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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with silvery-white scaling plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There is evidence of nail pitting.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Biologic treatment

      Correct Answer: Topical betnovate + vitamin D

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for psoriasis is the application of betnovate (or another potent steroid) plus vitamin D for four weeks. If there is no or minimal improvement, referral to a specialist may be considered. Dermovate, a very potent steroid, should only be initiated by a specialist who may alter the treatment or advance it to include phototherapy or biologics. Hydrocortisone is not recommended for psoriasis treatment as it is not potent enough. Phototherapy is not the first-line treatment and should only be initiated by a dermatologist after considering all risks and benefits. Biologics are the last stage of treatment and are only initiated by a dermatologist if the detrimental effects of psoriasis are heavily impacting the patient’s life, despite other treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.5
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  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?

      Your Answer: Antibodies against hemidesmosomes

      Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      45.5
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  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner (GP) with an irregular mole on her back. The mole is oval in shape, 2 cm in length, and has an irregular border throughout. The colour is uniform, and there has been no change in sensation. The GP wants to evaluate the lesion using the weighted 7-point checklist for assessment of pigmented lesions to determine if the lesion requires referral to Dermatology.
      What is a significant feature that scores 2 on the checklist?

      Your Answer: Irregular shape or border

      Explanation:

      The 7-Point Checklist for Assessing Pigmented Lesions

      The 7-point checklist is a tool used to assess pigmented lesions for potential malignancy. Major features, such as a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, score 2 points each. Minor features, including a largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing or crusting of the lesion, and change in sensation (including itch), score 1 point each. The weighted 7-point checklist is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for use in General Practice. Lesions scoring three points or more should be referred urgently to Dermatology. Malignant melanomas can present with the development of a new mole or a change in an existing mole. The features highlighted in the 7-point checklist should be ascertained in the history to determine how urgently a mole needs to be referred to exclude malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine

      Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline

      Explanation:

      Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.

      The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp. Upon examination, circular areas of hair loss with scaling and raised margins, measuring 2-5 cm in diameter, are observed. There is no scarring. What is the probable cause of this condition in the patient?

      Your Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Tinea capitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Non-Scarring and Scarring Alopecia

      Non-scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs without any visible scarring on the scalp. The most common causes of this type of alopecia include telogen effluvium, androgenetic alopecia, alopecia areata, tinea capitis, and traumatic alopecia. In some cases, non-scarring alopecia can also be associated with lupus erythematosus and secondary syphilis.

      Tinea capitis, caused by invasion of hairs by dermatophytes, most commonly Trichophyton tonsurans, is a common cause of non-scarring alopecia. This type of alopecia is characterized by hair loss in circular patches on the scalp.

      On the other hand, scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs with visible scarring on the scalp. This type of alopecia is more frequently the result of a primary cutaneous disorder such as lichen planus, folliculitis decalvans, cutaneous lupus, or linear scleroderma (morphea). Scarring alopecia can be permanent and irreversible, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

      In conclusion, the different causes of non-scarring and scarring alopecia is important in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients experiencing hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily

      Explanation:

      Management of Psoriasis: Next Steps and Referral Considerations

      Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidance. For a patient who has already received eight weeks of once-daily potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue, the next step is to stop the steroid and start twice-daily vitamin D analogue. Steroids should not be applied at the same site for more than eight weeks, after which patients require a 4-week ‘treatment break’. If there is still no improvement in symptoms at the end of the 4-week steroid-free break, twice-daily steroids can be trialled or a coal tar preparation can be started.

      Referral to Dermatology may be necessary if the patient is severely affected by psoriasis or struggling to manage the condition. However, starting the next stage of treatment, which is twice-daily vitamin D analogue, would be the most appropriate while awaiting secondary care review.

      Continuing steroids for a further four weeks would result in an excessively long duration of steroid treatment and risk side-effects such as skin thinning. Patients should have a minimum of four weeks steroid-free after an 8-week treatment course.

      While some patients with severe psoriasis may require an ultra-potent steroid, this patient has already received eight weeks of a potent steroid and requires a 4-week steroid-free break. Following this, it may be appropriate to trial a short course of an ultra-potent steroid or to retrial the potent steroid twice daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old female patient expresses concerns about her hair loss. She has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient expresses concerns about her hair loss. She has noticed patches of hair loss for the past three months without any associated itching. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily. She also takes the combined oral contraceptive and has regular withdrawal bleeds. On physical examination, the patient appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region. What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?

