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Question 1
Correct
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You are advising a 26-year-old woman who has recently discovered she is expecting a baby. She is a smoker and consumes 20 cigarettes per day. What is the primary risk factor linked to smoking while pregnant?
Your Answer: Increased risk of pre-term labour
Explanation:Risks of Smoking, Alcohol, and Illegal Drugs During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, drug use can have serious consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of miscarriage, pre-term labor, stillbirth, and sudden unexpected death in infancy. Alcohol consumption can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause learning difficulties, characteristic facial features, and growth restrictions. Binge drinking is a major risk factor for fetal alcohol syndrome. Cannabis use poses similar risks to smoking due to the tobacco content. Cocaine use can lead to hypertension in pregnancy, including pre-eclampsia, and placental abruption. Fetal risks include prematurity and neonatal abstinence syndrome. Heroin use can result in neonatal abstinence syndrome. It is important for pregnant women to avoid drug use to ensure the health and well-being of both themselves and their unborn child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing night sweats and hot flashes for the past year. She had her last menstrual period 20 months ago. The patient is currently undergoing treatment with tamoxifen for breast cancer. She reports no other symptoms but would like to receive medication to alleviate her hot flashes. What is the most suitable prescription for her?
Your Answer: Hormone replacement therapy
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:For patients with active hormone-responsive breast cancer, hormonal methods like HRT and tibolone are not recommended. Instead, non-hormonal methods like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and venlafaxine may be used to alleviate vasomotor symptoms of menopause. Topical estrogen can also be used to alleviate symptoms of vaginal atrophy, but it does not help with vasomotor symptoms. COCP is not a suitable treatment for menopausal symptoms.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient presents to the eye hospital emergency department with a 1-week history of blurred vision and right eye pain worse on movement. The patient also reports a missing area of the visual field in the right eye. On examination, there is decreased visual acuity and impaired colour vision in the right eye and a right relative afferent pupillary defect. Fundoscopy reveals mildly swollen right optic disc. Intraocular pressure is 18 mmHg in the right eye. Her past medical history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis for this 35-year-old female patient with blurred vision and right eye pain?
Your Answer: Papilloedema
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:Optic neuritis is the likely cause of this patient’s symptoms, which may be idiopathic or secondary to multiple sclerosis. One of the common symptoms of optic neuritis is a reduction in colour vision, along with pain around the eye during movement. Visual field defects, particularly central scotoma, may also occur. If only one eye is affected, there may be a relative afferent pupillary defect. While the patient has some risk factors for stroke, stroke would not cause eye pain or affect colour vision. Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy typically causes painless visual loss and is more common in individuals over 50 years of age. The patient’s intraocular pressure is within the normal range, ruling out acute angle closure glaucoma. Additionally, the patient does not have papilloedema, as only one optic disc is swollen.
Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and a newly diagnosed non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. He has significantly changed his diet and has been reading a lot about liver disease. He realises that he is at increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) due to his liver disease and wanted to know what can be done to monitor him for HCC.
How is HCC screened for in high-risk patients?Your Answer: Abdominal US is routinely ordered at 12-month intervals
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound (US) is routinely ordered at 6-month intervals
Explanation:Screening for Hepatocellular Carcinoma: Recommended Tests and Intervals
Regular screening for hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is recommended in high-risk patients. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is the primary screening tool, with 6-month intervals for follow-up if a lesion of < 1 cm is detected. If there is no growth over 1-2 years, routine 6-monthly surveillance can continue. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels may be used in conjunction with US, but are not reliable on their own. A triphasic contrast computed tomography (CT) scan is recommended every two years for high-suspicion cases. This article provides an overview of the recommended tests and intervals for HCC screening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is a contraindication for receiving the pneumococcal vaccine in individuals under the age of 2?
Your Answer: Pregnancy
Correct Answer: Current febrile illness
Explanation:Immunisation is the process of administering vaccines to protect individuals from infectious diseases. The Department of Health has provided guidance on the safe administration of vaccines in its publication ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’ in 2006. The guidance outlines general contraindications to immunisation, such as confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or another component contained in the relevant vaccine. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection. Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression.
