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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should be the immediate course of action to manage this adverse event?

      Your Answer: Temporarily cease the donation, consider fluid replacement and elevate the donor's legs

      Explanation:

      Donor safety is important in blood donation. Fainting is a common adverse event and should be treated by stopping the donation and reviving the donor. Elevation of the legs and monitoring vitals is necessary. Donors should be counseled on pre-donation expectations and encouraged to drink fluids after recovery. Hemoglobin checks are no longer required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents...

    Correct

    • This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue following his retirement 6 months ago:

      Hb 130 g/L (120-160)
      RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
      Haematocrit 0.39 (0.36-0.46)
      MCV 86.5 fL (80-100)
      MCH 28.1 pg (27-32)
      Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-400)
      WBC 6.5 ×109/L (4-11)
      Neutrophils 3.8 ×109/L (2-7)
      Lymphocytes 1.9 ×109/L (1-4)
      Monocytes 0.5 ×109/L (0.2-1)
      Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.5)
      Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0-0.1)

      He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband is constantly tired, has lost interest in his hobbies and has trouble sleeping.

      Examination is pretty much normal except that he appears fatigued. There are no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.

      What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?

      Your Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient

      Explanation:
      The patient in question is displaying a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. If the cause of macrocytosis were folate or B12 deficiency, it would be expected to cause anemia in association with the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism may also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss argues against this diagnosis. For further information on macrocytosis, refer to the BMJ Practice article Macrocytosis: pitfalls in testing and summary of guidance, the BMJ Endgames case report A woman with macrocytic anemia and confusion, and the BMJ Best Practice article Assessment of anemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      65.7
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old woman presents with headaches and nosebleeds and is found to have...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with headaches and nosebleeds and is found to have a raised platelet count. She is diagnosed with essential thrombocytosis by the haematologist.
      Which of the following might be used to treat essential thrombocytosis?

      Your Answer: Hydroxyurea

      Explanation:

      Common Medications and Their Uses

      Thrombocytosis and Hydroxyurea
      Thrombocytosis is a condition characterized by an elevated platelet count, which can lead to bleeding or thrombosis. Primary or essential thrombocytosis is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in overproduction of platelets by the bone marrow. Hydroxyurea is the first-line treatment for essential thrombocytosis, as it inhibits an enzyme involved in DNA synthesis and reduces the rate of platelet production.

      Interferon Gamma for Immunomodulation
      Interferon gamma is an immunomodulatory medication used to reduce the frequency of infections in patients with chronic granulomatous disease and severe malignant osteopetrosis. It is administered by subcutaneous injection.

      Cromoglycate for Inflammation
      Sodium cromoglycate is a synthetic non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used in the treatment of asthma, allergic rhinitis, and various food allergies.

      Interferon β for Multiple Sclerosis
      Interferon β is a cytokine used in the treatment of relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. It is administered subcutaneously.

      Ranitidine for Acid Reduction
      Ranitidine is a H2 (histamine) receptor blocker that inhibits the production of acid in the stomach. It can be used in the treatment of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, peptic ulcer disease, and gastritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      11.5
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, as well as antihypertensive medication and cholesterol-lowering agents. He recently received antibiotics from his GP for a cough. Which medication is the likely culprit for his elevated INR?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Medications that Interfere with Warfarin and Increase INR

      Certain medications can affect the duration of warfarin’s effects in the body by interfering with the cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. This can cause the INR to increase or decrease rapidly, making patients who are on a stable warfarin regimen vulnerable. To remember the drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450 and increase the effects of warfarin, the mnemonic O-DEVICES can be helpful.

      Omeprazole, disulfiram, erythromycin, valproate, isoniazide, cimetidine and ciprofloxacin, ethanol (acutely), and sulphonamides are the drugs that can interfere with warfarin’s effects. These drugs can increase the INR, which can lead to bleeding complications. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients who are taking warfarin and any of these medications closely to ensure that their INR remains within the therapeutic range. Patients should also inform their healthcare providers of any new medications they are taking to avoid potential interactions with warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      13.7
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  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
    On examination, his left plantar response was...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man was admitted with unconsciousness.
      On examination, his left plantar response was extensor, and deep tendon jerks were increased on the left side. A computerised tomography (CT) scan of the brain revealed a right-middle cerebral artery territory infarct. He was not known to have diabetes or hypertension. He was not receiving any drugs, either.
      His blood count revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 331 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophil count 145 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Metamyelocyte 3000/mm3
      Platelet 490 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Peripheral smear Many band forms, myelocytes, basophils
      What is the next appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer: Leukapheresis

