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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his doctor's office and reports that his wife passed away recently. He shares that he woke up this morning thinking she was lying next to him and heard her voice calling his name. He acknowledges that this is not feasible, but it has caused him considerable anguish. He is concerned that he might be losing his mind. He has no other significant psychiatric history.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Depression with psychosis
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations, which are characterized by the patient’s awareness that the voice or feeling is coming from their own mind, are not indicative of psychosis or serious psychiatric conditions. This makes schizophrenia and other psychotic options less likely, and there are no signs of schizoid personality disorder in the patient. Pseudohallucinations are often observed in individuals who have experienced bereavement.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations: A Controversial Topic in Mental Health
Pseudohallucinations are a type of false sensory perception that occur in the absence of external stimuli. Unlike hallucinations, the affected person is aware that they are experiencing a false perception. However, there is no clear definition of pseudohallucinations in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, leading to controversy among mental health specialists.
Some experts argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, ranging from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations. This approach can prevent misdiagnosis or mistreatment of symptoms. For example, hypnagogic hallucinations, which occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep, are a common type of pseudohallucination that many people experience. These hallucinations are fleeting and can be either auditory or visual.
The relevance of pseudohallucinations in mental health practice is that patients may need reassurance that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness. Pseudohallucinations are also commonly experienced by people who are grieving, which can add to the confusion and distress of the grieving process.
In conclusion, while the definition and role of pseudohallucinations in mental health treatment remain controversial, it is important for mental health professionals to be aware of this phenomenon and provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who experience it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You see a 55-year-old man for follow up after diagnosing depression at a previous appointment.
He has brought back the completed patient health questionnaire (PHQ-9) as you requested. The PHQ-9 is a questionnaire validated for use in diagnosis and treatment of depression in primary care.
In monitoring symptom severity what is the time period covered by the questionnaire?Your Answer: Last six weeks
Correct Answer: Previous week
Explanation:The Two-Week Symptom Monitoring Questionnaire
The Two-Week Symptom Monitoring Questionnaire is designed to gather information about a person’s symptoms over the past two weeks. It can be completed at regular intervals to track changes in symptoms and help make decisions about treatment.
By answering the questions in the questionnaire, individuals can provide valuable information about their physical and mental health. This information can be used by healthcare professionals to diagnose and treat conditions, as well as to monitor the effectiveness of treatments over time.
The questionnaire is a useful tool for individuals who are experiencing ongoing symptoms or who are undergoing treatment for a chronic condition. By completing the questionnaire regularly, individuals can track changes in their symptoms and make informed decisions about their health and wellbeing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old beauty therapist has come to see you because she is constantly arguing with her partner. They have been living together for the past six months. She says that the arguments are making her feel miserable and that her only enjoyment in life is her work and occasional nights out clubbing with her friends.
She says that her boyfriend resents her lifestyle and is very possessive of her time. She feels depressed when she arrives home and he is there, unless he is working a late shift or it is a night out with her friends. On examination, she appears physically fit, tanned, and smartly dressed. She talked about her partner's deficiencies for most of the consultation. Her past medical history includes a tonsillectomy and Chickenpox as a child. She is a non-smoker and visits the gym three times a week. A colleague advised her to visit you to help her with her problems.
What would be the most appropriate way to manage this patient?Your Answer: Prescribe a tricyclic antidepressant
Correct Answer: Advise her to take St John's wort
Explanation:Relationship Issues vs. Depression: Understanding the Difference
There is no clear indication of depression in this patient’s history. Despite experiencing disharmony in her relationship, she is still able to lead a normal life and enjoy most of it. Therefore, there is no need to prescribe antidepressants or refer her to a psychiatrist. Instead, offering support and guidance towards relationship counseling is the best course of action. It is important to understand the difference between relationship issues and depression, as they require different approaches to treatment. By addressing the root cause of the problem, the patient can work towards resolving her relationship issues and improving her overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is brought by her partner because she has threatened suicide. She has come home suddenly from work because she feels abandoned by her colleagues (who she was previously very close with), having made a mistake in a project. She has been going out regularly to bars drinking and has been quite promiscuous, behaving in a risky way with little care for her own safety and her money. She admits to being intermittently depressed.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Borderline Personality Disorder: Symptoms and Criteria
Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) is a mental health condition that is characterized by a pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions. To be diagnosed with BPD, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following symptoms:
1. Frantic efforts to avoid abandonment.
2. Unstable and intense interpersonal relationships.
3. Markedly and persistently unstable self-image.
4. Impulsivity in at least two areas that are risky, such as sex, substance abuse or reckless driving.
5. Recurrent threats of suicide or self-harm.
6. Mood instability.
7. Feelings of emptiness.
8. Inappropriate and intense anger.
9. Transient paranoia or dissociation (detachment).It is important to note that these symptoms must be persistent and pervasive, causing significant distress and impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning. If you or someone you know is experiencing these symptoms, it is important to seek professional help.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for acute pancreatitis and has a weekly alcohol intake of 90 units. What is the timeframe for the highest occurrence of delirium tremens after ceasing alcohol consumption?
Your Answer: 24 hours
Correct Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 6-12 hours, seizures may occur after 36 hours, and delirium tremens can also be a potential complication.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Correct
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You see a 50-year old woman with a 25 year history of recurrent depression.
She has no symptoms of depression and is well maintained on phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
Which one of the following substances can safely be taken in conjunction with MAOIs?Your Answer: Red wine
Explanation:MAOIs and the Cheese Reaction
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of medication used to treat depression and anxiety. However, they can have serious side effects if not taken with caution. One of these side effects is the cheese reaction, which occurs when foods high in tyramine are consumed while taking MAOIs. Tyramine is not metabolized due to MAO inhibition, causing it to enter the bloodstream and release noradrenaline, leading to severe hypertension. This reaction is called the cheese reaction because many cheeses are rich in tyramine.
