoms of high fever, chills, rigours, and a cough. To determine the cause of the pneumonia, different pathogens are considered.
Legionella species is a possible cause, as it is commonly found in recirculating water systems and can be transmitted through inhalation of contaminated water droplets. However, the patient doesn’t have any known exposure to such systems.
Staphylococcus aureus is another potential cause, but the patient doesn’t have any risk factors for staphylococcal pneumonia, which typically occurs in immunosuppressed individuals or intravenous drug users.
Chlamydia psittaci is unlikely, as the patient has not been exposed to birds, which is a common source of infection.
Mycoplasma spp. is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, but the patient’s symptoms came on acutely, whereas mycoplasma pneumonia typically has a gradual onset.
Pneumocystis jirovecii is also unlikely, as it is typically seen in immunosuppressed patients with a history of HIV.
In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors, Legionella species is a possible cause of pneumonia, but further testing is needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Type 1 bipolar disorder
Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder
Explanation:The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the potential impact on their child's overall health. They have heard that autism may be associated with various medical issues. Which of the following characteristics is not more prevalent in a child with autism than in the general population? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Common Co-Occurring Conditions in Children with Autism
Children with autism often experience co-occurring conditions that can impact their overall health and well-being. While some parents have reported success with a gluten-free diet for their child’s autism symptoms, there is no solid evidence to support this approach. Additionally, children with autism may also have ADHD, epilepsy, and sensory impairments such as hearing or vision impairment. It’s important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these potential co-occurring conditions and work with healthcare professionals to address them appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 17
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl has a sore throat.
Select from the list the single feature that would make it LESS likely that this is a streptococcal infection.Your Answer: Cough
Explanation:Differentiating between Viral Sore Throat and Group A β-haemolytic Streptococcus
It can be challenging to distinguish between a viral sore throat and one caused by Group A β-haemolytic streptococcus (GABS) through examination alone. However, the Centor criteria can be useful in making this differentiation. These criteria include the presence of tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes, absence of cough, and a history of fever. If a patient has three of these signs, there is a 40-60% chance that they have GABS. Conversely, if a patient doesn’t have three of these signs, there is an 80% chance that they have a viral infection. Additionally, the presence of a scarlet fever-like rash, a flushed face, circumoral pallor, and a white or red strawberry tongue may also suggest the possibility of a streptococcal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and myalgia. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8°C and there are no other notable findings. You advise her to take fluids and paracetamol and to contact you if her symptoms do not improve. She returns after a week with a worsening cough that is now accompanied by blood and a severe headache. During the examination, you observe a faint macular rash on her face, and she has mild tachypnoea but minimal chest signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psittacosis
Explanation:Psittacosis: A Rare Illness Caused by Bird Exposure
Psittacosis is a rare illness caused by Chlamydophila psittaci, which is carried by birds, particularly parrots. The incubation period is 1-4 weeks, and symptoms include myalgia, cough, headache, and flu-like symptoms. It presents as a community-acquired pneumonia with marked signs of systemic illness, including fever and lassitude. Other symptoms include a non-productive cough, dyspnoea, sore throat, nosebleeds, and occasionally pleuritic chest pain. Severe headache and photophobia are common, and gastrointestinal symptoms may occur. Rose spots, called Horder’s spots, can appear on the face. The chest x-ray may look worse than the clinical signs suggest, and bradycardia and splenomegaly are common. Treatment is with tetracycline, and the prognosis is good if early antibiotic therapy is given.
