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Question 1
Correct
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A 22-year-old female comes in for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has already had her booking visit with the midwives. So far, there have been no complications related to her pregnancy. The tests conducted showed that she has a blood group of A and is Rhesus negative. What is the best course of action for managing her rhesus status?
Your Answer: Give first dose of anti-D at 28 weeks
Explanation:NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old overweight woman comes to the clinic worried about a lump in her right breast. She was in a car accident as a passenger two weeks ago and suffered a minor neck injury while wearing her seat belt. During the examination, a sizable, hard lump with some skin discoloration is discovered.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Fat necrosis
Explanation:Fat necrosis is a condition where local fat undergoes saponification, resulting in a benign inflammatory process. It is becoming more common due to breast-conserving surgery and mammoplasty procedures. Trauma or nodular panniculitis are common causes, with trauma being the most frequent. It is more prevalent in women with large breasts and tends to occur in the subareolar and periareolar regions. The breast mass is usually firm, round, and painless, but there may be a single or multiple masses. It may be tender or painful in some cases, and the skin around the lump may be red, bruised, or dimpled. A biopsy may be necessary to differentiate it from breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical smear by her GP. She had a cervical smear done 18 months ago which revealed the presence of high-risk HPV but no abnormal cytology. The follow-up cervical smear has returned negative for high-risk HPV. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 5 years
Explanation:If the 1st repeat smear at 12 months for cervical cancer screening is now negative for hrHPV, the patient should return to routine recall, which is repeating the cervical smear in 5 years. Cytological examination of the smear is not necessary as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. Referral for colposcopy is also not indicated unless there is evidence of dyskaryosis or inadequate smears. Repeating the cervical smear in 3 years is not appropriate for a 50-year-old patient, and repeating the smear after 12 months is only necessary if the most recent smear is positive for hrHPV with no cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents at 34 weeks gestation with a blood pressure reading of 175/105 mmHg and 3+ proteinuria. She is started on magnesium sulphate and labetalol. The patient reports decreased foetal movements. Upon examination, a cardiotocogram reveals late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 90 beats/minute. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Emergency caesarian section
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia can be diagnosed based on the presence of high levels of protein in the urine and hypertension. To prevent the development of eclampsia, magnesium sulphate is administered, while labetalol is used to manage high blood pressure. If a cardiotocography (CTG) shows late decelerations and foetal bradycardia, this is a concerning sign and may necessitate an emergency caesarean section. Induction would not be recommended if the CTG is abnormal.
Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is referred to the clinic for evaluation. She is in her first month of pregnancy and has been experiencing excessive morning sickness. Her routine blood work revealed an ALT level of 64 iu/l (reference range 20–60 iu/l) and a total bilirubin level of 30 μmol/l (reference range < 20 μmol/l). Additionally, her potassium level was 3.4 (reference range 3.5–5.0 mEq/l) and her urea level was 7.5 (reference range 2.5–7.1 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?
Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation:Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis
During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, each with its own set of symptoms and potential complications. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy and their distinguishing features:
1. Hyperemesis gravidarum: This is the most severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, which can lead to weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is characterised by persistent nausea and vomiting, and may require hospitalisation.
2. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy: This is a rare but serious complication that can occur in the third trimester. It is characterised by microvesicular steatosis in the liver, which can lead to liver insufficiency. Symptoms include malaise, nausea and vomiting, right upper quadrant and epigastric pain, and acute renal failure.
3. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy: This is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, characterised by generalised itching, particularly in the palms and soles, and jaundice. It is caused by hormonal changes and can lead to fetal complications if not treated promptly.
4. Pre-eclampsia: This is a disorder of widespread vascular malfunction that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is characterised by hypertension and proteinuria, with or without oedema.
5. Biliary tract disease: This is a broad spectrum of disorders ranging from asymptomatic gallstones to cholecystitis and choledocholithiasis. Symptoms include biliary colic, inflammation of the gall bladder wall, and obstruction of the common bile duct.
It is important to differentiate between these liver disorders in pregnancy, as each requires a different approach to management and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in contact with a child who has chickenpox. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and unsure if she has ever had chickenpox before. Upon examination, no rash is present. Her blood test results show that she is Varicella Zoster IgG negative. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)
Explanation:If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox before 20 weeks and has a negative IgG test, it indicates that she is not immune to the virus or has not been previously exposed to it. In such cases, it is recommended to administer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible, which can be effective up to 10 days after exposure. It is not necessary to inform public health as chickenpox is not a notifiable disease.