      Explanation:

      Leukapheresis and Other Treatment Options for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia with High White Blood Cell Count and Ischaemic Stroke

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia can cause an extremely high white blood cell count, leading to hyperviscosity of the blood and an increased risk of ischaemic events such as stroke. While anticoagulation medications are important, they do not address the underlying issue of the high cell count. Leukapheresis is a procedure that can reduce the white cell volume by 30-60%, making it a crucial emergency treatment option. Other treatments, such as hydroxyurea and imatinib, can also be used to control disease burden. Imatinib is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor that is effective in treating chronic myeloid leukaemia with the Philadelphia chromosome translocation. Aspirin and heparin have limited roles in this scenario. While aspirin is recommended for long-term therapy after an ischaemic stroke, it does not address the hypercoagulable state caused by the high white blood cell count. Heparin is not used in the treatment of ischaemic strokes. Overall, leukapheresis should be the first step in emergency management for chronic myeloid leukaemia with a high white blood cell count and ischaemic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      31.5
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents at the clinic for evaluation. She has not experienced menstrual periods for the past six months and has taken two pregnancy tests, both of which were negative. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities were found. The patient desires a blood test to determine if she has entered menopause. What is the most sensitive hormone to test for this purpose?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Correct Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Hormone Levels and Menopausal Status

      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels that are greater than 30 IU/l, repeated over a period of four to eight weeks, are typically indicative of menopause. It is important to ensure that FSH is tested when the patient is not on contraception, although this is not relevant in the current scenario. While oestrogen and progesterone levels decrease after menopause, their assay is less reliable in determining menopausal status compared to FSH levels. Beta-HCG levels are elevated during pregnancy and trophoblastic disease, while prolactin levels increase in response to certain drug therapies and the presence of a pituitary tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless, symmetrical swellings in his neck. He reports no other symptoms. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 100 g/l and a white cell count of 23 × 109/l. A blood film reveals smear cells, with more than 60% of the cells being small mature lymphocytes. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Leukaemia and Lymphoma: Understanding CLL and Other Types

      Leukaemia and lymphoma are two types of blood cancers that can present with similar symptoms. However, each type has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them. Among the different types of leukaemia and lymphoma, B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (B-CLL) is the most common leukaemia in adults. It is characterized by peripheral blood lymphocytosis and uncontrolled proliferation of B cell lymphocytes in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, and splenomegaly. Patients with CLL are often asymptomatic, and the condition is often picked up incidentally.

      In contrast, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a common leukaemia of children aged 2–5 years and is very rare in adults. Multiple myeloma, on the other hand, is the uncontrolled proliferation of plasma cells and presents with bone pain, hypercalcaemia, renal failure, and neutropenia. Chronic myeloid leukaemia tends to present with more systemic, B symptoms in a slightly younger age group, and a classic symptom is massive hepatosplenomegaly.

      While lymphoma is a possibility in this age group, CLL is the most likely diagnosis as it is more common in this age group and in the western world. Further investigation would be used to confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the characteristics of each type of leukaemia and lymphoma can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman on vacation complained of a swollen left calf. She mentioned...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman on vacation complained of a swollen left calf. She mentioned having the 'factor V Leiden mutation'. Can you explain the pathophysiology of this mutation?

      Your Answer: Activated protein C resistance

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden: A Genetic Condition Affecting Blood Clotting

      Factor V is a protein that acts as a cofactor to allow the generation of an enzyme called thrombin, which is responsible for cleaving fibrinogen to fibrin. This process leads to the formation of a dense meshwork that makes up the majority of a clot. Activated protein C (aPC) is a natural anticoagulant that limits clotting by degrading factor V. However, in individuals with Factor V Leiden, a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, the coagulation factor cannot be destroyed by aPC.

