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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to you with complaints of worsening shortness of breath, weakness, lethargy, and a recent episode of syncope after running to catch a bus. She has a history of atrial flutter and takes bisoprolol regularly. During the physical examination, you notice a high-pitched, diastolic decrescendo murmur that intensifies during inspiration. She also has moderate peripheral edema. A chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Aortic valve replacement followed by aspirin, clopidogrel and simvastatin
Correct Answer: Diuretics, oxygen therapy, bosentan
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pulmonary Hypertension
Pulmonary hypertension (PAH) is a condition that can cause shortness of breath, weakness, and tiredness. A high-pitched decrescendo murmur may indicate pulmonary regurgitation and PAH. Diuretics can help reduce the pressure on the right ventricle and remove excess fluid. Oxygen therapy can improve exercise tolerance, and bosentan can slow the progression of PAH by inhibiting vasoconstriction. Salbutamol and ipratropium inhalers are appropriate for COPD, but not for PAH. Salbutamol nebulizer and supplemental oxygen are appropriate for acute exacerbations of asthma or COPD, but not for PAH. Aortic valve replacement is not indicated for PAH. Antiplatelets may be helpful for reducing the risk of thrombosis. Increasing bisoprolol may be helpful for atrial flutter, but not for PAH. High-dose calcium-channel blockers may be used for PAH with right heart failure under senior supervision/consultation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old man comes in with a sudden onset of severe central chest pain that has been going on for an hour. He has no significant medical history. His vital signs are stable with a heart rate of 90 bpm and blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg. An electrocardiogram reveals 5 mm of ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads (V2–V4). He was given aspirin (300 mg) and diamorphine (5 mg) in the ambulance. What is the definitive treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Percutaneous coronary intervention
Explanation:Treatment Options for ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction
ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to save the myocardium. The two main treatment options are primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and fibrinolysis. Primary PCI is the preferred option for patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset and can undergo the procedure within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given.
In addition to PCI or fibrinolysis, patients with acute MI should receive dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and a second anti-platelet drug, such as clopidogrel or ticagrelor, for up to 12 months. Patients undergoing PCI should also receive unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin, such as enoxaparin.
While glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors like tirofiban may be used to reduce the risk of immediate vascular occlusion in intermediate- and high-risk patients undergoing PCI, they are not the definitive treatment. Similarly, fibrinolysis with tissue plasminogen activator should only be given if primary PCI cannot be delivered within the recommended timeframe.
Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction to improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to cardiology outpatients after being lost to follow-up for 2 years. He has a significant cardiac history, including two previous myocardial infarctions, peripheral vascular disease, and three transient ischemic attacks. He is also a non-insulin-dependent diabetic. During examination, his JVP is raised by 2 cm, and he has peripheral pitting edema to the mid-calf bilaterally and bilateral basal fine inspiratory crepitations. His last ECHO, performed 3 years ago, showed moderately impaired LV function and mitral regurgitation. He is currently taking bisoprolol, aspirin, simvastatin, furosemide, ramipril, and gliclazide. Which medication, if added, would provide prognostic benefit?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Heart Failure Medications: Prognostic and Symptomatic Benefits
Heart failure is a prevalent disease that can be managed with various medications. These medications can be divided into two categories: those with prognostic benefits and those with symptomatic benefits. Prognostic medications help improve long-term outcomes, while symptomatic medications provide relief from symptoms.
Prognostic medications include selective beta-blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin II antagonists, and spironolactone. In the RALES trial, spironolactone was shown to reduce all-cause mortality by 30% in patients with heart failure and an ejection fraction of less than 35%.
Symptomatic medications include loop diuretics, digoxin, and vasodilators such as nitrates and hydralazine. These medications provide relief from symptoms but do not improve long-term outcomes.
Other medications, such as nifedipine, sotalol, and naftidrofuryl, are used to manage other conditions such as angina, hypertension, and peripheral and cerebrovascular disorders, but are not of prognostic benefit in heart failure.
Treatment for heart failure can be tailored to each individual case, and heart transplant remains a limited option for certain patient groups. Understanding the benefits and limitations of different medications can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain. He has a medical history of angina, hypertension, high cholesterol, and is a current smoker. Upon arrival, a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right coronary artery
Explanation:ECG Changes and Localisation of Infarct in Coronary Artery Disease
Patients with chest pain and multiple risk factors for cardiac disease require prompt evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes can help localise the infarct to a particular territory, which can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
Inferior infarcts are often due to lesions in the right coronary artery, as evidenced by ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. However, in 20% of cases, this can also be caused by an occlusion of a dominant left circumflex artery.
