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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is diagnosed with haemophilia A after being evaluated for a haemarthrosis. Among his family members, who is the most probable to have the same condition?
Your Answer: Father's brother
Correct Answer: Mother's brother
Explanation:The answer is mother’s brother, as X-linked recessive conditions are exclusive to males and do not transmit from male to male.
X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding benign rolandic epilepsy is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Typically occurs between the age of 1 and 3 years
Explanation:Understanding Benign Rolandic Epilepsy
Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that commonly affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that usually occur at night and are typically partial, affecting only certain parts of the body such as the face. However, in some cases, the seizures may progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
One of the key diagnostic features of benign rolandic epilepsy is the presence of centrotemporal spikes on an electroencephalogram (EEG). This test measures the electrical activity in the brain and can help doctors identify the specific type of epilepsy a child may have.
Fortunately, the prognosis for children with benign rolandic epilepsy is excellent. Most children will outgrow their seizures by the time they reach adolescence. While the condition can be concerning for parents, it is important to remember that it is a relatively mild form of epilepsy and doesn’t typically cause any long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 10-week-old boy has not opened his bowels for five days. The mother reports that he is exclusively breastfed. The baby appears healthy, and examination findings are unremarkable. Meconium was passed within the first 24 hours after birth. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the parents that this is usually normal in a breastfed infant
Explanation:Understanding Infant Bowel Movements: Breastfed Babies and Constipation
Breastfed infants tend to have more frequent bowel movements than formula-fed babies, but there is a wide range of normal variation. It is common for breastfed babies to have frequent bowel movements up to six weeks of age due to the gastro-colic reflex. However, it is also normal for breastfed babies to go several days without a bowel movement, sometimes up to 7-10 days. When a bowel movement does occur after a longer period of time, it may be a blow-out of normal consistency and should not cause concern as long as it appears painless.
It is important to note that simple straining to pass stool is also normal and doesn’t necessarily indicate constipation. However, if there are worrying signs such as difficulty with feeding, failure to gain weight, or signs of discomfort, medical attention should be sought.
It is not necessary to give a macrogol laxative unless a diagnosis of constipation is made. Additionally, introducing baby food containing fruit and vegetables is not appropriate for exclusively breastfed infants. Prune juice may help with constipation, but it is not recommended for infants until they are weaned at 4-6 months.
Overall, as long as the baby is well and examination is normal, there is no need for urgent referral to hospital. However, if constipation appears during the first few weeks of life, it may be a sign of a more serious condition such as Hirschsprung’s disease, which requires medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Who is recommended to receive the Human Papillomavirus (HPV) immunisation according to the January 2020 UK immunisation update?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Boys aged 10 to 12
Explanation:Changes to UK Immunisation Schedule in 2020
In January 2020, the UK immunisation schedule was updated with a few minor changes. It is important to stay up-to-date with these changes as they may be tested in exams. One change to note is that both boys and girls should receive the HPV immunisation at the age of 12 to 13. This is an important step in protecting against certain types of cancer caused by the human papillomavirus. It is recommended that parents and healthcare providers ensure that children receive this immunisation at the appropriate age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to construct a tower using three blocks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 18 months
Explanation:Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones
Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.
In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.
It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Fatima is a healthy 6-year-old girl who visits your clinic with her mother. She has been experiencing nocturnal enuresis for the past few months. Fatima is feeling anxious because she is going on a sleepover at her friend's house next week and is worried about wetting the bed. She asks if there is anything that can help her avoid bedwetting.
What treatment options would you suggest for Fatima's nocturnal enuresis? Should she restrict fluids or try Desmopressin? Would an enuresis alarm be appropriate for her age?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggest Desmopressin and fluid restriction
Explanation:Desmopressin is a viable option for managing enuresis in the short term, particularly in children aged 7 and above. However, its effectiveness in younger children is not well-established. It is advisable to commence treatment a week before a school trip to assess its efficacy. Simply limiting fluid intake is not recommended. Karim should be offered desmopressin as a treatment option, along with reassurance. Duloxetine is not suitable for this condition. While an enuresis alarm is a viable long-term solution, it is not practical to try it out during a school trip.
Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.
The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 4-year-old child in to receive the DTP booster. Which one of the following would make it inappropriate to give the vaccination today?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recent onset of a seizure disorder currently being investigated
Explanation:Guidelines for Safe Immunisation
Immunisation is an important aspect of public health, and the Department of Health has published guidelines to ensure its safe administration. The guidelines, titled ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’, outline general contraindications to immunisation, situations where vaccines should be delayed, and specific contraindications to live vaccines.
General contraindications include confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or to another component in the relevant vaccine, such as egg protein. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection.
Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression. In the case of the DTP vaccine, vaccination should be deferred in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition.
However, there are several situations where immunisation is not contraindicated. These include asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), being breastfed, a previous history of natural infection with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella, a history of neonatal jaundice, a family history of autism, neurological conditions such as Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids.
Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure the safe administration of vaccines and protect individuals from infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by her mother after she noticed a red rash on her daughter's legs that doesn't disappear when pressed. The child has been unwell with a fever and cough since yesterday, but her symptoms have worsened throughout the day. The mother is worried because her daughter is also complaining of a headache and has cold hands and feet. During the examination, the child is found to have a petechial rash on her lower legs and a temperature of 38.4ÂșC. The mother reports that her daughter is allergic to penicillin and had a rash and vomiting after taking amoxicillin for an ear infection 2 years ago. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phone 999 + administer intramuscular benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Understanding Meningococcal Septicaemia
Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious condition that can cause high morbidity and mortality if not treated early. It is the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood, making it crucial to have a high index of suspicion. According to the 2010 NICE guidelines, meningococcal disease can present as meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.
NICE divides the symptoms of meningococcal septicaemia into three categories: common nonspecific symptoms/signs, less common nonspecific symptoms/signs, and more specific symptoms/signs. Common nonspecific symptoms/signs include fever, vomiting, and lethargy, while less common nonspecific symptoms/signs include chills and shivering. More specific symptoms/signs include a non-blanching rash, altered mental state, capillary refill time more than 2 seconds, unusual skin colour, shock, hypotension, leg pain, and cold hands/feet.
If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, it is important to give intramuscular or intravenous benzylpenicillin unless there is a history of anaphylaxis. However, if giving benzylpenicillin will delay hospital transfer, it should not be given. NICE recommends phoning 999 in case of suspected meningococcal septicaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her father. For the past 4 days she has been experiencing a sticky discharge from both eyes upon waking up. Upon examination, there is some crusting around the eyelid margins and the sclera are slightly pink. The father inquires if his daughter should stay home from preschool. What is the best answer to give?
Response:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He doesn't need to be kept off nursery
Explanation:Although nurseries and schools may provide contradictory advice, the guidelines from the Health Protection Agency are unambiguous in stating that children do not require exclusion. Providing parents with a copy of these guidelines to present to their childcare provider can be beneficial in certain situations.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma. She has been using inhaled treatment for the past 12 months and is currently taking salbutamol as needed and a very low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) daily. She has been using the very low dose ICS at the current dose for the past six months. Her parents report that she still needs to use her salbutamol on most days of the week, but never more than once a day. On clinical examination, her chest is clear and there are no focal cardiorespiratory findings. Her inhaler technique is good and there are no issues with compliance. Based on BTS/SIGN guidelines, what is the most appropriate plan for her current management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the inhaled corticosteroids to a low daily dose
Explanation:Treatment Ladder for Asthma in Children
Here we have a 7-year-old child who is currently on a regular inhaled very low dose corticosteroid and salbutamol PRN for asthma. However, despite the regular inhaled steroid, the child still requires salbutamol most days, indicating suboptimal control and the need for treatment escalation.
To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the most well-recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step should be to add in an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist or an LTRA (Leukotriene receptor antagonist) if over 5 years old. If the child was under 5 years old, then an LTRA alone would be added.
It is important to note that higher inhaled corticosteroid doses are treatment options further up the ladder, and theophylline would not normally feature in the primary care setting. Continuing the same treatment with review in 12 months is not appropriate as the child’s current disease control is suboptimal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned that she is not making the required progress with respect to speech development.
What could you tell the parents about speech and language expectations in this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 20-30 words vocabulary would be expected by this age
Explanation:Speech Delay in Children: Possible Causes and Exclusions
Speech delay is a common issue that affects 3-10% of all children, with boys being 3-4 times more likely to experience it than girls. One possible cause of speech delay in older children is elective mutism, which can be assessed through proper diagnosis. However, before progressing to other investigations, it is important to exclude deafness as a possible cause. Other factors that should be excluded include social and environmental deprivation, disorders of metabolism, and degenerative nervous diseases, which are rare possibilities. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause of speech delay, children can receive the necessary support and intervention to improve their communication skills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Oliver has just turned one year old and his parents are curious about the meningitis C vaccine schedule. They want to know at what age the vaccine is now given to children in the UK. Can you provide them with the correct times for administering the meningitis C vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aged 1 year & 14 years
Explanation:As of July 1st, 2016, the vaccination schedule underwent a change that eliminated the meningitis C vaccination at 12 weeks of age. Consequently, children will receive the meningitis C vaccine when they turn 1 year old and again at 14 years old.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate course of action for managing a newborn boy with an undescended left testicle and nappy rash?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange urgent referral to a specialist to be seen within 2 weeks
Explanation:Management of Unilateral Undescended Testicle in Infants
In cases of unilateral undescended testicle in infants, it is important to determine whether it is unilateral or bilateral as the management would differ. If it is unilateral, the infant should be re-examined at 6-8 weeks. If the testicle is still absent, another examination should be done at 4-5 months of age. If the testicle remains undescended at this stage, the child should be referred to a specialist. However, if both testicles are present in the scrotum at 4-5 months review, no further action is required.
It is important to note that undescended testes pose a risk of developing future malignancy, especially if they present later in life. Therefore, boys and young men with a history of undescended testis should be advised to perform regular testicular self-examination during and after puberty to detect any potential testicular cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 7-year-old girl and is worried about her daughter's swollen, painful fingers. The mother describes the fingers as looking like sausages when they are swollen. You observe that the patient has had previous consultations for joint pains in her knees and hands. During the examination, you notice some nail pitting.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Septic arthritis
Explanation:Types of Juvenile Arthritis and Their Symptoms
Juvenile arthritis is a condition that affects children and adolescents, causing joint pain, swelling, and stiffness. There are different types of juvenile arthritis, each with its own set of symptoms. It is important to identify the type of arthritis a child has in order to provide appropriate treatment.
Juvenile psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that should be considered if a child has arthritic symptoms along with dactylitis, nail pitting, or nail onycholysis, even if there is no personal or family history of psoriasis. This is because arthritis can occur before psoriasis develops.
Enthesis-related JIA should be considered if the arthritis is associated with inflammation at the site of a tendon or ligament insertion, such as heel pain.
Oligoarticular JIA should be considered if the arthritis is affecting up to four joints for over six months, often presenting with joint swelling and stiffness but with no or mild pain.
Septic arthritis and Systemic JIA are usually associated with fever and do not explain the nail pitting or dactylitis.
