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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old insulin-treated diabetic patient is seeking guidance on blood glucose monitoring before embarking on a 300-mile road trip for an upcoming vacation. Assuming no symptoms or signs of hypoglycemia or increased risk, what advice would you offer?
Your Answer: Test blood glucose within 2 hours of starting and then if any symptoms of hypoglycaemia appear
Correct Answer: Test blood glucose within 2 hours of starting and every two hours thereafter
Explanation:DVLA Guidelines for Drivers with Diabetes
The DVLA has issued guidelines for drivers with diabetes to ensure their safety while driving. According to the guidelines, drivers with diabetes should be cautious to avoid hypoglycemia and should be aware of the warning signs and necessary actions to take. For those who are treated with insulin, it is recommended to always carry a glucose meter and blood-glucose strips while driving. Additionally, they should check their blood-glucose concentration no more than 2 hours before driving and every 2 hours while driving. If there is a higher risk of hypoglycemia due to physical activity or altered meal routine, more frequent self-monitoring may be required. These guidelines are crucial for the safety of both the driver and other individuals on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is the most common cause of hypopituitarism in elderly individuals?
Your Answer: Anterior pituitary tumour
Explanation:Causes of Hypopituitarism: Understanding Anterior Pituitary Tumours
Hypopituitarism is a condition characterized by the underproduction of hormones by the pituitary gland. While several factors can cause this condition, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. These tumours, including adenomas and other brain tumours, can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic to acute pituitary failure with acute collapse and coma. The presentation depends on the aetiology, rapidity of onset, and predominant hormones involved.
In addition to causing hypopituitarism, space-occupying lesions may produce headaches and visual-field defects. Large lesions involving the hypothalamus may produce polydipsia and inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
While autoimmune disorders, anterior pituitary infarction, head injury, and sarcoidosis can also cause hypopituitarism, they are less common than anterior pituitary tumours. Lymphocytic hypophysitis is a rare autoimmune inflammatory disorder of the pituitary, usually associated with pregnancy. Postpartum pituitary necrosis (Sheehan syndrome) is caused by ischaemic necrosis, due to blood loss and hypovolemic shock during and after childbirth. Traumatic brain injury as a cause is being more frequently recognized. The hypothalamus is the most frequently involved of all the endocrine glands in sarcoidosis, and hypothalamic insufficiency is the major cause for hypopituitarism.
In summary, while several factors can cause hypopituitarism, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. Understanding the symptoms and potential causes of hypopituitarism is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalized aches and lack of energy. Her urea and electrolyte concentrations are within normal limits, but her corrected calcium concentration is 1.98 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) and phosphate is low at 0.66 mmol/L (0.8-1.4). Further investigations reveal a 25-hydroxy vitamin D level of 12 IU/L (15-50) and a parathyroid hormone level of 25 (3-6). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin D Deficiency and Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
This patient is experiencing vitamin D deficiency, which is indicated by a low 25-hydroxy vitamin D level and resulting hypocalcaemia. As a metabolic compensation, the patient is experiencing secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is demonstrated by elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. It is important to note that in primary hyperparathyroidism, one would expect an elevated calcium concentration and low phosphate. However, in cases of pseudohypoparathyroidism and pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, an elevated phosphate would be expected. By understanding the specific metabolic compensations and symptoms associated with different conditions, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about hypocalcaemia?
Your Answer: 90% of vitamin D found in the body is obtained from the diet, and poor dietary intake is the commonest cause of hypovitaminosis
Correct Answer: The commonest cause in primary care is vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency and Treatment in Hypoparathyroidism
Vitamin D deficiency is a common problem, especially in the elderly, with up to 50% of individuals affected. The majority of vitamin D in the body is synthesized in the skin, with only a small amount coming from the diet. Breastfeeding mothers with low vitamin D levels may lead to hypocalcemia in their children, as breast milk has poor penetration of vitamin D. Patients on antiepileptic drugs and those with small intestinal malabsorption, such as celiac disease, are also at risk for vitamin D deficiency.
Chvostek’s sign, which is facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve is tapped, and Trousseau’s sign, which involves inflating a blood pressure cuff, are used to diagnose hypocalcemia. Vitamin D requires hydroxylation by the kidney to become active, and the synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D is PTH-dependent. In patients with chronic hypoparathyroidism, treatment with the active vitamin D form, such as alfacalcidol or calcitriol, is necessary. Ergocalciferol may also be used, but higher doses may be required to achieve normocalcemia. Understanding vitamin D deficiency and its treatment is crucial in managing hypoparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 90-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).
TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L, while free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently asymptomatic and in good health. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer: Start carbimazole
Correct Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time
Explanation:According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men and those with thyroid autoantibodies.
The management of subclinical hypothyroidism depends on the TSH levels and the presence of symptoms. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients with a TSH level greater than 10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels should be considered for levothyroxine treatment. For those with a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be offered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms. However, for older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients should have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent it from progressing to overt hypothyroidism. The decision to treat or not depends on the patient’s age, symptoms, and TSH levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She tells you she is going to attend a carbohydrate counting course. She asks you what that involves.
Select from this list the single correct statement about carbohydrate counting.Your Answer: It is suitable for those who inject insulin with each meal
Explanation:Carbohydrate Counting for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Management
Carbohydrate counting is a recommended method for managing blood glucose levels in adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. It involves counting the grams of carbohydrates in a meal and matching it with an individual’s insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio to determine the necessary insulin dose. This method is particularly useful for those who inject insulin with each meal or use an insulin pump. While foods with a low glycaemic index can help manage glucose levels in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, there is less evidence for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Carbohydrate counting doesn’t mean total freedom to eat whatever one wishes, as food excesses are unhealthy for anyone. However, most ready meals indicate the amount of carbohydrate on the food label, making carbohydrate counting easier. It is important for adult patients with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus to receive advice on issues beyond blood glucose control, such as weight control and cardiovascular risk management, and to increase the amount of fiber in their diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A female patient with Addison's disease calls for guidance. She has experienced diarrhea and vomiting throughout the night and has vomited thrice this morning. She feels slightly lightheaded. What recommendation would you provide concerning the hydrocortisone dosage for an Addison's disease patient who has vomited three times?
Your Answer: Take double the usual oral daily dose
Correct Answer: Use hydrocortisone 100 mg intramuscularly and seek medical advice
Explanation:Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Patients
Patients with Addison’s disease must follow specific sick day rules to manage their condition effectively. These rules include doubling the normal dose of hydrocortisone for a fever of more than 37.5 C or for infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics. In case of severe nausea, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally and sip rehydration/electrolyte fluids like Dioralyte. If vomiting occurs, patients should use the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone immediately and call a doctor, stating that it is an Addison’s emergency.
In case of a major injury, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately to avoid shock. It is also essential to ensure that the anaesthetist and surgical team, dentist, or endoscopist are aware of the need for extra oral medication. They should check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover, which is available at www.addisons.org.uk/publications. By following these sick day rules, Addison’s patients can manage their condition effectively and avoid any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is worried about the development of his breasts and suspects that one of his medications may be responsible.
Which of the following drugs is linked to gynaecomastia?Your Answer: Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: SSRIs
Explanation:Medications and their Side Effects
Galactorrhoea is a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), according to the British National Formulary (BNF). On the other hand, gynaecomastia is not listed as a side effect of SSRIs. Tricyclics, however, are known to cause gynaecomastia by stimulating prolactin. Another medication that can cause gynaecomastia is anabolic steroids, which are not catabolic. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or alleviate these side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a feeling of shortness of breath and choking, on lying down. Some six months earlier she had been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. On examination, she has a goitre. Plain radiography confirms retrosternal extension, which is presumed to be contributing to her shortness of breath. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is less than 0.04 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l). Thyroid autoantibodies are negative.
Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this patients clinical picture?
Your Answer: Graves' disease
Correct Answer: Toxic multinodular goitre
Explanation:Toxic multinodular goitre is a condition that commonly affects women over 55 years of age and is more prevalent than Graves’ disease in the elderly. It is characterized by a goitre that obstructs and extends retrosternally, which may cause atrial fibrillation. The preferred treatment is surgery, but the patient should first be made euthyroid with carbimazole. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, is an autoimmune disorder that accounts for 75% of thyrotoxicosis cases. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, diffuse goitre, and eye changes. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is another autoimmune thyroiditis that initially causes hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroidism. It is characterized by the aggressive destruction of thyroid cells, resulting in a goitre and high levels of autoantibodies against thyroid peroxidase. Thyroglossal cyst is a cyst that forms from a persistent thyroglossal duct and presents as an asymptomatic midline neck mass. Thyroid carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a non-tender thyroid nodule with normal thyroid function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with an eight month history of amenorrhoea. She is not on any prescribed medication but uses over the counter acne treatments. Her body mass index is 31 kg/m2, she has a small amount of hair growth on her chin, abdominal and pelvic examinations are normal.
She is investigated and her blood results show:
LH 11.8 U/L (0.5-14.5)
FSH 4.2 U/L (1-11)
Testosterone 3.5 nmol/L (0.8-3.1)
Prolactin 580 mU/L (90-520)
Fasting glucose 6.4 mmol/L (<6.0)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Prolactinoma
Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by abnormal hormonal cycling and enlargement of the ovaries with the development of multiple ovarian cysts. Diagnosis requires exclusion of other causes of polycystic ovaries and the presence of at least two of the following: oligo/anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical hyperandrogenism, or polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scanning.
Patients with PCOS can be asymptomatic but often present with a combination of features such as menstrual disturbance, infertility, obesity, male pattern hair loss, hirsutism, and acne. A patient with amenorrhoea, obesity, and clinical evidence of hyperandrogenism with acne and hirsutism is likely to have PCOS. Blood tests can add weight to the diagnosis, with luteinizing hormone (LH) typically on the high side and values above 10 IU/L seen in about 50% of anovulatory patients.
Hyperandrogenism with an elevated testosterone level is a frequent finding, although caution should be taken to exclude other causes. Mild prolactinaemia can be present in up to 30% of patients. Insulin resistance and impaired glucose tolerance are associated with PCOS and a well-known complication. The patient should have further evaluation in reference to her elevated fasting glucose. Overall, understanding PCOS and its diagnostic criteria is crucial for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling tired and fatigued for the past 2 weeks. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, epilepsy, and polycystic kidney disease. The results of his blood test reveal an abnormality in his electrolyte levels:
- Na+ 129 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
- K+ 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
Which medication among his prescriptions is the most likely culprit for this abnormality?Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors have been linked to the development of hyponatraemia, a significant electrolyte imbalance. The exact cause of this association is not fully understood, but it may be related to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Conversely, tolvaptan is a medication utilized to manage hypernatraemia in individuals with polycystic kidney disease.
Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach’s parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.
Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.
It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old male presents with worries about delayed pubertal development, despite being 1.75m tall. He has minimal pubic hair and decreased testicular size. The following laboratory results are obtained:
Testosterone 7.2 nmol/l (9 - 30)
LH 3.5 mu/l (3 - 10)
FSH 5.9 mu/l (3 - 10)
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Testicular feminisation syndrome
Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.
Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman who was diagnosed with primary atrophic hypothyroidism 6 months ago has undergone recent thyroid function tests (TFTs):
TSH 10.8 mU/l
Free T4 15 pmol/l
She is currently prescribed 50mcg of levothyroxine daily. What is the interpretation of these results?Your Answer: She is on the correct dose
Correct Answer: Poor compliance with medication
Explanation:The high TSH level indicates a recent deficiency of thyroxine in her body. However, her free T4 level is normal. It is probable that she began taking thyroxine correctly just before the blood test, which would have restored the thyroxine level. Nevertheless, it takes longer for the TSH level to return to normal.
Understanding Thyroid Function Tests
Thyroid function tests are used to diagnose thyroid disorders such as hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. The interpretation of these tests is usually straightforward. In cases of thyrotoxicosis, such as Graves’ disease, the TSH level will be low and the free T4 level will be high. In primary hypothyroidism, the TSH level will be high and the free T4 level will be low. In cases of secondary hypothyroidism, both TSH and free T4 levels will be low, and replacement steroid therapy is required prior to thyroxine.
Sick euthyroid syndrome, now referred to as non-thyroidal illness, is common in hospital inpatients and is characterized by low levels of both TSH and free T4. T3 levels are particularly low in these patients. Subclinical hypothyroidism is characterized by high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Poor compliance with thyroxine can also result in high TSH levels and normal free T4 levels. Steroid therapy can result in low TSH levels and normal free T4 levels.
It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Understanding the results of thyroid function tests can help diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Liam is a 27-year-old man with a history of depression and type 1 diabetes mellitus, for which he takes citalopram and insulin.
What substances should Liam avoid due to potential dangerous interactions with his medication?Your Answer: Cannabis
Correct Answer: St John’s wort
Explanation:Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs, such as citalopram. While cranberry juice is an enzyme inhibitor, it doesn’t have any known interactions with SSRIs or insulin. Similarly, paracetamol doesn’t interact with either SSRIs or insulin. Cannabis is not known to have any interactions with SSRIs. Although cheese can interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors, it doesn’t have any interactions with SSRIs.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, altered mental state, and confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another potentially life-threatening condition. While both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An otherwise healthy woman of 35 years has a second attack of renal colic in two years and passes a stone. Blood urea is normal.
Which one of the following investigations would be the most important to conduct?Your Answer: Urinary albumin:creatinine ratio
Correct Answer: Serum calcium concentration
Explanation:Recommended Investigations for Young Patients with Renal Colic
Further investigation is recommended for young patients who experience a second episode of renal colic. To begin with, a plasma calcium test is important to rule out a predisposition towards forming the most common types of urinary tract stones, which are composed of calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate. A urine culture should also be conducted to exclude concurrent infection, as infection is associated with stone formation.
Another relevant investigation is urinary amino-acid chromatography, which can help assess for cystinuria or renal tubular acidosis. However, a urinary albumin-creatinine ratio is not particularly relevant in this situation unless the patient is found to have proteinuria.
It is important to note that an x-ray of the hands, renal biopsy, or cystoscopy are not required for this type of investigation. By conducting these recommended tests, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat young patients with renal colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a one-month history of tingling sensation in his fingers, toes and around the mouth. When the symptom first started, it was only affecting his fingers. It has since spread and gradually got worse. He had the same symptom a few years ago and was found to have a low calcium level. There is no reported muscle weakness, tremor or other neurological symptoms.
He is currently taking omeprazole for reflux symptoms. His recent blood test showed the following:
Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
What electrolyte abnormality could be responsible for this patient's presenting symptoms?Your Answer: Hypophosphatemia
Correct Answer: Hypomagnesaemia
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia can lead to similar symptoms as hypocalcaemia, such as paresthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias. This condition can be caused by proton pump inhibitors like lansoprazole and esomeprazole.
Hyperkalemia’s symptoms are often vague and can include breathing difficulty, weakness, fatigue, palpitations, or chest pain. Paresthesia is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia, so this answer is incorrect.
Hypernatremia would not cause paresthesia and is, therefore, an incorrect answer. Symptoms of hypernatraemia include lethargy, weakness, confusion, irritability, and seizures.
Hypermagnesaemia can cause weakness, confusion, nausea and vomiting, and shortness of breath, but it doesn’t typically cause paresthesia. Therefore, this answer is also incorrect.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the body. This can be caused by various factors such as the use of certain drugs like diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitleman’s and Bartter’s can also contribute to the development of this condition. Symptoms of hypomagnesaemia may include paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, arrhythmias, and decreased PTH secretion, which can lead to hypocalcaemia. ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia may also be present, and it can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
Treatment for hypomagnesaemia depends on the severity of the condition. If the magnesium level is less than 0.4 mmol/L or if there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. If the magnesium level is above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts can be given in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts, so it is important to monitor for this side effect. Understanding the causes and treatment options for hypomagnesaemia can help individuals manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes mellitus has visited his GP after experiencing his second severe hypoglycaemic episode. During both episodes, he had limited awareness and required his wife to administer glucose gel. He currently holds a group 1 driving licence. What advice should be given regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer: Continue driving as normal but needs to inform the DVLA of his medical condition
Correct Answer: Stop driving immediately and inform the DVLA
Explanation:Individuals with diabetes who have experienced two episodes of hypoglycemia requiring assistance are required to relinquish their driving license.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
Albumin 38 g/l
What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?Your Answer: ESR
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.
Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.
In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old retired carpenter visits his GP seeking strong pain relief for his lower back pain. He has been experiencing the pain for six weeks and saw another GP two weeks ago who advised him to take regular Paracetamol and Ibuprofen with PPI cover. During his previous visit, a PR exam was conducted, which was normal, and a PSA blood test was within the normal range. He reports feeling more tired than usual and complains of persistent nausea, but otherwise feels well. On examination, his observations are within the normal range, and there is no specific bony tenderness. His spine has a normal range of movement, and no focal neurology is detected. Based on NICE guidelines for suspected cancer, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Offer very urgent protein electrophoresis and Bence-Jones urine test (within 48 hours)
Correct Answer: Offer a FBC, Calcium, Plasma viscosity or ESR to assess for myeloma
Explanation:According to the latest NICE Guidelines for suspected cancer (June 2015), individuals aged 60 and above with persistent bone pain, particularly back pain, or unexplained fracture should be offered a FBC, calcium and plasma viscosity or ESR to assess for myeloma. Additionally, those with hypercalcaemia or leukopenia and a presentation that is consistent with possible myeloma should be offered very urgent protein electrophoresis and a Bence Jones protein urine test within 48 hours. In cases where the plasma viscosity or ESR and presentation are consistent with possible myeloma, very urgent protein electrophoresis and a Bence Jones protein urine test should be considered. If the results of protein electrophoresis or a Bence Jones protein urine test suggest myeloma, referral should be made within 2 weeks. These guidelines have been updated in 2015.
Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is most commonly found in patients aged 60-70 years. The disease is characterized by a range of symptoms, which can be remembered using the mnemonic CRABBI. These include hypercalcemia, renal damage, anemia, bleeding, bone lesions, and increased susceptibility to infection. Other features of multiple myeloma include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.
To diagnose multiple myeloma, a range of investigations are required. Blood tests can reveal anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised levels of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum, while bone marrow aspiration can confirm the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can be used to detect osteolytic lesions.
The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include the presence of plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, or elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, or low levels of antibodies in the blood. Understanding the features and investigations of multiple myeloma is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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When managing hypertension in a diabetic patient, which of the following combinations of Antihypertensive medications should be avoided, if possible?
Your Answer: Thiazide + ACE-inhibitor
Correct Answer: Beta-blocker + thiazide
Explanation:Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 49-year-old male with a two year history of type 2 diabetes presents at annual review.
Despite optimisation of his oral hypoglycaemic therapy he has gained approximately 4 kg in weight over the last year and his HbA1c has deteriorated.
He is also treated with lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and metoprolol, but his blood pressure remains difficult to control with a recording of 170/100 mmHg.
On examination, he has developed abdominal striae, thin skin is noticeable with bruising and he also has a proximal weakness. A diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome is suspected.
What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: 9 am ACTH concentration
Explanation:Screening Tests for Cushing’s Syndrome
Appropriate screening tests for Cushing’s syndrome include the 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test or a 24-hour urine collection measuring free cortisol in the urine. The overnight dexamethasone suppression test is preferred as it has higher sensitivity than urinary collection. This test involves administering 1 mg dexamethasone at 11 pm and measuring cortisol levels at 9 am the following morning. A cortisol concentration less than 50 nmol/L after this test is considered normal. An elevated cortisol level (usually above 250 nmol/day) in a 24-hour urine collection suggests Cushing’s syndrome.
Random cortisol or 9 am cortisol tests provide no diagnostic information for Cushing’s syndrome. Chest x-rays and adrenal CT scans are useful in investigating the possible cause of Cushing’s syndrome. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment of Cushing’s syndrome can prevent serious complications. Therefore, individuals with symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome should consult a healthcare professional for proper screening and diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 56-year-old man has undergone some blood tests and X-rays for bilateral hand pain. He reports he is in good health and takes regular vitamin and mineral supplements. He is taking lisinopril 10 mg for hypertension and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. The only blood test abnormality is a serum calcium concentration of 2.96 mmol/l (2.25–2.5 mmol/l) and hand X-ray demonstrates subperiosteal bone resorption in the majority of his phalanges.
What is the single most likely cause of the hypercalcaemia?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia, an abnormally high level of calcium in the blood, can have various causes. One of the most common is hyperparathyroidism, which results from overactivity of the parathyroid gland. Primary hyperparathyroidism is usually due to a benign adenoma, while secondary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism can occur in the context of renal failure or transplant. The hallmark radiological feature of hyperparathyroidism is subperiosteal bone resorption, which can be seen in the phalanges.
High dietary vitamin D intake is unlikely to cause hypercalcaemia, as most vitamin D is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to sunlight. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor treatment may lead to hyperkalaemia, but not hypercalcaemia. High dietary calcium intake is also unlikely to be a significant factor, as the body has mechanisms to regulate calcium absorption and excretion. However, iatrogenic hypercalcaemia can occur from excessive calcium and vitamin D supplementation.
Malignancy is another important cause of hypercalcaemia, especially in breast, lung, renal, and multiple myeloma. Therefore, occult malignancy should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of hypercalcaemia. However, in the case of subperiosteal bone resorption, hyperparathyroidism is more likely, and further investigation such as parathyroid hormone measurement and imaging studies may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma. He is given intravenous glucose to revive him. He tells the physician that he was unaware that he had hypoglycaemia.