Specific vaccines may have their own contraindications, such as deferring DTP vaccination in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition. However, there are no contraindications to immunisation for individuals with asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), or a family history of autism. Additionally, previous natural infections with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella do not preclude immunisation. Other factors such as neurological conditions like Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids (e.g. CAH) also do not contraindicate immunisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female patient comes to the clinic and inquires about breast cancer screening. She mentions that her mother was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that her aunt (on her mother's side) had ovarian cancer and her uncle (on her father's side) had colorectal cancer. What is the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Advise her to wait for routine breast cancer screening at 47 years
Correct Answer: Refer to the breast clinic
Explanation:If an individual has a family history of breast cancer and ovarian cancer, they should be referred to a breast clinic at a younger age. This is especially important if they have a first-degree or second-degree relative who was diagnosed with breast cancer at any age, as well as a first-degree or second-degree relative who was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at any age (with one of these relatives being a first-degree relative). It is not safe to wait for routine screening, as there may be a risk of familial breast cancer. It is also important to note that breast cancer can still be present even if there is no lump detected during examination. A colonoscopy is not necessary in this case, as the individual is at an increased risk of breast cancer.
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.
For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. The nurse reports that her blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, which has increased from her previous reading of 152/85 mmHg taken 2 days ago. The woman had no health issues before her pregnancy. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Hydralazine
Correct Answer: Oral labetalol
Explanation:Oral labetalol is the recommended initial treatment for this woman with moderate gestational hypertension, as per the current guidelines.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse. He is experiencing significant swelling of his tongue and lips, rendering him unable to speak. His wife reports that his symptoms have worsened during their wait, and she is unsure of the cause as he has no known allergies. However, she does mention that he was recently prescribed a new medication by his primary care physician.
Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit?Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Although it is possible for the man to have been prescribed any of the medications listed, it is evident that he is experiencing angioedema, as indicated by the swelling of his tongue and lips. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is the medication most commonly associated with this side effect. Even if the patient has no history of allergies or negative reactions to ACE inhibitors, angioedema can still occur. While the likelihood of this happening is low, it is important to keep in mind due to the large number of patients taking this type of medication and the potential complications associated with angioedema.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with symptoms of urticarial rash, angioedema, and wheezing. According to her mother, she had recently attended her younger sister's party and had been assisting in inflating balloons. What could be the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Peanut allergy
Correct Answer: Latex allergy
Explanation:Latex allergy often presents as a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, which can lead to anaphylaxis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer adrenaline promptly and follow standard anaphylaxis management protocols.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), presents to the Emergency Department with reducing vision in her right eye. Her last CD4 count, measured in clinic, was < 100 cells/mm3.
Which is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:Eye Conditions in Immunocompromised Patients
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis, acute glaucoma, age-related macular degeneration, molluscum contagiosum of eyelids, and uveitis are all potential eye conditions that can affect immunocompromised patients.
CMV retinitis is a common cause of eye disease in patients with HIV, causing necrotising retinitis with visual loss. Fundoscopy demonstrates a characteristic ‘pizza pie’ picture, with flame-shaped haemorrhages and retinal infarction. Treatment involves local and/or systemic delivery of antiviral agents such as ganciclovir, valganciclovir, or foscarnet.
Acute glaucoma is a medical emergency that presents with sudden onset of severe unilateral eye pain, vomiting, red-eye, and seeing lights distorted by haloes and decreasing vision. It is not associated with HIV/low CD4+ counts.
Age-related macular degeneration is a chronic and progressive condition affecting older people, resulting in a gradual loss of vision, particularly of the central vision. It is not related to HIV and typically presents as a chronic condition.
Molluscum contagiosum of eyelids is a viral skin infection that is more common in immunocompromised hosts. However, it tends to occur on the trunk, extremities, or abdomen, and involvement of the eyelid and buccal mucosa is uncommon.