In summary, identifying the type of juvenile arthritis a child has is crucial for proper treatment. Symptoms such as dactylitis, nail pitting, and inflammation at the site of a tendon or ligament insertion can help differentiate between different types of juvenile arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). His parents want to know what is causing these infections.
What is the most common cause of this problem in a child of this age?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)
Explanation:Pediatric Urinary Tract Conditions: Causes and Symptoms
Recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions that lead to urinary stasis. One of the most common causes is vesicoureteric reflux (VUR), which occurs in 41% of cases. VUR is found in about 1% of normal infants and can resolve over several years, but it is a risk factor for pyelonephritis and renal scarring. Other causes of recurrent urinary infections include renal calculi, obstructive uropathy, poor urine flow, impaired immune or renal function, and sexual abuse.
Posterior urethral valves, a less common condition than VUR, can cause urinary tract infections, diurnal enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Bilateral polycystic kidney disease, which rarely causes major symptoms during childhood, can lead to progressive kidney failure and present with loin pain, haematuria, UTIs, and stones. Neurogenic bladder, caused by spina bifida, spinal trauma, or tumour, can cause urine leakage and retention, and is less common than VUR. Renal calculi, caused by metabolic abnormalities or unknown factors, are less common in childhood than VUR and may present with urinary infections.
In summary, recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own set of symptoms and risk factors. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and ensure proper kidney function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A child of 6 years is suspected to have Giardiasis.
Which one of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Giardia Lamblia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Giardia lamblia is a parasite that can cause malabsorption and non-bloody diarrhea. The condition can be acquired locally, and stool microscopy may not always detect it. However, the good news is that it can be treated with metronidazole. Once treated, malabsorption typically resolves. If you experience symptoms of giardia lamblia, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You see a mother with her 3-month-old daughter. She is concerned as she had her weighed and found she had lost 5% of her body weight. She is exclusively breastfeeding. She reports that the health visitor reviewed her breastfeeding and was happy with the technique. She is passing urine and opening her bowels normally. There were no issues during the pregnancy and was delivered at term via vaginal delivery. She was born on the 50th centile. Examination was unremarkable.
What would be the next most appropriate step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and review in 1 week if his weight has not increased
Explanation:Infant Weight Loss and Monitoring
It is normal for infants to experience weight loss during the early days of life. However, if an infant loses more than 10% of their birth weight, it is important to assess for dehydration, underlying illness, and feeding problems. Monitoring the infant closely is also recommended, but weighing should not be done more frequently than daily according to NICE guidelines. If there is evidence of illness or failure to respond to feeding support, referral to paediatric services should be considered.
Supplementation with infant formula may result in the cessation of breastfeeding, so it is advised to support the mother to continue breastfeeding. The RCGP recommends testing for normality and sometimes, monitoring or reassurance may be the answer to questions related to infant weight loss. By closely monitoring and addressing any concerns, infants can return to their birth weight by 3 weeks of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 14 week old bottle fed baby is brought in by Mum due to concerns of unsettled behavior after feeds, vomiting, loose stools, and perianal redness. The baby has mild to moderate infantile eczema, but otherwise, the examination is normal. The baby's growth is following the 50th centile. Mum suspects Cow's milk protein allergy. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula
Explanation:If there is a suspicion of cow’s milk protein allergy mediated by IgE, it is recommended to refer the child to secondary care for skin prick or IgE specific antigen blood testing. However, non-IgE mediated cow’s milk protein allergy can be managed in primary care. To begin with, a trial of cow’s milk exclusion for 2-4 weeks should be attempted. In the case of exclusively breastfed babies, the mother should exclude cow’s milk from her diet. For bottle-fed babies, the first line of treatment is a trial of extensively hydrolysed formula.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual based on the UK immunisation schedule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks
Explanation:Understanding the Pneumococcal Vaccine
The pneumococcal vaccine is an important immunization that helps protect against pneumococcal disease, which can cause serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. However, it’s important to note that there are two types of pneumococcal vaccines – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV).
The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above. It’s important to know which vaccine to administer, as the immune response to each vaccine is different.
Aside from the recommended age groups, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders.
In summary, understanding the pneumococcal vaccine and its different types and recommended age groups is crucial in ensuring proper administration and protection against pneumococcal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are contacted about an otherwise well 9-year-old child who is a patient of yours. His primary school has flagged to you that he is often absent from class, appears withdrawn and is keen to cover up areas of his limbs, which he says is due to eczema, when he is doing sport.
The school nurse has contacted you because he has extensive bruising to his buttocks with evidence of grip marks. You are concerned about non-accidental injury.
What is first line recommended management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should arrange for the child to be referred to a paediatrician or social services immediately
Explanation:Guidelines for GPs on Suspected Child Abuse Cases
Department of Health guidelines state that only a paediatrician is qualified to diagnose physical or sexual abuse, not a GP. It is important for GPs to maintain links with the family as they will have to continue a relationship with them in the future. If a child is in imminent danger, they should be removed to a place of safety. GPs are not responsible for confronting the parents themselves as it is possible for another factor, such as bullying, to be responsible for the signs and symptoms seen. If hospital admission or urgent paediatric review is not necessary, the child should be flagged to social services.
To summarize, GPs should be cautious when dealing with suspected child abuse cases and follow the guidelines set by the Department of Health. It is important to prioritize the safety of the child and maintain a professional relationship with the family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 12-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. The parent is questioned about the child's developmental milestones.
Which of the following is this child most likely to be able to achieve by its current age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finger feed
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Infants: Typical Achievements by 14-21 Months
Infants develop at different rates, but most achieve certain skills by certain ages. By 14 months, most infants can finger feed themselves. By 19 months, they can use a spoon and fork, as well as run. By 20 months, they can take off clothes with help, and by 21 months, they can walk up steps. These milestones are important markers of typical development for infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which condition is most closely linked to supravalvular aortic stenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: William's syndrome
Explanation:The boy diagnosed with William’s syndrome, who is also short for his age and has learning difficulties, is known for his exceptionally outgoing and sociable personality.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 10-week-old boy comes for his routine baby check. His parents are curious about what will be evaluated during the check-up.
What is the most probable abnormality that will be detected as a new finding during this stage (not previously identified at or shortly after birth)? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital heart disease
Explanation:The Importance of Routine Six-Week Baby Checks
Routine six-week baby checks are crucial in identifying potential health issues in newborns. While some conditions may be identified before or just after birth, others may not present symptoms until later in childhood. It is important to note that even a normal cardiac examination at six weeks doesn’t completely rule out congenital heart disease, as it may still manifest later on.
Congenital hypothyroidism is typically tested for soon after birth in the heel-prick Guthrie test, along with other conditions such as phenylketonuria and cystic fibrosis. Congenital cataracts are usually diagnosed at newborn examination by the identification of absence of the red reflex, and surgery should ideally be performed before two months of age to prevent irreversible amblyopia.
While a check for developmental dysplasia of the hip is usually carried out at or soon after birth, some late diagnoses still occur. Undescended testicles should also be detected at birth, with surgery indicated if they remain undescended at 12 months.
In summary, routine six-week baby checks are essential in identifying potential health issues in newborns, including congenital heart disease, congenital hypothyroidism, congenital cataracts, developmental dysplasia of the hip, and undescended testicles. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to remain vigilant in monitoring a child’s health and development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her mother initially contacted the pediatrician concerned with ongoing bedwetting and it turns out that the girl has never had a 'dry night'.
The pediatrician has provided general advice on diet, fluid intake, and toileting behavior, though the mother says the bedwetting has not resolved. Despite the use of a reward system, the girl still wets the bed at night and the mother is getting worried.
She speaks to the enuresis clinic and is sent home with an intervention.
What intervention is likely to be recommended?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:If general advice has not been effective in treating nocturnal enuresis in a child, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines. However, it may be worth exploring alternative reward systems to ensure the child is motivated to make the necessary effort. It is assumed that the mother can appropriately motivate their child, so this may not be a route taken by the clinic. If the enuresis alarm doesn’t work, pharmacological interventions such as desmopressin, oxybutynin, and unlicensed tolterodine may be considered.
Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.
The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 8 week old baby girl and reports that she has noticed that the lips of her baby's vagina appear 'sewn' together. She has also noticed that since birth the baby always cries when urinating. On examination you note that the child has a normal vagina, however it appears that the labia minora are fused together.
What would be your next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of topical oestrogen cream
Explanation:In infant girls, the labia minora may fuse together due to low levels of estrogen. This typically doesn’t cause any symptoms, but in some cases, it may lead to discomfort or pain during urination. Fortunately, labial adhesions usually resolve on their own during puberty and do not have any lasting effects. Treatment is typically unnecessary unless there is pain or discomfort, in which case a brief course of topical estrogen cream may be beneficial.
Labial Adhesions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.
Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.
Conservative management is usually appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.
In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can cause problems with urination. While conservative management is usually effective, medical intervention may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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During the afternoon surgery the receptionist calls for guidance. She has just checked the patient's age and found that it is 19 years old. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discard all the vaccines
Explanation:The temperature range for a vaccination refrigerator should be between +2ÂșC and +8ÂșC.
Other Aspects of Immunisation
Consent is an important aspect of immunisation, and the Greenbook provides useful information on this topic. Written consent is not required, and a person with parental responsibility may give consent on behalf of a child who is not competent to give or withhold consent. Parental responsibility is defined by the Children Act 1989, and unmarried fathers can acquire it if they are named on the child’s birth certificate. If parents disagree, immunisation cannot go ahead without specific court approval. A person with parental responsibility doesn’t need to be present at the time of immunisation, but the healthcare provider must be satisfied that consent has been given in advance.
Vaccine storage is also crucial to ensure the effectiveness of immunisation. Vaccines should be stored in a fridge at +2ÂșC to +8ÂșC and kept in their original packaging to protect them from UV light. The temperature of the refrigerator should be monitored using a maximum-minimum thermometer and recorded daily. Ordinary domestic refrigerators should not be used, and surgeries should keep no more than 2 to 4 weeks’ supply of vaccines at any time. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that vaccines are stored properly and administered safely to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old student presents with a three week history of a flu-like illness, which progressed after a week to paroxysms of coughing.
He was previously healthy and believes he received all the recommended childhood vaccinations.
Upon examination, he has no fever and his chest sounds clear. You suspect he may have pertussis.
What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serology for anti-pertussis IgG antibodies
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pertussis
In diagnosing pertussis, the appropriate test depends on the age of the patient and the timing of their symptoms. For children under 12 months old who are hospitalized, PCR testing is recommended. For those who are not hospitalized, a culture of a pernasal swab is preferred.
For patients over 12 months old and adults, a culture of a pernasal swab is recommended within two weeks of symptom onset or 48 hours of antibiotic therapy. However, if the patient presents more than two weeks after symptom onset or has been on antibiotics for more than 48 hours, serology testing for anti-pertussis IgG antibodies is the most appropriate diagnostic test.
It is important to note that culture testing for Bordetella pertussis is unlikely to be positive beyond two weeks from symptom onset, and a negative result doesn’t exclude pertussis infection. CXR and FBC testing are not specific or diagnostic for pertussis. PCR testing is useful for young infants or late in the disease after antibiotics have been administered, but it is not the recommended test in this scenario.