Compared to influenza, which typically lasts for 3-5 days, psittacosis has a more gradual onset and lasts longer. L pneumophila is another possible cause of atypical pneumonia, but exposure to birds points to psittacosis. Typical community-acquired pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia, has a more acute onset and significant focal chest signs. Therefore, it is important to consider psittacosis in patients with bird exposure and atypical pneumonia symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 67-year-old woman with longstanding varicose veins. A couple of weeks ago, she experienced pain and redness around one of them, which resolved after using ibuprofen gel for a few weeks. Upon examination, her legs appear normal except for the varicose veins, and she has normal distal pulses. Based on current NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine referral to vascular services
Explanation:Patients with varicose veins and a history of superficial thrombophlebitis should be referred for routine referral to vascular services according to NICE guidance. This condition is usually self-limiting but has a high likelihood of recurrence without treatment. Dermatology is not involved in this condition, and ABPI is usually used in the context of peripheral arterial disease or compression bandaging. Class 2 compression stockings are used in the treatment of varicose veins without complications in primary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What could be the probable reason for visual hallucinations in an 85-year-old woman named Edith who sees frightening faces on the walls and insects on the floor, despite being aware that they are not real? She has a medical history of hypertension, depression, hearing loss, and macular degeneration.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome can lead to distressing visual hallucinations in approximately one-third of those affected. While Lewy body dementia may also cause visual hallucinations and cognitive impairment, it is less likely in the absence of other neuropsychiatric symptoms. Acute psychosis typically involves auditory hallucinations and delusions, while psychotic depression is characterized by severe depression and the emergence of psychotic symptoms.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presents with decreased hearing in his left ear. Upon examination, there are no signs of acute infection, but both eardrums appear dull. Tuning-fork tests are performed, revealing that bone conduction is heard better than air conduction on the left side (the affected ear) during Rinne's test, while Weber's test localizes to the left ear. Rinne's test on the right side shows air conduction better than bone conduction. What type of hearing loss is present in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right-sided conductive hearing loss
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Hearing Loss: A Case Study
In this case study, the patient presents with hearing loss in their right ear. To determine the type of hearing loss, various tests were conducted.
Right-sided conductive hearing loss was ruled out as bone conduction was better than air conduction in the affected ear. Left-sided conductive hearing loss was also ruled out as Rinne’s test was normal on the left side.
Non-organic hearing loss was considered but ultimately ruled out as the patient’s history was convincing and their tympanic membrane appeared normal.
Left-sided sensorineural hearing loss and right-sided sensorineural hearing loss were both ruled out as they would have caused a reduction in both air and bone conduction.
The final diagnosis was right-sided conductive hearing loss. It is important to differentiate between the types of hearing loss as treatment options vary depending on the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Bangladeshi woman who is 22-weeks pregnant presents to your clinic. She is currently carrying a twin pregnancy without any complications and her pregnancy is progressing smoothly. She has no other medical issues. The patient is planning to travel to Bangladesh to visit her family and seeks advice on the matter.
What would be the most suitable recommendation to provide to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most airlines will not allow travel after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies, and she will require a note from her doctor or midwife when she is over 28 weeks
Explanation:Pregnant women can generally fly safely if their pregnancy is progressing well, but it is important to check with the airline and insurance company before traveling. However, most airlines have restrictions on travel after 37 weeks of pregnancy or after 32 weeks for multiple pregnancies. Additionally, women over 28 weeks pregnant may need a letter from their doctor or midwife confirming their due date and good health. It is also recommended to bring along pregnancy notes when traveling.
The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green frothy offensive vaginal discharge that started one week ago. On examination, her vagina is erythematous. She also has dysuria and dyspareunia.
What is the most suitable diagnostic method in General Practice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Culture of a vaginal swab
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Trichomoniasis in Women
Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. In women, it can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge, itching, and pain during sex. To diagnose trichomoniasis, several diagnostic methods are available.
Culture of a vaginal swab is the standard for diagnosis. It is more sensitive and specific than microscopy. Swab specimens may be obtained by the patient, making it useful in resource-poor settings. The GP may also consider testing for other sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
Cervical smear has a low sensitivity for detecting Trichomonas and is not used for this purpose. The ‘whiff test’ (amine odour test) and vaginal pH test are not accurate means of diagnosing trichomoniasis as they may also indicate bacterial vaginosis.