Uveitis presents with eye pain, photophobia, blurring vision with loss of peripheral vision in some patients, redness in the eye, and possibly floaters in the vision. It is associated with HLA-B27, autoimmune conditions such as Crohn’s disease, and infections such as toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, and Lyme disease. It is not associated with HIV, and pain and photophobia are normally very prominent symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of vertigo. He had a cough and sore throat last week and has been experiencing a spinning sensation since then. The vertigo can last for hours and causes significant nausea, making it difficult for him to leave the house and go to work as a teacher. During an ENT examination, the GP observes horizontal nystagmus and intact tympanic membranes with no hearing loss. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Correct Answer: Short course of oral prochlorperazine
Explanation:In cases of vestibular neuronitis, prochlorperazine can be effective during the acute phase, but it should not be continued for an extended period as it can hinder the central compensatory mechanisms that aid in recovery. This patient’s symptoms, including recurrent vertigo attacks, nausea, and horizontal nystagmus, are consistent with vestibular neuronitis, likely triggered by a recent viral upper respiratory tract infection. A brief course of oral prochlorperazine is recommended, with the option of using buccal or intramuscular administration for more severe cases. However, it is important to discontinue prochlorperazine after a few days to avoid impeding the recovery process. Long-term use of prochlorperazine would not be appropriate in this situation.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus, or involuntary eye movements, is a common symptom, but there is usually no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to distinguish vestibular neuronitis from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as viral labyrinthitis or posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to differentiate between vestibular neuronitis and stroke.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis may involve medications such as prochlorperazine or antihistamines to alleviate symptoms. However, vestibular rehabilitation exercises are often the preferred treatment for patients with chronic symptoms. These exercises can help to retrain the brain and improve balance and coordination. With proper management, most people with vestibular neuronitis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which one of the following clinical features would be least consistent with a diagnosis of severe pre-eclampsia?
Your Answer: Epigastric pain
Correct Answer: Reflexes difficult to elicit
Explanation:Hyperreflexia and clonus are commonly observed in patients with severe pre-eclampsia, while a decrease in platelet count may indicate the onset of HELLP syndrome.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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As a side-effect, which antidepressants cause the cheese effect (a hypertensive reaction)?
Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms
Gilbert Syndrome:
Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.Haemolytic Anaemia:
Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.Hepatitis A:
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.Hepatitis B:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).Cholecystitis:
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.Conclusion:
In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea. She says that her stools float and are difficult to flush away.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.08 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Albumin 29 g/l 35–55 g/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 89 fl 76–98 fl
Coeliac disease is suspected.
Which of the following is the initial investigation of choice?Your Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)
Explanation:Diagnosis and Investigation of Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with chronic diarrhoea and steatorrhoea. The initial investigation of choice is the anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) test, which has a sensitivity of over 96%. However, it is important to check immunoglobulin A (IgA) levels concurrently, as anti-TTG is an IgA antibody and may not be raised in the presence of IgA deficiency.
The treatment of choice for coeliac disease is a lifelong gluten-free diet, avoiding gluten-containing foods such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Patients with coeliac disease are at increased risk of small bowel lymphoma and oesophageal carcinoma over the long term.
While faecal fat estimation may be useful in estimating steatorrhoea, small bowel biopsy is the gold standard investigation for coeliac disease. However, this would not be the initial investigation of choice as it is invasive. An anti-TTG test is more sensitive and specific than an anti-gliadin test in untreated coeliac disease. Magnesium (Mg2+) levels may be abnormal in coeliac disease, but this would not be diagnostic and therefore not the first investigation of choice.
In summary, the diagnosis of coeliac disease requires a combination of clinical presentation, laboratory investigations, and small bowel biopsy if necessary. The anti-TTG test is the initial investigation of choice, and a gluten-free diet is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 15
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-three-year-old woman who presents with muscle weakness and erythematous, keratotic macules on her interphalangeal joints. She reports a family history of osteoarthritis. Can you describe the changes observed on her hands?
Your Answer: Bouchard's nodes
Correct Answer: Gottron's papules
Explanation:The presence of roughened red papules over the knuckles, known as Gottron’s papules, is indicative of dermatomyositis. This patient’s description of muscle weakness and associated skin changes suggests that she may have this condition. Bouchard’s and Heberden’s nodes, on the other hand, are associated with osteoarthritis and present as painless swellings of the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints, respectively. Macular lesions on the palms, such as Osler nodes and janeway lesions, are linked to endocarditis. Osler nodes are painful and caused by immune complex deposition, while janeway lesions are painless and caused by septic emboli.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice. She has been experiencing anal discharge and itching for the past 4 days. She also has some symptoms of painful urination. A urethral smear shows intracellular diplococci.
What is the most probable infectious agent that matches this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Treponema pallidum
Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:Common Sexually Transmitted Infections and Diagnostic Methods
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a major public health concern worldwide. Here are some common STIs and their diagnostic methods:
Neisseria gonorrhoeae: This bacterium causes gonorrhoea, which is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A Gram stain is the method of choice for detecting gonorrhoea in symptomatic men.
