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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis presents with proteinuria during her yearly check-up. Which medication is most commonly linked to the occurrence of proteinuria?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Correct Answer: Gold
Explanation:Causes of Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by the presence of protein in the urine, low levels of protein in the blood, high levels of cholesterol, and swelling in different parts of the body. The causes of nephrotic syndrome can be classified into primary glomerulonephritis, systemic disease, drugs, and others.
Primary glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome, accounting for around 80% of cases. The different types of primary glomerulonephritis include minimal change glomerulonephritis, membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.
Systemic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, systemic lupus erythematosus, and amyloidosis can also cause nephrotic syndrome, accounting for about 20% of cases. Certain drugs like gold and penicillamine can also lead to the development of nephrotic syndrome.
Other causes of nephrotic syndrome include congenital factors, neoplasia such as carcinoma, lymphoma, leukaemia, myeloma, and infections like bacterial endocarditis, hepatitis B, and malaria.
The diagram shows the different types of glomerulonephritis and how they typically present. Understanding the underlying cause of nephrotic syndrome is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 23-year-old man comes to the out of hours GP complaining of sudden onset left sided scrotal pain, lower abdominal pain and vomiting. He mentions having symptoms of coryza for the past three days. During the examination, the left testicle is found to be swollen, tender and high riding.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing the presumed diagnosis?Your Answer: Give ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly and doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10 days
Explanation:Testicular Torsion and Epididymo-orchitis
Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that occurs when the testicle twists on the spermatic cord, leading to a compromised blood supply to the testicle. In such cases, immediate medical attention is required. Antibiotic treatment may be necessary if epididymo-orchitis is suspected, but only after torsion has been ruled out. These treatments may be appropriate if a sexually transmitted organism is suspected. In addition to medication, supportive care such as scrotal elevation and pain relief may help alleviate symptoms of epididymo-orchitis. It is important to note that the Alvarado score, a clinical scoring system used to diagnose appendicitis, is not applicable in this case. Proper diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing testicular torsion and epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A Jewish family brings their 6-month-old son to their GP to discuss circumcision and whether there are any medical reasons why it should not be performed for religious purposes. What congenital conditions would be considered a contraindication for circumcision in this case?
Your Answer: Imperforate anus
Correct Answer: Hypospadias
Explanation:Hypospadias is the only condition that would prevent circumcision in infancy as the foreskin is necessary for the repair process. This means that if a child with hypospadias were to undergo circumcision for religious reasons, it would complicate the repair process as grafting from another part of the body would be required. On the other hand, balanitis xerotica obliterans and phimosis are common reasons for medical circumcision in children in the UK. A horseshoe kidney and an imperforate anus would not affect circumcision for religious reasons and would not be a contraindication.
Understanding Circumcision
Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.
The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.
Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 26-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of an enlarged left testicle. The male GP takes a detailed history and requests to examine the genital area, offering a chaperone. The patient agrees, and a female nurse practitioner acts as a chaperone. The GP conducts the examination, speaking only when necessary. Following the examination, he documents the chaperone's acceptance, last name, and role.
Has anything been done incorrectly?Your Answer: Recording of only the last name and role
Explanation:It is important to document the full name and role of a chaperone when they are used during an intimate or intrusive examination. The chaperone should be impartial and not related to the patient. Patients are allowed to express a preference for the gender of the chaperone. During the examination, it is recommended that the GP only speaks if necessary.
GMC Guidelines on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones
The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided comprehensive guidance on how to conduct intimate examinations and the role of chaperones in the process. Intimate examinations refer to any procedure that a patient may consider intrusive or intimate, such as examinations of the genitalia, rectum, and breasts. Before performing such an examination, doctors must obtain informed consent from the patient, explaining the procedure, its purpose, and the extent of exposure required. During the examination, doctors should only speak if necessary, and patients have the right to stop the examination at any point.
Chaperones are impartial individuals who offer support to patients during intimate examinations and observe the procedure to ensure that it is conducted professionally. They should be healthcare workers who have no relation to the patient or doctor, and their full name and role should be documented in the medical records. Patients may also wish to have family members present for support, but they cannot act as chaperones as they are not impartial. Doctors should not feel pressured to perform an examination without a chaperone if they are uncomfortable doing so. In such cases, they should refer the patient to a colleague who is comfortable with the examination.