Overall, understanding and implementing national guidelines for respiratory problems is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of pertussis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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During a localised outbreak of measles your practice is inundated with requests for MMR vaccine from worried parents of young children.
In which of the following age groups is MMR vaccine contraindicated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnant women
Explanation:Who Should Not Receive the MMR Vaccine?
There are only a few circumstances where the MMR vaccine cannot be given. Firstly, pregnant women should not receive the vaccine. Secondly, those with a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin or neomycin should not receive the vaccine. Thirdly, those who are immunocompromised should not receive the vaccine. Lastly, those who have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of measles, mumps or rubella-containing vaccine should not receive the vaccine.
Breastfeeding is not a contraindication to MMR immunisation, and MMR can be given to breastfeeding mothers without any risk to the baby. While two MMR vaccinations are needed for 99% protection, there is no limit to the number of MMR vaccinations an individual can receive. The risk of adverse reactions becomes less with increasing doses of MMR. Additionally, there is no upper age limit to receiving the MMR vaccine, and a 1-year-old child could theoretically receive the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an erythematous rash, mild fever and enlarged glands in her neck. You suggest taking a blood test to check if she is immune to rubella since there is no record of her being immunised. She asks about the potential risk to her baby if she does have rubella. What is the percentage of infants that may develop congenital rubella syndrome and potential birth defects if a woman contracts rubella at ten weeks gestation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Up to 90%
Explanation:Maternal Rubella Infection in Pregnancy
Maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to fetal loss or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). CRS is characterized by various abnormalities such as cataracts, deafness, cardiac defects, microcephaly, retardation of intrauterine growth, and inflammatory lesions in the brain, liver, lungs, and bone marrow.
If the infection occurs within the first eight to ten weeks of pregnancy, up to 90% of surviving infants may experience damage, often with multiple defects. However, the risk of damage decreases to about 10-20% if the infection occurs between 11 and 16 weeks of gestation. Infections after 16 weeks of pregnancy are rare and typically only result in deafness, with no other fetal damage reported up to 20 weeks of pregnancy.
Overall, maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can have severe consequences for the developing fetus, highlighting the importance of vaccination and prevention measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought into the minor injury unit by his mother after suddenly developing a cough and wheeze. His symptoms seem to have started suddenly at a birthday party. On examination, he is irritable, afebrile, with a raised respiratory rate and cough. He has a wheeze heard on the right side and breath sounds are more prominent on the left.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body
Explanation:Foreign Body Aspiration, Peanut Allergy, and Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Signs
Unilateral wheeze in a child should always prompt the search for an inhaled foreign body, especially if symptoms started acutely in an otherwise healthy child. Large foreign bodies can cause complete airway obstruction and are rapidly fatal, while smaller ones, like peanuts, usually lodge in the right main bronchus and cause hyperinflation of the unaffected side, reduced air entry on the affected side, and a unilateral monophonic wheeze. Symptoms of foreign body aspiration may not always include the classic triad of coughing, wheezing, and decreased breathing sounds, and patients with chronic symptoms may have been misdiagnosed as having asthma or bronchitis. Peanut allergy symptoms can include itching, urticaria, facial swelling, bronchospasm, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and collapse with anaphylactic shock. Spontaneous pneumothorax presents with sudden onset of pain and dyspnea, hyper-resonance, and reduced breath sounds on the affected side. It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of these conditions to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You see a 3-year-old girl who you suspect has asthma. She has a moderate response to an inhaled short-acting beta-2-agonist (SABA) but you are planning to trial an inhaled corticosteroid to see if her control can be improved.
How long should a trial of inhaled corticosteroid be for a child under three years of age with suspected asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Children Under Five with Suspected Asthma
For children under the age of five with suspected asthma, NICE recommends an eight week trial of a moderate dose of inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) if there are symptoms that clearly indicate the need for maintenance therapy. These symptoms include occurring three times a week or more, causing waking at night, or being uncontrolled with a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) alone.
After the eight week trial, the ICS treatment should be stopped and the child’s symptoms monitored. If the symptoms did not resolve during the trial period, an alternative diagnosis should be considered. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred within four weeks of stopping the ICS treatment, the ICS should be restarted at a low dose as first-line maintenance therapy. If the symptoms resolved but reoccurred beyond four weeks after stopping the ICS treatment, another eight week trial of a moderate dose of ICS should be repeated.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper management of asthma in young children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 32
Incorrect
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As part of the UK immunisation schedule, which immunisation is administered to a 65-year-old who is in good health?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal
Explanation:Pneumococcal Vaccines
There are two types of pneumococcal vaccines available – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above.
Moreover, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor treatment).
Getting vaccinated against pneumococcal disease is important in preventing serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate vaccine and schedule for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Linda has recently delivered a baby girl, Lily, 24 hours ago at home. She is nursing her. She has contacted the clinic worried that Lily seems to be 'yellow'. What is the probable reason for jaundice in Lily?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhesus incompatibility
Explanation:Neonatal jaundice has manifested in Rex within 24 hours of his birth. The reasons behind neonatal jaundice can be classified based on the time elapsed since birth.
Understanding Jaundice in Newborns
Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.
Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.
Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman brings in her 4-year-old son. She explains that she and her husband have a history of familial hypercholesterolaemia and are worried about their son's health. She asks if he can be screened for the condition.
What would be the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an LDL cholesterol test and refer to a specialist for diagnostic testing and further management
Explanation:It is recommended by NICE guidelines that children with both parents affected by familial hypercholesterolaemia should undergo testing before the age of 5 or as soon as possible thereafter. This is because children can develop cardiovascular disease without any visible symptoms. It is important to investigate the child regardless of whether or not they display any symptoms and to refer them to a specialist if they are thought to be at risk of familial hypercholesterolaemia.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A parent brings her 2-year-old daughter for her routine vaccinations. What would be a contraindication for her to receive the vaccinations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Current febrile illness
Explanation:If a child is experiencing a minor illness without fever or systemic illness, it is not necessary to postpone their vaccination. However, if the child is acutely unwell, it is recommended to delay the vaccination until they have fully recovered.
Guidelines for Safe Immunisation
Immunisation is an important aspect of public health, and the Department of Health has published guidelines to ensure its safe administration. The guidelines, titled ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’, outline general contraindications to immunisation, situations where vaccines should be delayed, and specific contraindications to live vaccines.
General contraindications include confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or to another component in the relevant vaccine, such as egg protein. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection.
Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression. In the case of the DTP vaccine, vaccination should be deferred in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition.
However, there are several situations where immunisation is not contraindicated. These include asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), being breastfed, a previous history of natural infection with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella, a history of neonatal jaundice, a family history of autism, neurological conditions such as Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids.
Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure the safe administration of vaccines and protect individuals from infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-year-old son for a concerning diaper rash. She has attempted to treat it with barrier creams but has not seen any improvement. She seeks advice on what to do next. During the examination, the doctor observes beefy red plaques in the groin area, affecting the skin folds. There are no skin abnormalities in other areas. The child is progressing typically, growing well, has received all necessary vaccinations, and is breastfeeding satisfactorily.
What is the probable reason for this diaper rash?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Candidal dermatitis
Explanation:The probable cause of the nappy rash is Candidal, as indicated by the distinct, reddish patches that resemble raw meat. This type of rash is characterized by the involvement of skin folds and the appearance of satellite lesions, which are both present in this case.
Atopic dermatitis is unlikely as there are no other lesions on the infant’s body, and the typical locations for this condition in infants are the flexural and facial areas.
Irritant contact dermatitis is less probable than Candidal infection, as the latter has likely progressed from an initial irritant contact dermatitis. Additionally, the skin folds would have been spared in the case of irritant contact dermatitis due to protection from the irritant.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is not a likely cause, as it typically presents on the infant’s scalp as cradle cap, which is characterized by an erythematous scaly plaque.
Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them
Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.
To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.
It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A mother with a toddler on the list for his first MMR vaccination comes to the clinic for advice. She has some concerns, as there is a history of asthma in the family and her other child suffered from febrile fits. She is considering trying the three single vaccines.
Which one of the following is true regarding the MMR?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It should be given at the age of 12-15 months
Explanation:MMR Vaccination and Immunoglobulin Therapy
The MMR vaccination is not recommended for individuals with a history of anaphylaxis, concurrent febrile illness, neomycin and gelatin allergy. However, a family history of atopy is not relevant. The MMR vaccine is typically administered at around one year of age in the NHS vaccination schedule and there is no benefit in giving separate vaccines for measles, mumps, and rubella. It is important to note that the MMR vaccine contains live attenuated strains of these viruses, while vaccines for diseases such as diphtheria and tetanus are killed vaccines.
In regards to immunoglobulin therapy, there is no indication for children with epilepsy. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate course of treatment for any medical condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 38
Incorrect
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You see a 10-week-old baby boy with his father. He was born at 40+5 without complication. He is breastfeeding well but his father is concerned as he vomits small amounts of milk after most feeds, approximately a tablespoon full. He doesn't seem distressed by the vomiting and is growing along the 75th centile. He has wet and full nappies. He would like some treatment for the regurgitation.
What would be your initial recommendation for managing this infant's regurgitation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: This infant requires observation but no treatment initially, and review if worsening or weight loss
Explanation:Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a common condition in infants that usually resolves by the age of one. If the infant is not bothered by the GOR and doesn’t experience any complications, observation is sufficient. However, parents should monitor for worsening symptoms, weight loss, or complications. If the infant is distressed or has complications, they may have gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) and require treatment. Alginate therapy, such as GavisconÂź Infant, is the first-line treatment for breastfed infants with GORD.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, you hear a heart murmur that has not been noted previously.
Which of the following features is most indicative of an innocent murmur?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The murmur is short and systolic in nature
Explanation:Understanding Innocent Murmurs in Children
Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. They are short in duration, soft, systolic, and typically located at the left sternal border. Innocent murmurs may change with the child’s position or respiration, but they do not usually radiate and are without symptoms in the patient.
It is important to note that a grade 4/6 murmur is loud with a thrill and is usually pathological. Murmurs that are only diastolic in nature or pansystolic in nature are also usually pathological. The presence of abnormal heart sounds is another indication of a pathological murmur.
If an innocent murmur is suspected, it should disappear when the child has recovered from a febrile illness. If the murmur persists when the child is well, further investigation is warranted.
Understanding the characteristics of innocent murmurs can help healthcare professionals differentiate between harmless murmurs and those that require further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old backpacker returns from a year of travelling in a remote part of South America. She has had diarrhoea for three weeks and the lab confirms that she has giardiasis.
What is the incubation period of giardiasis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Four to six weeks
Explanation:Giardiasis: A Chronic Diarrhoeal Disease
Giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease caused by the flagellate protozoan parasite, Giardia lamblia. This parasite attaches to the small bowel but doesn’t invade it. The disease is prevalent in tropical regions and is contracted by ingesting cysts present in contaminated water or food.
To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy is used to detect the cysts. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of oral metronidazole or tinidazole. These medications are effective in eliminating the parasite and relieving symptoms.