If a pregnant woman develops a chickenpox rash, VZIG has no therapeutic benefit and should not be used. However, antiviral agents like aciclovir can be given within 24 hours of the rash onset. It is important to note that antiviral agents are recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis for immunosuppressed individuals.
Women who are not immune to varicella-zoster can receive the vaccine before pregnancy or after delivery, but it should not be administered during pregnancy. Therefore, option D cannot be correct in any situation.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about the oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer: Combined preparations should be avoided in patients with sickle cell disease.
Correct Answer: Malignant melanomas may be oestrogen-dependent.
Explanation:Malignant melanomas may be influenced by oestrogen, which plays a protective role in the skin. However, the role of oestrogens in malignant melanoma is still unclear. Oestrogen receptor β (ERβ) may distinguish melanomas linked to poor prognosis from those with a favourable course. Combined oral contraceptives have contraindications, including oestrogen-dependent neoplasia, but can be used after 5 years if there is no evidence of disease. Progesterone-only preparations can increase blood pressure and have contraindications, including a history of previous arterial or venous thrombosis. The combined pill may be preferred in patients with epilepsy, but certain anti-epileptic drugs can reduce the contraceptive effect of any type of hormonal contraception. Mechanical barriers or copper intrauterine devices may be a better option in these cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits a sexual health clinic with a concern about a lesion on her vulva that has been present for 2 weeks. She has no medical history, takes no regular medications, and has no known allergies. On examination, a single ulcer is found on the left labia majora, but the patient reports no pain and the rest of the examination is unremarkable. She has been having regular, unprotected oral and vaginal intercourse with her husband of 4 years. What is the most suitable management for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral aciclovir
Correct Answer: IM benzathine benzylpenicillin
Explanation:The correct treatment for primary syphilis, which is often associated with painless ulceration, is IM benzathine benzylpenicillin. This patient’s presentation of a single painless ulcer on a background of unprotected intercourse is consistent with primary syphilis, and it is important to not rule out sexually transmitted infections even if the patient has a regular partner. IM ceftriaxone, oral aciclovir, and oral azithromycin are all incorrect treatment options for primary syphilis.
Understanding Syphilis: Symptoms and Stages
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The incubation period can range from 9 to 90 days.
During the primary stage, a painless ulcer called a chancre appears at the site of sexual contact. Local lymph nodes may also become swollen, but this symptom may not be visible in women if the lesion is on the cervix.
The secondary stage occurs 6 to 10 weeks after the primary infection and is characterized by systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy. A rash may appear on the trunk, palms, and soles, along with buccal ulcers and painless warty lesions on the genitalia.
In the tertiary stage, granulomatous lesions called gummas may develop on the skin and bones, and there may be an ascending aortic aneurysm. Other symptoms include general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil.
Congenital syphilis can also occur if a pregnant woman is infected. Symptoms include blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.
Understanding the symptoms and stages of syphilis is important for early detection and treatment. It is a treatable infection, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot flashes and vaginal dryness that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. She suspects that she may be experiencing menopause. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and psoriasis and is currently taking levothyroxine and has a Mirena intrauterine system in place.
What would be the most suitable course of action to address the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Estradiol
Explanation:The Mirena intrauterine system is approved for use as the progesterone component of hormone replacement therapy for a duration of 4 years. In a woman with a uterus, hormone replacement therapy aims to replace oestrogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms, but an additional source of progesterone is required to counteract the effects of unopposed oestrogen on the uterus, which increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and malignancy. As this patient already has the Mirena coil in place, which releases progesterone locally to act on the uterus, the only necessary treatment is oestrogen. Estradiol is the only option that provides only oestrogen therapy and can be administered topically or transdermally. Combined HRT, which includes both oestrogen and progesterone, would be inappropriate as the patient is already receiving progesterone from the Mirena coil. Levonorgestrel and medroxyprogesterone are both progesterones and would not provide oestrogen supplementation to the patient, which is necessary to alleviate her menopausal symptoms.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman goes to a family planning clinic to talk about contraception options. She has been experiencing migraine with aura for the past year and a half. According to the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria, which contraceptive method is considered safe to use without caution or contraindication in this situation?
Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:The use of combined oral contraceptive pills is completely contraindicated in patients with migraine with aura due to an increased risk of ischaemic stroke (UKMEC class 4). However, progestogen-based contraception methods and the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device are considered safe (UKMEC 2) as the benefits of using these methods outweigh the potential risks. The copper intrauterine device is the only form of contraception recommended by UKMEC as having no contraindication in this condition (UKMEC 1).
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman receives a Nexplanon implant. What is the duration of its contraceptive effectiveness?
Your Answer: 3 years
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman attends the early pregnancy assessment clinic for a scan after a previous ectopic pregnancy treated with salpingotomy. The scan reveals an empty uterus and adnexal fluid with a yolk sac, indicating another ectopic pregnancy. The patient expresses a preference for the least invasive management option. What would be a contraindication for expectant management in this case?
Your Answer: The absence of a fetal heartbeat
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only possible if the embryo is unruptured, less than 35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a B-hCG level of less than 1,000IU/L and is declining. However, this management option is very uncommon as most patients present with symptoms.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern that her uterus is small for this stage of pregnancy. Upon ultrasound, she is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. What could be a potential cause of oligohydramnios?
Your Answer: Trisomy 21
Correct Answer: Renal agenesis
Explanation:Oligohydramnios is a condition that occurs during pregnancy when there is a shortage of amniotic fluid. This can result in a smaller symphysiofundal height.
Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.
There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29 week pregnant woman presents to her GP with a rash that has developed over the past 12 hours. Upon examination, lesions indicative of chickenpox are observed. The patient's vital signs are stable and she appears to be in good health. What course of action is recommended for management?
Your Answer: Oral aciclovir & VZIG
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:Pregnant women who contract chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation should seek medical attention immediately. This is because chickenpox can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis. Treatment with oral aciclovir is recommended if the woman presents within 24 hours of developing the rash. Aciclovir can help reduce the duration of fever and other symptoms. Symptomatic treatment can also be used alongside aciclovir. If the chickenpox is severe, the woman should be referred to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir. Additionally, a referral to fetal medicine may be necessary due to the small risk of fetal varicella syndrome in the first 28 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to advise anyone with chickenpox to avoid contact with pregnant women and neonates until all lesions have crusted over, which usually takes about 5 days after the onset of the rash. VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once the rash has started. These guidelines are based on the RCOG Greentop guidelines for chickenpox in pregnancy.
Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about not having had a period for 6 months. She has also noticed increased sweating at night and occasional hot flashes, but attributes this to the warm weather. She has no desire for children and is only seeking reassurance that there is no underlying issue causing her amenorrhea. She has no significant medical history or family history.
The following blood tests were conducted:
- TSH: 2 mU/L (normal range: 0.5 - 5.5)
- T4: 10 pmol/L (normal range: 9 - 18)
- Prolactin: 15 µg/L (normal range: <25)
- FSH: 75 iu/L (normal range: <40)
- Oestradiol: 45 pmol/L (normal range: >100)
Repeat blood tests 6 weeks later show no changes. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy until the age of 51
Explanation:Women with premature ovarian insufficiency should be offered hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of 51 years to manage symptoms of low estrogen, prevent osteoporosis, and protect against possible cardiovascular complications. As this patient has a uterus, combined replacement therapy is necessary to avoid the risk of endometrial cancer from unopposed estrogen. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is combined hormone replacement therapy until the age of 51. It is important to note that hormone replacement therapy should be offered to all women with premature ovarian failure to protect bone mineral density and manage symptoms of low estrogen. The progestogen-only pill alone is not sufficient as estrogen is needed to treat symptoms and promote bone mineral density, while progesterone is added to oppose estrogen and reduce the risk of endometrial cancer.
Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman, who is 14 weeks and 5 days into her first pregnancy, visits the clinic to inquire about Down's syndrome screening. She failed to attend her screening appointment at 12 weeks pregnant and is curious if she can still undergo the combined test.