It is not mandatory to have a chaperone present during an intimate examination, and patients may refuse one. However, the offer and refusal of a chaperone should be documented in the medical records. If a patient makes any allegations against the doctor regarding the examination, the chaperone can be called upon as a witness. In cases where a patient refuses a chaperone, doctors should explain the reasons for offering one and refer the patient to another service if necessary. The GMC guidelines aim to ensure that intimate examinations are conducted with sensitivity, respect, and professionalism, while also protecting the interests of both patients and doctors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with lower urinary tract symptoms. He presented six months ago with complaints of weak urinary stream, hesitancy, intermittency, terminal dribbling, and nocturia ×2. He denies any history of visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction. Urine dipstick testing is normal, his eGFR is stable at 84, and his PSA is 0.9 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is less than 30 g in size with no sinister features.
Despite conservative management and modification of his fluid intake, his symptoms persist and he has returned seeking advice on taking a tablet. His international prostate symptom score was 17 at his initial visit and is now 15. He reports that his quality of life is affected by his urinary symptoms and he is unhappy. He is otherwise healthy and not taking any other medications.
What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological approach for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Oxybutynin 5 mg BD
Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and oxybutynin 5 mg BD
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Drug Treatment of Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms
NICE recommends drug treatment for bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) if conservative measures fail. For moderate to severe LUTS, an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin should be offered. Patients should be reviewed after four to six weeks until stable. If LUTS is accompanied by an enlarged prostate or a high PSA level, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor like finasteride should be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs like oxybutynin can be used to manage storage symptoms. For patients with moderate to severe LUTS and an enlarged prostate or high PSA level, both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor can be started. In the case of a patient with moderate LUTS, a prostate less than 30 g, and a PSA level less than 1.4, starting an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin and reviewing the patient in four to six weeks is the most appropriate approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer?
Your Answer: Lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 250 men
Explanation:Prostate Cancer in England and Wales
Approximately 10,000 men die of prostate cancer each year in England and Wales, making it the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men after lung cancer. The lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 14 men. However, one of the difficulties with investigating and diagnosing prostate cancer in older men is that as we age, most men have detectable prostate cancer. But, three-quarters of them will grow older and die of something else, and the prostate cancer itself will not impact their life expectancy.
The five-year survival rate from prostate cancer in the UK is 81%, which is relatively high compared to other types of cancer. However, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of the symptoms of prostate cancer and to undergo regular screenings, especially if they are at higher risk due to factors such as age, family history, or ethnicity. By detecting prostate cancer early, men can receive timely treatment and improve their chances of survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. He has been experiencing urinary urgency and occasional incontinence for the past few months. He reports no difficulty with urinary flow, hesitancy, or straining. Prostate examination and urinalysis reveal no abnormalities.
What medication is most likely to provide relief for his symptoms?Your Answer: Alpha blocker
Correct Answer: Antimuscarinic
Explanation:Patients with an overactive bladder can benefit from the use of antimuscarinic drugs. Oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin are some examples of such drugs that can be prescribed. However, before resorting to medication, it is important to discuss conservative measures with the patient and offer bladder training as an option.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a thorough examination, including urinalysis, digital rectal examination, and possibly a PSA test. The patient should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be considered. For mixed symptoms of voiding and storage, an antimuscarinic drug may be added if alpha-blockers are not effective.
For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered. If symptoms persist, antimuscarinic drugs such as oxybutynin, tolterodine, or darifenacin may be recommended. If first-line drugs fail, mirabegron may be considered. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night and furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon may be helpful. Desmopressin may also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Care should always be taken when combining diuretics. However, which one of the following combinations is always contraindicated?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide + triamterene
Correct Answer: Amiloride + spironolactone
Explanation:Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two weeks, blood tests are conducted and no other medication changes have been made. The patient is examined and found to be adequately hydrated. As per NICE guidelines, what is the maximum acceptable rise in creatinine levels after initiating an ACE inhibitor?