In conclusion, giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease that can be contracted by ingesting contaminated water or food. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and reduce the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Baby Oliver has been brought for numerous appointments since he was born, with symptoms of colic. He is now on simethicone drops. His mum, who was previously exclusively breastfeeding, has just introduced a bottle of formula in the evening, and Oliver has now developed a rash. You suspect a possible allergy to the formula and consider prescribing a hypoallergenic infant formula for Oliver, along with some emollient and steroid cream. What other treatments should you consider prescribing for Oliver today?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D for mum
Explanation:It is recommended to consider prescribing calcium supplements and vitamin D for breastfeeding mothers whose babies have or are suspected to have CMPI. This is to prevent deficiency while they exclude dairy from their diet, which puts them at risk of deficiency. Soya milk is not advised for infants due to its phyto-oestrogen content, and lactase enzyme products are not relevant as lactose intolerance is a different condition. Lactulose is also not indicated based on the given history.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Recurrent chest infections/persistent cough are a common reason for adults to seek medical attention. This can pose a diagnostic dilemma. What is the most probable cause for an adult presenting with these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent 'normal' infections
Explanation:Coughing is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors. Asthma, recurrent infections, and prolonged infections are very common causes of coughing. Cigarette smoking, habit or psychogenic cough, and idiopathic reasons are also common causes. Uncommon causes include aspiration, gastro-oesophageal reflux, incoordinate swallowing, intrabronchial foreign body, suppurative lung disease, and mediastinal or pulmonary tumors. Very rare causes include suppurative lung disease. Other less common causes of coughing include cystic fibrosis, post-infective conditions, tuberculosis, ciliary abnormalities, congenital abnormalities of the respiratory tract, and immunodeficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man attends clinic rather worried because he has heard that one of his friends has got mumps.
He says that he did not have mumps as a child and doesn't think he has had any immunisations against it. He has heard that adult men can become infertile following mumps and wants to know if he is at risk of this if he gets mumps.
What percentage of post-pubertal males who contract mumps will develop orchitis as a complication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less than 1%
Explanation:Mumps Orchitis: Symptoms and Complications
Mumps orchitis is a common complication affecting around 25% of adult males who develop mumps. The condition is treated symptomatically with analgesia and scrotal support. Although up to 50% of those affected may experience some testicular shrinkage, it doesn’t necessarily lead to infertility. Other complications include pancreatitis (4%) and oophoritis (5% of post-pubertal women). Deafness, either unilateral or bilateral, is also a well-recognized complication, but it is less common.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 44
Incorrect
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As part of a community health initiative, you are tasked with developing a program to enhance the well-being of infants in the area. What is the leading cause of mortality among infants aged over one month but under 12 months?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome
Explanation:Accidents become the leading cause of death in children after they turn one year old.
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, and maternal drug use. SIDS incidence also tends to increase during the winter months. However, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS, such as breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers. In the event of a SIDS case, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Sophie is an 8 month old baby girl who comes to you with inadequate weight gain (75th to 25th centile), during examination she has a blanching, erythematous rash on her abdomen, colicky abdominal pain and regurgitation after feeds. She has been breastfed with additional 'Cow & Gate' formula. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cows' milk protein intolerance
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis based on the given history is cows’ milk protein intolerance. This is suggested by the involvement of multiple systems, the introduction of top up feeds at 7 months (which coincides with the onset of symptoms), and faltering growth. Charlie’s age also makes pyloric stenosis an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents between 2 to 8 weeks and is very rare above 6 months. The presentation is also atypical for eczema, infantile colic, and reflux due to the involvement of multiple systems.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A seven-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a 2-day history of fever, urinary frequency, and dysuria. A urine dipstick test is done on a fresh urine sample which shows positive for nitrites and negative for leucocytes. She has no signs of systemic illness and no abdominal or loin symptoms. The child has been healthy in the past and has never had a urinary tract infection. What is the best initial management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat as a UTI with antibiotic but do not send urine for culture
Explanation:Managing Urinary Tract Infections in Children
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common issue in children, but managing them can be challenging. To effectively manage UTIs in children, it is important to know when to use urine dipstick testing and when to send urine for culture.
In infants and children over 3 months old with suspected UTIs, a urine dipstick test should be performed on a fresh urine sample. If the test is positive for nitrites and negative for leukocytes, antibiotics should be started, and a fresh urine sample should be sent for culture to confirm the diagnosis. The results should be reassessed.
If the dipstick test is positive for nitrites and leukocytes, antibiotics should be started for a UTI. Urine should only be sent for culture if the child is under 3 years old, there is suspected pyelonephritis, there is a risk of serious illness, there is a past history of UTI, or there is no response to treatment and a urine sample has not already been sent.
By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage UTIs in children and ensure appropriate use of urine dipstick testing and urine culture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man who is currently undergoing chemotherapy for prostate cancer seeks advice. His grandson has recently been diagnosed with Chickenpox, with the first pox appearing yesterday while he was babysitting. The patient has never had Chickenpox and is worried about contracting it, despite being asymptomatic at present. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange varicella zoster immunoglobulin
Explanation:Due to the chemotherapy-induced immunocompromisation, this patient is susceptible to a severe varicella infection and should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin.
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.
One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Under what conditions is MMR (measles, mumps and rubella) vaccination not recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV positive individual who is not immunosuppressed
Explanation:MMR Vaccination Contraindications
There are only a few individuals who cannot receive the MMR vaccination. The vaccine should not be given to those who are immunosuppressed, have had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of a measles, mumps, or rubella-containing vaccination, or have a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to neomycin or gelatin. Pregnant women should also avoid the vaccine due to a theoretical risk of fetal infection. However, true anaphylaxis following the MMR vaccination is rare, occurring at a rate of 3.5 to 14.4 per million doses. If a minor allergic reaction occurs, it is not a contraindication to future vaccination. Inactivated vaccines are safe for pregnant women, but should only be used if protection is needed without delay. It is recommended to consult with a specialist or local immunisation coordinator for further advice if there is any doubt.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old girl is referred to you by the health visitor after her mother noticed that she âlooked yellowâ. On examination, she is jaundiced, with dark urine and pale stools. Examination is otherwise normal. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy and birth, and the baby has had vitamin K.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Neonatal Jaundice: Differential Diagnosis
Biliary atresia is a congenital condition that causes obstructive jaundice due to the obliteration of the extrahepatic biliary system. It presents soon after birth with persistent jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine. Physiological jaundice, which appears after 2-3 days of age, is a different condition that doesn’t cause changes in stool and urine color. Gallstones and Rhesus incompatibility can also present with obstructive jaundice, but they are less likely. Vitamin K deficiency is not a likely cause of neonatal jaundice if the child has received vitamin K soon after birth. Any term infant who is still jaundiced after 14 days (or preterm infants after 21 days) should be investigated for the underlying cause of their jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Sophie attends a routine check-up with her 12-year-old daughter Lily, who has a history of well-controlled allergies but is otherwise healthy. Lily has received all her routine childhood vaccinations. She has recently received a reminder to have her flu vaccine.
What other vaccination should Lily receive at her age?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Explanation:Boys in school year 8, aged 12-13, are now eligible to receive the HPV vaccine alongside girls. This vaccine has been added to the routine immunisation schedule for this age group. Therefore, Dominic should receive the HPV vaccine this year. The meningitis ACWY and tetanus, diphtheria and polio vaccines are given at 14 years (school year 9) and are not applicable at this time. Dominic is up to date with his routine immunisations, including the MMR vaccine which is given at 1 year and again at 3 years and 4 months. The pneumococcal vaccine is only offered to 65-year-olds and is not relevant to Dominic’s current situation.
The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.
The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.
Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 51
Incorrect
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You see a 3-year-old boy who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling urine. You suspect a urinary tract infection, but his mother is unable to obtain a clean catch urine sample.
What is the recommended method of obtaining a urine sample if a clean catch is not possible in a 3-year-old boy with suspected urinary tract infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sanitary towels
Explanation:Diagnosing UTI in Children
UTI can be challenging to diagnose in children, especially in preverbal ones. While offensive smelling urine is a rare symptom, general symptoms such as fever, poor feeding, and vomiting are more common. Therefore, obtaining a urine sample is crucial for accurate diagnosis. NICE recommends obtaining a clean catch urine sample for urine collection. If this is not possible, collection pads are advised. However, it is important to note that cotton wool balls, gauze, and sanitary towels should not be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male visits his GP clinic as he is preparing to start university in a few months. His friends have advised him to get vaccinated before he begins. He is of 'White British' ethnicity, has a clean medical history, and will be studying English at the University of Manchester. Which vaccine should he receive as part of the standard NHS immunisation program?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningitis ACWY
Explanation:Due to a recent surge in meningitis W cases, the NHS is now advising all incoming students to receive the meningitis ACWY vaccine.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped from the 75th centile weight at birth to the 9th. She was born abroad; the results of any neonatal screening are unavailable. Since her arrival in this country, she has been prescribed antibiotics for several chest infections. Between attacks, she is well. The mother worries that she might have asthma. There is no family history of note.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a child with faltering growth and respiratory symptoms
Cystic fibrosis, coeliac disease, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, asthma, and hypothyroidism are among the possible conditions that may cause faltering growth and respiratory symptoms in children. In the case of cystic fibrosis, dysfunction of the exocrine glands affects multiple organs, leading to chronic respiratory infection, pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, and related complications. The diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is often made in infancy, but can vary in age and may involve meconium ileus or recurrent chest infections. Coeliac disease, on the other hand, typically develops after weaning onto cereals that contain gluten, and may cause faltering growth but not respiratory symptoms. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency, which can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease later in life, is less likely in a young child. Asthma, a common condition that affects the airways and causes wheeze or recurrent nocturnal cough, usually doesn’t affect growth. Hypothyroidism, a disorder of thyroid hormone deficiency, is screened for in newborns but doesn’t cause respiratory symptoms after birth. Therefore, based on the combination of faltering growth and respiratory symptoms, cystic fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A middle-aged couple attend clinic after the birth of their first grandchild and are worried about cot death as friends of theirs suffered a cot death.
Which of the following actions could you advise that would reduce the risk of cot death?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid co-sleeping with the baby in their bed
Explanation:Understanding Cot Death or Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
Cot death or sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is a tragic occurrence that affects approximately 50 out of 100,000 live births. It is a condition that is associated with several risk factors, including parental smoking, teenage pregnancy, inadequate prenatal care, laying the infant to sleep on their stomach, excess bedding, and low birth weight. Co-sleeping is also regarded as a risk factor for SIDS.
Contrary to popular belief, baby monitors do not reduce the incidence of cot death. However, Breastfeeding has been associated with a reduced incidence of SIDS. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these risk factors and take necessary precautions to reduce the risk of SIDS. This includes placing the infant to sleep on their back, avoiding excess bedding, and ensuring a smoke-free environment. By understanding the risk factors and taking necessary precautions, we can work towards reducing the incidence of cot death and ensuring the safety of our infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A pair visits the medical clinic for guidance as they are expecting their first child and the father, who is in his thirties, has haemophilia A. He is concerned about the possibility of transmitting this condition to his son. The mother is not a carrier and has no medical history of any disorders. What is the likelihood of the baby inheriting haemophilia A?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0%
Explanation:X-linked recessive conditions are only passed on from mothers to sons, and there is no male-to-male transmission.