Treponema pallidum: This spirochaete bacterium causes syphilis. Serologic testing is the standard method of detection for all stages of syphilis.
Chlamydia trachomatis: This bacterium is an obligate intracellular micro-organism that infects squamocolumnar epithelial cells. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) is the most sensitive test for detecting C. trachomatis infection, and a urine sample is an effective specimen for this test.
Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This virus is typically associated with orofacial disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-1.
Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2): This virus is typically associated with urogenital disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-2.
Common STIs and Their Diagnostic Methods
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old comes in for a check-up. Over the last 3 months, he has been experiencing frequent headaches. These headaches are now happening almost every day and can be quite intense. What characteristic in this patient should trigger an investigation for a secondary cause of headaches?
Your Answer: Severe unilateral eye pain
Correct Answer: Headache triggered by coughing
Explanation:When dealing with an older patient, it is important to rule out glaucoma if they are experiencing severe unilateral eye pain. However, for a 23-year-old patient, this is not a top concern. Migraine and cluster headaches are common causes of unilateral eye pain, as well as sinusitis which can cause pain behind the eye.
Red Flags for Headaches
Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but some symptoms may indicate a more serious underlying condition. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has identified several red flags that should prompt further investigation. These include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy, sudden-onset headache, new-onset neurological deficit, impaired level of consciousness, recent head trauma, and symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, orthostatic headache, and a substantial change in the characteristics of the headache. If any of these symptoms are present, it is important to seek medical attention promptly. By identifying these red flags, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive appropriate care and treatment for their headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting in the past month. The first occurred while he was climbing stairs, and the second occurred last week as he was exiting a swimming pool. There were no warning signs before either episode. Witnesses to the most recent episode reported that he was unconscious for approximately 15 seconds. He reports feeling disoriented for only a few seconds after regaining consciousness. On physical examination, his pulse is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/86 mmHg, his lungs are clear, and there is a systolic murmur that radiates to the carotid area. Which of the following tests should be ordered first?
Your Answer: 24 hour ECG monitor
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:The presence of a systolic murmur could indicate the possibility of aortic stenosis (AS). It is crucial to prioritize ruling out this condition as syncope, which is a late symptom, often occurs during physical activity in patients with AS.
Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management
Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.
If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man has been hospitalized with an infective exacerbation of COPD. He is receiving controlled oxygen therapy, nebulized bronchodilators, steroids, and antibiotics. A blood gas test is conducted two hours after admission, revealing the following results: pH 7.31, PaO2 7.8kPa, PaCO2 9 kPa, and HCO3- 36 mmol/l. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Intubation and Ventilation
Correct Answer: Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure (BIPAP)
Explanation:The National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends that patients suspected of having an exacerbation of COPD undergo several tests, including arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, electrocardiogram, full blood count and urea and electrolytes, and theophylline level (if applicable). Sputum microscopy and culture should also be done if the sputum is purulent, and blood cultures if the patient has a fever. Medical therapy should include oxygen to maintain the patient within their individualized target range, nebulized bronchodilators, steroid therapy, antibiotics if necessary, and chest physiotherapy. If the patient does not respond well to nebulized bronchodilators, intravenous theophyllines may be considered. For patients with persistent hypercapnic ventilatory failure despite optimal medical therapy, non-invasive ventilation should be considered. In this case, a trial of BIPAP would be the best option since intravenous theophylline is not available. BIPAP is a form of non-invasive ventilation that has been proven effective in acute type two respiratory failure. It works by stenting alveoli open to increase the surface area available for ventilation and gas exchange. CPAP is another form of non-invasive ventilation but is not as effective as BIPAP in COPD. Intubation and ventilation may be necessary in some patients with COPD, but a trial of non-invasive ventilation is the most appropriate next step. It is important to set a ceiling of care for all patients presenting with an exacerbation of COPD. Regular arterial blood gas analysis is necessary to assess the patient’s response to NIV.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A child is born by an emergency Caesarean section at 38 weeks, due to pathological cardiotocography. The child appears healthy at birth, with Apgar scores of 9 and 10 (1 and 5 minutes respectively). Shortly after delivery, the nurse observes that the child's respiratory rate is elevated (all other observations are normal). The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable and her observations were normal during labor. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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