Your Answer: No increase
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presented with bloody discolouration of his urine over the past few days, following a recent respiratory tract infection. Urine testing confirmed haematuria and proteinuria, which had also been noted on two previous occasions after respiratory tract infections. He was referred for renal opinion and a biopsy revealed a focal proliferative glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Minimal-change disease
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy is a common type of glomerulonephritis that is characterized by the presence of mesangial IgA deposits. This condition is often triggered by an abnormal immune response to viral or other antigens, resulting in the formation of macromolecular aggregates that accumulate in the glomerular mesangium. IgA nephropathy typically presents with macroscopic hematuria and may be associated with upper respiratory or other infections. It is more common in men and tends to affect children over 10 years of age and young adults. Treatment may involve high-dose prednisolone or immunosuppressive drugs, but some patients may eventually develop end-stage renal failure.
Goodpasture’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease that can cause diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage, glomerulonephritis, acute kidney injury, and chronic kidney disease. With aggressive treatment, the prognosis has improved, with a one-year survival rate of 70-90%.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that shares similarities with IgA nephropathy and may be a variant of the same disease. About 20% of patients with IgA nephropathy develop impaired renal function, and 5% develop end-stage renal failure.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults and may present as nephritic syndrome or hypertension. It is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and may be idiopathic or due to systemic lupus erythematosus, hepatitis B, malignancy, or the use of certain medications. About 30-50% of patients with membranous glomerulonephritis progress to end-stage kidney disease.
Minimal change nephropathy is responsible for most cases of nephrotic syndrome in children under 5 years of age and can also occur in adults. It is called minimal change because the only detectable abnormality is fusion and deformity of the foot processes under the electron microscope. Prognosis is generally good for the majority of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Correct
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You see a 75-year-old man for his annual medication review. He takes ramipril for chronic renal impairment but his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) has fallen by 20% since he was last seen 3 months ago. You repeat the test and the results are confirmed. He reports feeling well in himself and apart from getting up several times during the night to pass urine and a reduced urinary stream he reports no other symptoms. Abdominal examination is normal but an abdominal ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis.
What is the most likely cause of his condition?Your Answer: Bladder outflow obstruction
Explanation:Urinary Obstruction: Causes and Symptoms
Urinary obstruction can occur due to various congenital and acquired conditions. Congenital ureteric strictures and urethral valve obstruction are common in infants, while bladder stones can cause bilateral obstructive symptoms in adults. Urethrocele is a condition seen in women, while prostatic enlargement is a common cause of bladder outflow obstruction in men. Acquired urethral strictures can also lead to similar symptoms. Backpressure in the urinary tract can cause renal damage, leading to palpable distended bladder and other complications. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urinary obstruction to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Correct
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One of your elderly patients with chronic kidney disease stage 4 has undergone his annual blood tests:
Hb 9.4 g/dl
Platelets 166 * 109/l
WBC 6.7 * 109/l
He is currently receiving treatment from the renal team and has been prescribed erythropoietin. What is the target haemoglobin level for this patient?Your Answer: 10-12 g/dl
Explanation:The target for haemoglobin levels in CKD patients with anaemia should be between 10-12 g/dl.
Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.
There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.
To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 75-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner (GP) because of incontinence. He only rarely visits the GP. On examination, his bladder is palpable. During the conversation, he appears to have mild cognitive impairment.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Understanding Overflow Incontinence: Causes and Risk Factors
Overflow incontinence is a condition where the bladder is always full, causing frequent leakage of urine. This is commonly caused by bladder outlet obstruction, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostate cancer, or urethral stricture. However, it can also be caused by lesions affecting sacral segments or peripheral autonomic fibers, resulting in an atonic bladder with loss of sphincter coordination.
Medications should also be considered as a possible cause of new-onset urinary incontinence, especially in elderly individuals who often take multiple medications. Drugs with anticholinergic effects, α adrenergic agonists, and calcium channel blockers can cause chronic retention, either alone or by exacerbating other causes.
Severe cognitive impairment can increase the risk of urinary incontinence and worsen other causes. While mild cognitive impairment is unlikely to be the main cause, it should still be considered as a contributing factor.