X-linked recessive inheritance affects only males, except in cases of Turner’s syndrome where females are affected due to having only one X chromosome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by carrier females, and male-to-male transmission is not observed. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is rare for an affected father to have children with a heterozygous female carrier, but in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect can be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl presents as febrile. On examination, there are no focal symptoms to suggest the site of an infection.
According to NICE guidelines, which of the following is most appropriate in regards for the need for urgent admission to hospital?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continuous cry
Explanation:Assessing Febrile Children: Understanding Risk Signs
When assessing a febrile child, it is important to understand the different risk signs and their implications. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, a continuous cry or a weak/high-pitched cry is a red, high-risk sign. On the other hand, a drowsy child who awakens quickly is a green, low-risk sign, while a child who requires prolonged stimulation to wake up is an amber, intermediate-risk sign. Similarly, decreased activity and partial response to social cues are also amber signs. It is important to provide parents and/or carers with a safety net or refer to a specialist for further assessment in such cases. Failure to respond at all to social cues or appearing ill enough to worry the doctor are red, high-risk signs that may require hospital admission. Understanding these risk signs can help healthcare providers make informed decisions and provide appropriate care for febrile children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl with Down's syndrome who has a congenital heart defect has been prescribed furosemide by the paediatric cardiologists. Her parents have come to get a refill. Looking at the prescription, she has been prescribed furosemide at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg twice daily. Her current weight is 16 kg. Furosemide oral solution is available at a concentration of 20 mg/5 ml. What is the appropriate amount in millilitres to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 ml BD
Explanation:Dosage Calculation for Furosemide Oral Solution
To calculate the correct dosage for furosemide oral solution, the patient’s weight and prescribed dose must be taken into account. For example, if the patient weighs 16 kg and the prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg BD, then the total daily dose would be 8 mg BD (16 kg x 0.5 mg/kg).
The furosemide oral solution comes in a concentration of 20 mg in 5 ml, which means there is 4 mg in 1 ml. To determine the correct dosage, we can use the conversion factor of 8 mg = 2 ml. Therefore, the patient should take 2 ml of the furosemide oral solution twice a day. Proper dosage calculation is crucial to ensure the patient receives the correct amount of medication for their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 4-year-old boy to see you with a sore throat, fever and rash. On examination he has a punctate rash, strawberry tongue and cervical lymphadenopathy. You diagnose him with scarlet fever and decide to start phenoxymethylpenicillin. Do you need to notify the local health protection team (HPT)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Local HPT should be informed if scarlet fever is suspected
Explanation:If there is suspicion of scarlet fever, it is important to inform the local HPT without waiting for laboratory confirmation, as detecting outbreaks quickly is a priority for Public Health England. Clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection is sufficient for reporting purposes since 1968.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 59
Incorrect
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You see a 5-year-old boy who is brought by his foster parents for review.
His medical problems include: growth restriction, developmental delay and he has had a ventricular septal defect repaired.
On examination he has a saddle-shaped nose, hypertelorism, a thin upper lip and absent philtrum.
Maternal abuse of which of the following during pregnancy has caused this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome is a condition that affects children whose mothers consumed alcohol during pregnancy. It is characterized by growth restriction, cardiac abnormalities, and developmental problems. Children with this syndrome also have distinct facial features.
The typical ‘facies’ of children with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome are easily recognizable and include a small head circumference, a thin upper lip, and a flattened philtrum. These features are a result of the alcohol exposure during fetal development and can have lifelong consequences for the affected child. It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent this condition from occurring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 60
Incorrect
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You see a 3-year-old girl with her mother. She has been coughing loudly since 3am this morning and her mother describes it as a barking cough. She has had a cold but is otherwise healthy. Today, she seems better but her mother wanted to have her checked out as she appeared more unwell during the night.
During the examination, the girl appears well and has a normal body temperature. Her breathing is normal and her heart rate and respiratory rate are within normal limits. Her throat is red and her eardrums are slightly pink but not bulging.
Based on the history, you suspect that the girl has mild croup and discuss this with her mother. She asks about the cause of croup. What is the primary pathogen responsible for most cases of croup?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation:The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus.
Hand foot and mouth disease is mainly caused by enterovirus.
The common cold is primarily caused by rhinovirus.
Slapped cheek disease is mainly caused by Parvovirus B19.
Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant contacts you to ask for information about the newborn hearing screening programme. She is concerned about potential harm to her baby's ears and is uncertain about giving consent for this screening.
What is the screening test that is provided to all newborn infants as part of this programme?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Automated otoacoustic emission test
Explanation:The automated otoacoustic emission test is utilized for screening hearing problems in newborns. This test involves inserting a small soft-tipped earpiece in the outer part of a baby’s ear to send clicking sounds down the ear. A healthy cochlea is indicated by the presence of a soft echo.
The auditory brainstem response test is an incorrect answer. It may be conducted by an audiologist if a baby is not found to have satisfactory hearing during newborn screening with the automated otoacoustic emission test. This test involves placing small sensors on the baby, playing sounds of different frequencies into their ears, and recording the response using a computer.
Play audiometry is also an incorrect answer. It is suitable for children between two and five years old and not for newborns as the child is required to perform a simple task when they hear a sound.
Pure tone audiometry is another incorrect answer. It is used in older children (school age) and adults and is not suitable for use in newborns as the patient must respond when they hear a noise by pressing a button.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy complaining of acute abdominal pain is brought to see you by his mother. His mother tells you that he has been having bouts of abdominal pain for the last few days that she thought would settle with time. In addition, she tells you that he has also developed a rash on his legs and has been complaining that his knees and ankles are sore. He is opening his bowels normally and passing urine normally. Prior to the last few days he has been entirely well. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medications.
You examine him and he is afebrile and alert. His blood pressure is 118/82 mmHg. There is no significant lymphadenopathy. His abdomen is soft with no masses. He has some mild tenderness on deep palpation around the umbilicus and lower abdomen. There is an obvious purpuric rash over the extensor surfaces of his legs and buttocks. You also notice a few similar lesions on the extensor surfaces of his arms. His trunk is unaffected by the rash.
He has full range of movements in his joints which are not inflamed, however there is discomfort when manipulating his knees and ankles and his ankles appear slightly puffy.
Which of the following tests is most useful in guiding further management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) in Children
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a vasculitic condition that commonly affects children between the ages of 3 and 10. The core clinical features of HSP include a characteristic skin rash, joint pain, periarticular oedema, renal involvement, and abdominal pain. The skin rash, known as ‘palpable’ purpura, typically affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the legs and arms. Renal involvement can lead to hypertension, haematuria, and proteinuria, which can result in nephrotic and nephritic syndromes.
Urine dipstick testing is essential in making a clinical diagnosis and guiding management and follow-up. Regular follow-up is necessary during the convalescent period as HSP can lead to chronic renal problems in some patients. Therefore, early detection and management of renal manifestations are crucial in preventing long-term complications. If left untreated, HSP can cause significant morbidity and mortality in children.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her mother. She has been experiencing a cold for the past few days but has been generally healthy and has not had a fever. Her mother has brought her to see you because she has developed some spots over the past day. During the examination, the child is cooperative and happy, with a normal heart rate and capillary refill time. She has a runny nose and her throat appears inflamed, but there is no exudate. You also notice a small ulcer on her mucous membranes. There are two small red papules at the edge of her lower lip, and there are a few vesicles and red papules on the palmar aspect of her hands. Her chest is clear, and her tympanic membranes are normal.
What is the recommended duration for keeping her away from daycare?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No exclusion required
Explanation:Children with hand foot and mouth infection can attend school or nursery as long as they are well enough to do so, and do not need to be excluded. This is because the infection is typically mild and self-limiting. However, if the child has a fever, they should be kept at home. It is important to note that exclusion periods for other illnesses, such as Chickenpox, rubella, measles, scarlet fever, and impetigo, differ from those for hand foot and mouth. For more information on exclusion periods, refer to the Public Health Agency website.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 64
Incorrect
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You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the MMR vaccine when younger.
The child's father has called the clinic to inquire about when his child can return to school because he needs to plan for childcare arrangements and it is affecting his work schedule.
What is the recommended duration for a measles case to stay away from school or work?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 days after the onset of the rash
Explanation:Measles Exclusion Guidelines for Schools and Workplaces
Measles is a highly infectious disease that spreads through airborne or droplet transmission. To prevent the spread of the disease, individuals who have contracted measles should be excluded from school or work for four days after the onset of the rash. This exclusion period is outlined in the infection control guidelines published by Public Health England for schools and other childcare settings.
It is important to note that individuals are infectious from the beginning of the prodromal period, when the first symptoms appear, until four days after the onset of the rash. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the exclusion guidelines to prevent the spread of measles in schools and workplaces. By doing so, we can protect the health and well-being of everyone in the community.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 65
Incorrect
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You see a 4-year-old boy with his mother. She reported that he slipped while being bathed and hit his head on the side of the bathtub. She reports he cried afterwards but returned to normal soon after. He had no other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of consciousness, or drowsiness. The examination was normal.
Which of the following features would alert you most to the possibility of child maltreatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A delayed presentation to healthcare services
Explanation:Signs of Child Maltreatment in Healthcare Settings
Young children may exhibit shyness and clinginess to their parents during consultations, which is a normal behavior. However, excessive clinginess may be a sign of child maltreatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this possibility and to observe the child’s behavior during consultations.
Children may also be difficult to console during illness or after an injury, which is not necessarily an indicator of maltreatment. However, healthcare providers should be alert to any unusual patterns of presentation, such as frequent attendance or unusually late presentations, which may suggest the possibility of maltreatment.
Head injuries are common in children due to their high activity levels and poor sense of danger. Healthcare providers should be aware of the possibility of maltreatment if the child presents with repeated head injuries.
Finally, failure to ensure access to appropriate medical care, such as missing hospital appointments or not giving essential medications, should also raise suspicion of maltreatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child presents with a six day history of fever, coryzal symptoms, cough and red watery eyes. Yesterday a red maculopapular rash appeared around the ears and face.
On examination, in the mouth there are tiny white spots on an erythematous base, opposite the premolars on the buccal mucosa.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella
Explanation:Measles vs Rubella: Understanding the Differences
Measles and rubella are two viral infections that can cause similar symptoms, but they have some key differences. Measles is typically more severe and can have serious consequences, while rubella is usually milder and may go unnoticed in some individuals.
In the case of measles, the illness usually starts with a prodromal phase that includes fever, dry cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. After a few days, tiny white spots called Koplik’s spots appear on the buccal mucosa, followed by a rash that spreads downwards from the face and behind the ears.
On the other hand, rubella tends to be shorter in duration and milder in symptoms. It may not even be noticed in some individuals. However, if a pregnant woman contracts rubella, it can pose a serious risk to the developing fetus.