      Factor V Leiden is caused by a single nucleotide substitution of adenine for guanine in the gene encoding factor V. This mutation changes the protein’s 506th amino acid from arginine to glutamine, which prevents efficient inactivation of factor V. As a result, factor V remains active, leading to overproduction of thrombin and excess fibrin generation, which in turn causes excess clotting.

      In summary, Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that affects blood clotting by preventing the efficient inactivation of factor V. This leads to excess clotting, which can increase the risk of developing blood clots and related complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting to affect her work as a receptionist. She has been referred to the gynaecology clinic for evaluation of menorrhagia. What results would you anticipate on her complete blood count (CBC)?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - reduced

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Results for Anaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Haemoglobin and MCV

      When interpreting blood results for anaemia, it is important to understand the relationship between haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). A low haemoglobin and reduced MCV may indicate iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, which is a common cause of microcytosis. Treatment for this would involve managing the underlying menorrhagia and supplementing with iron. On the other hand, a low haemoglobin and raised MCV may indicate macrocytic anaemia, commonly associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. It is important to note that a normal haemoglobin with a reduced MCV or a normal haemoglobin and MCV is unlikely in cases of significant symptoms and abnormal bleeding. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - What is true for a patient with blood type group O before receiving...

    Correct

    • What is true for a patient with blood type group O before receiving a blood transfusion?

      Your Answer: The red cells have absent A/B antigen and plasma has anti A and anti B antibodies

      Explanation:

      Blood Groups

      Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of certain antigens on the surface of red blood cells and the corresponding antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group O has no A or B antigens on the red cells and has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group AB has both A and B antigens on the red cells but no antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group A has only A antigens on the red cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group B has only B antigens on the red cells and anti-A antibodies in the plasma. It is important to know your blood group for medical purposes, such as blood transfusions, as incompatible blood types can cause serious health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic for follow-up three months after undergoing evacuation of a hydatidiform mole. She reports feeling well and has not experienced any significant issues since the procedure.

      What blood test is the most effective in monitoring for the recurrence of trophoblastic disease?

      Your Answer: Beta-HCG

      Explanation:

      Hydatidiform Mole and Trophoblastic Disease

      A hydatidiform mole is a type of abnormal pregnancy that only generates placental tissue. However, approximately 10% of cases of hydatidiform mole can transform into malignant trophoblastic disease. To assess if there is any retained tissue or recurrence/malignant transformation, the best way is to measure the levels of HCG, which is primarily produced by the placenta. On the other hand, alpha-fetoprotein, CEA, and CA-125 are tumour markers associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, colonic carcinoma, and ovarian carcinoma, respectively. It is important to note that progesterone levels are not useful in determining the prognosis of trophoblastic disease. the characteristics and markers of hydatidiform mole and trophoblastic disease is crucial in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 12 - A 14-year-old girl presents with a history of easy bruising and excessive bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with a history of easy bruising and excessive bleeding after a dental procedure. She is diagnosed with von Willebrand's disease and is scheduled for additional dental extractions. The physician prescribes DDAVP. What is the mechanism of action of DDAVP in treating von Willebrand's disease?

      Your Answer: Stimulates release of von Willebrand's factor from endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      DDAVP for Increasing von Willebrand Factor

      DDAVP is a medication that can be administered to increase the amount of von Willebrand factor in the body, which is necessary for surgical or dental procedures. This medication can increase plasma von Willebrand factor and factor VIII concentrations by two to five times. The mechanism of action involves the induction of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)-mediated vWF secretion through a direct effect on endothelial cells. Overall, DDAVP is a useful tool for increasing von Willebrand factor levels in the body, allowing for safer and more successful surgical and dental procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      37.5
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  • Question 13 - A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.

      During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)

      What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?

      Your Answer: <100 g/L

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 14 - A 23-year-old female patient presents at the clinic for a check-up. She complains...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female patient presents at the clinic for a check-up. She complains of irregular, heavy menstrual periods, has a BMI of 30 kg/m2, and experiences acne and excessive facial hair growth. She is not taking any medication. Her sister has been diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and she suspects that she may have the same condition.

      During the physical examination, her blood pressure is 149/90 mmHg, and her pulse is regular at 78 bpm. She has excessive hair growth on her beard line and upper torso, and central obesity. However, the rest of her physical examination is normal.

      Which blood test is the most diagnostic for PCOS?