Understanding the causes and risk factors of overflow incontinence can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 60-year-old man has had several cystoscopies for the transurethral resection of superficial bladder tumours and for regular surveillance. He complains of urinary frequency, a poor urinary stream, spraying of urine and dribbling at the end of micturition. These symptoms he has noticed for about a year. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is smooth, soft and normal in size. His prostate-specific antigen level is 2 ng/ml.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urethral stricture
Explanation:Urethral Stricture: Causes, Complications, and Treatments
Urethral strictures are commonly caused by injury, urethral instrumentation, and infections such as gonorrhoea or chlamydia. In this case, the repeated cystoscopies are a likely cause. This condition can lead to complications such as urinary retention and urinary infection.
To treat urethral strictures, periodic dilation, internal urethrotomy, and external urethroplasty are common options. It is important to note that a normal feeling prostate, a normal prostate-specific antigen level, and regular bladder tumour surveillance make other diagnoses less likely in this case.
In summary, understanding the causes, complications, and treatments of urethral strictures is crucial for proper management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.
Which of the following treatments would explain this presentation?Your Answer: Gonadorelin analogue injections
Correct Answer: Radical prostatectomy
Explanation:Iatrogenic Causes of Gynaecomastia: The Role of Gonadorelin Injections
There are various iatrogenic causes of gynaecomastia that healthcare providers should consider when evaluating a patient with this condition. In this case, the culprit behind the breast enlargement is the gonadorelin injections.
Gonadorelin analogues initially stimulate the release of luteinising hormone (LH) by the pituitary gland. However, in the early stages of treatment, this can cause a tumour flare, which can lead to complications such as spinal cord compression and ureteric obstruction. To prevent this problem, an anti-androgen may be prescribed alongside the gonadorelin injections.
Once treatment is established, gonadorelin analogues produce a clinical picture similar to menopause in females and orchidectomy in males. This occurs as continued use results in hypogonadism due to negative feedback. Typical clinical features include hot flashes, sweating, sexual dysfunction, and gynaecomastia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman who has had systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) for a number of years complains of facial swelling, which she thinks might be due to a food allergy. On examination, she has facial oedema, raised blood pressure at 170/100 mmHg and although she can only produce a small amount of urine, dipstick testing is strongly positive for blood and protein.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Angioedema
Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Understanding Nephritis, Angioedema, Chronic Liver Disease, and Hypertensive Emergencies
Nephritis is a condition that causes haematuria, oliguria, proteinuria, facial oedema, and hypertension. It can be caused by various factors, but it is a common complication of SLE, affecting 30-55% of patients. Hypertension is a poor prognostic sign in these patients.
Angioedema, on the other hand, causes facial swelling due to an allergic reaction and is not typically associated with renal abnormalities. Urinary tract infections do not usually cause heavy proteinuria and facial swelling. Chronic liver disease can cause hypoalbuminaemia, but it doesn’t typically cause renal abnormalities on its own.
Hypertensive emergencies include accelerated hypertension and malignant hypertension. Both conditions result in target organ damage due to a recent increase in blood pressure to very high levels (usually ≥180 mm Hg systolic and ≥110 mm Hg diastolic). This damage is usually seen as neurological (e.g., encephalopathy), cardiovascular, or renal damage. In malignant hypertension, papilloedema is present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 42-year-old man visits the GP clinic with complaints of soreness, itching, and bleeding from the foreskin. Upon examination, there is evidence of skin fissuring and tightening of the foreskin. What is the probable diagnosis, and what treatment is recommended?
Your Answer: Lichen sclerosis
Explanation:Common Penile Conditions
Lichen sclerosis, also known as balanitis xerotica obliterans, is a skin condition that causes inflammation and scarring of the foreskin. It can be itchy and painful, but potent steroid ointments can help reduce inflammation and the need for surgery. However, if left untreated, it may lead to penile squamous cell carcinoma, which presents as an irregular ulceration or nodule.
Peyronie’s disease is a condition that causes an increased curvature of the penis, but its cause is unknown. On the other hand, phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin covering the glans of the penis, which may be congenital or due to scarring from another medical condition such as lichen sclerosis. Lastly, priapism is a persistent and often painful erection of the penis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
Which of the following drugs is most likely be responsible?