It is important to note that paracetamol is safe to take with MAOIs, but other drugs and certain food and drink should be avoided. The early MAOIs irreversibly inhibit monoamine oxidase, but newer ones like moclobemide are reversible and safer. However, MAOIs are rarely prescribed in general practice. To avoid the cheese reaction, it is crucial to avoid foodstuffs high in tyramine, and a full list can be found in the accompanying leaflet to the prescribed drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following medications, when taken with Tamoxifen, may decrease its efficacy and are commonly prescribed to women for anxiety, depression, and hot flashes?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Tamoxifen
Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer, and its effectiveness is dependent on the bioactivation process catalyzed by the cytochrome CYP2D6. However, studies have shown that certain drugs can inhibit CYP2D6, leading to a decrease in the clinical effectiveness of tamoxifen.
Among the drugs that can inhibit CYP2D6, paroxetine and fluoxetine are considered strong inhibitors. Therefore, concomitant use of these drugs with tamoxifen should be avoided. Other drugs have not been shown to have this problem and can be used safely with tamoxifen. It is important to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure the best possible treatment outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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During the past month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed, or hopeless?
A 55-year-old man is attending the diabetic clinic. You are aware that people with a chronic physical health problem such as diabetes are more likely to suffer from depression. You wish to screen for this.
Select from the list the most suitable question to ask him.Your Answer: Has your ability to concentrate been poor?
Correct Answer: Have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?
Explanation:Screening for Depression: Two Questions Recommended by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends two questions for screening depression: Have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? and Have you been feeling down, depressed or hopeless? These questions relate to the past month and have a sensitivity of 96% and a specificity of 57%. While useful for screening, they are not sufficient for diagnosis.
Screening for depression is particularly important for those with a history of depression, significant physical illness, or other mental health problems like dementia. Depression and dementia can have similar symptoms, making screening crucial. Other high-risk groups include women in the puerperium, alcoholics and drug abusers, socially isolated individuals (especially the elderly), people in stressful situations, and those with unexplained symptoms.
If a patient answers yes to the screening questions, further questions about worthlessness, concentration, and thoughts of death should follow. Early detection and treatment of depression can improve outcomes and quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has been taking with citalopram 40 mg daily for 6 weeks for moderately severe depression. She doesn't feel there has been much improvement. She has had suicidal thoughts but these have been only transient. She does have a history of a previous drug overdose. She has refused psychological treatments.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Managing Partial or No Response to Antidepressant Medication
When a patient shows partial or no response to antidepressant medication within 2-4 weeks, it is important to check for adherence to and side-effects from the drug. If these factors are not the issue, the doctor should consider increasing the dose. However, if the patient is already receiving the highest dose of a medication such as citalopram (40 mg daily), switching to an alternative antidepressant may be necessary. This could include another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor or a newer, better-tolerated antidepressant like mirtazapine, moclobemide, or reboxetine. It is important to consult guidance regarding switching, particularly in regards to washout times. Tricyclic antidepressants or venlafaxine should be avoided if there is a risk of overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been extensively investigated and no cause found. He still finds the symptoms very distressing. They are the focus of his attention and he says they are restricting normal activities; he also fears he may have bowel cancer.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Somatic symptom disorder
Explanation:Understanding Somatic Symptom Disorder and its Distinctions from Other Conditions
Somatic symptom disorder (SSD) is a condition characterized by distressing somatic symptoms and excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to those symptoms. These symptoms must persist for at least six months to be diagnosed with SSD. In contrast, illness anxiety disorder is a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without significant somatic symptoms. Colon cancer is unlikely in this patient as extensive investigations have found no cause. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by anxiety about a variety of things, while this patient’s focus is on his abdominal pain and fears of bowel cancer. Irritable bowel syndrome causes abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constipation, but the patient’s symptoms and concerns are more consistent with somatic symptom disorder. Understanding the distinctions between these conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man with schizophrenia is prescribed a monthly zuclopenthixol depot injection in the community. He visits his General Practitioner two weeks after receiving the third dose, reporting an uncomfortable internal feeling of restlessness. He explains it as a strong urge to move and seems unable to stay still, which is causing him significant distress.
What is the side-effect of antipsychotic medications that the patient is experiencing? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Anticholinergic side-effects
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Understanding Common Side Effects of Antipsychotic Medications
Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat a variety of mental health conditions, but they can also cause a range of side effects. It’s important for patients and healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and how to manage them.
One common side effect is akathisia, which is severe restlessness that can occur within the first few months of treatment. This can be distressing for patients and increase the risk of suicide, but it typically responds to dose reduction.
Tardive dyskinesia is another potential side effect, which can present as abnormal movements such as sucking, chewing, and choreoathetosis. It’s more common in women and those with diffuse brain pathology, and only responds to cessation of medication in about 50% of cases.
Acute dystonia is a type of stiffness and rigidity that can occur shortly after taking antipsychotics, particularly phenothiazines and butyrophenones. It’s more common in young men.
Anticholinergic side effects can also occur with antipsychotics, including constipation, urinary retention, dry mouth, blurred vision, and cognitive impairment.
Finally, Parkinsonism can present as rigidity, tremors, stooped posture, and a shuffling gait. It may not appear for several months and can occasionally resolve on its own.
By understanding these potential side effects and how to manage them, patients and healthcare providers can work together to ensure the best possible outcomes for those taking antipsychotic medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen him on a number of occasions over the past 20 years with a moderate depression and you conclude that his symptoms have returned.
When he was first seen, as a student, he was given lofepramine, then dosulepin but responded poorly. This was switched to fluoxetine and he appeared to respond well and finished his medication six months later.
Then in his 30s he suffered from another bout of depression following the failure of a business venture. He was given fluoxetine and was treated successfully, stopping his therapy eight months later.