Lateral infarcts involve branches of the left anterior descending (LAD) and left circumflex arteries, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads I, aVL, and V5-6. It is unusual for a lateral STEMI to occur in isolation, and it usually occurs as part of a larger territory infarction.
Anterior infarcts are caused by blockage of the LAD artery, and are characterised by ST elevation in leads V1-V6.
Blockage of the right marginal artery does not have a specific pattern of ECG changes associated with it, and it is not one of the major coronary vessels.
In summary, understanding the ECG changes associated with different coronary arteries can aid in localising the infarct and guiding appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman is admitted with central chest pain of 18 hours’ duration and shortness of breath. Her troponin is elevated, and her electrocardiogram (ECG) shows changes in leads V2–V6. While undergoing initial management in preparation for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (primary PCI), she deteriorates suddenly and goes into cardiac arrest. Efforts to resuscitate her are unsuccessful. At post-mortem, rupture of the left ventricular cardiac wall is evident at the apex.
Which is the most likely blood vessel to have been involved in the infarct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and Their Blood Supply to the Heart
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. There are four main coronary arteries that provide blood to different parts of the heart.
The anterior interventricular artery, also known as the left anterior descending artery, supplies blood to the apex of the heart, as well as the anterior part of the interventricular septum and adjacent anterior walls of the right and left ventricles.
The right marginal artery supplies the anteroinferior aspect of the right ventricle.
The posterior interventricular artery supplies the interventricular septum and adjacent right and left ventricles on the diaphragmatic surface of the heart, but does not reach the apex.
The circumflex artery supplies the posterolateral aspect of the left ventricle.
Finally, the conus branch of the right coronary artery supplies the outflow tract of the right ventricle.
Understanding the blood supply to different parts of the heart is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to the hospital with complaints of shortness of breath, extreme weakness, and epigastric pain that started 30 minutes ago while she was using the restroom. She is still experiencing these symptoms and is sweating profusely. Her heart rate is 150 bpm, and her blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg. An ECG is ordered, which shows elevated ST segments in consecutive leads and Q waves. What is the most probable cause of this woman's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Completely occlusive thrombus
Explanation:Causes of Chest Pain: Understanding Myocardial Infarction and Other Conditions
Chest pain can be a symptom of various conditions, including myocardial infarction, coronary artery stenosis, coronary vasospasm, partially occlusive thrombus, and pulmonary embolism. Understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Myocardial Infarction
Myocardial infarction, or heart attack, is a serious condition that occurs when a completely occlusive thrombus blocks blood flow to the heart. Women are more likely to experience atypical symptoms such as shortness of breath, weakness, and fatigue, rather than the typical substernal chest pain. However, heart rate, blood pressure, and ECG changes indicate a myocardial infarction.
Coronary Artery Stenosis
Coronary artery stenosis causes stable angina, which subsides with rest. It is characterized by a narrowing of the coronary arteries that supply blood to the heart.
Coronary Vasospasm
Coronary vasospasm is the cause of Prinzmetal’s angina, which presents as intermittent chest pain at rest. It is caused by the sudden constriction of the coronary arteries.
Partially Occlusive Thrombus
A partially occlusive thrombus may present similarly to a completely occlusive thrombus, but it does not usually cause an elevation in the ST segment.
Pulmonary Embolism
A pulmonary embolism is an occlusion of circulation in the lungs and presents as severe shortness of breath. However, it does not typically cause the specific ECG changes seen in myocardial infarction.