Your Answer: Gold
Explanation:Renal Complications in Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. The use of gold, penicillamine, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents as disease-modifying drugs in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can result in renal complications. Membranous glomerulonephritis is a common complication that occurs due to the widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of immunoglobulin and complement. Methotrexate, another drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can also be toxic to the kidney in large doses. However, such doses are unlikely in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor renal function in patients receiving these medications to prevent renal complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of consuming bendroflumethiazide?
Your Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Gout is more likely to occur as a result of taking bendroflumethiazide, rather than pseudogout.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with Rheumatoid arthritis complains of dysuria, frequency, and foul-smelling urine for the past 3 days. Upon urinalysis, blood, nitrites, leukocytes, and protein are detected. Upon checking her repeat prescription, it is found that she is taking methotrexate for her Rheumatoid disease. She has no allergies. Which antibiotic should not be prescribed due to the potential for severe bone marrow suppression?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:The combination of methotrexate and antibiotics containing trimethoprim can lead to bone marrow suppression and potentially fatal pancytopenia. Therefore, it is important to avoid using trimethoprim and co-trimoxazole with methotrexate due to their anti-folate properties, which can cause folate depletion. Fatal cases of megaloblastic anemia and pancytopenia have been reported. Nitrofurantoin and cefalexin do not have any known interactions with methotrexate, and penicillins may reduce its excretion.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the check-up, the GP diagnosed him with hypertension and prescribed ramipril 2.5mg OD. The patient is also taking lansoprazole 30 mg OD, furosemide 20 mg OD, and atorvastatin 40 mg ON.
The patient's U+E levels have been stable, but a recent blood test showed:
- Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 47 ml/min/1.73m2
One month later, the GP requested a repeat U+E test, which showed:
- Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 6.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 43 ml/min/1.73m2
The patient's ECG was normal. What is the most appropriate management plan, in addition to re-checking the U+E levels?Your Answer: Stop ramipril and restart at a lower dose
Correct Answer: Swap ramipril for another Antihypertensive
Explanation:If a patient with CKD has a potassium level above 6 mmol/L, discontinuing ACE inhibitors should be considered, as per NICE Clinical Guideline 182. However, it is important to ensure that any other medications that may contribute to hyperkalemia have already been stopped before making this decision. In this particular case, there are no other medications that can be discontinued to lower potassium levels without deviating from the NICE guidelines.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male patient presents with recurrent urinary symptoms, reporting bothersome hesitancy and nocturia. He is currently taking finasteride.
PSA levels over the past two months have been within normal range for his age, measuring at 3.2 and 3.3 ng/ml. Upon physical examination, including a digital rectal exam, no abnormalities were detected.
What is the appropriate course of action at this juncture?Your Answer: Start an alpha-blocker, such as tamsulosin
Correct Answer: Stop the finasteride and repeat the PSA in six weeks
Explanation:Importance of Checking for Prostate Cancer in Patients on Finasteride
Whilst other possibilities should not be disregarded, it is crucial to prioritize checking for prostate cancer in patients taking Finasteride. It is important to note that PSA values may be significantly reduced by up to 50% in patients taking 5-ARIs such as Finasteride, which can bring abnormal prostates into the normal range in terms of PSA values. Additionally, any increase in PSA levels should be a cause for concern, even if the absolute value is within the normal range, when a patient is taking Finasteride. It is essential to double the PSA readings of patients on Finasteride, which means that the corrected values for this patient are 6.2 and 6.0 ng/ml. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize checking for prostate cancer in patients taking Finasteride to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You received a letter from the ophthalmology department regarding Mrs. Patel, an 80-year-old woman who has been listed for cataract surgery. They report that her blood pressure (BP) is raised at 156/94 mmHg and ask you to follow this up, as her BP needs to be well controlled before the operation will be performed.
You have a look at her medication list and see she is already on amlodipine 5mg, losartan 50 mg, and hydrochlorothiazide 12.5mg.
Her most recent renal profile is below.
