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Question 1
Incorrect
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In which metabolic pathway is acetyl-CoA a significant substrate?
Your Answer: Tricarboxylic (TCA) acid cycle (Krebs cycle)
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:The Significance of Acetyl-CoA in Cellular Energy Status and Metabolism
Acetyl-CoA is a molecule that is produced through glycolysis and beta-oxidation of fatty acids. It plays a crucial role in the production of NADH and FADH2, which are essential substrates for oxidative phosphorylation in the Krebs cycle. The concentration of intracellular acetyl-CoA reflects the energy status of the cell, with high concentrations indicating a high energy status. This is significant because acetyl-CoA regulates the balance between catabolic and anabolic pathways in the cell, favoring the latter when there is an excess of acetyl-CoA.
One of the primary uses of acetyl-CoA is in the synthesis of fatty acids, which is increased in cells with high acetyl-CoA concentrations. Acetyl-CoA also inhibits its own production from pyruvate through a complex mechanism that involves allosterically activating pyruvate carboxylase. This enzyme usually competes with pyruvate dehydrogenase for pyruvate, but the product of the pyruvate carboxylase reaction, oxaloacetate, enters the gluconeogenic pathway.
Acetyl-CoA is also involved in other metabolic processes, such as the formation of HMG-CoA, which is required for both ketone and cholesterol synthesis. The enzyme HMG-CoA reductase is the target for statins in cholesterol synthesis. Overall, the significance of acetyl-CoA in cellular energy status and metabolism highlights its crucial role in regulating the balance between catabolic and anabolic pathways in the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner as his parents are worried about his walking. Up until four months ago, he was developing normally. However, they have now noticed he has difficulty getting up from the floor or climbing stairs. During the examination, the doctor observes Gowers’ sign and the boy has large, bulky calf muscles. His mother remembers having an uncle who died at a young age but cannot recall the cause of death. What is the probable reason for his walking difficulties?
Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Explanation:Different Types of Muscular Dystrophy and their Characteristics
Muscular dystrophy is a group of genetic disorders that cause progressive muscle weakness and wasting. Here are some of the different types of muscular dystrophy and their characteristics:
1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy: This is an X-linked myopathy that occurs in boys aged 3-5. It can present as delay in motor development or regression of previously obtained motor milestones. Treatment is with steroids and respiratory support. Average life expectancy is around 25 years.
2. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy: This is the third most common muscular dystrophy and causes proximal upper limb weakness due to dysfunction of the scapula. Patients may also experience facial muscle weakness and progressive lower limb weakness. It typically presents in the third decade.
3. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy: This is a rare muscular dystrophy characterised by weakness and progressive wasting of the lower leg and arm muscles. It is more common in boys, with typical onset in teenage years.
4. Myotonic dystrophy: This is the most common inherited muscular dystrophy in adults. It is characterised by delayed muscle relaxation after contraction and muscle weakness. Patients may also experience myotonic facies with facial weakness, ptosis and cardiorespiratory complications.
5. Polymyositis: This is an inflammatory myopathy in which patients experience proximal muscle weakness. It is more common in women in the fifth decade and is associated with underlying malignancy.
It is important to identify the type of muscular dystrophy a patient has in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
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A 16-year-old Ethiopian girl has come to the emergency department complaining of recurring urinary tract infections. During the examination, you and a chaperone observe that the girl may have undergone clitoridectomy, indicating that she may have been a victim of female genital mutilation (FGM). The girl requests antibiotics and that no one else be informed. In addition to treating the infection, what actions should you take?
Your Answer: Inform the medical team and the police
Explanation:The UK Government implemented legal modifications in October 2015 regarding the response of doctors in England and Wales to instances of female genital mutilation (FGM). As per the guidelines of the General Medical Council (GMC), doctors are required to report all cases of FGM in individuals under the age of 18 to the police. This can be done by contacting 101 or using the established local channels. Reporting is compulsory to align with our responsibilities towards child protection and safeguarding.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient aged 50 presents to the ENT clinic with facial pain. The patient reports experiencing frequent attacks of pain around the left eye and left cheek, with up to 15-20 attacks per day. The attacks are short, lasting 3-4 minutes but can last up to 15 minutes, and can be triggered by neck movements. The patient also experiences watering of the left eye during the attacks. There are no associated symptoms of vomiting, aversion to light or sound, or limb weakness. Both ear, nose, and throat and neurological examinations are normal, and the patient is normotensive. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cluster headache
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal hemicrania
Explanation:Distinguishing Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Other Headache Syndromes
Paroxysmal hemicrania is a type of headache syndrome that is characterized by intense pain on one side of the face lasting for 2-25 minutes. Unlike other headache syndromes, the pain never occurs on the opposite side of the face. Autonomic symptoms such as rhinorrhea, ptosis, watering of the eye, and eyelid edema are often present. Neck movements or pressure on the neck can trigger the attacks, and the headache responds well to indomethacin. It is important to distinguish paroxysmal hemicrania from other headache syndromes such as migraine, trigeminal neuralgia, cluster headache, and frontal lobe glioblastoma. Migraine typically presents with intermittent attacks accompanied by photophobia, phonophobia, or nausea. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by shorter electric shock-like pains in response to specific stimuli. Cluster headache consists of fewer but longer attacks per day, occurring at a consistent time, and with minimal response to indomethacin. Frontal lobe glioblastoma is not consistent with the history of paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man weighing 100 kg was pulled from a house fire. He was intubated by the HEMS team at the scene for airway compromise (nasal soot, singed facial hair and a change in voice). He has sustained full-thickness burns to his face, anterior torso and full legs. The specialist registrar (SPR) has asked you to calculate this man’s fluids requirements for the first 24 hours.