Understanding the differences between these two viral infections is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 67
Incorrect
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You come across a mother with her 6-month-old baby boy who has just been released from the hospital after being admitted for bloody stools. The baby has been diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy and the mother is seeking further information on the condition.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cows milk protein allergy can occur in exclusively breastfed infants
Explanation:Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old nanny, Sarah, cares for 5 different children during the week. What is a concerning sign to look out for in one of her charges?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarah aged 10 months preferentially uses her right hand to pick up toys
Explanation:Red flags in child development serve as warning signs that can indicate a possible developmental delay. The following table outlines some common red flags to look out for:
Age Red Flags
Birth-3 months Consistent clenching of fists before 3 months of age, rolling over before 3 months
4-6 months Lack of smiling by 10 weeks, failure to reach for objects by 5 months
6-12 months Persistence of primitive reflexes after 6 months
12-24 months Demonstrating hand dominance before 12 months may be a red flag for hemiparesis, inability to walk independently by 18 months, and difficulty using a spoon, which typically develops between 12-15 months.Common Developmental Problems and Their Causes
Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points, fine motor skill problems, gross motor problems, and speech and language problems. Referral points may include a lack of smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and inability to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may be indicated by abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could be a sign of cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, but other causes may include environmental deprivation and general developmental delay. It is important to identify and address these developmental problems early on to ensure the best possible outcomes for the child’s future.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A young mother with a 4-month-old boy presents to your practice. Her sister has recently lost a baby due to sudden-infant-death syndrome (SIDS). She asks for the current advice on minimising the risk of SIDS in her own family.
Which of the following pieces of advice is most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The baby should not be exposed to secondhand smoke in the room
Explanation:Common Myths and Facts about Safe Sleeping for Babies
There are many misconceptions about safe sleeping for babies that can put them at risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Here are some common myths and facts to help parents ensure their baby is sleeping safely.
Myth: It’s okay to smoke around the baby.
Fact: Smoking during and after pregnancy increases the risk of SIDS. Passive smoking also significantly increases the risk of SIDS, and the risk increases further when both parents smoke.Myth: The ideal room temperature for a baby is 20-24°C.
Fact: This temperature might be uncomfortably warm; the ideal room temperature is 16â20 °C.Myth: Babies should sleep in the same room as their parents for the first year of life.
Fact: Infants should share the same room, but not the same bed, as their parents for the first six months to decrease the risk of SIDS.Myth: Place the baby on their front to sleep.
Fact: Babies should be placed on their backs to sleep, with feet touching the end of the cot, so that they cannot slip under the covers. The use of pillows is not recommended.Myth: The use of pacifiers is not recommended.
Fact: The use of pacifiers while settling the baby to sleep reduces the risk of cot death. -
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- Children And Young People
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. She is currently being treated for a cold but her mother is worried about her heart rate. What is the typical heart rate for a 4-year-old child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90 - 140 bpm
Explanation:Paediatric vital signs refer to the normal range of heart rate and respiratory rate for children of different ages. These vital signs are important indicators of a child’s overall health and can help healthcare professionals identify any potential issues. The table below outlines the age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. Children under the age of one typically have a higher heart rate and respiratory rate, while older children have lower rates. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor these vital signs regularly to ensure that children are healthy and developing properly.
Age Heart rate Respiratory rate
< 1 110 - 160 30 - 40
1 – 2 100 – 150 25 – 35
2 – 5 90 – 140 25 – 30
5 – 12 80 – 120 20 – 25
> 12 60 – 100 15 – 20 -
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- Children And Young People
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Lila is a 4-year-old girl who presents with a high fever, sore throat and sandpaper-like rash on her torso. You suspect scarlet fever. Her father inquires about the duration of time she should stay away from preschool.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keep out of nursery until 24 hours after starting antibiotics
Explanation:It is recommended that children diagnosed with scarlet fever should not attend nursery or school until they have been on antibiotics for at least 24 hours.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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Question 72
Incorrect
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For which patients is pertussis vaccination not recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy
Explanation:The pertussis vaccination, typically administered as part of the DTaP or Tdap vaccines, is crucial in preventing whooping cough, which can be particularly severe in infants and children. However, there are specific situations where the pertussis vaccine may not be recommended.
- Child with Spina Bifida:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: Children with spina bifida do not have contraindications for the pertussis vaccine. In fact, they should receive all standard childhood immunizations, including the DTaP vaccine, unless there are other specific contraindications not related to spina bifida.
- Breastfeeding Mother:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: Breastfeeding mothers are encouraged to receive the Tdap vaccine, especially postpartum if they did not receive it during pregnancy. This helps to protect both the mother and the infant by reducing the risk of transmission.
- Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is contraindicated.
- Explanation: Children with progressive neurological disorders such as uncontrolled epilepsy or progressive encephalopathy should not receive the pertussis component of the vaccine until the condition is stabilised. This is due to the risk of vaccine-related exacerbations of the neurological condition.
- HIV Infected Individual:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: HIV-infected individuals, including children, should receive the pertussis vaccine according to the standard immunization schedule, unless they are severely immunocompromised. The DTaP vaccine is an inactivated vaccine, making it safe for use in immunocompromised individuals.
- Pregnant Woman:
- Recommendation: Pertussis vaccination is recommended.
- Explanation: Pregnant women are specifically recommended to receive the Tdap vaccine during each pregnancy, ideally between 27 and 36 weeks of gestation. This practice helps provide passive immunity to the newborn and reduces the risk of pertussis transmission.
- Child with Spina Bifida:
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- Children And Young People
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby girl has been brought into the GP by her father. They visited three weeks ago because the baby was experiencing vomiting and regurgitation after feeds. They were given alginate suspension at the time but this has not helped. Today, the baby is still experiencing troublesome symptoms and is now refusing feeds.
What would be the next appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4-week trial of omeprazole suspension
Explanation:If an infant with GORD is experiencing troublesome symptoms even after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor. This is in line with NICE guidelines.
Opting for a 2-week trial of omeprazole is not advisable as it may not be sufficient to alleviate the symptoms.
Continuing with alginate suspension alone is not appropriate as the symptoms have worsened since starting the treatment.
Ranitidine is no longer recommended due to the presence of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NMDA) in formulations from multiple manufacturers. Nitrosamines, which are carcinogens commonly found in smoked fish, are linked to high rates of oesophageal and gastric cancer in East Asian countries.
If metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is used, it should be done so with caution and under the supervision of a specialist.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A mother of a 12-week-old baby expresses concern that her baby has been acting differently for the past day. The baby is not smiling as much and is having 20% fewer breastfeeds. The baby was born at full term without any complications, has been thriving well, and has received all of his immunizations. During examination, the only notable finding is a temperature of 38.5ÂșC. What would be the best initial course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for same-day paediatric assessment
Explanation:If a child under the age of 3 months has a fever exceeding 38ÂșC, they should be considered at high risk for serious illness according to the NICE traffic light system. This is classified as a red alert. NICE CKS provides additional information, stating that research from six studies indicates that the risk of serious illness is more than 10 times greater in this age group compared to older children.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She has had a fever overnight, along with a sore throat and cough. Her father is worried that she seems more tired than usual today. During the examination, you note the following:
Temperature 38.5 degrees
Heart rate 160 bpm
Respiratory rate 40 / min
Oxygen saturation 95%
The lungs are clear, but there is inflammation and redness in the throat, and there are swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
According to the NICE traffic light system for assessing fever in children, which of the following is considered 'amber'?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart rate 155 bpm
Explanation:The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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- Children And Young People
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is presented to the emergency surgery department with a fever and a blotchy rash. Her mother reports that the rash started behind her ears and has now spread all over her body. During the examination, you observe clusters of white lesions on the buccal mucosa. The child has not received any vaccinations.
What is the potential complication that this child may face?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumonia
Explanation:Pneumonia is a common complication of measles and can be fatal, especially in children. The measles virus can damage the lower respiratory tract epithelium, which weakens the local immunity in the lungs and leads to pneumonia.
Aside from pneumonia, measles can also cause other complications such as otitis media, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased risk of appendicitis, and myocarditis. Treatment for measles usually involves rest, fluids, and pain relief.
If a person has measles, it is important to inform the local Health Protection Team (HPT) and avoid going to school or work for at least four days after the rash appears.
Mumps, on the other hand, can cause complications such as orchitis, oophoritis, pancreatitis, and viral meningitis. Symptoms of mumps include fever, headache, swelling of the parotid glands, and general malaise.
Kawasaki disease, a different illness, can lead to coronary artery aneurysm. Symptoms of Kawasaki disease include high fever, rash, conjunctival injection, red and cracked hands, feet, and lips, and swollen lymph glands.
It is important to note that otitis media, not otitis externa, is a complication of measles.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease
Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.
The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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Question 77
Incorrect
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You have a 7-year-old Asian child in your clinic. He has slightly bowed legs and complains of muscle pains. You suspect a Vitamin D deficiency. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25-hydroxyvitamin D
Explanation:Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency
Vitamin D deficiency is a common health concern that can lead to various health problems. To investigate suspected Vitamin D deficiency, doctors often use the 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood test. However, it’s important to note that a high alkaline phosphatase level may indicate rickets, but it can still be normal despite significant Vitamin D deficiency. Additionally, Vitamin D deficiency can impair the absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus, but these levels may still appear normal despite the deficiency.
When the parathyroid calcium sensing receptors detect low levels of calcium, the body produces parathyroid hormone. While this hormone can be used to diagnose Vitamin D deficiency, it’s an expensive test that is not usually necessary. Overall, understanding the signs and symptoms of Vitamin D deficiency and getting regular check-ups can help prevent and treat this common health issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 5-year-old daughter, Lily, to the clinic with concerns about her persistent fever for the past 6 days. Lily has been complaining of a sore throat and her eyes have become red. She has no medical history, allergies, or regular medication. Upon examination, Lily's vital signs are normal except for her high temperature. She has conjunctival injection in both eyes, a red pharynx, and cracked lips. Additionally, she has desquamation on her feet and palpable cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease
Explanation:Kawasaki disease is indicated by a high fever lasting more than 5 days, along with red palms that peel and a strawberry tongue. Symptoms of this condition also include conjunctivitis and cracked lips. It is important to note that Stevens-Johnson syndrome typically involves erythema multiforme with mucosal involvement, while the other conditions listed would not present in this manner.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days, which is resistant to antipyretics. Other features include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms instead of angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease include coronary artery aneurysm, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and treatment of Kawasaki disease can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 79
Incorrect
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You assess a 5 month old girl who was hospitalized due to a urinary tract infection and showed improvement after receiving antibiotics within 48 hours. She was discharged after 2 days. As per NICE guidelines, what follow-up (if any) should be scheduled?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan within 6 weeks
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, if a child under 6 months old has a UTI that responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours, an ultrasound scan should be done within 6 weeks. However, if the UTI is atypical or recurrent, additional tests such as ultrasound during the acute infection, DMSA 4-6 months after the acute infection, and MCUG are recommended.
An atypical UTI may present with symptoms such as being seriously ill, poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, elevated creatinine, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or non-E. coli organisms. Recurrent UTI is defined as having two or more episodes of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection, one episode of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection plus one or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection, or three or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children require investigation to identify any underlying causes and potential kidney damage. Unlike in adults, the development of a UTI in childhood may indicate renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging the urinary tract for infants under six months who present with their first UTI and respond to treatment, within six weeks. Children over six months who respond to treatment do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection, such as being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.