      Your Answer: Androgenic alopecia

      Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions

      Hair loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including autoimmune conditions and thyroid disease. In the case of alopecia areata, which is a type of hair loss characterized by discrete patches of hair loss, about 1% of cases are associated with thyroid disease. However, this type of hair loss is not typically seen in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which often presents with scarring alopecia. Androgenic alopecia, which is the most common type of hair loss in both men and women, typically causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas rather than discrete patches of hair loss. Over-treatment with thyroxine to cause hyperthyroidism or the use of oral contraceptives can also lead to general hair loss. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hair loss in order to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her mother, complaining of a sore...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her mother, complaining of a sore and itchy patch around her upper lip for the past 3 days. The mother noticed a few small blisters on the lip that burst, leaving brown and/or honey-coloured crusts on the affected area. The patch has been gradually increasing in size. After examination, the GP diagnoses impetigo.
      What is the most probable cause of impetigo in this case?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Impetigo and its Causes

      Impetigo is a highly contagious skin infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, which presents as red sores and blisters on the face, leaving behind golden crusts. While the condition is usually self-limiting, treatment is recommended to prevent spreading to others. Staphylococcus epidermidis, a normal human flora, is an unlikely cause of impetigo, but may infect immunocompromised patients in hospital settings. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is associated with urinary tract infections, while Streptococcus viridans is found in the oral cavity and can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis. Candida albicans, a pathogenic yeast, commonly causes candidiasis in immunocompromised individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right foot. The area of redness has grown in size over the past day and is warmer than the surrounding normal skin. The patient mentions that the area is also tender to touch.
      Following taking a history and examining the patient, the physician suspects a diagnosis of cellulitis.
      Which of these terms is best used to describe ‘cellulitis’?

      Your Answer: Inflammation of the epidermis

      Correct Answer: Localised inflammation and cellular debris accumulation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Forms of Skin Inflammation

      Cellulitis, inflammation of subcutaneous tissue, is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and requires urgent treatment with antibiotics. Surgical wounds and malignant tumors can also cause inflammation, but the latter is a response by the immune system to control malignancy. Inflammation of the epidermis can be caused by various non-infective processes, such as sunburns or abrasions. Localized infection may lead to an abscess, which requires incision and drainage. It is important to understand the distinct pathology and treatment for each form of skin inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26
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  • Question 10 - What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the dermatological condition that is linked to neurofibromatosis type 1?

      Your Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Correct Answer: Café au lait spots

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis Type 1 and Type 2

      Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects the 17th chromosome and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. There are two types of neurofibromatosis: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is also known as von Recklinghausen’s disease and is characterized by flat, light-brown skin lesions called café au lait spots, axillary freckling, small purple-colored lesions called dermal neurofibromas, nodular neurofibromas that can cause paraesthesia when compressed, and Lisch nodules on the iris. Complications of type 1 neurofibromatosis include nerve compression, phaeochromocytoma, mild learning disability, and epilepsy.

      Type 2 neurofibromatosis is much rarer than type 1 and also demonstrates autosomal dominant inheritance. In addition to café au lait spots, individuals with type 2 may also develop vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and premature cataracts. It is important to note that while both types of neurofibromatosis share some similarities, they also have distinct differences in their clinical presentation and associated complications. these differences can aid in accurate diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous plaques with oily, yellow scales on the scalp, forehead and behind his ears. The plaques have been present for two weeks. He has no significant medical history and is otherwise well.
      What is the definitive management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: Focus on Ketoconazole Shampoo and Topical Corticosteroid Therapy

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition characterized by erythematous patches with fine scaling on the scalp, forehead, and behind the ears. To manage this condition, a four-week course of mild-potency topical corticosteroid therapy with ketoconazole shampoo is recommended. This treatment approach has been shown to improve the signs and symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. While antihistamines can provide symptomatic relief, they do not address the underlying cause of the disease. Oral corticosteroids and retinoids are not recommended for the treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis. Vitamin C also has no role in the management of this condition. Overall, the combination of ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy is a safe and effective treatment option for seborrhoeic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man who lives alone visits his General Practitioner complaining of a worsening itchy, red rash over his trunk, arms and legs. He has a medical history of psoriasis, hypertension and high cholesterol. Upon examination, the doctor observes an extensive erythematosus rash with scaling covering a large portion of his body. The patient has a normal temperature, a blood pressure of 110/88 mmHg and a heart rate of 101 bpm. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Management of Erythroderma in an Elderly Patient Living Alone

      Erythroderma is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent treatment. In elderly patients who are systemically unwell and live alone, urgent admission to the hospital is necessary. This is the case for an 86-year-old man with a history of psoriasis who presents with erythroderma. The patient needs to be managed in the hospital due to the high risk of infection and dehydration. Topical emollients and steroids are essential in the management of erythroderma, but this patient requires intravenous fluids and close monitoring. Oral antibiotics are not indicated in the absence of features of infection. A topical steroid with a vitamin D analogue would be appropriate for a patient with psoriasis, but urgent assessment by Dermatology in an inpatient setting is necessary. An urgent outpatient Dermatology appointment is not appropriate for an elderly patient with abnormal observations and living alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple large, ruptured, eroded plaques on her upper...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple large, ruptured, eroded plaques on her upper arm, scalp and groin, along with an ulcerated blister on the mucosa of her lower lip. The cause is determined to be pemphigus vulgaris, with the pathogenesis of the disease attributed to IgG autoantibodies against which protein?