      Your Answer: Total/free testosterone

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Associated Risks of Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is diagnosed when there is evidence of at least two out of three features, with other potential causes excluded. These features include oligoamenorrhoea, elevated levels of total/free testosterone (or clinical features suggestive of hyperandrogenism), or the presence of polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. While an extremely marked elevation in testosterone can suggest an androgen-secreting tumor, this is rare. Additionally, raised luteinising hormone (LH) with a normal follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) can lead to an elevated LH/FSH ratio, but this is not diagnostic.

      PCOS is associated with an increased risk of impaired glucose tolerance, although this may take a number of years to become apparent. Furthermore, there may be a reduction in levels of oestriol, although this is not always a consistent finding. It is important to diagnose PCOS early on to manage the associated risks and prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to Haematology complaining of fatigue, anaemia and splenomegaly. She is diagnosed with a genetic disorder that causes abnormal blood cell shape due to a dysfunctional membrane protein. As a result, these cells are broken down by the spleen, leading to haemolytic anaemia and splenomegaly. What is the most probable abnormality observed in a blood film of individuals with this condition?

      Your Answer: Sphere-shaped red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormalities in Red Blood Cells: Hereditary Spherocytosis and Other Conditions

      Hereditary spherocytosis is an inherited condition that causes red blood cells to take on a sphere shape instead of their normal biconcave disc shape. This abnormality leads to increased rupture of red blood cells in capillaries and increased degradation by the spleen, resulting in hypersplenism, splenomegaly, and haemolytic anaemia. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis often present with jaundice, splenomegaly, anaemia, and fatigue.

      Schistocytes, irregular and jagged fragments of red blood cells, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are the result of mechanical destruction of red blood cells in conditions such as haemolytic anaemia.

      Acanthocytes or spur cells, which have a spiked, irregular surface due to deposition of lipids and/or proteins on the membrane, are not typically seen in hereditary spherocytosis. They are seen in several conditions, including cirrhosis, anorexia nervosa, and pancreatitis.

      Microcytic red blood cells, which are smaller than normal red blood cells but have a normal shape, are typically seen in iron deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, and anaemia of chronic disease.

      Teardrop-shaped red blood cells are seen in conditions where there is an abnormality of bone marrow function, such as myelofibrosis. This is different from hereditary spherocytosis, which is a primary disorder of abnormal red blood cell shape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 16 - Which statement about rhesus antibodies in pregnancy is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about rhesus antibodies in pregnancy is correct?

      Your Answer: Following delivery, the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage should be calculated on a blood sample from a D negative mother

      Explanation:

      Important Points to Remember about Fetomaternal Haemorrhage

      Following the delivery of a baby, it is crucial to determine the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH) in a D negative mother. This is done by analyzing a blood sample to adjust the dose of anti-D in the mother if she has delivered a D positive child. It is important to note that D positive and D negative women have the same likelihood of developing antibodies to other red cell antigens. Therefore, all pregnant women should undergo a blood group and antibody screen in their first trimester or at the time of presentation, whichever comes first. The fetal Rh type is determined by the Rh typing of both the mother and father. Additionally, maternal antibody titres are indicative of the degree of haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). For more information on the management of women with red cell antibodies during pregnancy, refer to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) Green-top Guideline No. 65.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 17 - What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Beta Thalassaemia

      Beta thalassaemia can be diagnosed through the presence of mild microcytic anaemia, target cells on the peripheral blood smear, and a normal red blood cell count. However, the diagnosis is confirmed through the elevation of Hb A2, which is demonstrated by electrophoresis. In beta thalassaemia patients, the Hb A2 level is typically around 4-6%.

      It is important to note that in rare cases where there is severe iron deficiency, the increased Hb A2 level may not be observed. However, it becomes evident with iron repletion. Additionally, patients with the rare delta-beta thalassaemia trait do not exhibit an increased Hb A2 level.

      In summary, the diagnosis of beta thalassaemia can be suggested through certain symptoms and blood tests, but it is confirmed through the measurement of Hb A2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 18 - A woman has some blood tests taken by her general practitioner (GP). The...