One month before your consultation, your primary care organisation advised that you should consider initiating treatment for newly diagnosed depressed patients with citalopram, due to cost benefits. Your choice is further enhanced by a recent meeting with a pharmaceutical representative who presents a convincing argument for treating patients with a new selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is claimed to have greater efficacy than existing treatments.
What would be the most appropriate treatment for his current exacerbation?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Choosing the Right Antidepressant
When it comes to treating depression, finding the right medication can be a challenge. However, if a patient has responded well to a particular drug in the past, it is recommended to consider that drug for a recurrent episode. In the case of this patient, he has responded well to fluoxetine but not to lofepramine or dosulepin. While it is possible that an alternative SSRI could work, such as citalopram or a new SSRI from a pharmaceutical representative, the best course of action is to consider the drug that has worked for him in the past. By doing so, the patient has a higher chance of responding positively to the medication and experiencing relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic. She has been feeling down for the past 10 weeks, experiencing a loss of appetite, weight loss, and waking up at 4 am every morning. She often struggles to focus.
She was laid off from her job four months ago, and her elderly father recently suffered a stroke. Her partner is supportive but works odd hours, so he cannot accompany her today. Her daughter is away at college, and she has not talked to anyone about her current issues.
She had a bout of moderate depression five years ago and was successfully treated with Fluoxetine for two years. She currently has no suicidal thoughts and is eager to seek help early this time. You discuss CBT with her, and she agrees to it.
What other intervention is likely to be the most helpful for her?Your Answer: Start a tricyclic antidepressant
Correct Answer: Arrange to see her again in one week
Explanation:Treatment Plan for a Patient with Depression and a Recent Life Event
This patient has a history of moderate depression that responded well to SSRI treatment. She is currently experiencing cognitive and biological symptoms of depression, likely exacerbated by a recent life event – redundancy. Additionally, her mother’s illness is a concern and her potential role as a caregiver will need to be explored. While her partner is supportive, their shift work may make providing day-to-day support difficult.
To address her symptoms, the patient will require frequent support and advice on sleep hygiene, as well as medication. Given her previous successful treatment with fluoxetine, this will be the first medication to try. A tricyclic antidepressant is less likely to be well-tolerated and carries a higher risk of overdose.
If the patient is at significant risk of self-harm, has psychotic symptoms, or has complex disease, referral to specialist mental health services is recommended for expert opinion on treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man who works as a software engineer has recently been terminated by his supervisor, citing missed deadlines and a decline in the quality of his work. He disputes this and claims that his supervisor has always had a personal vendetta against him.
He has confided in his family and close friends, but despite their reassurances, he remains convinced that some of his colleagues were colluding with his supervisor to oust him.
During his mental health evaluation, he appears to be generally stable, except for his fixation on his supervisor and coworkers conspiring against him. His family reports that he is easily offended and tends to have a paranoid outlook.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: Paranoid personality disorder
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of paranoid personality disorder. She appears to be highly sensitive and holds grudges when insulted, while also questioning the loyalty of those around her and being hesitant to confide in others. Her family has also noted her tendency towards paranoia. Borderline personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizophrenia are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has started citalopram because of moderate depression. He has no suicidal intent. He has now returned for review and says he doesn't feel any better.
NICE guidance recommends that if the person's depression shows no improvement with the first antidepressant, you should check that the drug has been taken regularly and in the prescribed dose.
What is the recommended time interval for this review?Your Answer: 2 to 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 1 to 2 weeks
Explanation:Checking for Proper Medication Adherence in Treating Depression
According to NICE guidance, it is important to ensure that the prescribed antidepressant has been taken regularly and in the correct dosage if the person’s depression doesn’t improve within 2 to 4 weeks of starting the medication. This step is crucial in determining whether the lack of improvement is due to medication non-adherence or if a different treatment approach is needed. By checking for proper medication adherence, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients are receiving the full benefits of their prescribed treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is admitted for haematemesis after consuming 100 units of alcohol per week. What is the time frame for the highest occurrence of seizures during alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer: 2 hours
Correct Answer: 36 hours
Explanation:Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 6-12 hours, including seizures.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friend, reporting a 24-hour history of aggressive behaviour, irritability, and hallucinations. The friend suspects that the patient has experienced a mental breakdown due to sleep deprivation from studying for exams. Laboratory tests reveal no evidence of drug use or infection. The patient is admitted to the hospital for observation and returns to his usual behaviour the following day.
What is the probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Bipolar disorder
Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder
Explanation:The correct answer is brief psychotic disorder, which is a short-term condition characterized by the sudden onset of at least one positive psychotic symptom, such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, or catatonic behavior. Unlike other disorders, brief psychotic disorder often resolves with a return to baseline functioning. Adjustment disorder, bipolar disorder, and schizoaffective disorder are not the correct answers as they have different symptoms and characteristics.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female is initiated on haloperidol for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. She visits her primary care physician complaining of neck pain and limited neck movement for the past 24 hours. Upon examination, she displays normal vital signs except for a mild tachycardia of 105 and neck stiffness with restricted range of motion. Her neck is involuntarily flexed to the right, but her facial movements are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oculogyric crisis
Correct Answer: Torticollis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing acute dystonia, which is a sustained muscle contraction resulting in torticollis or oculogyric crisis. This is likely due to the recent initiation of a typical antipsychotic medication, specifically haloperidol. Torticollis, or a wry neck, is diagnosed when there is unilateral pain and deviation of the neck, restricted range of motion, and pain upon palpation.
While neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a medical emergency that can occur in patients taking antipsychotics, this patient’s mild tachycardia is likely due to pain rather than altered mental state, generalised rigidity, fever, fluctuating blood pressure, and high temperature, which are the hallmark symptoms of this condition. However, it should still be considered in patients taking antipsychotics.
Another example of acute dystonia is an oculogyric crisis, which involves sustained upward deviation of the eyes, clenched jaw, and hyperextension of the back/neck with torticollis. However, since the patient doesn’t exhibit any facial signs or symptoms, torticollis alone is the more appropriate diagnosis.
Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that occurs in patients on long-term typical antipsychotics and is characterised by uncontrolled facial movements, such as lip-smacking.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 20 years but now needs to drink more to feel drunk as well as to avoid being irritable. He works as a bank manager and gave up driving 5 years ago at the insistence of his wife. There is no evidence of chronic liver disease on physical examination. Assessment of his mental state reveals episodes of low mood. He no longer goes out with friends.
Select from the list the single most correct diagnosis.Your Answer: Alcohol abuse
Correct Answer: Alcohol dependence
Explanation:Alcohol Dependence and Social Withdrawal: Understanding the Symptoms
Alcohol dependence is a syndrome characterized by withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, and loss of control over alcohol use. The CAGE questionnaire is a useful screening tool for alcohol-related disorders. Episodes of low mood may be related to alcohol dependence. Social withdrawal is a feature of various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia, personality disorders, autism spectrum disorders, depression, social anxiety disorder, and traumatic brain injury. Understanding the symptoms of alcohol dependence and social withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of feeling off for the past few weeks. His girlfriend is with him and expresses concern that he hasn't been acting like himself. She thinks he may need to see a psychiatrist. The patient has no prior history of mental health issues. What symptom would be the most indicative of depression?
Your Answer: Early morning waking
Explanation:Depression often presents with early morning waking as a somatic symptom, which may occur before general insomnia. Anxiety is often associated with palpitations and nausea. Excessive gambling may indicate a gambling addiction or a hypomanic/manic disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder frequently involves flashbacks.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old primiparous woman is brought to the General Practice surgery by her concerned partner. She delivered a healthy baby born seven days ago.
Within two days of delivery, she told her husband that she thought he was poisoning her food. She thinks someone is watching her and they want to take her baby away. She has heard voices telling her she doesn't deserve to have a family. She has not had a bath in six days.
Which is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer: Refer to secondary Mental Health services for immediate assessment within four hours
Explanation:Management of Postnatal Psychosis
Postnatal psychosis is a serious mental health condition that requires urgent assessment and management. It is characterized by positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms like emotional apathy and social withdrawal. The recommended treatment for postnatal psychosis is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), which can help manage depression and other symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline are not typically used to treat postnatal psychosis. Midwives can provide additional support for women experiencing postnatal depression, but urgent referral to secondary mental health services is necessary for those with postnatal psychosis. Immediate assessment within four hours is recommended for those with severe symptoms, while urgent assessment within seven days is necessary for those with less severe symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following indicates psychiatric illness instead of an organic brain disorder?
Your Answer: Impaired short term memory
Correct Answer: A family history of major psychiatric illness
Explanation:Distinguishing Psychiatric Disease from Organic Brain Disease
Psychiatric diseases such as depression and schizophrenia have distinct features that differentiate them from organic brain diseases like dementia. While loss of short term memory and advanced age are more typical of organic brain disease, a family history is particularly associated with depressive illness and schizophrenia. To determine whether a psychiatric emergency is due to disease or psychological illness, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis of psychotic symptoms and medical mimics. Additionally, mental health in older people should be approached with a practice primer that takes into account the unique challenges and considerations of this population. By understanding the typical features and diagnostic approaches for psychiatric diseases, healthcare professionals can provide more effective and targeted care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A middle-aged couple visits the clinic. The wife reports that her spouse has been displaying unusual behavior, specifically, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and even at night. On average, he would check around ten to twenty times. When questioned, he explains that a few months ago, he had a frightening experience where he lost his son in a crowded mall, and he keeps replaying the incident in his head. The husband avoids going to crowded places, experiences anxiety, and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)
Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. His parents brought him to the doctor after noticing he was restricting his food intake and losing weight. What type of treatment is typically recommended for this condition?
Your Answer: Group cognitive behavioural therapy
Correct Answer: Family based therapy
Explanation:The primary treatment for anorexia nervosa in children and adolescents is family therapy that specifically targets anorexia.
Anorexia nervosa is a prevalent mental health condition that primarily affects teenage and young-adult females. It is the most common reason for admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards. The disorder is characterized by a restriction of energy intake, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health. Patients with anorexia nervosa also experience an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, even though they are underweight. They may also have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape, which can affect their self-evaluation.
The diagnosis of anorexia nervosa is based on the DSM 5 criteria, which no longer specifically mention BMI and amenorrhoea. Instead, the criteria focus on the restriction of energy intake, fear of gaining weight, and disturbance in the way one’s body weight or shape is experienced.
The management of anorexia nervosa varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, NICE recommends individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), or specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). In children and young people, NICE recommends ‘anorexia focused family therapy’ as the first-line treatment, followed by cognitive behavioural therapy as the second-line treatment.
Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with anorexia nervosa remains poor, with up to 10% of patients eventually dying because of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman has a history of recurrent moderately severe depression. She has recently started citalopram and has found it effective. She prefers drug treatment to cognitive behavioural therapy, which she has had in the past. However, she has just become pregnant and is concerned about the risks of fetal malformation due to citalopram.
Select from this list the option that seems most appropriate in these circumstances.Your Answer: Switch to St. John’s wort
Correct Answer: Continue citalopram
Explanation:Managing Depression During Pregnancy: Considerations for Antidepressant Use
Depression affects up to 20% of pregnant women and can have negative impacts on both maternal and fetal health. While concerns about potential harm to the developing fetus may lead some women to discontinue antidepressant medication, doing so can increase the risk of relapse for those with a history of recurrent depression. Additionally, depressed women may engage in behaviors that contribute to poorer obstetric and neonatal outcomes.
Decisions about treating depression during pregnancy should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the severity of depression, past history of affective disorder, and maternal preference. While there are no antidepressants licensed for use during pregnancy, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly prescribed. While the risks are thought to be low, some severe birth defects have been reported. Tricyclics are considered safer, but carry a greater risk of overdose.