Select from this list the single correct statement about hypoglycaemia in a diabetic patient.Your Answer: Early symptoms are usually felt when the plasma glucose declines to less than 4.5 mmol/l
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemic unawareness is a contraindication to driving
Explanation:Hypoglycaemic unawareness, where a person with diabetes is unable to recognize the symptoms of low blood sugar, is a reason why they should not drive according to the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). To be considered fit to drive, a person with diabetes must have experienced no more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia in the past year and be aware of the symptoms. Symptoms of mild hypoglycaemia include hunger, anxiety, irritability, palpitations, sweating, and tingling lips. As blood glucose levels drop further, symptoms may progress to weakness, lethargy, impaired vision, confusion, and irrational behavior. Severe hypoglycaemia can result in seizures and loss of consciousness, and between 4 and 10% of deaths in people with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus are due to hypoglycaemia. Recurrent exposure to hypoglycaemia can lead to a loss of early warning symptoms, making it more difficult for a person to recognize when their blood sugar is low. While most patients with impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia can recognize their symptoms and correct the hypoglycaemia with a small amount of fast-acting carbohydrate taken by mouth, severe hypoglycaemia occurs when patients require treatment by another person because they are incapable of self-management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm a biochemical diagnosis of acromegaly?
Your Answer: Insulin tolerance test
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with GH assay
Explanation:Biochemical Screening for Acromegaly
Acromegaly is a condition caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone (GH). To screen for acromegaly biochemically, an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with GH assay is recommended. In acromegaly, there is a failure to suppress GH to undetectable levels in response to a 75 g oral glucose load. In contrast, the normal response is to decrease GH to <2 mU/l. Increased insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) is not used in the diagnosis of acromegaly, although it is produced in response to GH stimulation. Instead, growth hormone should be indirectly measured via a GH assay. IGF-1 measurement is useful to screen for acromegaly and to monitor the efficacy of therapy. An insulin tolerance test is not used to diagnose acromegaly, but it is considered a gold standard for assessing the integrity of the hypothalamo–pituitary–adrenal axis. In response to insulin-induced hypoglycemia, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and GH are released as part of the stress mechanism. An adequate cortisol response is a rise to 550 nmol/l or more, and an adequate GH response exceeds 20 mU/l. Random GH assay is not useful in the diagnosis of acromegaly because normal subjects have undetectable GH levels throughout the day, and there are pulses of GH that are impossible to differentiate from the levels seen in acromegaly. Following a thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) test, 80% of patients with acromegaly show increased levels of GH. However, a thyroid function test is not used to diagnose acromegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to you after being seen at the TIA clinic and initiated on clopidogrel and atorvastatin. He is currently taking the following repeat medications:
- Ramipril
- Metformin
- Omeprazole
- Amlodipine
- Gliclazide
Are there any of his current medications that you should consider switching to an alternative due to potential drug interactions?Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female with hypothyroidism visits your GP clinic to discuss her pregnancy. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and wants to know if she should continue taking levothyroxine. She is taking 75 mcg of levothyroxine daily.
Her thyroid function tests were done 3 weeks ago, before she knew she was pregnant. The results are as follows:
TSH 3.2mU/L
What advice would you give her regarding her levothyroxine medication?Your Answer: Stop the levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Increase the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily
Explanation:An endocrinologist should be consulted for women with hypothyroidism who are planning pregnancy. According to a review in the British Journal of General Practice, their levothyroxine dose should be adjusted to maintain a preconception TSH concentration of less than 2.5 mu/L. Upon conception, the daily dose of levothyroxine should be increased by 25-50 mcg and thyroid function should be monitored to ensure TSH remains below 2.5 mU/L. Therefore, increasing the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily would be the correct course of action, while doubling the dose may be too large an increase. It would be inappropriate to reduce, stop, or maintain the same medication dosage as thyroxine requirements increase during pregnancy.
During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this doesn’t affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimens should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.
On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to the clinic for diabetic assessment. Despite taking the highest dose of metformin and gliclazide, his HBA1c is 68 mmol/mol. You discuss his condition with the diabetic nurse and decide to initiate a new medication, dapagliflozin.
What is the primary adverse effect of dapagliflozin?Your Answer: Weight gain
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infections
Explanation:Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin or dapagliflozin, have been linked to an increased risk of urinary tract infections due to their mechanism of inhibiting renal reabsorption of glucose. This leads to increased excretion of glucose in the urine, causing common side effects like urinary frequency and infections. Unlike metformin, diarrhea is not a common side effect of these drugs. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone and rosiglitazone, should be avoided in patients with left ventricular dysfunction as they can cause or worsen heart failure. Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) medications, also known as incretin mimetics, such as sitagliptin and exenatide, work by suppressing glucagon release and increasing insulin release from the pancreas. However, they can trigger inflammation and have an increased risk of causing pancreatitis. SGLT2 inhibitors are associated with weight loss, while sulphonylureas, such as gliclazide, are associated with weight gain.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?
Your Answer: Hypothyroid
Correct Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid
Explanation:Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.
Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.
Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.
Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A sixty-two-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes contacts the clinic for advice and is connected to you as the on-call Doctor. He is experiencing a diarrhoeal illness and has been feeling unwell for the past 24 hours with fever, loose stools, and generalised myalgia. He vomited twice yesterday but hasn't vomited for the last 12 hours and has been able to drink adequate fluids and has eaten some small snacks containing carbohydrate. His diabetes is managed with twice daily mixed insulin at a total dose of 18 units BD. He has been monitoring his blood glucose every 4 hours and has reached out to you as his blood sugar has risen to 20 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate advice to give him in this situation?
Your Answer: He should reduce his insulin dose by 2 units for each dose and recontact the surgery if he starts to vomit again and is unable to keep any fluids or food down
Correct Answer: No change to his insulin dose is needed as long as he continues to not vomit and be able to drink and eat snacks. He should continue to check his blood sugar every 4 hours and contact the surgery for advice if his blood glucose is greater than 30 mmol/L
Explanation:Counselling a Diabetic on Insulin Management When Unwell
A key aspect of counselling a diabetic who has been started on insulin is to educate them on what to do if they become unwell. For type 2 diabetics, it is recommended that they check their blood glucose levels at least every 4 hours when feeling unwell.
A useful resource to refer to when advising patients in this situation is the TREND UK guideline. This guideline provides a clear algorithm for managing blood glucose levels when a patient is unwell. According to the guideline, if the patient’s blood glucose level is less than 13 mmol/L, they should take insulin as normal. However, if the level is greater than 13 mmol/L, insulin adjustment is necessary.
By following the algorithm provided in the TREND UK guideline, healthcare professionals can effectively manage the patient’s insulin dosage and blood glucose levels. For instance, if the patient requires an additional 4 units of insulin added to each dose, this can be easily determined by following the algorithm. Additionally, the patient should continue to monitor their blood glucose levels every 4 hours to ensure that their insulin management is effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presents to the surgery for review. She complains of feeling hungry all the time although, despite this, she has lost weight. She also complains of palpitations that have been present for the past three months.
She has a past history of anxiety and has taken a course of SSRI four years ago for two years in total.
Examination reveals a BP of 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 92 and regular. She has a fine tremor. There is a small, 1.5 cm nodule within the left lobe of the thyroid.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 125 g/L (115-160)
WCC 6.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
PLT 281 ×109/L (150-450)
Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
K 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Cr 78 µmol/L (70-110)
TSH 0.02 mU/L (0.4-4.5)
FT4 62 pmol/L (10-24)
You decide to refer this lady, but which of the following is likely to be the next step in her management without need to first consult a specialist colleague?Your Answer: Thyroid USS
Correct Answer: Start propranolol
Explanation:Management of Thyrotoxicosis in Primary Care
In cases of suspected benign thyroid adenoma causing thyrotoxicosis, it is appropriate to prescribe a beta blocker such as propranolol to relieve adrenergic symptoms while awaiting specialist endocrinology assessment. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS), further evaluation should include a thyroid uptake scan and ultrasound, with radioiodine being the intervention of choice for a solitary toxic nodule.
If symptoms persist despite treatment with a beta blocker or if a beta blocker is not tolerated or contraindicated, or if the patient is at risk of complications from hyperthyroidism, specialist advice should be sought regarding other treatment options such as starting carbimazole. In cases where the patient is taking a drug such as amiodarone or lithium, liaison between the specialist prescribing the drug and an endocrinologist may be necessary.
RET mutation testing is useful for evaluating familial medullary thyroid carcinoma or MEN-2B syndrome, but this is not an investigation that is typically carried out in primary care as these conditions are rare and unlikely to be the diagnosis in this case. Thyroid uptake scanning and ultrasound are useful in the evaluation of a nodule, but should not delay starting anti-thyroid drugs. Urgent referral for fine-needle aspiration is not necessary in this low-risk situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with difficult to manage hypertension. She is taking three medications and her current blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg. She has noticed that her face has become rounder over time and she is experiencing more acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has shown impaired glucose tolerance. Additionally, she has been struggling with abdominal obesity and has noticed the appearance of purple stretch marks around her abdomen.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cushing syndrome
Explanation:Cushing syndrome is a rare disease that causes weight gain, hypertension, and other symptoms. It is often caused by a pituitary adenoma producing ACTH. Diagnosis is made through urinary free-cortisol assay and differentiation of the cause is done through the dexamethasone-suppression test. Drug-resistant hypertension may be caused by chronic kidney disease, obstructive sleep apnoea, or hyperaldosteronism. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that causes severe hypertension and other symptoms. Multiple endocrine neoplasia is a group of syndromes featuring tumours of endocrine glands. Simple obesity can be differentiated from Cushing syndrome by specific signs such as easy bruising, facial plethora, proximal myopathy, and purple striae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What plasma glucose level is considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus in a patient with symptoms?
Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose 5.4 mmol/L
Correct Answer: Random plasma glucose 10.1 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes: Interpreting Plasma Glucose Concentrations
The diagnosis of diabetes is based on interpreting plasma glucose concentrations. To diagnose diabetes mellitus, a fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or a random glucose above 11.1 mmol/L is required. However, it is important to note that two plasma glucose readings are needed according to these parameters in an asymptomatic patient to make the diagnosis. In a symptomatic patient, only one reading is needed.
It is crucial to pay attention to the details of the question and not misinterpret any of the options. For instance, candidates may misread or misinterpret the threshold of 7.0 mmol/L and argue that 7.1 mmol/L cannot be the correct answer. Therefore, using good examination technique, it is recommended to go over the options again to ensure that the question has been read correctly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 43-year-old man with diabetes presents with a request for infertility investigations. On examination, you observe that he has a tan complexion despite minimal sun exposure. He also has an enlarged liver and reports experiencing palpitations and dyspnoea during physical activity. His full blood count and liver biochemistry are within normal limits. What is the most suitable investigation to perform?