Wet-mount microscopy has historically been used to diagnose trichomoniasis in women. However, it has a low sensitivity in detecting T vaginalis and specimens have to be examined fresh.
In conclusion, culture of a vaginal swab is the most reliable method for diagnosing trichomoniasis in women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a routine cervical smear. Her previous three smears have all been negative.
However, this latest smear has revealed mild dyskaryosis. The local cervical screening programme has also included HPV (human papillomavirus) testing as part of the screening process. Her sample has tested 'positive' for high-risk HPV.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:HPV Triage in NHS Cervical Cancer Screening Programme
HPV triage is a new addition to the NHS cervical cancer screening programme. It involves testing cytology samples of women with borderline changes or mild dyskaryosis for high-risk HPV types that are linked to cervical cancer development. The aim is to refer women with abnormalities for colposcopy and further investigation, and if necessary, treatment. However, only a small percentage of women referred for colposcopy actually require treatment as low-grade abnormalities often resolve on their own. HPV testing provides additional information to help determine who needs onward referral for colposcopy and who doesn’t. Women who test negative for high-risk HPV are simply returned to routine screening recall, while those who test positive are referred for colposcopy. HPV testing is also used as a ‘test of cure’ for women who have been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and have returned for follow-up cytology. Those with ‘normal’, ‘borderline’, or ‘mild dyskaryosis’ smear results who are HPV negative are returned to 3 yearly recall.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What are the primary indications for administering alpha blockers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertension + benign prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Understanding Alpha Blockers
Alpha blockers are medications that are commonly prescribed for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. These drugs work by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors in the body, which can help to relax the smooth muscles in the prostate gland and blood vessels, leading to improved urine flow and lower blood pressure. Some examples of alpha blockers include doxazosin and tamsulosin.
While alpha blockers can be effective in managing these conditions, they can also cause side effects. Some of the most common side effects of alpha blockers include postural hypotension, drowsiness, dyspnea, and cough. Patients who are taking alpha blockers should be aware of these potential side effects and should speak with their healthcare provider if they experience any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of joint pains and muscle aches that have been developing over the past few months. She also reports experiencing extreme fatigue and hair loss during the same period. She has been taking omeprazole for dyspepsia recently. A blood test shows positive results for anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies (anti-dsDNA).
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Connective Tissue Disorders: Differential Diagnosis Based on Antibody Subtypes
Connective tissue disorders can present with similar symptoms such as joint and muscle pains and fatigue. However, the specific antibody subtype can help differentiate between different conditions.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is highly associated with anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies (anti-dsDNA), which has a sensitivity of 70% and is variable based on disease activity. On the other hand, drug-induced lupus erythematosus is associated with omeprazole but rarely presents with positive anti-dsDNA antibodies.
Rheumatoid arthritis is more likely to present with positive rheumatoid factor and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies, while scleroderma is associated with anti-centromere antibodies and anti-Scl-70.
Sjögren syndrome, which commonly presents with dry eyes, mouth, and skin, can also cause fatigue and joint pains. However, it is more likely to be associated with positive anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies rather than anti-dsDNA antibodies.
Therefore, understanding the specific antibody subtype can aid in the differential diagnosis of connective tissue disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her mental health. She was involved in a serious car accident three months ago and has been avoiding driving ever since. She experiences flashbacks and nightmares and has become increasingly isolated and anxious. The doctor suspects post-traumatic stress disorder.
What is a diagnostic criterion for post-traumatic stress disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoidance of people associated with the event
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event that threatens physical integrity or life. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5), outlines the core diagnostic criteria for PTSD, which include recurrent intrusive symptoms such as memories, nightmares, and flashbacks. Additionally, individuals with PTSD may exhibit persistent avoidance of thoughts, feelings, or external factors associated with the traumatic event, as well as negative changes in mood or thoughts and changes in arousal or reactivity.