In cases where a woman wishes to discontinue antidepressant medication, a gradual reduction in dose is recommended. Alternative treatments, such as psychological therapy, may also be considered. St. John’s wort should be avoided due to insufficient data on its safety in pregnancy. Ultimately, the decision to continue or discontinue antidepressant medication during pregnancy should be made in consultation with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a key principle of the 2010 Mental Capacity Act?
Your Answer: An act done, or decision made, under this Act for or on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be done, or made, in his best interests
Correct Answer: A person's ability to make decisions must be reviewed on an annual basis
Explanation:The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What option indicates managing depression through monitoring and providing general guidance only?
Your Answer: Family history of depression
Correct Answer: No obvious trigger factors
Explanation:Managing Depression Symptoms
A patient experiencing symptoms of depression for less than two weeks or with intermittent symptoms can initially be managed through non-invasive methods. This approach is also suitable if there is a clear stressor or if the patient has good social support. However, if the patient has a family history of depression or has had suicidal thoughts, more active intervention may be necessary. It is important to carefully assess each patient’s individual situation and provide appropriate treatment to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by his father, who is worried about his son's lack of sleep.
During the consultation, the patient reveals that he no longer feels the need to sleep for more than 2-3 hours. He appears talkative and mentions that he has been staying up late to work on an online business that he believes will bring him a lot of money. He expresses annoyance at people questioning him, especially since he usually feels low in mood but now feels much better. There are no reports of delusions or hallucinations.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Manic phase of bipolar disorder
Correct Answer: Hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms, including a significant decrease in sleep without feeling tired, excessive talking, irritability, and overconfidence in their business, suggest a possible hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder. This is further supported by their history of depression. Insomnia, which typically results in feeling tired and wanting to sleep, is less likely as the patient doesn’t report feeling tired. Psychosis is also unlikely as there are no delusions or hallucinations present. Overall, the patient’s symptoms align more closely with hypomania than a manic phase of bipolar disorder.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding ADHD in teenagers and adults?
Your Answer: Learning-disabled children do not usually develop ADHD
Correct Answer: Dyslexia may co-exist
Explanation:Understanding Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a condition characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically seen in individuals at a comparable level of development. While it is usually diagnosed in children aged 3-7 years, it can also be recognized later in life, sometimes only in adulthood. To qualify for a diagnosis of ADHD, symptoms must be present before the age of 12, although recalling past symptoms can be challenging, making diagnosis more difficult.
ADHD is more common in children with learning disabilities and is part of a spectrum of disorders. Around 70% of individuals with ADHD also have other conditions, such as dyslexia, language disorders, autistic spectrum disorder, dyspraxia, Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD. Associated problems include self-harm, a predisposition to accidents, substance misuse, delinquency, anxiety states, mood disorder, and academic underachievement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his doctor with worries that his spouse is cheating on him. Despite lacking any concrete evidence, he seems extremely agitated and convinced of his suspicions. What could this symptom indicate?
Your Answer: Grandiose delusion
Correct Answer: Othello's syndrome
Explanation:Erotomania, also known as De Clérambault’s syndrome, is a type of delusion where the patient firmly believes that another person is deeply in love with them.
Understanding Othello’s Syndrome
Othello’s syndrome is a condition characterized by extreme jealousy and suspicion that one’s partner is being unfaithful, even in the absence of any concrete evidence. This type of pathological jealousy can lead to socially unacceptable behavior, such as stalking, accusations, and even violence. People with Othello’s syndrome may become obsessed with their partner’s every move, constantly checking their phone, email, and social media accounts for signs of infidelity. They may also isolate themselves from friends and family, becoming increasingly paranoid and controlling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is constantly in trouble at school. She will not sit still and be quiet or get on with her work. She is equally troublesome at home and her mother cannot take her anywhere. She wonders if she has attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Select from the list the single correct statement about ADHD.Your Answer: Symptoms resolve by late adolescence
Correct Answer: Some impairment from symptoms must be evident in two or more settings
Explanation:Understanding ADHD: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Comorbidities
Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity that is more severe than what is typically observed in individuals at a comparable level of development. In the UK, ADHD affects between 2-5% of children, with boys being more commonly affected. Diagnosis is usually made in children aged 3-7 years, but it can also be recognized later in life.
To diagnose ADHD, symptoms of hyperactivity/impulsivity and/or inattention should be present. However, the ICD-10 classification requires all three problems of attention, hyperactivity, and impulsiveness to be present. About 70% of children with ADHD also have other conditions, such as learning difficulties, dyspraxia, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, or tic disorder. Oppositional defiant disorder or conduct disorder is present in most children with ADHD, and depression and anxiety are common comorbidities.
While about 1 in 3 children with ADHD can grow out of their condition and not require any treatment when they are adults, the remainder either continue with ADHD or retain some symptoms and functional impairment. Therefore, early diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to improve outcomes for individuals with ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Sarah is an 80-year-old woman with advanced Alzheimer's disease. She has recently been diagnosed with terminal liver cancer and her oncologist contacts you to inquire about her decision-making capacity for future treatment. What would be your recommended course of action?
Your Answer: As John has severe Alzheimer's disease he has not got capacity
Correct Answer: Capacity assessments should be carried out by the trained health care professional related to the decision being made.
Explanation:Simply having a diagnosis of severe Alzheimer’s disease doesn’t automatically mean that John lacks decision-making capacity. Age, appearance, condition, or behavior alone cannot be used to determine someone’s capacity.
According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), capacity should be assessed based on the specific decision and time frame. It is crucial to take all possible steps to support individuals in making their own decisions.
The Mental Capacity Act aims to enable healthcare and social care professionals to conduct capacity assessments independently, rather than relying on specialized testing by psychiatrists or psychologists.