Your Answer: Serum iron studies
Explanation:Investigating Haemochromatosis: Serum Iron Studies and Diagnostic Tests
Haemochromatosis is an autosomal-recessive disorder characterized by excess iron deposition in the endocrine glands, heart, and skin. Middle-aged men are more commonly affected, and symptoms include diabetes mellitus, probable hypogonadism, hepatomegaly, and skin pigmentation. Serum iron studies are crucial in the diagnosis of haemochromatosis, with raised serum ferritin levels and reduced total iron-binding capacity being indicative of the condition. However, elevated ferritin levels can also be seen in other conditions, such as alcoholic liver disease and porphyria cutanea tarda, so genetic testing for HFE mutations (C282Y, H63D) is necessary for a definitive diagnosis. Serum α-fetoprotein levels and cardiac echocardiography are not useful in identifying haemochromatosis, while liver biopsy is rarely required due to the reliability of genetic testing. Ultrasound of the liver may show abnormalities secondary to cirrhosis but is not as useful as serum iron measurements in this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male with a history of insulin dependent diabetes presents with persistent abdominal bloating and vomiting. The gastroenterologist suspects gastroparesis. What would be the best initial course of action for management?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Gastroparesis can cause persistent vomiting in a poorly controlled diabetic, and cyclizine is not a recommended treatment for this condition. Instead, prokinetic drugs such as metoclopramide or domperidone can be used. Amoxicillin is not useful in managing gastroparesis, but erythromycin can be used off-label as a prokinetic. While metformin is helpful in controlling diabetes, it is not involved in the acute management of gastroparesis.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman is curious about maintaining a healthy diet. She currently weighs 106 Kg and stands at a height of 1.76m. What is her approximate body mass index (BMI) rounded to the nearest decimal point?
Your Answer: 28
Explanation:BMI Calculation and Interpretation
Body: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the square of the height in meters. For instance, if a person weighs 106 kilograms and is 1.76 meters tall, their BMI would be 34.22 kg/m2. This value falls within the obese range, indicating that the person may have an increased risk of developing health problems such as heart disease, diabetes, and high blood pressure. It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fatness and should be used in conjunction with other health indicators to assess an individual’s overall health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes to you complaining of fatigue and absence of menstrual periods. She reports not having had a period for the past four months and has gained some weight. You order an FBC, U&E and LFTs, which all come back normal except for an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic active hepatitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Raised Alkaline Phosphatase
Pregnancy is one of the possible causes of raised alkaline phosphatase, which could be the case based on the patient’s history. To confirm this, a urinary HCG test is recommended. Another possible cause is primary biliary cirrhosis, which is typically accompanied by severe itching and some degree of dyslipidemia. On the other hand, hypothyroidism usually results in menorrhagia. It is important to consider these potential causes when evaluating a patient with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue for the past few months. She reports having missed her period for six months and experiences dizziness in the morning. Addison's disease is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
Which of the following clinical manifestations is the most specific for Addison's disease?
Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Diminished body hair
Correct Answer: Pigmentation of the palms
Explanation:Symptoms of Hypoadrenalism and Hypopituitarism
Hypoadrenalism, also known as Addison’s disease, can be caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, granulomatous disorders, tuberculosis, tumours, or infections. Glucocorticoid deficiency, commonly seen in Addison’s disease, can cause pigmentation of the palms due to elevated levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
Hypopituitarism can cause a variety of symptoms, including pallor due to normochromic, normocytic anaemia, postural hypotension related to glucocorticoid deficiency, and visual-field defects from pressure on the optic nerve caused by a pituitary tumour. Lack of body hair and amenorrhoea are also features of hypogonadism in hypopituitarism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a ten year history of type 2 diabetes is being treated with metformin 1 g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily.
He is obese, has gained weight over the last year and his HbA1c has deteriorated from 59 to 64 mmol/mol (20-42). He is being considered for treatment with either insulin or pioglitazone.
The patient wants to know the side effects of pioglitazone.
What is considered a typical side effect of pioglitazone therapy?Your Answer: Myositis
Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans
Explanation:Common Side Effects of Diabetes Medications
Pioglitazone, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, may cause fluid retention in up to 10% of patients. This side effect can be worsened when taken with other drugs that also cause fluid retention, such as NSAIDs and calcium antagonists. In addition to fluid retention, pioglitazone can also cause weight gain due to fat accumulation. However, it is important to note that pioglitazone is contraindicated in patients with cardiac failure.
Metformin, another commonly prescribed diabetes medication, can cause lactic acidosis as a side effect. This is a serious condition that can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.
Some sulphonylureas, a class of medications used to stimulate insulin production, may cause a photosensitivity rash in some patients. This rash can be uncomfortable and may require treatment.
Finally, statins and fibrates, medications used to lower cholesterol levels, are associated with myositis, a condition that causes muscle inflammation and weakness. This side effect is rare but can be serious.
It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking diabetes medications and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male complains of low mood, numbness in his left hand especially at night, and has recently gained 8 kg in weight. He has noticed that his periods have become heavier over the last four months and now lasts for 8-11 days each month. There is a history of type 2 diabetes in his family. During examination, his BMI is 31.
What is the most suitable test to perform?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests
Correct Answer: LH/FSH ratio
Explanation:Hypothyroidism as a Possible Cause of Weight Gain, Menorrhagia, and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
The combination of weight gain, menorrhagia, and carpal tunnel syndrome in a patient is highly suggestive of hypothyroidism. While the patient may also be at risk of type 2 diabetes due to her obesity, it is not the primary cause of her symptoms. The most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK population is autoimmune lymphocytic thyroiditis. Treatment for this condition typically involves thyroid hormone replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A woman visits her GP for a check-up of her type 2 diabetes. She is taking metformin at the maximum tolerated dose. Her most recent HbA1c reading is 64 mmol/mol.
The GP prescribes gliclazide and schedules another HbA1c test in 3 months.
What is the new target HbA1c for this patient?Your Answer: 63
Correct Answer: 53
Explanation:The target HbA1c for patients taking a drug that may cause hypoglycaemia, such as gliclazide, is 53 mmol/mol or below. This target applies to adults who are prescribed a single hypoglycaemic agent or two or more antidiabetic drugs in combination. For adults with type 2 diabetes who are managed by diet and lifestyle alone or a single antidiabetic drug not associated with hypoglycaemia, the target HbA1c is 48 mmol/mol. Therefore, the correct answer for the HbA1c target for a patient starting on gliclazide is 53 mmol/mol. The answers 58 mmol/mol and 63 mmol/mol are incorrect.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 41
Correct
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You go on a home visit to see an 80-year-old nursing home resident who was found 'collapsed' in his room earlier today. The paramedics were called and made a diagnosis of hypoglycaemia. The record of their visit shows that he was drowsy and the blood glucose was 1.8 mmol/l. After giving him an oral glucose paste the patient's condition significantly improved. A carer from the nursing home is present and reports that he has had regular 'hypos' recently.
His current medication is as follows:
Metformin 1g bd
Gliclazide 160mg od
Pioglitazone 45mg od
Aspirin 75 mg od
Simvastatin 40 mg on
What is the most appropriate immediate action?Your Answer: Stop gliclazide
Explanation:Hypoglycaemia is not caused by either metformin or pioglitazone. The reason for this is the dose of gliclazide, which should be discontinued in the short term before any long-term medication changes are made.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents to his General Practitioner and is found to have familial hypercholesterolaemia. He is a non-smoker and is normotensive. He is given lifestyle and dietary advice and prescribed a high-intensity statin. His lipid results are reviewed after two months.
Investigations before and after being on a maximum dose of the statin:
Investigation Result Result after two months Normal value
Cholesterol concentration 10.2mmol/l 6.8 mmol/l <5.1 mmol/l
LDL-cholesterol 8.1 mmol/l 5.3 mmol/l <3.1 mmol/l
HDL-cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l 1.3 mmol/l >1.1 mmol/l
Fasting triglycerides 1.9 mmol/l 1.0 mmol/l <1.6 mmol/l
Which of the following is the single most appropriate next step in his management?
Your Answer: Adding nicotinic acid to his medication
Correct Answer: Adding ezetimibe to his medication
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia
Primary hypercholesterolaemia requires appropriate treatment to reduce LDL-cholesterol levels. In this case, the patient’s LDL-cholesterol reduction is only 35%, which is below the recommended reduction of >40% with the statin alone. Therefore, adding ezetimibe, an inhibitor of cholesterol absorption from the gut, is the treatment of choice. This is the only further primary care intervention before specialist intervention is required.
Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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You are a pediatrician who is visiting a children's hospital. A new patient is admitted and the nurse is looking through his medications which he has brought with him from home. The patient is a 10-year-old with type 1 diabetes and on his insulin box it says 'insulin lispro (Rapid-acting analogue)', unfortunately the instructions for administration have rubbed out.
The nurse asks you how insulin lispro is usually administered:
Given just prior to meal
46%
Given just after meal
9%
Given 30 minutes before meal
31%
Given 30 minutes after meal
6%
Given only if blood sugar is found to be greater than 10mmol/L
7%
Insulin lispro is a fast acting insulin analogue. Its levels peak 0-3 hours after injection and last 2-5 hours. It should therefore be given just prior to meals.
The April 2015 AKT feedback report stated:
Diabetes and prediabetes are increasingly common, and we frequently feed back concerning lack of knowledge in these areas?Your Answer: Given 30 minutes after meal
Correct Answer: Given just prior to meal
Explanation:Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog that reaches its peak levels within 0-3 hours of injection and remains effective for 2-5 hours. As a result, it should be administered immediately before meals.
Understanding Insulin Therapy
Insulin therapy has been a game-changer in the management of diabetes mellitus since its development in the 1920s. It remains the only available treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and is widely used in type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) when oral hypoglycemic agents fail to provide adequate control. However, understanding the different types of insulin can be overwhelming, and it is crucial to have a basic grasp to avoid potential harm to patients.
Insulin can be classified by manufacturing process, duration of action, and type of insulin analogues. Patients often require a combination of preparations to ensure stable glycemic control throughout the day. Rapid-acting insulin analogues act faster and have a shorter duration of action than soluble insulin and may be used as the bolus dose in ‘basal-bolus’ regimens. Short-acting insulins, such as Actrapid and Humulin S, may also be used as the bolus dose in ‘basal-bolus’ regimens. Intermediate-acting insulins, like isophane insulin, are often used in a premixed formulation with long-acting insulins, such as insulin determir and insulin glargine, given once or twice daily. Premixed preparations combine intermediate-acting insulin with either a rapid-acting insulin analogue or soluble insulin.
The vast majority of patients administer insulin subcutaneously, and it is essential to rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy. Insulin pumps are available, which delivers a continuous basal infusion and a patient-activated bolus dose at meal times. Intravenous insulin is used for patients who are acutely unwell, such as those with diabetic ketoacidosis. Inhaled insulin is available but not widely used, and oral insulin analogues are in development but have considerable technical hurdles to clear. Overall, understanding insulin therapy is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care for patients with diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with asthma and a history of thyroid disease comes to the clinic for a check-up after a left Colles' fracture. You learn that she had a right Colles' fracture three years ago due to a fall on ice, but she declined investigation for osteoporosis. As you review her medical history, which risk factor would you consider the most significant?