Further investigations may include a urine microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria, making microscopy or dipstick of the urine inadequate for diagnosis. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteric reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months who present with atypical or recurrent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 80
Incorrect
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The likelihood of a 34-year-old mother having a baby with Down's syndrome is roughly:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 275
Explanation:The risk of Down’s syndrome is 1 in 1,000 at the age of 30, and this risk decreases by a factor of 3 for every 5 years.
Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father who is concerned about a rash that appeared after a recent fever, as she was recovering.
During the examination, you observe numerous pink-red papules and macules (2-5 mm in size) spread across the trunk, which disappear when pressed. The child seems unaffected by them and appears healthy with regular vital signs.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Roseola
Explanation:Roseola infantum, also known as ‘sixth disease’, is a common illness among children aged 6 months to 2 years. It is characterized by a fever followed by a non-itchy, painless, maculopapular rash that typically affects the trunk. Febrile seizures are also common. The rash usually lasts for about 2 days and doesn’t blister. Roseola is caused by the human herpesvirus type 6B or 7, and no treatment is required. Long-term complications are rare.
Chickenpox, on the other hand, would cause a very itchy rash with blistering lesions that eventually scab over. Hand, foot and mouth disease would typically affect the limbs and mouth, rather than the trunk. Measles would start from the face and spread down to the limbs, and the fever would not subside with the appearance of the rash. Rubella would cause a rash that starts from the face and disappears after 3 days. These characteristics make these illnesses less likely diagnoses in this case.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.
The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.
While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 6-week-old boy is brought by mum for his routine check. Which one of the following is not part of the 6 week routine check?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cover test for squint
Explanation:At this stage, a cover test is not necessary.
The six-week baby examination is a crucial part of the Healthy Child Programme, which includes newborn screening elements such as physical examinations, blood spot tests, and hearing screens. This examination is usually conducted by a GP or other health professionals, and its purpose is to identify any potential issues that may not have been apparent during the initial hospital examination. The four key issues that are checked for during this examination are congenital heart disease, developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), congenital cataract, and undescended testes.
During the examination, the baby’s weight and head circumference are measured and plotted onto a growth chart in the red book. The baby’s color, behavior, breathing, and skin are also checked for any abnormalities. The heart is examined for any murmurs or palpitations, and the femoral pulses are felt. If there are any concerns, a pediatrician should be consulted. DDH is checked for by looking for leg length differences or asymmetry of hip creases, and performing Barlows and Ortolani’s tests. The eyes are checked for congenital cataract, and any concerns should be referred for a same-day ophthalmology assessment. The testes are checked for by feeling the scrotum, and any concerns should be referred for a same-day pediatric assessment.
Aside from the physical examination, this is also an opportunity to address any concerns from the parents, such as feeding or growth, and provide health promotion advice, such as immunizations or smoking cessation. The mother should also be screened for postnatal depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 83
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and feeling tired. He was seen in the clinic two weeks ago for a sore throat. During the examination, he has a sinus tachycardia, a pink rash in the form of rings on his trunk, and a systolic murmur.
What is the best diagnosis and treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She has rheumatic fever and should be admitted for appropriate treatment
Explanation:Misdiagnosis of a Heart Murmur: Understanding the Differences between Rheumatic Fever, Lyme Disease, HSP, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Scarlet Fever
A heart murmur can be a concerning symptom, but it is important to correctly diagnose the underlying condition. Rheumatic fever, Lyme disease, HenochâSchönlein purpura (HSP), juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and scarlet fever can all present with a heart murmur, but each has distinct features that can help differentiate them.
Rheumatic fever requires the presence of recent streptococcal infection and the fulfilment of Jones criteria, which include major criteria such as carditis, arthritis, Sydenhamâs chorea, subcutaneous nodules, and erythema marginatum, as well as minor criteria such as fever, arthralgia, raised ESR or CRP, and prolonged PR interval on an electrocardiogram.
Lyme disease presents with erythema migrans, arthralgia, and other symptoms depending on the stage of the disease, but a heart murmur is not a typical feature.
HSP is characterised by purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, orchitis, and nephritis.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is chronic arthritis occurring before the age of 16 years that lasts for at least six weeks in the absence of any other cause, and may involve few or many joints, with additional features in some subsets, but it should not present with a heart murmur.
Scarlet fever is characterised by a widespread red rash, fever, tachycardia, myalgia, and circumoral pallor, rather than joint pain.
In summary, a heart murmur can be a symptom of various conditions, but a thorough evaluation of other symptoms and criteria is necessary to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy has had three episodes of central abdominal pain in the last three months, each lasting a few days. The pain variably increases and decreases during an episode. It has been severe enough to affect school attendance. When his mother brings him she has no pain and physical examination is normal.
Select from this list the most likely eventual finding for the cause of the symptoms in this boy.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No cause will be found
Explanation:Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children: Possible Causes and Diagnosis
Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children, but it is often difficult to identify the underlying cause. In many cases, no organic pathology can be found, but a significant number of cases are organic and require careful examination and investigation. Recurrent abdominal pain is defined as pain that occurs for at least three episodes within three months and is severe enough to affect a child’s activities.
The most probable causes of recurrent abdominal pain in children are irritable bowel syndrome, abdominal migraine/periodic syndrome, constipation, mesenteric adenitis, and urinary tract infections. However, other possible causes should also be considered.
Despite the lack of organic pathology in most cases, psychological factors are not always the cause. A study found no significant differences in emotional and behavioral scores between patients with organic pathology and those without. Therefore, a thorough examination and investigation are necessary to identify the underlying cause of recurrent abdominal pain in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old boy is presented by his father. He was exclusively breastfed for the first month of life before being switched to formula. Over the past eight weeks, he has been experiencing various issues such as vomiting, regurgitation, eczema, and diarrhea. Despite these problems, he has maintained his weight at the 50th percentile. Physical examination reveals no significant findings except for some dry skin on his chest. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cow's milk protein intolerance
Explanation:If symptoms appear after formula is introduced, it strongly indicates the presence of cow’s milk protein intolerance.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma treatment. She is currently using salbutamol inhaler as needed and Symbicort 100/6 (budesonide 100 micrograms/formoterol 6 micrograms) two puffs twice a day. She has been using these inhalers for the past six months. Before that, she was using salbutamol as needed and budesonide 200 micrograms twice a day. The Symbicort was added to her regimen to include a long-acting beta2 agonist as she was using her salbutamol once or twice a day. Despite the addition of the long-acting beta2 agonist, she still experiences occasional tightness in her chest and nighttime coughing. She uses her salbutamol inhaler an average of three to four times a week. Her parents confirm that she is compliant with her inhalers and her inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate management plan for her current asthma treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in a leukotriene receptor antagonist to her current treatment
Explanation:Treatment Ladder for Asthma in a 9-Year-Old Child
Here we have a 9-year-old child with asthma who is currently on a regular inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) + long acting beta2 agonist (LABA) combination inhaler and salbutamol as needed. Despite some improvement with the regular inhaled ICS+LABA, the child is still requiring salbutamol quite frequently.
To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the best recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step would be to trial a leukotriene receptor antagonist. If the addition of the LABA had not yielded any clinical benefit, then it should be stopped. However, since it has proved to be somewhat helpful, it should be continued.
In summary, the treatment ladder for asthma in a 9-year-old child involves gradually increasing the level of medication until symptoms are controlled. The addition of a leukotriene receptor antagonist may be the next step in this process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his mother. He was playing on the monkey bars at the playground and fell off, landing on his right arm. He started crying and complained that his right elbow hurt. He is now reluctant to move the elbow and holds it slightly flexed and pronated with the forearm held against the abdomen. There is no tenderness, swelling, bruising or deformity at the elbow.
Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial head subluxation
Explanation:Common Elbow Injuries in Children and Adults
Radial head subluxation is a frequent injury in children under the age of 6 years. The rounded end of the radial head is still made of cartilage and can easily slip out of the encircling annular ligament when the arm is pulled. There is usually no history of trauma, but there may be a history of axial traction by a pull on the hand or wrist. Tenderness at the head of the radius may be present. Imaging is only necessary when a fracture is suspected. Manipulation can be done in the GP surgery by immobilizing the elbow with one hand and with the other hand applying axial compression while supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow. Alternatively, it can be done while pronating the forearm. A click indicates success.
Supracondylar fracture of the humerus is most commonly seen in children and usually results from a fall on to an outstretched arm. The patient usually has elbow swelling and pain.
Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is a chronic condition that peaks between 40 and 50 years of age. It is thought to be an overload tendon injury.
Radial neck fracture occurs due to trauma such as a fall onto the outstretched arm. The median age is 9â10 years. There is pain, swelling, and tenderness over the lateral side of the elbow.
In cases of suspected non-accidental injury, the explanation should be consistent with the injury, and in the absence of other features, non-accidental injury is unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A father brings in his seven-month-old daughter who has been fussy lately and he suspects she may be teething. He has been using over-the-counter pain relief and giving her teething rings to chew on, but he is worried that she may need additional treatment.
Upon examination, the baby is found to have normal vital signs and no fever, and the diagnosis of teething is confirmed.
What would be the best course of action at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the mother and tell her to continue existing treatments
Explanation:It is not recommended to prescribe oral choline salicylate gels to teething children as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. However, in this case, reassurance is appropriate as the child’s symptoms are mild and self-limiting. Simple measures such as allowing the child to bite on a cool, clean object and administering paracetamol/ibuprofen suspension for those aged three months and older can be helpful. It is not recommended to use topical anaesthetics or herbal teething powders as they may have adverse effects.
Teething: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options
Teething is the process of primary tooth eruption in infants, which typically begins around 6 months of age and is usually complete by 30 months of age. It is characterized by a subacute onset of symptoms, including gingival irritation, parent-reported irritability, and excessive drooling. These symptoms occur in approximately 70% of all children and are equally prevalent in boys and girls, although girls tend to develop their teeth sooner than boys.
During examination, teeth can typically be felt below the surface of the gums prior to breaking through, and gingival erythema will be noted around the site of early tooth eruption. Treatment options include chewable teething rings and simple analgesia with paracetamol or ibuprofen. However, topical analgesics or numbing agents are not recommended, and oral choline salicylate gels should not be prescribed due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome.
It is important to note that teething doesn’t cause systemic symptoms such as fevers or diarrhea, and these symptoms should be treated as warning signs of other systemic illness. Additionally, teething necklaces made from amber beads on a cord are a common naturopathic treatment for teething symptoms but represent a significant strangulation and choking hazard. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid their use.
In conclusion, teething is a clinical diagnosis that can be managed with simple interventions. However, it is essential to be aware of potential hazards and to seek medical attention if systemic symptoms are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy has been unwell, looks pale, is anorexic and has lost weight. He has abdominal pain and a pain in his leg and a limp. You are concerned about his appearance and worry he may have a malignancy.