The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-week episode of insomnia, increased psychomotor activity and impulsivity. There is no history of substance abuse, general medical problems, emotional stresses or depressive episodes. Mental status examination reveals a well-oriented woman with pressured speech and mood lability. A diagnosis of mania is made. Select from the list the possibility that she may experience a similar episode later on in life.
Your Answer: 10%
Correct Answer: 90%
Explanation:Understanding Bipolar Disorder: Symptoms, Prognosis, and Long-Term Effects
Bipolar disorder is a mental illness that affects many individuals, typically first appearing in their third decade of life. The disorder is characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania, which can be followed by periods of depression. While recovery from an individual episode is possible, the long-term prognosis for those with bipolar disorder is often poorer than expected. Studies have shown that individuals with bipolar disorder can expect to experience an average of ten further episodes of mood disturbance over a 25-year period. As the number of episodes increases and individuals age, the time between episodes tends to shorten. It is important to understand that bipolar disorder is a chronic, lifelong illness that requires ongoing management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 34
Correct
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An 82-year-old woman is brought to the General Practitioner by her son because of concerns about worsening confusion over the last two days. Her son has been staying with her as he is worried about her, and throughout the night, the patient was shouting out that she was seeing figures behind the curtains.
Which of the following features most suggests a diagnosis of delirium?
Your Answer: Symptoms developing rapidly over a few hours or days
Explanation:Differentiating between Delirium and Dementia: Symptoms and Signs to Look Out For
Delirium and dementia are two conditions that can cause confusion, memory problems, and other cognitive impairments. However, there are some key differences in how these conditions present themselves. Here are some symptoms and signs to look out for when trying to differentiate between delirium and dementia:
Symptoms developing rapidly over a few hours or days: This is more consistent with delirium, which can cause confusion, hallucinations, and delusions to develop rapidly over a short period of time. Dementia, on the other hand, usually develops gradually over several months.
Gradual worsening of symptoms over months: If symptoms such as confusion, poor concentration, and memory problems have been getting worse over a period of months, this is more suggestive of dementia.
Improved mobility: Patients with delirium may suddenly have difficulty with tasks they could previously do easily, such as walking.
Low mood: A low mood is more suggestive of depression, which usually develops over several weeks or months. However, hypoactive delirium can be misdiagnosed as depression, so it’s important to consider this possibility in patients who become suddenly withdrawn, drowsy, and unable to stay focused when awake.
Patient’s ability to concentrate on reading her book club novel: Attention is usually reduced in delirium, but in the early stages of dementia, patients may still be able to concentrate on activities such as reading or watching television.
By paying attention to these symptoms and signs, healthcare professionals can better differentiate between delirium and dementia and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male patient who lives independently experiences recurrent episodes of enjoyable visual hallucinations without any impairment of consciousness or disorientation. He acknowledges that the hallucinations are not real. Apart from visual impairment, he is generally healthy.
What is the probable ophthalmic condition that he is suffering from?Your Answer: Cataract
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Patients with severe visual impairment often have coexisting CBS and may experience recurrent, persistent, or episodic visual or auditory hallucinations. The most prevalent ophthalmological condition linked to CBS is age-related macular degeneration, making it the correct answer.
While glaucoma, cataract, and other ophthalmic conditions can also cause CBS, they are less common than age-related macular degeneration.
It is crucial to understand that these hallucinations are a result of deteriorating eyesight and not indicative of an underlying psychiatric disorder.
Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome
Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.
Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.
Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.
In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 36
Correct
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While working in psychiatry, you are taking a history from a patient with a new diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). You take a thorough past medical history. Which of the following is a risk factor for GAD development?
Your Answer: Being divorced or separated
Explanation:Generalised anxiety disorder is more likely to occur in individuals who are divorced or separated, as well as those who are aged 35-54, living alone, or a lone parent. Conversely, being married or cohabiting and aged 16-24 are protective factors against the development of GAD. It is important to note that having a hyperthyroid disease or atrial fibrillation may cause symptoms similar to GAD, but they do not increase the risk of developing the disorder.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A teenage female patient has come to see the GP with concerns about her recent experiences.
After a traumatic sexual assault that occurred a year ago, the patient has been having episodes where she feels like she is reliving the event. These episodes are triggered by certain features associated with the assault and are causing her significant distress. She is finding it difficult to cope with these episodes, and they are starting to affect her daily life and mood.
What is the best way to describe this experience?Your Answer: Delusion
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucination
Explanation:Flashbacks experienced in PTSD can be classified as pseudohallucinations, which are a type of involuntary sensory experience that can be vivid enough to be mistaken for a hallucination, but are considered subjective and unreal. While severe depression can sometimes present with psychotic features, the patient’s intermittent symptoms and primary complaint of low mood do not fit the typical picture of depression. Elemental hallucinations, which are simple and unstructured sounds, and delusions, which are unshakeable false beliefs, are more commonly associated with psychosis.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.
Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to you with symptoms of depression. After diagnosing him with major depressive illness, you decide to treat him with an SSRI. Two weeks later, he returns to your office feeling a bit shaky and complaining of excessive sweating, but overall he seems upbeat. He talks quickly and with great optimism, and you wonder if a mild sedative might help. However, he is resistant to any further intervention and continues to share his ambitious aspirations, which you find somewhat unrealistic.
What steps would you take in this situation?Your Answer: Refer for CBT
Correct Answer: Review in two weeks
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment for Bipolar Illness
When a patient shows symptoms of mania, it can change their diagnosis from unipolar to bipolar illness. In this case, the patient’s hostility and grandiose delusions confirm the change in diagnosis. It is important to refer the patient immediately for specialist help to ensure proper treatment.
Additionally, the patient is experiencing side effects from their selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), including shakiness and excessive sweating. While these side effects can be troublesome, they can be managed with short term benzodiazepines. It is crucial to address both the bipolar illness and the side effects of medication to provide the best possible care for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man states he has special powers that allow him to know what other people are thinking. He also believes he is related to the Royal family. He has been overactive, elated in mood and not sleeping.