Your Answer: Grave's disease successfully treated with radioiodine at the age of 32
Correct Answer: Onset of periods aged 10
Explanation:Understanding Osteoporosis Risk Factors and Treatment Options
Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and increased risk of fractures. Several risk factors have been associated with this condition, including low BMI, increasing age, periods of immobility, high dose inhaled or oral corticosteroid therapy, untreated thyrotoxicosis, early menopause, and positive family history. While exposure to thyrotoxicosis and inhaled steroid dose can contribute to osteoporosis, family history is considered the most important risk factor.
Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment option for osteoporosis, with anabolics such as PTH and other classes reserved for patients who cannot take bisphosphonates. It is important to understand the risk factors associated with osteoporosis and to seek appropriate treatment to prevent fractures and maintain bone health. By addressing these risk factors and utilizing effective treatment options, individuals can reduce their risk of developing osteoporosis and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner as she has been found to have a markedly raised cholesterol level on routine testing. She often feels tired in the daytime but puts this down to her busy lifestyle. She denies any other symptoms and is not on any regular medications.
On examination, she is obese, with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2. Her examination is otherwise unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate next investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Dipstick urinalysis
Correct Answer: Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Explanation:Prioritizing Tests for Investigating Hypercholesterolemia in an Overweight Patient
When investigating a patient with hypercholesterolemia, it is important to consider potential secondary causes. In an overweight patient with tiredness, hypothyroidism is a common possibility, and a serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test should be prioritized. Other secondary causes of hyperlipidemia include Cushing syndrome, anorexia nervosa, diabetes mellitus, pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, alcohol abuse, and certain medications. Liver function tests (LFTs) may be useful if obstructive jaundice is suspected or as a baseline prior to starting a statin, but investigating for secondary causes should take priority. Dipstick urinalysis is not typically useful in asymptomatic patients with a single abnormal finding of raised cholesterol. Similarly, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is unlikely to be helpful in determining an underlying diagnosis or ongoing management in the absence of cardiovascular symptoms. While serum triglycerides may be elevated, investigation for secondary causes should take priority.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and his HbA1c remains high at 56 mmol/mol despite attempts to modify his lifestyle. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Insulin
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus has not attended the diabetic clinic for five years.
Examination shows no abnormalities.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 90 g/L (115-165)
MCV 94 fL (80-96)
Haematocrit 28% -
HbA1c 87 mmol/mol (20-42)
10.1% (3.8-6.4)
A blood smear shows normochromic, normocytic anaemia.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency
Explanation:Possible Causes of Anemia in Older Adults
The most probable reason for anemia in older adults is progressive renal failure, which results in decreased erythropoietin release from the kidneys. Sideroblastic anemia, which is associated with myelodysplasia, is more common in older age groups. While chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and microangiopathic hemolysis are potential causes, they are less likely. It is important to identify the underlying cause of anemia in older adults to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a body mass index of 35, hypertension and impaired glucose tolerance. By the time she visits you she has succeeded in losing 3 kg in weight. You decide to give her a trial of orlistat and behavioural therapy.
What is the mode of action of orlistat?Your Answer: Orlistat is a pancreatic and gastric lipase inhibitor
Explanation:Orlistat: A Weight Loss Medication
Orlistat is a medication that inhibits the breakdown and absorption of dietary fat by blocking pancreatic lipase. This means that the fat ingested by a person taking orlistat continues to pass through their gut. However, if the patient doesn’t maintain a low-fat diet, they may experience oily diarrhoea.
Orlistat is typically used in combination with a low-fat diet for individuals with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 or higher, or for those with a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or higher who have other risk factors such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, or hypercholesterolaemia. It is important to note that orlistat should be used in conjunction with other lifestyle measures to manage obesity.
If a person taking orlistat has lost at least 5% of their initial body weight since starting the medication, it may be continued beyond three months. However, treatment should only be continued beyond 12 months, usually to maintain weight loss, after discussing potential benefits and limitations with the patient. It is also important to note that weight loss may gradually reverse upon stopping orlistat.
In conclusion, orlistat is a weight loss medication that can be effective when used in combination with a low-fat diet and other lifestyle measures. However, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and limitations with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A patient who is also a nurse contacts you for information regarding Addison's disease. Her teenage daughter is currently undergoing tests in the hospital, and it is highly probable that she will be diagnosed with the condition. The patient wants to know what kind of treatment her daughter will receive.
In Addison's disease, the replacement therapy typically involves fludrocortisone, potentially dehydroepiandrosterone, and which other substance?Your Answer: Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone
Explanation:Addison’s Disease: A Primary Adrenocortical Deficiency
Addison’s disease is a primary adrenocortical deficiency that affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 50, with a higher incidence in females than males. This condition results in reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids.
Glucocorticoids are hormones that regulate metabolism and immune function, while mineralocorticoids help regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance. Sex steroids play a role in sexual development and reproductive function.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can be vague and nonspecific, including fatigue, weakness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. If left untreated, the condition can lead to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Treatment typically involves hormone replacement therapy to restore the body’s hormone levels.
Overall, Addison’s disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. The physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most beneficial tumour marker investigation for this patient? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
Explanation:Tumour Markers and their Clinical Applications
Monoclonal antibodies are utilized to detect serum antigens associated with specific malignancies. These tumour markers are most useful for monitoring response to therapy and detecting early relapse. However, with the exception of PSA, tumour markers do not have sufficient sensitivity or specificity for use in screening.
PSA, or prostate specific antigen, is a useful marker for screening for prostate cancer, although population screening is controversial. It can also be used to detect recurrence of the malignancy and is useful in the investigation of adenocarcinoma of unknown primary. Hypercalcaemia and bone pain may suggest metastatic carcinoma, which is common in prostate cancer.
CA 19-9, AFP, beta-HCG, and CEA are other tumour markers that are used for different types of cancer. CA 19-9 is helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses, AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, beta-HCG is used in the diagnosis and management of gestational trophoblastic disease and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours of the testes, and CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.
In conclusion, tumour markers have various clinical applications in the diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of cancer. However, their sensitivity and specificity may vary, and they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools for accurate diagnosis and management of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent 3.2 kg (7 lb) weight loss. His urine contains a small amount of ketones.
Which of the following features would suggest this patient is most likely to have type II rather than type I diabetes?Your Answer: Positive islet-cell antibodies
Correct Answer: High circulating insulin level
Explanation:Misconceptions about Diabetes Mellitus: Clarifying the Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. However, there are still misconceptions about the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of this disease. In particular, there are several incorrect statements that need to be clarified.
Firstly, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance and high insulin levels, not low insulin levels as in type I diabetes. Insulin resistance is a precursor to type II diabetes and is linked to a higher risk of developing heart disease. The causes of insulin resistance are both genetic and lifestyle-related.
Secondly, HLA DR-3 is not associated with type I diabetes mellitus. Instead, this disease is linked to HLA DR-3 or DR-4.
Thirdly, patients with type II diabetes typically have a high BMI (>25 kg/m2), not a BMI of 23 kg/m2.
Fourthly, a plasma bicarbonate level of 8 mmol/l (normal range 24–30 mmol/l) is not commonly seen in patients with type II diabetes. While these patients may have + or ++ ketones in their urine, severe acidosis is more common in type I diabetes, with diabetic ketoacidosis being a potentially fatal complication.
Finally, positive islet-cell antibodies are not associated with type II diabetes. Instead, type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder characterised by the presence of autoantibodies to the islet cell, insulin or glutamic acid dehydrogenase.
In conclusion, it is important to clarify the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of diabetes mellitus to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old is being initiated on insulin therapy to control his diabetes as his HbA1c levels have been consistently high. He had experienced hypoglycemia four years ago. Additionally, he is taking fluoxetine and atorvastatin. He asks if he can drive to visit his parents.
What would be the appropriate guidance to provide?Your Answer: He cannot drive a car if he has had a hypoglycemic episode which required the assistance of another person in the past 24 months
Correct Answer: He must take breaks every 2 hours to check his blood glucose
Explanation:Insulin-dependent diabetics are required to take breaks every 2 hours to check their blood glucose while driving. They must also have hypoglycemia awareness, no severe hypos in the past year, and no visual impairment. It is important to inform the DVLA of their condition. They can still drive a car, but with additional precautions.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with multiple non-healing leg ulcers and a history of feeling unwell for several months. During examination, her blood pressure is 138/72 mmHg, pulse is 90 bpm, and she has pale conjunctivae and poor dentition with bleeding gums. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin C: A Water Soluble Vitamin with Essential Functions
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is a water soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. One of its primary functions is acting as an antioxidant, which helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Additionally, vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis, as it acts as a cofactor for enzymes required for the hydroxylation of proline and lysine in the synthesis of collagen. This vitamin also facilitates iron absorption and serves as a cofactor for norepinephrine synthesis.
However, a deficiency in vitamin C, also known as scurvy, can lead to defective collagen synthesis, resulting in capillary fragility and poor wound healing. Some of the features of vitamin C deficiency include gingivitis, loose teeth, poor wound healing, bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis, and general malaise. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin C through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 54
Correct
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A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
Free T4 35 pmol/L
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction
Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can cause thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients. This dysfunction can manifest as either hypothyroidism or thyrotoxicosis.
Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is believed to occur due to the high iodine content of the medication, which can cause a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. Despite this, amiodarone may still be continued if desired.
On the other hand, amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) can be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 AIT is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 AIT is related to destructive thyroiditis caused by amiodarone. In patients with type 1 AIT, a goitre may be present, while it is absent in type 2 AIT. Management of AIT involves carbimazole or potassium perchlorate for type 1 and corticosteroids for type 2.
It is important to note that unlike in AIH, amiodarone should be stopped if possible in patients who develop AIT. Understanding the potential effects of amiodarone on the thyroid gland is crucial in managing patients who require this medication for their heart condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes in for a check-up on his diabetes. He has been living with type 1 diabetes for 32 years. Lately, he has experienced several falls that he describes as episodes where he feels dizzy and loses his balance. He has also been dealing with erectile dysfunction for a few years and takes medication for acid reflux. During the physical examination, his blood pressure drops by 30 mmHg upon standing.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this patient's medical history and examination? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Somatic symptom disorder
Correct Answer: Diabetic autonomic neuropathy
Explanation:Diabetic Autonomic Neuropathy: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Diabetic autonomic neuropathy is a type of nerve damage that affects the autonomic nervous system in people with diabetes. Common symptoms include a marked postural drop, gastrointestinal tract neuropathy, impotence, tachycardia, and impaired cardiovascular response to the Valsalva manoeuvre. Other symptoms may include diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal distension, atonic bladder, painless urinary retention, and recurrent urinary tract infections.