Understanding the differences between these conditions can help healthcare professionals accurately diagnose and treat chest pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A typically healthy and fit 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with palpitations that have been ongoing for 4 hours. He reports no chest pain, has a National Early Warning Score (NEWS) of 0, and the only physical finding is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms that the patient is experiencing atrial fibrillation. The patient has no notable medical history.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medical cardioversion (amiodarone or flecainide)
Explanation:Management of Atrial Fibrillation: Treatment Options and Considerations
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt management to prevent complications. The following are the treatment options and considerations for managing AF:
Investigations for Reversible Causes
Before initiating any treatment, the patient should be investigated for reversible causes of AF, such as hyperthyroidism and alcohol. Blood tests (TFTs, FBC, U and Es, LFTs, and coagulation screen) and a chest X-ray should be performed.Medical Cardioversion
If no reversible causes are found, medical cardioversion is the most appropriate treatment for haemodynamically stable patients who present within 48 hours of the onset of AF. Amiodarone or flecainide can be used for this purpose.DC Cardioversion
DC cardioversion is indicated for haemodynamically unstable patients, including those with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. It is also appropriate if medical cardioversion fails.Anticoagulation Therapy with Warfarin
Patients who remain in persistent AF for over 48 hours should have their CHA2DS2 VASc score calculated. If the score is equal to or greater than 1 for men or equal to or greater than 2 for women, anticoagulation therapy with warfarin should be initiated.Radiofrequency Ablation
Radiofrequency ablation is not a suitable treatment for acute AF.24-Hour Three Lead ECG Tape
Sending the patient home with a 24-hour three lead ECG tape and reviewing them in one week is not necessary as the diagnosis of AF has already been established.In summary, the management of AF involves investigating for reversible causes, considering medical or DC cardioversion, initiating anticoagulation therapy with warfarin if necessary, and avoiding radiofrequency ablation for acute AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who is a known alcoholic is brought to the Emergency Department after being found unconscious. Over several hours, he regains consciousness. His blood alcohol level is high and a head computerised tomography (CT) scan is negative, so you diagnose acute intoxication. A routine chest X-ray demonstrated an enlarged globular heart. An echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45%.
What is the most likely cause of his cardiac pathology, and what might gross examination of his heart reveal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol and dilation of all four chambers of the heart
Explanation:Alcohol and its Effects on Cardiomyopathy: Understanding the Relationship
Alcohol consumption has been linked to various forms of cardiomyopathy, a condition that affects the heart muscle. One of the most common types of cardiomyopathy is dilated cardiomyopathy, which is characterized by the dilation of all four chambers of the heart. This condition results in increased end-diastolic volume, decreased contractility, and depressed ejection fraction. Chronic alcohol use is a significant cause of dilated cardiomyopathy, along with viral infections, toxins, genetic mutations, and trypanosome infections.
Chagas’ disease, caused by trypanosomes, can lead to cardiomyopathy, resulting in the dilation of all four chambers of the heart. On the other hand, alcoholic cardiomyopathy leads to the dilation of all four chambers of the heart, including the atria. Alcohol consumption can also cause concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle, which is commonly seen in long-term hypertension. Asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum is another form of cardiomyopathy that can result from alcohol consumption. This condition is known as hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, a genetic disease that can lead to sudden cardiac death in young athletes.
In conclusion, understanding the relationship between alcohol consumption and cardiomyopathy is crucial in preventing and managing this condition. It is essential to limit alcohol intake and seek medical attention if any symptoms of cardiomyopathy are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A final-year medical student is taking a history from a 63-year-old patient as a part of their general practice attachment. The patient informs her that she has a longstanding heart condition, the name of which she cannot remember. The student decides to review an old electrocardiogram (ECG) in her notes, and from it she is able to see that the patient has atrial fibrillation (AF).
Which of the following ECG findings is typically found in AF?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absent P waves
Explanation:Common ECG Findings and Their Significance
Electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate the electrical activity of the heart. It records the heart’s rhythm and detects any abnormalities. Here are some common ECG findings and their significance:
1. Absent P waves: Atrial fibrillation causes an irregular pulse and palpitations. ECG findings include absent P waves and irregular QRS complexes.
2. Long PR interval: A long PR interval indicates heart block. First-degree heart block is a fixed prolonged PR interval.
3. T wave inversion: T wave inversion can occur in fast atrial fibrillation, indicating cardiac ischaemia.
4. Bifid P wave (p mitrale): Bifid P waves are caused by left atrial hypertrophy.
5. ST segment elevation: ST segment elevation typically occurs in myocardial infarction. However, it may also occur in pericarditis and subarachnoid haemorrhage.
Understanding these ECG findings can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various cardiac conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What hormone does the heart produce under stressed conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Explanation:The cardiovascular system relies on a complex network of hormones and signaling molecules to regulate blood pressure, fluid balance, and other physiological processes. Here are some key players in this system:
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP): This hormone is secreted by the ventricle in response to stretch, and levels are elevated in heart failure.
Angiotensin II: This hormone is produced mostly in the lungs where angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) concentrations are maximal.
C-type natriuretic peptide: This signaling molecule is produced by the endothelium, and not the heart.
Nitric oxide: This gasotransmitter is released tonically from all endothelial lined surfaces, including the heart, in response to both flow and various agonist stimuli.
Renin: This enzyme is released from the kidney, in response to reductions in blood pressure, increased renal sympathetic activity or reduced sodium and chloride delivery to the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Understanding the roles of these hormones and signaling molecules is crucial for managing cardiovascular health and treating conditions like heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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