      Your Answer: Desmoglein

      Explanation:

      Autoantibodies and Skin Disorders: Understanding the Role of Desmoglein, Bullous Pemphigoid Antigen, Collagen Type XVIII, Keratin, and Desmoplakin

      Skin disorders can be caused by various factors, including autoimmune reactions. In particular, autoantibodies targeting specific proteins have been linked to several skin conditions. Here are some of the key proteins involved in these disorders:

      Desmoglein: This protein is targeted by autoantibodies in about 80% of pemphigus cases, specifically in pemphigus vulgaris. The autoantibodies disrupt desmosomes, leading to blister formation above the stratum basale.

      Bullous pemphigoid antigen and collagen type XVIII: These proteins are associated with bullous pemphigoid, which is characterized by autoimmune disruption of the hemidesmosome. This structure attaches the basal surface of cells in the stratum basale to the underlying epidermal basement membrane.

      Keratin: Mutations in genes encoding keratin have been linked to epidermolysis bullosa, a disorder that causes blistering and skin fragility.

      Desmoplakin: This intracellular protein links keratin intermediate filaments to desmosomes, but it is not directly involved in the pathogenesis of pemphigus vulgaris.

      Understanding the role of these proteins in skin disorders can help researchers develop better treatments and therapies for these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old man with a history of asthma and ulcerative colitis presents with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with a history of asthma and ulcerative colitis presents with an itchy, red rash in the right and left popliteal regions. He works as a teacher and continuously scratches the back of his knees when he is at work. This is the second time he has suffered from such a popliteal rash. He states that previously he has had similar skin conditions affecting his anterior wrist and antecubital areas. On examination, both popliteal areas are erythematosus with slight oedema and weeping. There are some overlying vesicles and papules.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Conditions Based on Location and Distribution

      When it comes to diagnosing skin conditions, the location and distribution of the rash or lesion are just as important as its appearance. For example, a rash in the flexural regions of an adult patient, such as the popliteal region, is likely to be atopic dermatitis. This is especially true if the patient has a history of asthma, indicating an atopic tendency. Acute dermatitis typically presents with redness, swelling, vesicles, and papules.

      Other skin conditions have different characteristic distributions. Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is associated with coeliac disease and malabsorption, typically appears as grouped vesicles or papules on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. Seborrhoeic dermatitis is found in areas with sebaceous glands, such as the scalp, eyebrows, and presternal regions. Lichen planus presents as flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques, usually on the wrists, ankles, or genitalia. Psoriasis, on the other hand, produces silvery, scaling, erythematosus plaques, primarily on the extensor surfaces.

      In summary, understanding the location and distribution of a skin condition can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch for the past few days. He mentions that it is causing him to lose sleep at night. Upon examination, the GP observes linear burrows on the hands and evidence of excoriation on the abdomen and limbs. The GP suspects scabies as the underlying cause.
      What is the initial treatment recommended for non-crusted scabies?

      Your Answer: Permethrin 5% cream

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies: Understanding the Role of Different Medications

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei parasite. The primary treatment for non-crusted scabies is permethrin 5% cream, which is an insecticide. If permethrin is not tolerated or contraindicated, malathion can be used as a second-line agent. It is important to apply permethrin cream over the entire body and wash it off after 8-12 hours. Treatment should be repeated after one week.

      Clotrimazole 2% cream, which is an antifungal medication, is not effective in treating scabies. Similarly, topical antibiotics like fusidic acid cream are not used to treat scabies unless there is a secondary bacterial infection.

      Steroids like hydrocortisone 1% ointment are not used to treat scabies directly, but they can be used to alleviate symptoms like itching. Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin are only necessary if there is a suspected secondary bacterial infection.

      In summary, understanding the role of different medications in treating scabies is crucial for effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her mother. She has suffered an insect bite, and her mother is concerned about a small lump on the back of her hand.
      Which of the following conditions is not pre-malignant?