It is important to differentiate diabetic autonomic neuropathy from other conditions with similar symptoms. Simple fainting, arrhythmia, somatic symptom disorder, and transient ischaemic attacks are all potential differential diagnoses that should be ruled out. While fainting or reflex syncope may cause a drop in blood pressure, it is often triggered by specific events and doesn’t explain the other symptoms. Arrhythmia may cause fainting or syncope, but it doesn’t account for the gastrointestinal or sexual symptoms. Somatic symptom disorder may present with physical symptoms, but they are not necessarily associated with a medical condition. Transient ischaemic attacks may cause fainting, but the other symptoms are not typical of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is undergoing a routine health assessment. She admits to consuming at least 5 standard alcoholic drinks each weekday evening and even more on the weekend. The risks of this intake are discussed with her and a plan is made to reduce her intake.
Which of the following actions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Prescribe an intramuscular multivitamin supplement
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral thiamine
Explanation:Patients who regularly consume excessive amounts of alcohol should be prescribed thiamine to prevent the onset of Wernicke’s syndrome, which can lead to irreversible Korsakoff psychosis. Admission is not necessary unless the patient is experiencing significant withdrawal symptoms. An intramuscular multivitamin is not appropriate, as oral thiamine is less invasive and effective. Oral multivitamins are also not recommended, as they may not contain enough thiamine. Vitamin B co-strong is no longer recommended for alcohol-consuming patients, as it doesn’t provide sufficient thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s syndrome.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman visits a fertility clinic with her partner due to oligomenorrhoea and galactorrhea. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 18 months, she has been unable to conceive. Upon conducting blood tests, it is discovered that her serum prolactin level is 6000 mIU/l (normal <500 mIU/l). Further investigation through a pituitary MRI reveals a microprolactinoma.
What initial treatment options are likely to be presented to her?Your Answer: Transfrontal hypophysectomy
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:When it comes to treating prolactinomas, dopamine agonists like cabergoline and bromocriptine are typically the first choice, even if the patient is experiencing significant neurological complications. Surgery may be necessary for those who cannot tolerate or do not respond to medical treatment, with a trans-sphenoidal approach being the preferred method unless there is extensive extra-pituitary extension. Radiotherapy is not commonly used, and octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is primarily used to treat acromegaly.
Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma
Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.
In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.
Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.
Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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You are seeing a woman in her 60s with type 2 diabetes for review. She holds a group 1 driving license.
Her current treatment consists of metformin 500 mg TDS and gliclazide 80 mg BD. As part of her review, you discuss any episodes of hypoglycaemia.
She tells you that she has had episodes of hypoglycaemia since she was last seen for review almost a year ago. On further questioning, there have been two episodes when she felt significantly unwell. During these episodes, her husband checked her finger prick blood sugar and it was less than 3 mmol/L. On both of these occasions, she felt sweaty, shaky and nauseated.
Her husband is with her and he tells you that she quite quickly became unwell and 'confused' with these episodes and he had to help her rest on the sofa and give her some dextrose tablets to get her sugar back up. She has not had any episodes of hypoglycaemia whilst driving.
With regard to her driving, what should you advise?Your Answer: He can continue driving but he must check his finger prick glucose before driving
Correct Answer: He should only drive with another person in the car in case he requires assistance or becomes unwell whilst driving
Explanation:New Medical Driving Standards for Diabetes Patients
The medical driving standards for individuals with diabetes have recently changed. For those with a group 1 entitlement who are managed with tablets that carry the risk of inducing hypoglycaemia, they must stop driving and inform the DVLA if they have had more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the preceding 12 months. Severe hypoglycaemia is defined as an episode that requires external help. In this case, the patient has experienced two episodes where external help from his wife was needed. As a result, the patient should cease driving until 12 months after the last but one episode and can only resume driving when stable control is demonstrated. These new standards aim to ensure the safety of both the driver and other individuals on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her weight is 76 kg, body mass index 34 kg/m2. After 3 months’ trial of dietary modification, she has lost 2 kg in weight, and her Hba1c, which was 78 mmol/mol at diagnosis, is 71 mmol/mol. She is well and has no symptoms related to her condition.
Select from the list the single most appropriate treatment to commence.Your Answer: Insulin
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Type 2 Diabetes
Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. Metformin is the preferred first-line treatment as it increases insulin sensitivity. However, caution should be taken when prescribing metformin to patients with renal impairment. If metformin is not suitable, other options include dipeptidylpeptidase-4 inhibitors, pioglitazone, and sulfonylureas. Pioglitazone can be used as a second-line treatment or in combination with metformin. Acarbose is a weak hypoglycemic agent and is only used in combination with other agents. Sulfonylureas may be considered as first-line therapy in symptomatic patients, but should be prescribed with caution in obese individuals. Insulin may be necessary if oral therapies fail to adequately control HbA1C levels. It is important to consider contraindications and potential side effects when selecting a treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to an early morning duty appointment with complaints of increasing fatigue, abdominal pain, vomiting, and excessive thirst over the past week. She has a history of well-controlled hypertension with amlodipine and takes atorvastatin. She recently started a six-week course of high-dose colecalciferol, prescribed by another GP, but has only taken one dose so far. On examination, she appears fatigued and drowsy, but her observations are unremarkable. Urgent blood tests are ordered, and the results show a Hb of 124 g/L, platelets of 224 * 109/L, WBC of 6.4 * 109/L, Na+ of 141 mmol/L, K+ of 4.0 mmol/L, urea of 6.9 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, calcium of 3.7 mmol/L, phosphate of 1.1 mmol/L, magnesium of 1.0 mmol/L, and TSH of 3.24 mU/L. Looking back at her blood results from the previous week, her calcium was 2.56 mmol/L, phosphate was 1.2 mmol/L, magnesium was 0.8 mmol/L, and vitamin D was 7 nmol/L. Based on these findings, she is admitted directly under the acute medical team for further management. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paget’s disease
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:If a patient with coexistent hyperparathyroidism undergoes rapid vitamin D replacement, it can lead to toxicity. In the case of this woman, she requires urgent admission under the medical team due to severe hypercalcaemia. The cause is likely vitamin D toxicity and unidentified primary hyperparathyroidism. Previous blood tests indicate a severe vitamin D deficiency, but her calcium level is at the higher end of normal, suggesting an overactive parathyroid gland that was masked by the low vitamin D. Testing for parathyroid hormone prior to administering vitamin D could have clarified this. It is advisable to seek advice from endocrinology before rapid vitamin D replacement if the baseline corrected calcium is >2.5. While multiple myeloma can cause hypercalcaemia, it doesn’t occur as rapidly. Paget’s disease causes an increased ALP with a normal calcium level, and thyrotoxicosis due to Graves disease can cause hypercalcaemia due to increased bone turnover, but a suppressed TSH would be expected.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old patient who has type two diabetes and has no other current health issues or significant medical history. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g bd. Their HbA1c was 56 mmol/mol six months ago and has increased to 59 mmol/mol in their most recent test from last week. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?
Your Answer: Refer to secondary care diabetic services
Correct Answer: Add additional oral agent to metformin
Explanation:If a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking the maximum dose of metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol or higher, it is recommended to add a second drug to their treatment regimen. The patient should be closely monitored and have their HbA1c level checked again in 3-6 months to ensure stability on the new therapy. It is important to intensify treatment at this stage, but referral to secondary care is not necessary and primary care should manage the patient’s management. Insulin therapy is not recommended yet, and a further oral agent should be added first. If the second agent fails to reduce HbA1c, triple therapy may be considered. Lifestyle advice and management should also be provided at each review.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole for hyperthyroidism. What is the most crucial blood test to conduct?
Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Exclusion of agranulocytosis is necessary when using carbimazole.
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female who saw the nurse a few days ago complaining of longstanding lethargy and vague abdominal pains comes to see you. She has lost a little weight and has also been feeling tearful and 'not herself'. The nurse arranged some blood tests and booked her in with you for review.
She has a past medical history of asthma, migraine and vitiligo. She doesn't take any regular medications and her only recent prescription is for a salbutamol inhaler which she uses infrequently.
On examination, you notice that her palmar creases are pigmented as is her buccal mucosa. Her blood pressure is 108/88 mmHg sitting and 88/62 mmHg standing. Otherwise you cannot elicit any other focal findings.
The blood tests show:
Sodium 131 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 5.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 11.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 96 µmol/L (60-110)
Random glucose 3.1
What is the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Conn's syndrome
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant.
Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a protein pump inhibitor as a precautionary measure?
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 64
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman with Addison's disease is admitted to the Emergency Department with gastroenteritis. As she is being admitted to the medical ward, what steps should be taken regarding her steroid replacement?
Your Answer: Double hydrocortisone dose, same fludrocortisone dose
Explanation:When a patient with Addison’s disease experiences an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to increase their glucocorticoid dosage by two-fold. However, the dose of fludrocortisone should remain the same as usual, as it is not as crucial during times of illness. This is because individuals with Addison’s have limited or no natural steroid production, and the body typically responds to stress by increasing cortisol production.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Fludrocortisone is also included in the treatment regimen. Patient education is crucial in managing Addison’s disease. Patients should be reminded not to miss glucocorticoid doses, and they may consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards. Additionally, patients should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis. It is also important to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness.
During an intercurrent illness, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose remains the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios for managing intercurrent illness. These guidelines can be found on the CKS link for more information. Proper management of Addison’s disease is essential to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment and care they need to manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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As a GPST1 in general practice, you encounter a 37-year-old woman who comes to your clinic seeking advice. She was recently diagnosed with premature menopause and has been advised to undergo hormone replacement therapy (HRT) until she reaches the age of 49. However, she expresses some concerns about this and wishes to know the reason behind the recommended treatment. How would you explain this to the patient?
Your Answer: Reduces the risk of osteoporosis and reduces the risk breast cancer
Correct Answer: Reduces the risk of cardiovascular disease and prevents osteoporosis
Explanation:For women who experience premature menopause or premature ovarian insufficiency (POI), it is recommended to continue hormone replacement therapy (HRT) until the age of 50. POI is diagnosed in women under 40 who have experienced amenorrhea or oligomenorrhea for at least four months and have a raised FSH level of over 40 IU/L measured on two occasions four to six weeks apart. Women with POI are at a higher risk of cardiovascular disease, osteoporosis, and cognitive impairment. HRT is prescribed to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and prevent osteoporosis, unless contraindicated. However, HRT doesn’t reduce the risk of breast cancer or endometrial cancer and may increase the risk of breast cancer if used after natural menopause, which occurs around the age of 50.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is otherwise well and takes no other medication. He has some bloods taken at his annual review, including for thyroid function. His thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 0.1 mU/L, free thyroxine (T4) 21 pmol/l and triiodothyronine (T3) 4.3 pmol/l. Repeat testing shows similar results. His thyroid gland is not enlarged or tender.