    Incorrect

    • A woman has some blood tests taken by her general practitioner (GP). The results show a Hb of 10.0, MCV of 69 and a ferritin of 9.
      Which is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Treat with ferrous sulphate 200 mg twice a day plus folic acid and repeat bloods in three months

      Correct Answer: Treat with ferrous sulphate 200 mg three times a day and repeat bloods in three months

      Explanation:

      Understanding Iron Deficiency Anaemia and Treatment Options

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can present with symptoms such as lethargy, tiredness, and shortness of breath on exertion. It is often seen in women due to menstruation and blood loss associated with it, as well as in pregnant women. However, it is not a common finding in men and should be investigated further if present.

      Treatment for iron deficiency anaemia involves the use of ferrous sulfate, typically at a dose of 200 mg two to three times a day for at least three months. Blood tests should be repeated after this time to assess the effectiveness of therapy. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary in cases of folate deficiency anaemia, which presents with a raised MCV.

      It is important to investigate persistent anaemia despite adequate iron supplementation, as it may indicate an underlying malignancy. Men with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of < 110 g/l should be referred urgently to the gastroenterology team for investigation of upper or lower gastrointestinal malignancy. Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for iron deficiency anaemia can help improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman and her partner visit the clinic due to difficulty conceiving despite having regular sexual intercourse. The woman reports having a 28-day menstrual cycle, maintaining a normal diet, and not engaging in strenuous physical activity. During examination, her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 68 and regular, and BMI is 24 without abnormalities found in her abdomen. What blood test would be most effective in determining if she is ovulating?

      Your Answer: Progesterone

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Tests for Ovulation and Pregnancy

      In order to determine whether ovulation is occurring in a woman with a regular 28 day cycle, the most useful test is the measurement of day 21 progesterone levels. On the other hand, if a woman suspects she may be pregnant, a urinary pregnancy test can detect the presence of beta HCG hormone.

      If a woman is experiencing absent periods and a pregnancy test is negative, measuring prolactin levels may be useful. This is especially true if there are other signs of hyperprolactinaemia, such as milk leakage on nipple stimulation.

      It is important to note that oestrogen levels are not helpful in determining whether ovulation is occurring. However, if polycystic ovarian syndrome is suspected, measuring the LH/FSH ratio may be useful. By the different hormonal tests available, women can better monitor their reproductive health and seek appropriate medical attention when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb 105 g/L (130-180), RBC 4.5 ×1012/L, Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52), MCV 75 fL (80-96), MCH 32.5 pg (28-32), Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400), WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0), Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0), Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1), Others 0.14 ×109/L. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this FBC result?

      Your Answer: Ferritin concentration

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of FBC Results

      When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), a microcytosis with low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and anaemia (low Hb) is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia. To confirm this, a ferritin test should be requested, followed by an investigation into the source of blood loss if iron deficiency is confirmed. If faecal occult blood is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary. On the other hand, macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV is caused by folate and B12 deficiency, while hypothyroidism is associated with elevated MCV. While a bone marrow biopsy can also show iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary in a primary care setting. Therefore, interpreting FBC results requires a thorough of the different types of anaemia and their associated causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old man is referred to the medical team on call. He has...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is referred to the medical team on call. He has been feeling fatigued for two months and is now experiencing shortness of breath with minimal exertion. He has also had several episodes of syncope with postural hypotension. The GP conducted a blood count and the results showed:

      - Haemoglobin 64 g/L (120-160)
      - MCV 62 fL (80-96)
      - WCC 11.6 ×109L (4-11)
      - Platelets 170 ×109L (150-400)
      - MCH 22 pg (28-32)

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Transfuse packed red cells

      Explanation:

      Microcytic Hypochromic Anaemia and the Importance of Blood Transfusion

      This patient is presenting with a microcytic hypochromic anaemia, which is commonly caused by iron deficiency due to occult gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss in a Caucasian population. To determine the cause of the anaemia, a full history and examination should be conducted to look for clues of GI blood loss. Given the microcytic hypochromic picture, it is likely that blood loss has been ongoing for some time.

      Although there is no evidence of haemodynamic compromise or congestive cardiac failure (CCF), the patient is experiencing breathlessness on minimal exertion. This justifies an upfront transfusion to prevent the patient from going into obvious cardiorespiratory failure. At a Hb of 64 g/L in a 72-year-old, the benefits of transfusion outweigh the risks.