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 82 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Assuming she is compliant with her medications, what is the next treatment step for her hypertension?Your Answer: Change bendroflumethiazide to indapamide
Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic with a potassium level greater than 4.5mmol/L, the recommended 4th-line option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. It is important to check for postural hypotension and confirm the elevated clinic reading with home/ambulatory BP monitoring for patients with resistant hypertension. Combining an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor with an angiotensin II receptor blocker, such as candesartan, is not recommended. There is no need to switch patients who are already taking bendroflumethiazide to indapamide. Referral to cardiology would be appropriate if the patient remains uncontrolled on the maximum tolerated dose of a 4th antihypertensive.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You receive a letter explaining that one of your patients, Mrs. Smith has recently been diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) 5 and is due to commence haemodialysis. It outlines the vaccines that she now requires. Which diseases does she need protection against?
Your Answer: Pneumococcal, influenza, Hepatitis B and C
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal, influenza and Hepatitis B
Explanation:Haemodialysis units must remain vigilant against blood-borne viruses, despite following standard infection control measures, in order to safeguard both patients and healthcare staff. Fortunately, the occurrence of hepatitis B outbreaks associated with dialysis units has significantly decreased over the past three decades. The Department of Health recommends immunisation against Pneumococcus, influenza, and Hepatitis B for individuals with chronic kidney disease, including those undergoing haemodialysis. While vaccination schedules for both children and adults are rapidly evolving, healthcare professionals must stay informed of these changes and be aware of recommendations for special groups. Although the administration of vaccinations is often delegated, general practitioners must be knowledgeable about contraindications and schedules to provide guidance to patients and parents. Conducting audits of specific target groups may reveal a need for catch-up immunisation in light of changing recommendations.
The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.
The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, reporting symptoms of frequent urination, weak urinary stream, and dribbling at the end of urination. He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately a year. Upon examination, his prostate is soft and normal in size, his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) falls within the normal range for his age, and his bladder and kidneys are not palpable. He has a history of renal colic and has previously undergone cystoscopic removal of a bladder stone. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urethral stricture
Explanation:Possible Causes of Urinary Symptoms: A Differential Diagnosis
Urinary symptoms can be caused by various conditions, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. One possible cause is urethral stricture, which refers to the narrowing of the urethra due to scarring from inflammation, trauma, infection, tumors, or surgery. Patients may experience no symptoms, mild discomfort, or complete urinary retention. Another possible cause is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which can cause urinary frequency, poor stream, and terminal dribbling, but normal examination findings make prostatic disease unlikely. Bladder stones can also cause urinary symptoms such as suprapubic pain, dysuria, intermittency, frequency, hesitancy, nocturia, and urinary retention, as well as terminal hematuria and sudden cessation of voiding with associated pain. Chlamydia infection can cause urethritis with urethral discharge and dysuria, and a possible late complication is a stricture. Prostatic carcinoma can also cause similar symptoms, but the patient’s young age and normal examination of the prostate and PSA result make this diagnosis unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of appetite of recent origin. Her serum creatinine is 230 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and urea is 13.5 mmol/l (2.5-6.5 mmol/l). She has taken diclofenac for pain relief for several years.
Select from the list the single correct statement about this side-effect of diclofenac.Your Answer: Glomerulosclerosis is most commonly seen
Correct Answer: It is likely to be reversible if the drug is stopped
Explanation:The Renal Risks of NSAIDs
One of the most common renal problems is sodium retention, which leads to water retention and oedema. This issue is particularly concerning for patients with pre-existing heart failure, as it can worsen their condition. Additionally, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone, especially in patients with diabetes, heart failure, or multiple myeloma. If the patient is taking potassium-sparing diuretics or ACE inhibitors, the hyperkalaemia may be more severe.
NSAIDs can cause two types of acute renal failure. The first is haemodynamically mediated, where inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis can lead to reversible renal ischemia, a fall in GFR, and acute renal failure. The second is direct toxic effects on the kidney, such as acute tubular necrosis and acute interstitial nephritis. Adverse renal effects are generally reversible upon discontinuation of NSAID treatment. Glomerulosclerosis, typically caused by diabetes, can also be caused by drug-induced glomerular disease, including that caused by NSAIDs.