Select from the list the term that best describes his delusions.Your Answer: Persecutory delusions
Correct Answer: Grandiose delusions
Explanation:Understanding Delusions: Types and Associated Mental Illnesses
Delusions are false beliefs that persist despite evidence to the contrary and are not accepted by others in the person’s culture or subculture. There are various types of delusions, each associated with different mental illnesses.
Grandiose delusions are beliefs of exaggerated importance and are often seen in mania. Nihilistic delusions involve a persistent denial of the existence of things or everything, including oneself, and are common in schizophrenia. Delusions of guilt are found in depressive illnesses, while delusions of reference are seen in schizophrenia and mania.
Persecutory delusions involve the belief that the person or someone close to them is being mistreated or spied on, and are common in schizophrenia, depression, and organic mental states. Understanding the different types of delusions and their associated mental illnesses can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man with schizophrenia was admitted to psychiatry due to a change in his medication. He had previously been taking quetiapine, but his behavior had become more erratic and he developed new delusions. Upon receiving his discharge letter, it was requested that the practice perform full blood counts every week for a total of 18 weeks, followed by every 2 weeks until 1 year of treatment. In addition to this new medication regimen, the patient has also been prescribed hyoscine hydrobromide to manage the side effect of hypersalivation. What is the name of the antipsychotic medication that has been prescribed for this patient?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is the correct answer, as it carries a risk of neutropenia and agranulocytosis. It is prescribed for patients with Schizophrenia who do not respond to conventional antipsychotics. Monitoring for olanzapine should include regular checks of blood glucose, lipids, and weight. Haloperidol is not commonly used for schizophrenia, but a baseline ECG is recommended before starting treatment. The BNF doesn’t specify any particular monitoring requirements for paliperidone or aripiprazole.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has recently started taking amitriptyline for the management of depression, and you suspect he may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome.
Choose the accurate statement regarding the anticholinergic syndrome.Your Answer: Bradycardia is common
Correct Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs
Explanation:Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment
Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that is commonly caused by certain medications such as tricyclic antidepressants, atropine, anti-parkinsonian drugs, antispasmodics, and H1-antihistamines. The symptoms of this syndrome include hot and dry skin, hypertension, tachycardia, dry mouth, urinary retention, dilated pupils, and agitated delirium.
In the past, physostigmine was recommended as a treatment for anticholinergic syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that it is ineffective and can even increase the risk of cardiac toxicity. Therefore, the recommended treatment now is supportive and symptomatic care. Once the medication causing the syndrome has been excreted, the symptoms usually subside.
It is important to be aware of the symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome and to seek medical attention if you suspect that you or someone you know may be experiencing it. With proper care and treatment, the condition can be managed effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.
Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and is exhibiting signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.
What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer: Capgras syndrome
Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome
Explanation:Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.
Capgras syndrome is a delusion of misidentification where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.
Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that causes patients with significant vision loss to experience vivid visual hallucinations. These hallucinations can be simple or complex, but patients are aware that they are not real and do not experience other types of hallucinations or delusions.
De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.
Understanding Cotard Syndrome
Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the psychiatry team with complaints of hearing voices and experiencing persecutory delusions. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and blood tests reveal that his prolactin level is within normal range but at the higher end. The team diagnoses him with schizophrenia and recommends starting him on an atypical antipsychotic. Which atypical antipsychotic would be the best choice for this patient?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Aripiprazole is the preferred first-line medication for schizophrenia due to its tolerable side effect profile and ability to lower serum prolactin levels. This is particularly beneficial for patients with borderline-high prolactin levels, as other atypical antipsychotics can cause further elevation and associated symptoms such as hirsutism, galactorrhoea, and impotence.
Clozapine is another commonly used atypical antipsychotic, but is typically reserved for patients who have not responded adequately to two other antipsychotics. It may cause drowsiness, dizziness, dry mouth, restlessness, and headache, but doesn’t usually elevate prolactin levels.
Olanzapine should be used with caution in diabetic patients due to its potential for weight gain and elevated blood sugars. Aripiprazole may be a better choice for these patients.
Sertraline, on the other hand, is not used in the treatment of schizophrenia. It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor indicated for depressive illnesses and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male is admitted after taking an overdose.
Which single feature best suggests a high risk of future suicide?Your Answer: Being responsible for children
Correct Answer: Ingestion of alcohol with the overdose drug
Explanation:Factors indicating high risk of suicide
The effort to conceal an overdose suggests a serious intent to complete suicide, which is a significant factor indicating a high risk of suicide. However, previous history of overdoses doesn’t necessarily imply a more serious intent. Other factors that may suggest a more sinister intent include being male, elderly, and having a mental illness.
Protective factors, such as religious beliefs and social support, can reduce the risk of suicide. Additionally, being responsible for children is also a protective factor. However, when assessing a patient’s risk of suicide, it is important to focus on factors that suggest a high risk, rather than protective factors.
In conclusion, when presented with a patient who may be at risk of suicide, it is crucial to consider the effort to conceal an overdose and other factors such as age, gender, and mental health history. While protective factors such as social support and religious beliefs are important, they should not distract from the assessment of high-risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man lives alone. His neighbours have been increasingly concerned about rubbish piling up inside his flat and sometimes he isn't seen for days. His family tell you that over the last year he has become very odd and isolated. On examination, he is withdrawn and quiet and you find it difficult to understand his answers as he frequently wanders off the point, as if he is answering a different question. Although spontaneous movements are reduced, there are no neurological signs and he is not on any medication, prescribed or illicit. His mother and two older brothers have both had episodes of major depression.
Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest a possible favourable outcome from this episode.Your Answer: Insidious onset
Correct Answer: Family history of depression
Explanation:Understanding Schizophrenia: Symptoms, Predictors of Outcome, and Prevalence
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, and negative symptoms such as asocial behavior, reduced spontaneous movements, and disorganized speech. In this case, the individual exhibits mainly negative symptomatology, indicating a poor prognosis.