      While haematinics such as ferritin, vitamin B12, and folate are important investigations, the most crucial management step is organising a blood transfusion. This will help to address the immediate issue of anaemia and prevent further complications.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 22 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her parents. She is worried...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her parents. She is worried about not having started her periods yet, while many of her peers have. Her medical history includes a lack of sense of smell, which she has had since childhood. On examination, she has normal height, early breast development, and minimal secondary sexual hair. Her BMI is 22. What blood test would be most helpful in determining the underlying cause of her amenorrhea?

      Your Answer: FSH

      Explanation:

      Kallmann’s Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis

      Anosmia and primary amenorrhoea are two symptoms that may indicate the presence of Kallmann’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by the underdevelopment of the olfactory bulb, which leads to a loss of the sense of smell, and the failure to produce gonadotrophin releasing hormone. As a result, low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone may cause a partial or complete failure to enter puberty in women.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia, on the other hand, may cause electrolyte imbalances, but it is typically associated with abnormal female virilization. Prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor, is usually linked to secondary amenorrhoea. Meanwhile, thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, may cause menstrual cessation, but it is less likely to be the cause of primary amenorrhoea, especially in the absence of hyperthyroidism symptoms.

      In summary, Kallmann’s syndrome should be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with anosmia and primary amenorrhoea. However, other conditions such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia, prolactinoma, and thyrotoxicosis should also be ruled out through proper evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and overall weakness....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and overall weakness. She denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, the patient has conjunctival pallor and an inflamed, red tongue. Initial blood tests show a macrocytic anemia. Further testing reveals positive antiparietal cell antibodies.
      What result is most likely to be found upon further investigation?

      Your Answer: Low vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with low vitamin B12 and related symptoms

      Pernicious anaemia, coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, and multiple myeloma are among the possible conditions that may cause low vitamin B12 levels and related symptoms. Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disorder that affects the gastric mucosa and impairs the production of intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency and anaemia. Coeliac disease is a chronic immune-mediated enteropathy that affects the small intestine and causes malabsorption of nutrients, including vitamin B12. Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and cause various symptoms, including diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Multiple myeloma is a malignant plasma cell disorder that can cause bone pain, anaemia, and other symptoms, but is less likely to present with low vitamin B12 levels as the primary feature.

      The differential diagnosis of these conditions may involve various tests and procedures, such as blood tests for antibodies and vitamin B12 levels, endoscopy with biopsies of the duodenum or colon, and bone marrow examination. The specific findings on these tests can help to distinguish between the different conditions and guide further management. For example, the presence of parietal cell antibodies and intrinsic factor antibodies in the blood may support a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia, while villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia in the duodenal biopsies may suggest coeliac disease. Transmural inflammation with granuloma formation in the colon biopsies may indicate Crohn’s disease, while plasma cell infiltration in the bone marrow may suggest multiple myeloma.

      Overall, the diagnosis of a patient with low vitamin B12 and related symptoms requires a thorough evaluation of the clinical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, as well as consideration of the possible differential diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin. Since admission, she has had several episodes of copious haematemesis. Her blood pressure is 80/54 mmHg, and her heart rate is 136 beats/min. You have started resuscitation with normal saline and have ordered a group and save and a crossmatch. Her INR is currently 8.4. What is the most appropriate way to manage her INR?

      Your Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Haemorrhage in Patients on Warfarin: Guidelines from the BNF

      The British National Formulary (BNF) provides clear guidance on the appropriate treatment for haemorrhage in patients on warfarin. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous phytomenadione (vitamin K1) and dried prothrombin complex concentrate should be administered. Recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal. For INR levels above 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. Fresh-frozen plasma can be used if prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and oral vitamin K given. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. If prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable, fresh-frozen plasma can be used. In cases where INR is between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld and subsequent maintenance doses reduced. This guidance can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients on warfarin experiencing haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old patient presents to the general practitioner with a complaint of darkening...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents to the general practitioner with a complaint of darkening of urine, particularly noticeable in the morning. The patient has no family history of bleeding disorders and was recently hospitalized for deep venous thrombosis in the right leg. Upon examination, the patient's heart and lungs appear normal. Blood tests reveal anemia, elevated levels of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), high bilirubin levels, and a high reticulocyte count. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody against red blood cells

      Correct Answer: Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect in red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Causes of Haemolytic Anaemia

      Haemolytic anaemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced, leading to a shortage of oxygen-carrying cells in the body. There are various causes of haemolytic anaemia, including phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, vitamin B12 deficiency, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody against red blood cells.

      Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, also known as nocturnal haemoglobinuria, is an acquired condition caused by a mutation in the gene encoding for phosphatidylinositol glycan A. This leads to an increased susceptibility of red blood cells to complement proteins in an acidotic environment, resulting in haemolysis. Patients typically present with haematuria in the morning, and treatment involves managing symptoms and using medication such as eculizumab.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia and is not related to haemolysis. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited X-linked recessive condition that results in red blood cell breakdown. Loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane is seen in hereditary spherocytosis, where red blood cells become spherical and are trapped in the spleen, leading to haemolysis. IgM antibody against red blood cells causes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where the antibody binds to the I antigen on the membrane of red blood cells, leading to haemolysis at low temperatures.

      Understanding the different causes of haemolytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 26 - The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of...

    Correct

    • The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of transfusion) analysis?

      Your Answer: Wrong identification or mislabelling of patient or sample

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Transfusion Errors

      Mislabelling of samples, requests, or misidentifying recipients are the most frequent causes of transfusion errors. This was confirmed by the SHOT study, which examined transfusion errors and near-misses in a nationwide audit in the United Kingdom. Although other errors, such as cross-match errors, incorrect storage, and transfusion reactions due to undetected antibodies, do occur, they are infrequent.

      In summary, the SHOT study found that the most common causes of transfusion errors are related to labelling and identification. Therefore, it is crucial to implement strict protocols and procedures to ensure that samples and requests are correctly labelled and recipients are accurately identified to prevent these errors from occurring. While other errors may occur, they are rare and can be mitigated through proper training and adherence to established guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old male patient complained of frequent nosebleeds and was diagnosed with iron...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male patient complained of frequent nosebleeds and was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. During a chest x-ray, a shadow was detected over the right lung base, and a bruit was heard upon auscultation in the same area. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

      Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia is a genetic disorder that causes bleeding from small blood vessels called telangiectasia on mucous membranes such as the nose, mouth, and gastrointestinal tract. This condition is characterised by the presence of telangiectasia on the skin, which can be seen during clinical examination. In some cases, arteriovenous malformations may also be present in the lung or brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency assessment...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency assessment unit with concerns of fluid leakage from her vagina. Upon examination, her pad is saturated with what appears to be amniotic fluid. What component of the fluid may indicate premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?

      Your Answer: Alpha fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      Using Biomarkers to Detect Premature Rupture of Membranes

      Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) can be difficult to diagnose in some cases. In 2006, a study was conducted to determine if measuring certain biomarkers in vaginal fluid could be used as an indicator of membrane rupture. The study found that alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) had the highest accuracy in predicting PROM, with a specificity and sensitivity of 94%. This suggests that AFP could be used as a marker in cases where diagnosis is uncertain.

      In addition to AFP, other biomarkers have been identified for different purposes. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker for colon cancer, while cancer antigen 125 (CA125) is a tumor marker for ovarian cancer. By measuring these biomarkers, doctors can detect the presence of cancer and monitor its progression. Overall, biomarkers have proven to be a valuable tool in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his right upper limb and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his right upper limb and both lower limbs over the past four months. He has also developed digital infarcts affecting the second and third fingers on the right hand and the fifth finger on the left. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses are palpable, and there is an asymmetrical neuropathy. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L (130-170), a white cell count of 12.5 ×109/L (4-10), a platelet count of 430 ×109/L (150-450), and an ESR of 50 mm/hr (0-15). Urine examination shows proteinuria and 10-15 red blood cells per high power field without casts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa

      Explanation:

      Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a systemic disease that affects small or medium-sized arteries in various organs, leading to a wide range of symptoms such as nerve damage, skin issues, joint and muscle pain, kidney problems, and heart issues. Laboratory findings include anemia, increased white blood cells and platelets, and elevated inflammatory markers. ANCA testing can help differentiate PAN from other vasculitis diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary...

    Correct

    • The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?

      Your Answer: 1 per 1 million donations

      Explanation:

      Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion

      Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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