      Your Answer: Actinic keratoses

      Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Common Pre-Malignant Skin Conditions

      There are several pre-malignant skin conditions that can occur due to various factors. One such condition is dermatofibroma, which is an overgrowth of fibrous tissue in the dermis. It is usually benign and can be caused by minor skin trauma like an insect bite.

      Another pre-malignant condition is Bowen’s disease, which is a type of intraepidermal carcinoma. It presents as scaly, erythematosus lesions and is often associated with sun exposure.

      Lentigo maligna, also known as melanoma in situ, is an early form of melanoma that develops slowly over time. It typically appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin.

      Leukoplakia is a pre-malignant condition that presents as white or grey patches in the oral cavity. It is important to have these patches evaluated by a healthcare professional.

      Actinic keratoses, or solar keratoses, are pre-malignant conditions that occur due to chronic exposure to ultraviolet light. They are more common in fair-skinned individuals and typically affect sun-exposed areas of the skin. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent these conditions from developing into skin cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - Which statement about nail changes is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about nail changes is accurate?

      Your Answer: White nails are a feature of hyperalbuminaemia

      Correct Answer: Ridges in the nails may be seen in psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Common Nail Changes and Their Causes

      Nail changes can be a sign of underlying health conditions. Here are some common nail changes and their causes:

      Psoriasis: Ridges, pits, and onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed) are features of psoriasis.

      Splinter haemorrhages: Although splinter haemorrhages occur in bacterial endocarditis, trauma is the most common cause. They can also be associated with rheumatoid arthritis, scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus, and psoriasis.

      White nails: White nails are a feature of hypoalbuminaemia.

      Koilonychia: Iron deficiency causes koilonychia and may cause onycholysis. Vitamin B12 deficiency does not cause nail changes.

      Clubbing: Ischaemic heart disease does not cause clubbing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pemphigus

      Correct Answer: Pemphigoid

      Explanation:

      Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide

      Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. The use of furosemide, a diuretic, is a common cause of this condition. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence. A positive immunofluorescence test confirms the diagnosis, and treatment with steroids is usually successful.

      It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt, leading to widespread lesions. Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of pemphigoid and identifying its underlying cause can lead to effective treatment and management of this skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with erythema, vesicles and crusted ulcerations on the right scalp, forehead and periorbital region. The affected area is swollen and causing him pain. Additionally, there are some vesicles present at the tip of his nose. He reports experiencing a headache in that area several days prior to the onset of the rash. What is the most probable causative organism for this rash?

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Correct Answer: Varicella-zoster virus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

      Skin infections can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses, fungi, and bacteria. Here are some common skin infections and their causes:

      Varicella-zoster virus: This virus causes shingles, which is a reactivation of the virus that has been dormant in the dorsal root ganglia after the patient’s initial exposure to the virus in the form of chickenpox. A live attenuated vaccine is now available that is effective in preventing shingles.

      Herpes simplex virus infection: This virus can occasionally appear in a dermatomal distribution, mimicking shingles. It presents with erythema and vesicles, but the area of skin involved is usually much less than in shingles and pain is not as prominent.

      Malassezia furfur: This fungus causes tinea versicolor, a common benign, superficial cutaneous fungal infection characterized by hypopigmented or hyperpigmented macules and patches on the chest and back.

      Trichophyton verrucosum: This dermatophyte fungus of animal origin (zoophilic) causes a kerion, a severely painful inflammatory reaction with deep suppurative lesions on the scalp or beard area.

      Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium causes impetigo, sycosis, ecthyma, and boils.

      Common Skin Infections and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with a complaint of a pale, velvety, hypopigmented patch on his chest and shoulder that he has been experiencing for the past few months. He reports no pain, itching, or scaling on the lesion. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. Upon examination, scraping revealed scaling.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Fixed drug reaction

      Correct Answer: Tinea versicolor

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Causes

      Skin conditions can range from mild to severe and can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common skin conditions and their symptoms:

      Tinea Versicolor: This fungal infection appears as pale, velvety, hypopigmented macules that do not tan and are non-scaly. It is usually non-pruritic or mildly pruritic and occurs on the chest, back, and shoulders.

      Tinea Corporis: This fungal infection causes ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is a serious skin hypersensitivity reaction that affects a large portion of the body surface area. It is usually drug-induced and can be caused by NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol, or penicillins. The Nikolsky sign is usually present and the skin easily sloughs off.

      Vitiligo: This autoimmune condition causes areas of depigmentation lacking melanocytes. It is usually associated with other autoimmune conditions such as hyperparathyroidism.

      Fixed Drug Reaction: This sharply distinguished lesion occurs in the same anatomic site with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by barbiturates, tetracycline, NSAIDs, phenytoin, or clarithromycin.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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Dermatology (8/20) 40%
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