What guidance would you provide to her?Your Answer: Either the triple test or the quadruple test can be offered, but not the combined test
Correct Answer: The combined test can still be offered
Explanation:Screening for Down’s syndrome, which involves the nuchal scan, is conducted during antenatal care at 11-13+6 weeks. The combined test, which also includes the nuchal scan, is performed during this time frame. However, if the patient prefers to undergo the screening at a later stage of pregnancy, they can opt for the triple or quadruple test between 15 and 20 weeks.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the primary mode of action of Cerazette (desogestrel)?
Your Answer: Thickens cervical mucous
Correct Answer: Inhibits ovulation
Explanation:Types of Progestogen Only Pills
Progestogen only pills (POPs) are a type of birth control pill that contain only progestogen hormone. There are two generations of POPs, with the second generation including norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and ethynodiol diacetate. The third generation of POPs includes desogestrel, which is also known as Cerazette. This new type of POP is highly effective in inhibiting ovulation in most women. One of the advantages of Cerazette is that users can take the pill up to 12 hours late, which is longer than the 3-hour window for other POPs. Overall, there are different types of POPs available, and women can choose the one that best suits their needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant visits you for her initial appointment. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has no medical history. She reports feeling well so far. During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 165/100 mmHg. You repeat the measurement twice and observe her blood pressure to be 170/110 and then 160/95 mmHg. You inform her that medication may be necessary to lower her blood pressure. What is the first-line medication for hypertension during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Correct Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:Labetalol is the preferred initial medication for treating hypertension during pregnancy. While methyldopa is an option, it is not recommended as the first choice due to its association with a higher risk of postpartum depression. Ramipril, irbesartan, and bendroflumethiazide should be avoided during pregnancy as they can cause birth defects.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a 1.5cm ulcerated lesion on her left labium majus. She has been experiencing vulval itching and soreness for the past three years, despite using topical steroid treatment. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia
Correct Answer: Vulval carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Vulval Carcinoma
Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.
There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papilloma virus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.
It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. She is considering getting a Nexplanon implant. When is it appropriate to insert Nexplanon in this situation?
Your Answer: Immediately
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the GP office with a complaint of unusual vaginal discharge. The discharge is described as frothy and green-yellow in color. She is sexually active and does not use any form of birth control. Her most recent sexual encounter was with a new partner two weeks ago. During speculum examination, a strawberry cervix is observed. She is in good health and not taking any medications. A pregnancy test came back negative. What is the recommended course of action for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral metronidazole
Explanation:The recommended treatment for the patient’s likely diagnosis of trichomoniasis is oral metronidazole, either as a 7-day course of 200mg or a one-time dose of 2g. Intramuscular ceftriaxone, benzathine benzylpenicillin, and oral doxycycline are not indicated for the treatment of trichomoniasis. Oral azithromycin is also not effective for this condition.
Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis
Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.
To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.
When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.
In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to inquire about preconception care as she is eager to conceive. She has a BMI of 36 kg/m2 and a family history of T2DM and epilepsy, but no other significant medical history. What is the primary complication her baby may be at risk of?
Your Answer: Down syndrome
Correct Answer: Neural tube defects
Explanation:Maternal obesity with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more increases the risk of neural tube defects in babies. There is no strong evidence linking obesity to hyper- or hypothyroidism in neonates, an increased risk of Down syndrome, or cystic fibrosis.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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A 32-year-old who is currently 26 weeks pregnant comes to see you about a thin, white discharge. Swabs are taken and clue cells are seen on microscopy. Which treatment do you initiate?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 7 days
Explanation:Pregnant women with symptomatic bacterial vaginosis (BV) should be offered treatment using oral metronidazole. If BV is incidentally detected in a pregnant woman without symptoms, it is advisable to discuss with her obstetrician whether treatment is necessary. High-dose regimens are not recommended during pregnancy. In case the woman prefers a topical treatment or is unable to tolerate oral metronidazole, intravaginal metronidazole gel or clindamycin cream can be used as alternative choices. However, oral clindamycin is not widely recommended in primary care due to the increased risk of pseudomembranous colitis. This information is sourced from NICE CKS – Bacterial Vaginosis.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the most frequent reason for recurrent spontaneous miscarriage in the first trimester?
Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:The prevalence of aPL is significantly higher in women with recurrent miscarriage compared to those with a low risk obstetric history, with the former having a much higher incidence rate. In fact, the prevalence of aPL in the latter group is less than 2%.