Which of the following is the correct volume to the nearest litre?Your Answer: 20 litres
Correct Answer: 27 litres
Explanation:Understanding the Parkland Formula for Fluid Resuscitation in Burns Patients
The Parkland formula is a widely used method for estimating the amount of fluid required for a burns patient in the first 24 hours. This formula takes into account the patient’s weight and the percentage of their body that has been burned, which is determined using the Wallace Rule of Nines.
Once the percentage of burn has been calculated, the fluid volume needed is determined by multiplying the weight of the patient in kilograms by four and then multiplying that by the percentage of burn. For example, a patient who weighs 100 kg and has a 67% burn would require 26,800 ml or 27 litres of fluid in the first 24 hours.
It is important to note that half of the fluid is given over the first 8 hours, with the remaining half given over the next 16 hours. Additionally, the fluid should be warmed and urine output should be carefully monitored to ensure that the patient is receiving adequate hydration.
In conclusion, understanding the Parkland formula is crucial for healthcare professionals who are treating burns patients. By accurately calculating the amount of fluid needed, healthcare providers can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Plastics
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Question 6
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician due to concerns about her posture. During the examination, the pediatrician observes a kyphotic spine and blue-grey sclera. The child has not experienced any bone fractures. To investigate further, the pediatrician orders a bone profile blood test to confirm the suspicion of osteogenesis imperfecta.
What specific results from the bone profile blood test would be indicative of this condition?Your Answer: Normal calcium, PTH and PO4
Explanation:In osteogenesis imperfecta, the levels of adjusted calcium, PTH, ALP, and PO4 are typically within the normal range. This rare genetic disorder is characterized by frequent bone fractures, blue-grey sclera, micrognathia, and kyphoscoliosis. Biochemical tests usually show normal levels of calcium, phosphate, and parathyroid hormone. If parathyroid hormone levels are elevated along with high calcium, it may indicate primary hyperparathyroidism caused by parathyroid adenoma, hyperplasia, or parathyroid cancer. On the other hand, elevated parathyroid hormone with low calcium may suggest secondary hyperparathyroidism due to kidney failure or vitamin D deficiency. Hypercalcemia without elevated parathyroid hormone may indicate primary malignancy or sarcoidosis. Hypocalcemia with low parathyroid hormone levels may suggest parathyroid dysfunction, which is commonly seen after thyroid or parathyroid surgery or as part of an autoimmune syndrome.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female visits her doctor with a complaint of oral ulcers that have been persistent for a month. She also reports experiencing swollen and painful hands for the past two weeks. During the examination, the doctor observes a malar rash on her face. To identify the underlying condition, the doctor orders some blood tests. What is the most sensitive antibody test for the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Anti-Smith
Correct Answer: ANA
Explanation:Anti-Ro is less sensitive than ANA as it is only present in a smaller number of cases.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal pain and exhibits tenderness upon palpation. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Pigment Gallstones and High Haem Turnover
In cases of chronic haemolysis, such as sickle cell disease or thalassaemia, the presence of unconjugated bilirubin in bile can lead to the formation of pigment gallstones. These stones are black in color and are caused by the precipitation of calcium bilirubinate from solution. The high concentration of unconjugated bilirubin in bile is a result of the increased turnover of haemoglobin. This can cause pain and discomfort for the patient. It is important to manage the underlying condition causing the high haem turnover to prevent the formation of pigment gallstones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has developed diplopia.
Which indication would imply a third nerve palsy?Your Answer: Constricted pupil
Correct Answer: Pupil unreactive to light
Explanation:Common Symptoms of Nerve Palsies
Nerve palsies can cause a variety of symptoms depending on the affected nerve. In a third nerve palsy, for example, the patient may experience ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, along with a dilated and unreactive pupil. The eyeball may also be displaced downwards and outwards, resulting in a divergent squint. This can be a distressing condition for the patient, as it can affect their ability to see clearly and may cause discomfort or pain.
Another type of nerve palsy that can cause noticeable symptoms is the VIIth nerve palsy. This can result in increased lacrimation, or tearing, which can be a sign of irritation or inflammation in the eye. Patients with Horner’s syndrome, on the other hand, may experience enophthalmos, or sunken-in appearance of the eye, along with miosis, or constriction of the pupil. These symptoms can be caused by damage to the sympathetic nerves that control the muscles of the eye and surrounding tissues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Correct
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What is the most suitable mechanism to describe the action of fibrates?
Your Answer: Increased lipoprotein lipase activity via PPAR-alpha
Explanation:Fibrates and their Effect on Lipoprotein Metabolism
Fibrates have been found to have a significant impact on the metabolism of triglyceride-rich lipoproteins. This effect is primarily due to the activation of PPAR-alpha, which stimulates the activity of lipoprotein lipase and apolipoprotein A-V, while inhibiting the expression of apolipoprotein C-III. Additionally, fibrates have been shown to increase the levels of HDL-cholesterol in the bloodstream, which is partly attributed to the overexpression of apolipoprotein A-I and A-II. Overall, the use of fibrates can have a positive impact on lipid metabolism and may be a useful tool in managing dyslipidemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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