Several factors can predict the outcome of schizophrenia. Young age, insidious onset, poor premorbid social function, negative symptomatology, neurological signs, no recognized precipitating factor, and family history of schizophrenia are all associated with a poor outcome. On the other hand, older age, acute onset, recognizable precipitant, good premorbid social function, being married, prominent mood disorder, family history of mood disorder, and positive symptomatology are associated with a better outcome.
The overall prevalence of schizophrenia is 1% in all populations, and only 10-20% of patients will make a full recovery from one episode. It is important to understand the symptoms, predictors of outcome, and prevalence of schizophrenia to provide appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is seen in the clinic after a recent visit to the psychiatrist who recommended an increase in her lithium dose for better symptom control. Her renal function is stable and you prescribe the recommended higher dose of lithium. When should her levels be rechecked?
Your Answer: In 3 months
Correct Answer: In 1 week
Explanation:Lithium levels should be monitored weekly after a change in dose until they become stable. This means that after an increase in lithium dose, the levels should be checked again after one week, and then weekly until they stabilize. The ideal time to check lithium levels is 12 hours after the dose is taken. Waiting for a month after a dose adjustment is too long, while checking after three days is too soon. Once the levels become stable, they can be checked every three months for the first year. After a year, low-risk patients can have their lithium testing reduced to every six months, according to the BNF. However, NICE guidance recommends that three-monthly testing should continue indefinitely. Additionally, patients on lithium should have their thyroid function tests monitored every six months.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with concerns about her recent blood test results. She reports feeling unwell for the past month, experiencing rapid heart rate, hot flashes, and tremors. She also notes sweating and an inability to sit still during these episodes. She reports that these symptoms began after an episode of shingles. Thyroid function tests, full blood count, fasting glucose, and renal function are all normal. On examination, she appears slightly agitated with a pulse of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 155/98. She has a history of severe depression, which has been in remission for two months, and post-herpetic neuralgia. She denies alcohol use and has never had elevated blood pressure in the past. Her current medications include Sertraline 200 mg, Gaviscon as needed, topical ibuprofen cream for osteoarthritis, paracetamol for osteoarthritis, and carbamazepine 100 mg four times daily for post-herpetic neuralgia. How would you manage this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe nifedipine
Correct Answer: Refer her to a neurologist
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest serotonin syndrome, which can be caused by excessive stimulation of serotonergic receptors due to interactions or overdosage of serotonergic drugs. The offending drug in this case is carbamazepine, which should be withdrawn. Other drugs that can interact with SSRIs include lithium, triptans, codeine, and St John’s wort. It is not appropriate to withdraw the patient’s Sertraline or prescribe nifedipine for her mildly elevated blood pressure. There is no basis for stopping the paracetamol. Referring to a neurologist or repeating her thyroid function is also not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 48
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his head and being read by others around him.
What is the correct term for this symptom?Your Answer: Thought broadcast
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Thought Experiences
There are various types of thought experiences that individuals may encounter. One of these is thought broadcast, where others can seemingly hear or read one’s thoughts as they are being broadcasted from the individual. On the other hand, thought insertion and withdrawal refer to the experience of having thoughts inserted into or taken out of one’s mind by an external force. In thought blocking, individuals may suddenly find themselves unable to continue speaking as their minds go blank. Meanwhile, thought echo involves hearing one’s own thoughts being spoken aloud after thinking them. Finally, auditory hallucinations refer to the perception of hearing sounds or voices without any external stimulus. Understanding these different types of thought experiences can help individuals better recognize and cope with them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old diabetic man is evaluated and found to be experiencing moderate depression. He is dealing with severe osteoarthritis and is waiting for a hip replacement. Despite declining CBT, he agrees with your suggestion that antidepressant medication may be beneficial. What is your top pick for an antidepressant for this individual?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Treatment Considerations for Depression in Patients with Chronic Physical Health Problems
Individuals with chronic physical health problems are at a higher risk of developing depression, with a two to three times greater likelihood than those in good health. This is particularly true for patients with complications of diabetes, such as retinopathy, chronic or end-stage renal disease, and painful peripheral neuropathy, as well as those with limited mobility and independence due to osteoarthritis and severe pain.
While cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a recommended high-intensity intervention for depression, some patients may decline this treatment option. In such cases, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first choice of antidepressant medication, with citalopram and sertraline being preferred options due to their lower propensity for drug interactions.
It is important to note that venlafaxine is more dangerous in overdose than other newer agents that are equally effective, and dosulepin should not be prescribed at all. Tricyclics are also associated with side effects such as blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, and postural hypotension, which could potentially exacerbate existing health problems.
In addition to optimizing treatments for chronic diseases, healthcare providers should also consider any other medications the patient may be taking, such as aspirin or non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for arthritis, which may require gastroprotection. Overall, a comprehensive and individualized approach to treatment is necessary for managing depression in patients with chronic physical health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a high achiever and is about to take his 'GCSEs'.
In recent months he has broken up with his girlfriend, has lost interest in his usual hobbies, and has lost a stone in weight so that his BMI is now 17. He cries frequently, struggles to focus on his school work, and is not interested in playing video games, one of his favourite pastimes.
His father feels he is depressed, and you are inclined to agree.
Which of the following symptoms would make you suspect this was more than a straightforward depression?Your Answer: Feeling sad most of the time
Correct Answer: Feelings of guilt
Explanation:Anorexia Nervosa and Disproportionate Body Image Perception
Disproportionate perception of one’s body image, often characterized by the belief of being overweight, is a common feature of anorexia nervosa. This condition is often accompanied by symptoms of depression, but treating it with antidepressants alone may not yield significant improvement. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses, especially in age groups where depression is not prevalent.
In summary, anorexia nervosa is a serious condition that affects one’s perception of their body image. It is crucial to seek appropriate treatment and consider other potential diagnoses to ensure proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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