Which of the following conditions is this patient most at risk from?Your Answer: Depression
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Subclinical Hyperthyroidism: Risks and Treatment Recommendations
Subclinical hyperthyroidism is characterized by persistently low TSH levels of less than 0.4 mU/L with normal T4 and T3 levels. This condition has been associated with an increased risk of atrial fibrillation, particularly in elderly populations. Studies have reported a 13% incidence of atrial fibrillation in subclinical hyperthyroidism compared to 2% in controls. Additionally, there is evidence of decreased bone mineral density, especially in postmenopausal women. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends referral to an endocrinologist for persistent subclinical hyperthyroidism. Treatment is usually offered to those with a TSH level persistently equal to or less than 0.1 mU/L, aged 65 years or older, postmenopausal, at risk of osteoporosis, have cardiac risk factors, or have any symptoms of hyperthyroidism. However, there is no evidence of changes in mood or cognitive function in patients with subclinical hyperthyroidism. It is important to note that subclinical hyperthyroidism doesn’t lead to hypothyroidism or thyroid cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating, and her husband, while archiving photos from recent years, noticed an increased prominence of her jaw now. Last year she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Other past history of note is that she has recently been operated on for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?Your Answer: Random growth-hormone level is likely to be less than 1 µg/l
Correct Answer: Growth-hormone levels are likely to remain above 1 µg/l after a 75 g glucose load
Explanation:Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Acromegaly is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. A diagnosis is confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test, as growth hormone levels remain elevated above 1 µg/l. Symptoms include coarse facial features, enlarged hands and feet, and soft tissue swellings. Nerve compression, hypertension, and cardiovascular complications may also occur. Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are elevated in patients with acromegaly and can be used to monitor treatment efficacy. Random growth hormone testing is unsuitable due to episodic secretion. Treatment involves trans-sphenoidal resection of the pituitary tumor. Additionally, some patients with acromegaly may have increased levels of 1,25-OH vitamin D, which can cause hypercalcemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours. Your patient is a 65-year-old lady who has Addison's disease and she has fallen down stairs and is unable to get up.
Her husband says that her left lower leg is swollen, bruised, and deformed. She is in pain and cannot get up. There was no loss of consciousness and there is no vomiting. He has phoned 999 for an ambulance, which is on its way, but in the meantime, he would like advice about her steroids.
What would you advise?Your Answer: She should double the usual dose of fludrocortisone
Correct Answer: She should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately
Explanation:Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Disease
The sick day rules for Addison’s disease are important to know and follow. In the case of a major injury, it is crucial to take 20 mg of Hydrocortisone immediately to prevent shock. If a patient has a fever of more than 37.5 C or an infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics, they should double their normal dose of hydrocortisone. For severe nausea with a headache, taking 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally and sipping rehydration/electrolyte fluids (e.g. Dioralyte) is recommended. In the event of vomiting, the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone should be used immediately, followed by calling a doctor and stating Addison’s emergency. It is also important to inform any medical professionals, such as anaesthetists, surgical teams, dentists, or endoscopists, of the need for extra oral medication and to check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover. By following these guidelines, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition and prevent potentially life-threatening situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with obesity would like to participate in an exercise program.
Which of the following would be a relative contraindication to him exercising?Your Answer: Diabetic nephropathy
Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
Explanation:Exercise Recommendations for Different Diabetic Complications
Untreated diabetic proliferative retinopathy can lead to haemorrhage, which is why patients with this condition should avoid strenuous exercise until they have received photocoagulation therapy. On the other hand, exercise is actually encouraged for patients with peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. It is important to understand the different exercise recommendations for various diabetic complications in order to promote optimal health and prevent further complications. By following these guidelines, patients can improve their overall well-being and reduce their risk of developing additional health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient has recently obtained her driver's license. She is an insulin dependent diabetic and plans to embark on a lengthy road trip. She comprehends the significance of hypoglycemia symptoms and frequent blood sugar monitoring. She has been instructed to keep fast-acting carbohydrates with her at all times while driving but seeks guidance on when to pull over and consume a snack after checking her blood glucose levels.
At what blood glucose level should she have a snack?Your Answer: 7 mmol/litre
Correct Answer: 4 mmol/litre
Explanation:Practical Management of Insulin in AKT Exam
Questions about the practical management of insulin are common in the AKT exam, but have been poorly answered in previous exams. Therefore, it is likely to be a recurrent theme. To ensure that you are adequately prepared, we have extracted the learning points from the reference sources used by examiners.
The guidance suggests that drivers should ensure that their blood glucose is above 5 mmol/litre when driving, but they should stop driving if it drops below 4 mmol/litre. If the blood glucose drops below 5 mmol/litre, they are advised to take a snack. Therefore, it is important to clarify which threshold applies when answering questions related to this topic.
Learning points that may be tested include the advice about testing frequency, thresholds for driving, thresholds for taking a snack or stopping driving, and when the journey can be safely resumed. Don’t worry, we have questions that will test you on all of these learning points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a sodium level of 127 mmol/l. She doesn't smoke. Which medication is the most probable cause of this abnormality?
Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Glimepiride
Explanation:SIADH is a well-known side effect of sulfonylureas like glimepiride.
SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by various factors such as malignancy (particularly small cell lung cancer), neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections like tuberculosis or pneumonia, certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs, and other factors like positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment involves slowly correcting the sodium levels, restricting fluid intake, and using medications like demeclocycline or ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to correct the sodium levels slowly to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes in for a diabetic review. He is currently taking metformin twice daily at a dose of 1 g and gliclazide once daily at 80 mg. He started taking metformin 18 months ago and gliclazide 12 months ago. Additionally, he takes ramipril once daily at 10 mg and simvastatin 40 mg at night.
Upon reviewing his blood results, it is evident that his HbA1c has worsened from 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) to 64 mmol/mol (8%) over the past year. His body mass index is 36.2 kg/m2.
During the discussion of his current medication, the patient reports experiencing frequent hypoglycemic episodes, typically in the late morning, which has been confirmed with finger prick glucose measurements. There are no other issues or side effects with his treatment.
What is the most appropriate next step in treating this patient's high blood sugar levels?Your Answer: Stop the gliclazide and add in pioglitazone to his treatment
Correct Answer: Stop the metformin and the gliclazide and refer for consideration of insulin therapy
Explanation:Reviewing Treatment for Deteriorating Glycaemic Control and Hypoglycaemic Episodes
This patient’s glycaemic control has deteriorated and he is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes due to his sulphonylurea. It is important to review his existing treatment and make necessary changes. Metformin should be continued unless there are side-effects or contraindications. The gliclazide should be stopped or reduced in dose, as it can contribute to weight gain and the patient is already obese. Pioglitazone can also cause weight gain, so a DPP-4 inhibitor may be a more suitable second-line adjunct to treatment. DPP-4 inhibitors are weight neutral and can be used in combination with metformin. It is important to monitor HbA1c levels and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus in the diabetes clinic. His current blood pressure is 150/86 mmHg. His diabetes is well managed and there is no indication of end-organ damage. What is the recommended target blood pressure for him?
Your Answer: < 130/80 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:For individuals with type 2 diabetes, NICE suggests the following target for blood pressure:
Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and unexplained weight gain. During the physical examination, a diffuse, painless goitre is observed. The following blood tests are conducted:
TSH 15.1 mU/l
Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
ESR 14 mm/hr
Anti-TSH receptor stimulating antibodies Negative
Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies Positive
Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pituitary failure
Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has had type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15 years and has been your patient for nine years. Her HbA1c has ranged from 63 mmol/mol to 74 mmol/mol (19-41).
Today her blood pressure is 132/86 mmHg. She also has noticed that her home blood glucose levels fluctuate more than normal over the last three months. She also informs you that she is aware of nausea after eating and has required less food than usual to satisfy her appetite.
Investigations show:
Urea 8.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-110)
Sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (20-28)
HbA1c 41 mmol/mol (20-42)
Urinalysis Protein+
What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Incipient renal failure
Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying
Explanation:Autonomic Neuropathy and Gastric Emptying
She has a lengthy medical history of diabetes and has been experiencing nausea after eating, along with a feeling of fullness and a reduced appetite. These symptoms suggest that she may be experiencing reduced gastric emptying, which is a common symptom of autonomic neuropathy. Other symptoms that may be present include postural hypotension, gustatory sweating, diarrhea, or changes in bowel habits. To confirm the diagnosis, a barium swallow and meal may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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You receive a discharge summary for Mr. Chen, a 65-year-old man, who has had an acute surgical admission with pancreatitis. The summary notes that it was thought to be drug-related. His past medical history includes atrial fibrillation and type 2 diabetes. His regular medications are ramipril, warfarin, metformin, sitagliptin, and atorvastatin. He also takes an over-the-counter vitamin D supplement.
Which of his medications might have caused this presentation and should be reported by Yellow Card?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:Pancreatitis is a rare but significant side effect of DPP4-inhibitors, while Bisoprolol, apixaban, and vitamin D do not have this adverse effect. Metformin doesn’t cause pancreatitis, but it can increase the risk of lactic acidosis, which is why it should be discontinued in cases where there is a risk of this condition, such as in serious illnesses like pancreatitis. The correct answer is Sitagliptin, as DPP4-inhibitors have been linked to acute pancreatitis and should be discontinued if suspected and reported through the Yellow Card system.
The following table provides a summary of the typical side-effects associated with drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects and lactic acidosis. Sulfonylureas can lead to hypoglycaemic episodes, increased appetite and weight gain, as well as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion and cholestatic liver dysfunction. Glitazones are associated with weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, and fractures. Finally, gliptins have been linked to pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman, with type 2 diabetes, has been successful in controlling her HbA1c through diet alone. She has lost 5 kilograms in the past 6 months by making changes to her diet and exercising regularly. Despite her progress, she is aware that her BMI categorizes her as 'obese' and wants to continue losing weight. During her clinic visit, she inquired about foods she should avoid.
What foods should this patient steer clear of?Your Answer: Oily fish
Correct Answer: Foods marketed specifically for diabetics
Explanation:NICE doesn’t recommend diabetic foods for individuals with diabetes. Instead, it is important to prioritize a healthy and balanced diet that includes high-fibre, low-glycaemic-index sources of carbohydrates (such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses), low-fat dairy products, and oily fish. It is also advised to limit the consumption of foods that contain saturated and trans fatty acids. Additionally, the use of foods marketed specifically for individuals with diabetes should be discouraged.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent a blood test. All results were within normal range except for her thyroid function test (TFT) which revealed:
TSH 12.5 mU/l
Free T4 7.5 pmol/l
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Carbimazole 20 mg daily 30 minutes before breakfast, caffeine and other medication(s)
Correct Answer: Levothyroxine 75 mcg daily 30 minutes before breakfast, caffeine and other medication(s)
Explanation:The TFTs indicate a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be treated with levothyroxine. Carbimazole is not suitable for this condition as it is used to treat hyperthyroidism. To ensure proper absorption, levothyroxine should be taken 30 minutes before consuming food, caffeine, or other medications.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 79
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman who has undergone an extensive thyroid resection comes to see you for follow up some six weeks later. She has recovered well from the operation but reports problems with muscle cramps; these have been so severe on two occasions that she has suffered from cramping and spasm in her hands.