Which is the feature that will MOST LIKELY be present if he has a neuroblastoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal mass
Explanation:Neuroblastoma: Symptoms and Presenting Features
Neuroblastoma is a solid neoplasm that commonly affects children and arises from sympathetic nervous tissue. The most common symptom is an abdominal mass, which is caused by the tumor location in the adrenal gland. Other symptoms may include bone pain, limping, and anemia due to marrow infiltration. Hypertension is a rare finding, but it can occur due to renal artery compression. Tumors that arise from the thoracic sympathetic chain can produce Horner syndrome, which is characterized by meiosis, ptosis, and absence of sweating of the face. Limb weakness and bladder and bowel problems can occur if the tumor grows through the spinal foramina into the spinal canal, compressing the spinal cord. Periorbital bruising may also be a presenting feature if there is metastatic disease in the orbit. It is important to be aware of these symptoms and to seek medical attention if they occur, as early detection and treatment can improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program. She had a normal delivery at 40 weeks and was discharged home with her parents. The hearing screening was abnormal and a follow-up test is required to confirm.
What is the follow-up test needed in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auditory brainstem response test
Explanation:If a baby is found to have an abnormal hearing test at birth, they will be offered an auditory brainstem response test as a follow-up. This test involves placing electrodes on the scalp to measure auditory evoked potentials after sounds are played, and can indicate reduced hearing ability if there is no response.
It is not appropriate to use a distraction test on a newborn, as they are not yet developed enough for this type of testing. This test is typically used for toddlers aged 6-9 months, and requires two staff members to assess the loudness required for the baby to react to sounds produced out of their field of view.
Newborn otoacoustic emission testing is the initial screening assessment for hearing loss, but further investigations are needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test involves generating a click sound through an earpiece and measuring for the presence of a soft echo that indicates a healthy cochlea.
Pure tone audiometry is not an appropriate second-line hearing investigation for newborns, as it requires the input of the participant when they hear specific sounds and is typically used in school-aged children.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 12-week-old baby is brought to the clinic with persistent regurgitation that causes significant distress. The infant is exclusively breastfed and appears otherwise healthy. The baby was born a week before the due date through a normal vaginal delivery. The mother experienced significant blood loss during delivery and required overnight observation. She was found to be slightly anemic and was given ferrous sulfate supplementation. What initial treatment would you suggest for this baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alginate therapy
Explanation:When breastfed infants display symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux, it is important for a qualified individual to conduct a breastfeeding assessment. Simply observing the infant without providing any treatment is not appropriate, as the reported distress of the infant must be taken into consideration. While a proton pump inhibitor is a viable treatment option, an alginate is preferred due to its lower risk of side effects, provided it is effective. Alginates can be administered to breastfed infants by mixing them with cooled boiled water or expressed breast milk.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old mother brings her 8-month-old son to the emergency surgery, concerned about his breathing pattern. She thinks he may have asthma as he seems to be breathing faster than her 5-year-old nephew.
The mother reports no cough or wheeze, and the child has no fever or rash. He is happily playing in the clinic room, and there are no developmental issues or family history of atopy.
Upon clinical examination, there is no respiratory distress, and the chest is clear bilaterally. All other systems appear normal. The following are the child's observations:
Heart Rate 125 beats per minute
Respiratory Rate 32 breaths per minute
Saturations 98% on air
Temperature 37.2ÂșC
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the mother findings are normal
Explanation:A child under 1 typically has a normal respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute. The AKT may test knowledge of normal ranges, and sometimes the best course of action is to do nothing.
If a mother expresses concern about her child’s respiratory rate being higher than an older child’s, but the child’s rate is within the normal range for their age group (such as 34 breaths per minute), referral or medication would not be necessary and would be a misuse of resources.
During a physical examination of a child, certain vital signs are checked to ensure that they fall within normal ranges. These ranges vary depending on the age of the child. For example, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute is considered normal for a child under the age of one, while a heart rate of 80-100 beats per minute is normal for a child over the age of 12. Similarly, systolic blood pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats, and respiratory rate, which measures the number of breaths per minute, also have different normal ranges depending on the child’s age. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these normal ranges in order to identify any potential health concerns in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of âpuffinessâ around her eyes. She seems well in herself and her mother is concerned that she may have hay fever. On examination, she has some pitting oedema around her ankles where her socks have been, but is otherwise well. Dipstick testing of her urine reveals protein 4+ and blood 1+.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, oedema, hyperlipidaemia, and hypoalbuminaemia. Children typically present with periorbital oedema, while adults usually present with ankle oedema. Proteinuria can be measured using an early-morning urinary protein: creatinine ratio, with a ratio greater than 300-350 mg/mmol being suggestive. Microscopic haematuria may also be present. Urgent referral is necessary.
Idiopathic primary nephrotic syndrome, which includes minimal-change glomerular disease or focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, accounts for over 75% of cases in children. Kidney biopsy is not always necessary, and treatment usually begins with a trial of corticosteroids. Approximately 90% of children with minimal-change disease achieve remission after the initial course of treatment, while relapses are common and may continue into adulthood.
Angioedema, haemolytic-uraemic syndrome, urinary tract infection, and Wilms’ tumour are not associated with nephrotic syndrome. Angioedema is characterized by abrupt and transient swelling of deep dermis, subcutaneous, or submucosal tissue due to vascular leakage, while haemolytic-uraemic syndrome is associated with progressive renal failure, haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopaenia. Urinary tract infection typically presents with specific symptoms such as frequency, dysuria, and pain, while Wilms’ tumour presents as an asymptomatic abdominal mass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The child's mother is worried about the appearance of her infantâs face. The back of the head appears flattened and the right side of the head appears pushed forward relative to the left side. The mother thinks the shape of the skull was normal at birth.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positional plagiocephaly
Explanation:Pediatric Craniofacial Abnormalities: Causes and Characteristics
Craniofacial abnormalities in infants and children can arise from a variety of causes, ranging from positional factors to genetic syndromes. Here are some common types of abnormalities and their characteristics:
Positional Plagiocephaly: This occurs when a baby’s head becomes flattened on one side due to sleeping in the same position or pressure in the uterus. It can cause asymmetry in the head shape, such as misaligned ears and a parallelogram-like appearance.
Facial Nerve Palsy: While rare, facial palsy in infants can occur due to congenital factors or birth trauma. It may also develop during childhood, such as with Bell’s palsy.
Congenital Torticollis: This is a muscular condition in which one or more neck muscles are extremely tight, causing the head to tilt and the chin to point in the opposite direction. It can lead to the development of plagiocephaly.
Craniosynostosis: This occurs when one or more fibro sutures in the skull prematurely fuse, changing the growth pattern and resulting in an abnormal head shape and facial features. Surgery is often necessary.
Frontal Bossing: This is an unusually prominent forehead, sometimes associated with heavy brow ridges. It can be caused by conditions such as thalassaemia major and sickle cell anaemia, as well as rare syndromes like Russell-Silver dwarfism and Hurler syndrome.
Understanding these craniofacial abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and address them early on for optimal treatment and outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy has been brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his father for a routine check-up. The GP is assessing the development of the child.
Which of the following would be the most advanced developmental skill in this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uses four or five words in a sentence
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Infants
As infants grow and develop, they acquire new skills at different rates. However, there are certain milestones that most children will have achieved by a certain age. For instance, naming a simple picture in a book is a skill that is typically mastered by the age of 23 months. By 25-26 months, most children can name several body parts. Removing socks and shoes without assistance is a skill that is usually achieved by 27-28 months. By 31-32 months, throwing a ball overarm is a skill that most children will have mastered. Finally, using four or five words in a sentence is a milestone that is typically achieved by the age of 35-36 months. It’s important to remember that there is variation in the rate of development among infants, but these milestones can serve as a general guide for parents and caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 96
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of bed-wetting, thirst and increasing lethargy for the past 2 weeks. The father reports that his son has lost some weight. The patient appears healthy and the examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals 4+ glucose and moderate ketones. His capillary blood glucose level is 16 mmol/l.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute Paediatric referral to be seen today
Explanation:Appropriate Management of Suspected Diabetes Mellitus in a Paediatric Patient
When a paediatric patient presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, along with a raised capillary blood glucose, diabetes mellitus is a likely diagnosis. This insidious onset over several weeks can make it difficult to detect, and children may appear well despite being in diabetic ketoacidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment on the same day to prevent any life-threatening complications.
While urine culture may be appropriate for suspected urinary tract infections, elevated blood glucose makes diabetes mellitus a more likely diagnosis. Therefore, arranging for fasting blood sugar, haemoglobin A1c, and paediatric outpatient review within two weeks is necessary.
Initiating insulin therapy in primary care is essential, but the patient will also need urgent secondary care investigation, such as blood gas analysis, to rule out ketoacidosis. The patient may require fluid resuscitation and extensive education regarding diabetes, which can be best accessed in secondary care.
Although measuring C-peptide may distinguish between different types of diabetes, it is usually unnecessary in patients with features suggestive of type I diabetes, as seen in this patient. Therefore, appropriate management of suspected diabetes mellitus in a paediatric patient involves prompt diagnosis, initiation of insulin therapy, and urgent secondary care investigation to prevent any life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 97
Incorrect
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Following recent NICE guidelines on child maltreatment, which one of the following should prompt you to suspect child maltreatment, rather than just considering it:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An anal fissure on a 7-year-old boy who is not constipated and doesn't have Crohn's
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2009 to help healthcare professionals identify when a child may be experiencing maltreatment. Child abuse can take many forms, including physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that may indicate abuse, but only selected features are highlighted here. Neglect may be suspected if a child has severe and persistent infestations, is not receiving essential prescribed treatment, has poor hygiene, or is not being dressed appropriately. Sexual abuse may be suspected if a child has persistent dysuria or anogenital discomfort, a gaping anus during examination, or is exhibiting sexualized behavior. Physical abuse may be suspected if a child has unexplained serious or unusual injuries, cold injuries, hypothermia, oral injuries, bruises, lacerations, burns, human bite marks, or fractures with unsuitable explanations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Which of the following congenital infections is most commonly associated with sensorineural hearing loss in newborns?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:The condition known as congenital rubella can lead to both sensorineural deafness and congenital cataracts.
Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus
Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old is brought to your clinic by his mother. He has been running a fever and has been refusing to eat. His mother has observed some spots on his hands and buttocks. Upon examination, the child has a mild vesicular rash on his hands, buttocks, face, and a few spots on his ankles. His temperature is 38.1ÂșC. According to your records, he had Chickenpox when he was 10 months old. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease
Explanation:Hand, foot, and mouth disease is a viral infection that typically impacts children who are under the age of 10. The symptoms include fever, loss of appetite, coughing, stomach pain, and a sore throat. Following these symptoms, mouth ulcers often develop, along with a rash that typically affects the hands and feet, but can also appear on the face, buttocks, legs, and genitals. This condition is generally harmless and resolves on its own, with treatment consisting of basic pain relief.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old formula-fed baby, born at 37 weeks, has been experiencing symptoms of cow's milk protein allergy for the past 2 weeks. The baby is increasingly unsettled around 30-60 minutes after feeds, with frequent regurgitation, 'colic' episodes, and non-bloody diarrhoea. Mild eczema is present on examination, but the baby's weight remains stable between the 50-75th centile. The baby was started on an extensively hydrolysed formula, but there is still some persistence of symptoms reported by the parents. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this baby's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amino-acid based formula trial
Explanation:Soya milk is not a suitable alternative as a significant proportion of infants who have an allergy to cow’s milk protein are also unable to tolerate it.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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- Children And Young People
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