Understanding Recurrent Miscarriage
Recurrent miscarriage is a condition that affects approximately 1% of women and is characterized by three or more consecutive spontaneous abortions. There are several potential causes of recurrent miscarriage, including antiphospholipid syndrome, endocrine disorders such as poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or thyroid disorders, polycystic ovarian syndrome, uterine abnormalities like a uterine septum, parental chromosomal abnormalities, and smoking.
It is important to note that while these factors may increase the risk of recurrent miscarriage, they do not necessarily guarantee that a woman will experience this condition. Additionally, there may be other underlying causes that have yet to be identified.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. What is true about this type of cancer?
Your Answer: It is usually poorly differentiated.
Correct Answer: The tumour is confined to myometrial invasion in stage 1 of the FIGO staging system.
Explanation:Understanding Endometrial Cancer: Causes, Stages, and Treatment Options
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that affects the lining of the uterus. It is the most common female genital cancer in the developing world, and an estimated 3% of women in developed countries will be diagnosed with this malignancy at some point in their lifetime. Here are some key points to understand about endometrial cancer:
Causes:
– It is more common among women using progestogen-containing oral contraceptives.
– Non-hormonal uterine devices have also been found to be strongly protective.
– There are two pathogenic types of endometrial cancer, one of which is associated with obesity, hyperlipidaemia, signs of hyperoestrogenism, and other disease states.Stages:
– The FIGO staging system is used to determine the stage of endometrial cancer.
– Staging is the most important prognostic factor.
– The earlier endometrial cancer is diagnosed, the higher the rate of survival at 5 years.Treatment:
– Standard management of endometrial cancer at diagnosis involves surgery, followed by chemotherapy with or without radiation therapy.
– It is most effectively treated by a combination of radiotherapy and hormone-based chemotherapy.
– The prognosis varies depending on the stage and type of endometrial cancer.Overall, understanding the causes, stages, and treatment options for endometrial cancer is important for early detection and effective management of this malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 26
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a history of heavy periods since menarche at the age of 13. She has never sought medical attention for this issue but has now decided to address it. Her menstrual cycle is regular with a 28-day cycle, and she experiences heavy bleeding for 7 days, with 4 days of blood clots and flooding. The patient has never been pregnant and does not plan to have children. She is currently in a sexually active relationship and uses condoms for contraception. There is no significant medical or family history. Blood tests and a pelvic ultrasound scan are normal. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Insertion of intra-uterine system (IUS)
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for menorrhagia is the intra-uterine system (IUS), which has a high success rate in stopping bleeding and only requires one insertion procedure. Additionally, it provides reliable contraception. Conversely, the copper coil may exacerbate menorrhagia symptoms. While medication such as the progesterone-only pill or combined oral contraceptive pill can be used, they are not the first choice. It would be an extreme measure to refer a woman of child-bearing age for a hysterectomy, especially when there are less invasive and reversible options available to treat menorrhagia, even if the patient expresses no desire for children.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with worsening lower abdominal pain over the past 48 hours. The pain is located in the suprapubic area and slightly to the left. She experienced some vaginal bleeding this morning, which she describes as light. The patient also reports shoulder pain that started after playing tennis. Her last menstrual period was seven weeks ago and was normal. She has a history of Chlamydia infection and admits to not practicing safe sex. On examination, she is tender in the left iliac fossa. Her blood pressure is 98/62 mmHg, and her pulse is 100/min. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Ectopic pregnancy presents with amenorrhoea, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and shoulder tip pain indicating peritoneal bleeding.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.
During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A 20-year-old female patient comes to you seeking emergency contraception after her condom broke last night. She is not currently using any regular form of contraception and is currently on day 20 of her 28-day menstrual cycle. You have discussed the possibility of an intrauterine device, but she has declined. What would be the most suitable course of action among the available options?
Your Answer: Stat dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. The nurse reports that her blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, which has increased from her previous reading of 152/85 mmHg taken 2 days ago. The woman had no health issues before her pregnancy. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Oral labetalol
Explanation:Oral labetalol is the recommended initial treatment for this woman with moderate gestational hypertension, as per the current guidelines.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 30
Correct
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You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Side-effects of IUD
Explanation:The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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