High-dose NSAID use may significantly increase the risk of accelerated renal function decline in patients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, caution should always be exercised when using NSAIDs, and they should be given at the lowest effective dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria, proteinuria of 1.5 g/24 hours and a serum creatinine level of 153 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:Nephropathies and their Clinical Presentations
Membranous glomerulonephritis and diabetic nephropathy rarely present with macroscopic haematuria, but rather with greater proteinuria and nephrotic syndrome. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in adults. On the other hand, IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is characterized by IgA deposition in the glomerulus and often presents with macroscopic haematuria, which may be triggered by an upper respiratory tract infection. It usually presents asymptomatic haematuria and/or proteinuria and is a nephritic syndrome, but can also rarely present with nephrotic syndrome. Henoch-Schönlein purpura, a variant of IgA nephropathy, is associated with a petechial rash and systemic vasculitis. Although progression is slow, 20-30% of patients may eventually develop end-stage renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man comes to you with a scrotal swelling on the right side that has been worsening over the past two weeks. He is concerned about its appearance and has developed a dragging sensation. Upon examination while lying flat, a tense varicocele is observed on the right side. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Refer to urology to consider ablative therapy
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to Urology
Explanation:If a patient has rapidly developing varicoceles, solitary right-sided varicoceles, or varicoceles that remain tense when lying down, especially if they are over 40 years old, it could be a sign of testicular tumors. In such cases, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary to rule out cancer. Given the presence of several red flags in this patient, an urgent referral is required. Other options should be avoided as they may cause delays in diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele
Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Correct
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An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following statements about benign prostatic hyperplasia is not true?
Your Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases
Explanation:The use of Goserelin (Zoladex) is not recommended for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of perineal and lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He also reports urinary frequency, dysuria, and poor urinary flow. He decided to seek medical attention now because he has been experiencing some discomfort during ejaculation over the last week. During rectal examination, the physician notes a tender, normal sized prostate gland. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prostatic abscess
Correct Answer: Chronic prostatitis
Explanation:The individual in question is suffering from chronic prostatitis, which is characterized by symptoms lasting for at least three months. These symptoms may include pain in various areas such as the perineum, abdomen, lower back, inguinal region, scrotum, testis, or penis. Additionally, the patient may experience lower urinary tract symptoms or sexual dysfunction, such as erectile dysfunction, premature ejaculation, discomfort during ejaculation, or decreased libido. It is important to note that urethritis would not cause perineal pain or lower urinary tract symptoms, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is typically painless and presents with a smooth, enlarged prostate on examination in conjunction with lower urinary tract symptoms. In cases where patients experience persistent perineal pain and recurrent urinary tract infections despite antibiotic therapy, a prostatic abscess may be suspected, often accompanied by an enlarged prostate upon examination.
Treatment for Chronic Prostatitis
Chronic prostatitis is a condition that requires a prolonged course of treatment. One of the recommended treatments is a quinolone, which is a type of antibiotic. However, there is some debate about the effectiveness of prostatic massage in improving outcomes. Despite this, there is no conclusive data published to date. It is important to note that treatment for chronic prostatitis should be tailored to the individual patient and their specific symptoms. Additionally, patients should follow up with their healthcare provider regularly to monitor their progress and adjust treatment as needed. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for those with chronic prostatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to you with elevated blood pressure. He has a history of chronic kidney disease and his estimated glomerular filtration rate was 53 ml/min six weeks ago. His albumin:creatinine ratio was 35 mg/mmol. He denies experiencing any chest pain or shortness of breath. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 172/94 mmHg and fundoscopy is unremarkable. What is the optimal course of treatment?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Patients who have chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and an albumin:creatinine ratio exceeding 30 mg/mmol should be initiated on a renin-angiotensin antagonist. These medications have been proven to have positive impacts on both cardiovascular outcomes and renal function. While the other drugs are also utilized for hypertension, they do not offer the same advantages and are not the primary choice for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.
Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 32
Correct
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Mr. Johnson is a 65-year-old man with multiple sclerosis who has a long term catheter. He was admitted to hospital following a fall and discharged the next day. As part of his work up in the emergency department his urine was sent off for culture.
You receive a letter in your inbox with the urine culture results:
Escherichia coli sensitive to amoxicillin, nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim
You note that he is penicillin allergic. You call Mr. Johnson to find out how he is, however he denies any urinary symptoms or haematuria. There is no blockage and his catheter is draining well.