It is important to note that anxiety and depression often coexist with PTSD, but they are not diagnostic features. Similarly, substance abuse cannot be the primary cause of the disturbance in order for a PTSD diagnosis to be made. Recurrent early awakening, a symptom of dysthymia, is not part of the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.
Overall, understanding the diagnostic criteria for PTSD can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and treat this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman, who is a frequent IV drug user, presents with a 2-week history of intermittent fever and fatigue. During examination, her temperature is 38.5 °C, heart rate 84 bpm and blood pressure 126/72 mmHg. A soft pansystolic murmur is detected along the right sternal margin and there is an area of tenderness and cellulitis in the left groin.
What is the most suitable first step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency admission to the hospital
Explanation:Emergency Management of Suspected Infective Endocarditis
Suspected infective endocarditis is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent hospital admission. IV drug use is a major risk factor for this condition, which presents with fever and a new cardiac murmur. Oral therapy is not recommended due to concerns about efficacy, and IV therapy is preferred to ensure adequate dosing and administration. It is important to obtain blood cultures before starting antibiotics to isolate the causative organism. Ultrasound scan for a groin abscess is not necessary as it would not explain the pansystolic murmur on examination. Echocardiography is indicated but should not delay urgent treatment. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent permanent cardiac damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are asked to evaluate a 20-year-old man who has been experiencing recurrent pneumothoraces. He is tall, has pes planus, and exhibits increased arm-span-to-height and upper-to-lower-segment body ratios. What additional feature would be most useful in diagnosing Marfan syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early diastolic murmur
Explanation:Clinical Features of Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the body’s connective tissue. There are two major diagnostic criteria for Marfan syndrome: aortic-root dilatation and ectopia lentis. However, there are also several clinical features that may indicate the presence of the syndrome.
One such feature is an early diastolic murmur, which can be caused by aortic-valve incompetence and may indicate aortic-root dilatation. Another feature is a mid-systolic click, which is most likely the result of a mitral valve prolapse. Arachnodactyly and joint hypermobility are also features of Marfan syndrome, but they are considered minor criteria. A high-arched palate is another clinical feature of the syndrome.
It is important to note that while these features may suggest the presence of Marfan syndrome, a proper diagnosis can only be made through genetic testing and evaluation by a medical professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old male with prostate cancer visits his doctor complaining of lower back pain accompanied by shooting pains down both legs to the knee. During the examination, the doctor observes decreased tone in the lower limbs and is unable to elicit ankle and knee reflexes.
What is the probable location of the lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cauda equina
Explanation:The classic presentation of cauda equina syndrome includes lower back pain, reduced perianal sensation, and sciatica, with urinary incontinence as a late sign. Bilateral sciatica and lower back pain are typical symptoms. Referred hip pain may be felt in the knee and lower back, but it would not be associated with sciatica or lower motor neuron signs in the legs. A conus medullaris lesion would present with leg weakness and early painless retention and constipation. A sciatic nerve lesion would not be bilateral, so it is unlikely in a patient with bilateral sciatica and lower back pain. A bilateral L5 nerve root lesion would cause sciatica that may extend to the toes, numbness in the foot and/or toes (especially on the side of the big toe), and foot drop, but ankle and knee reflexes would remain intact.
Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome
Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. This can lead to permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness, as well as urinary and bowel incontinence. It is important to consider CES in any patient who presents with new or worsening lower back pain.
The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically occurring at L4/5 or L5/S1. Other causes include tumors, infections, trauma, and hematomas. CES may present in a variety of ways, including low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation or pins-and-needles in the perianal area, and decreased anal tone. Urinary dysfunction, such as incontinence, reduced awareness of bladder filling, and loss of urge to void, is also a possible symptom.
It is crucial to recognize that there is no one symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude CES. However, checking anal tone in patients with new-onset back pain is good practice, even though studies show that it has poor sensitivity and specificity for CES. In case of suspected CES, an urgent MRI is necessary. The management of CES involves surgical decompression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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