On examination she is a little hypotensive at 105/60, and her pulse is 45. Her reflexes seem quite brisk, but neurological examination is otherwise normal.
Which of the following is the most likely finding on blood testing?Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Post-Surgical Hypoparathyroidism
Post-surgical hypoparathyroidism is a condition that may occur weeks or even months after thyroid surgery. It is characterized by symptoms such as muscle cramps, lethargy, bradycardia, and hypotension that are not responsive to pressors, and carpopedal spasm due to hypocalcaemia. If a patient presents with these symptoms, it is important to investigate further through serum electrolytes, LFTs, and PTH assay. These investigations will help to confirm the diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 50-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is currently undergoing chemotherapy. She presents to you with a 3-week history of constipation and nausea. Samantha has been struggling to cope and has been feeling increasingly sad and depressed. She has also noticed that her arms and legs have been aching more than usual. You order a routine set of blood tests:
Hemoglobin (Hb): 110 g/L
Platelets: 320 * 109/L
White blood cells (WBC): 3.8 * 109/L
Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L
Potassium (K+): 4.5 mmol/L
Urea: 5.9 mmol/L
Creatinine: 75 µmol/L
Corrected calcium (Ca2+): 3.1 mmol/L
Albumin: 32 g/L
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 95 U/L
Phosphate: 1.1 mmol/L
What would be the most appropriate course of action for Samantha's management?Your Answer: Prescribe oral bisphosphonate and advice to increase fluid intake & repeat bloods in 1 week
Correct Answer: Admit immediately
Explanation:Fred is experiencing symptomatic metastatic hypercalcaemia, which requires immediate admission for intravenous fluids and bisphosphonate therapy according to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS). The symptoms of hypercalcaemia can be nonspecific and include bone pain, fractures, drowsiness, muscle weakness, impaired concentration, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, constipation, renal colic, hypertension, and itching, among others. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia can lead to serious complications such as renal impairment, cardiac arrhythmias, and even coma. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential to prevent further harm.
Managing Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia can be managed through various methods. The first step is to rehydrate the patient with normal saline, usually at a rate of 3-4 litres per day. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates can be administered. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximum effect seen at 7 days.
Calcitonin is another option that can be used for quicker effect than bisphosphonates. In cases of sarcoidosis, steroids may also be used. However, loop diuretics such as furosemide should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion. They are typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration.
In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates, calcitonin, or steroids in certain cases. Loop diuretics may also be used, but with caution. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female presents with similar symptoms as the previous case, including irritability, tremors, unexplained weight loss, diarrhoea, palpitations and fatigue. On examination, her pulse rate is 120/min and regular. Her thyroid gland is also noted to be symmetrically enlarged but non-tender.
Blood tests reveal the following:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.1 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 26 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
TSH receptor antibodies (TRAb) 16 IU/L (<1.7)
What medication can be prescribed to manage the patient's symptoms quickly while she awaits her appointment with the endocrinologist?Your Answer: Metoprolol
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Propranolol is an effective non-selective beta-blocker that can be used to control the symptoms of hyperthyroidism in new cases of Graves’ disease. While carbimazole is also an anti-thyroid medication that can improve thyroid levels in the long-term, it may not provide rapid symptom relief compared to beta-blockers. Metoprolol, a selective beta-blocker for beta-1 adrenergic receptors, is not as effective as propranolol in this situation. Propylthiouracil is another anti-thyroid medication that can be used instead of carbimazole, but may not provide quick symptom relief. Radioactive iodine is a specialist treatment option used by endocrinologists for patients who do not respond to anti-thyroid medications, but it doesn’t provide short-term symptom relief.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and no end-organ damage, based on a clinic blood pressure reading?
Your Answer: < 140/90 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for the same blood pressure targets as those without diabetes, as long as they are under 80 years old. This means keeping clinic readings below 140/90 and ABPM/HBPM readings below 135/85. It is important to note that these targets apply regardless of whether the patient has any end-organ damage.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 10 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l).
What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: The starting dose of levothyroxine should be 100 µg daily
Correct Answer: There is a risk of cardiac arrhythmias with treatment
Explanation:Correcting Hypothyroidism with Levothyroxine: Dosage and Risks
One of the main concerns with starting levothyroxine replacement for hypothyroidism is the risk of cardiac arrhythmias or myocardial ischemia, although rare. Therefore, initial low dosing is followed by gradual dose escalation until euthyroid status is achieved. Over-treatment can also lead to osteoporosis. The aim of treatment is to normalise serum TSH and improve thyroid hormone concentrations to the euthyroid state. Levothyroxine alone is the recommended treatment, with an initial dose of 50-100 µg once daily for patients aged 18-49 years, adjusted in steps of 25-50 µg every four weeks according to response. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, and those over 50 years, the recommended initial dose is 25 µg once daily. Symptom relief may take many months after TSH levels have returned to normal, and persisting symptoms warrant further investigations for non-thyroid causes.
Levothyroxine Dosage and Risks in Correcting Hypothyroidism
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 68-year old woman with type 2 diabetes attends annual review at the GP practice. She currently takes lisinopril 10 mg OM, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, metformin 1 g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OM and gliclazide 80 mg OM.
You discuss her progress and she tells you that she has episodes in the late morning where she feels generally out of sorts with lightheadedness and has had some blurred vision. She has checked her blood sugar during one of these episodes and it is 2.5 mmol/L (3-6).
Which one of her medicines is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Lisinopril
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:Understanding the Cause of Hypoglycaemic Episodes
This patient is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea medication. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can lead to significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with these medications. The ACE inhibitor or statin would not be a factor in this presentation.
Gliclazide is a good choice of sulphonylurea as it is often the longer acting agents such as glibenclamide that cause more profound and severe problems with hypoglycaemia. However, it is important to note that all sulphonylureas carry the risk of hypoglycaemia. Understanding the cause of hypoglycaemic episodes is crucial in managing diabetes and ensuring the safety of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 85
Correct
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Ben is a 56-year-old who has been diagnosed with diabetes and is requesting a 'Medical exemption certificate'. What form should you fill out?
Your Answer: FP92A
Explanation:The correct answer is the FP92A form, which is a medical exemption certificate that can be claimed to entitle a patient to free prescriptions. This form can be claimed if a patient has certain conditions, such as a permanent fistula or diabetes mellitus.
The FP57 form is an NHS receipt for payment of a prescription, which can be used to claim money back later. The GMS1 form is completed by new patients when registering with a GP surgery. The DS1500 form is completed by a doctor for patients with a terminal illness, allowing them to apply for certain benefits.
Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?
In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.
Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.
Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.
For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 86
Correct
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A 40-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for 2 years and they have undergone clinical evaluation. While his partner's assessment is normal, he has been diagnosed with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.
What are the possible causes of this condition?Your Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often nonspecific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.
Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female with Addison's disease is having trouble with her hydrocortisone treatment, which she takes at a dose of 20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening. However, she often forgets to take the evening dose. She would like to switch to daily prednisolone to avoid this issue. What dose of prednisolone would be equivalent to her current daily dose of hydrocortisone?
Your Answer: 10 mg
Correct Answer: 7.5 mg
Explanation:Ratios and Activities of Corticosteroids
The ratios of prednisolone to hydrocortisone and dexamethasone to hydrocortisone are approximately 1:4 and 1:24, respectively. While prednisolone mainly exhibits glucocorticoid activity, hydrocortisone has some mineralocorticoid activity, making it suitable for adrenal replacement therapy on its own. However, fludrocortisone is often required for its mineralocorticoid activity. The split dose of hydrocortisone is intended to mimic normal diurnal variation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic for the first time. She is obese, plethoric, and has significant bruising on her limbs and new striae on her abdomen. Additionally, she has a dorsal kyphosis due to a vertebral collapse earlier this year. What is the most effective way to distinguish Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal adenoma from Cushing syndrome caused by a pituitary adenoma? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: 0900 h serum cortisol of 200 nmol/l after overnight low dose dexamethasone test
Correct Answer: Undetectable serum adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome
Cushing syndrome can be caused by various factors, including pituitary adenoma, ectopic ACTH secretion, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, adrenal nodular hyperplasia, or excess glucocorticoid administration. To diagnose Cushing syndrome, several diagnostic tests are available.
Undetectable Serum Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) Level: In adrenal causes of Cushing syndrome, the ACTH level is suppressed or undetectable. However, a normal ACTH level can sometimes be found in pituitary-driven Cushing syndrome and ectopic ACTH, as there is overlap between the normal and elevated ranges.
Raised Urine Cortisol/Creatinine Ratio: This test is not helpful in differentiating the cause of Cushing syndrome as the urine cortisol/creatinine ratio is elevated in all causes.
0900 h Serum Cortisol of 200 nmol/l after Overnight Low Dose Dexamethasone Test: An unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is diagnostic for Cushing syndrome. However, all causes of Cushing syndrome will give an unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level.
Normal 0900 h Serum Cortisol Level: The serum cortisol level can be normal in both adrenal and pituitary causes, as it has a wide range of normal. However, there is a loss of diurnal variation with reduced cortisol production in the evening compared with the morning.
Serum Potassium of 2.2 mmol/l: Serum potassium is most likely to be low in cases of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and can be due to the mineralocorticoid of cortisol itself or in adrenal carcinoma as a result of excessive mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) activity.
Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presented to the Emergency Department from her workplace, for the second time in the span of three months, after experiencing a syncopal episode. She also reported feeling extremely fatigued for the past few months and having bouts of dizziness. Upon examination, she appeared slender and sun-kissed, with a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg while lying down, but it dropped to 87/63 mmHg upon standing. Her baseline serum cortisol was low (<100 nmol/l) and her free thyroxine (T4) level was also low.
What is the most appropriate diagnosis for the clinical presentation described above? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Primary hypoadrenalism
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hypoadrenalism: A Case Study
A woman presents with a marked postural drop in blood pressure, increased pigmentation, and low cortisol levels, indicating primary hypoadrenalism as the most likely diagnosis. The high adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level causes pigmentation, and autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands is responsible for 80% of cases. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common in established cases. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends hospital admission for serum cortisol levels below 100 nmol/l and referral to an endocrinologist for levels between 100 and 500 nmol/l. Hypovolemia, HIV, hypothyroidism, and psychiatric symptoms are unlikely causes based on the case history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 90
Correct
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According to NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181), in which of the following elderly patients would you use a QRISK2 risk assessment tool to decide whether or not to initiate treatment with a lipid-lowering agent?
Your Answer: A 48-year-old man with established CVD
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Lipid Modification
The NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181) provides advice on assessing cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk for primary prevention. The guidance recommends using the QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess CVD risk in individuals up to and including age 84 years. However, the tool should not be used for people with type 1 diabetes or those with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2 and/or albuminuria, as they are already at increased risk of CVD. For people with type 2 diabetes, the QRISK2 tool should be used to assess CVD risk. It is also important to note that a risk assessment tool should not be used for individuals who are at high risk of developing CVD due to familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited disorders of lipid metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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