How will you best manage Mr. Johnson?Your Answer: No treatment needed
Explanation:NICE guidelines advise against the routine treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria in catheterised patients. Treatment should only be given if the patient is experiencing symptoms. In such cases, a 7-day course of antibiotics may be prescribed, and the catheter may be changed if necessary. However, removal of the catheter is not an option for long-term catheterised patients. If sepsis is suspected, the patient should be referred to a hospital for intravenous antibiotics.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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As the on-call physician, you encounter a patient in their early 50s who has been experiencing a painful erection for the past 6 hours. The patient had taken sildenafil, a phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitor, the previous night. The patient was diagnosed with myeloma 4 months ago and is currently undergoing treatment under the haematology team.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: 300 mg aspirin
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to the surgical team
Explanation:If a patient experiences priapism, urgent assessment in a hospital is necessary. While priapism is a rare side effect of taking PDE-5 inhibitors, patients with blood disorders such as sickle cell disease, multiple myeloma, or leukemia are at an increased risk.
Priapism is considered a surgical emergency, and if it lasts for more than two hours, immediate referral to a hospital’s surgical team is required for treatment.
If the priapism has been present for less than two hours, some measures may help resolve it. These include attempting to pass urine, taking a warm bath or shower, drinking plenty of water, going for a gentle walk, doing exercises like squats or running on the spot, and taking painkillers like paracetamol if necessary.
Priapism is a condition where a man experiences a prolonged erection that lasts for more than 4 hours and is not related to sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic. Ischaemic priapism is caused by reduced blood flow to the penis, while non-ischaemic priapism is caused by increased blood flow. Priapism can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication, trauma, and underlying medical conditions such as sickle cell disease. Symptoms include pain and a persistent erection. Diagnosis is made through clinical examination and tests such as blood gas analysis and ultrasonography. Treatment for ischaemic priapism involves aspiration of blood from the penis, injection of a saline flush, and vasoconstrictive agents. Non-ischaemic priapism is typically observed. It is important to seek medical attention promptly as untreated priapism can lead to permanent tissue damage and long-term erectile dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 34
Correct
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A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents to his new GP for registration after moving house. During urine testing, evidence of haematuria is found. The patient has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Understanding Common Kidney Conditions: ADPKD, Glomerulonephritis, Renal Stones, Renal Cell Carcinoma, and Urinary Tract Infection
The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and regulating fluid balance in the body. However, they can be affected by various conditions that can lead to significant health problems. Here are some common kidney conditions and their characteristics:
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the growth of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney enlargement and dysfunction. Symptoms may include hypertension, painless haematuria, intermittent loin pain, and a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage. ACE inhibitors are the first-line treatment for hypertension in ADPKD patients.Glomerulonephritis
Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation within the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic urinary abnormalities to the nephritic and nephrotic syndromes.Renal Stones
Renal stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe renal colic. They may be asymptomatic and discovered during investigations for other conditions.Renal Cell Carcinoma
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that can be detected using ultrasound and CT scans. More than half of adult renal tumours are detected when using ultrasound to investigate nonspecific symptoms. The classic features of haematuria, loin pain, and loin mass are not as frequently seen now.Urinary Tract Infection
Urinary tract infection is a common condition that presents acutely. It occurs when bacteria enter the urinary tract and cause inflammation and infection. Symptoms may include pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine.In conclusion, understanding the characteristics of common kidney conditions can help with early detection and appropriate management, leading to better outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which statement is accurate when analyzing a semen analysis report?
Your Answer: Is invalid unless abstention is at least a week
Correct Answer: 15% abnormal forms is within normal limits
Explanation:Understanding Semen Analysis Results
Semen analysis is a crucial test that helps determine male fertility. According to the World Health Organisation guidelines, a sperm sample showing 15% or more sperm of normal morphology is considered normal. It is recommended to abstain from masturbation and/or intercourse for at least two days before the test.
Low volume is a common issue, often caused by missing the container. Motility below 40% is a cause for concern, and the pH should be between 7 and 8.5. The specimen should be examined within an hour, and a count below 20 million would be of some concern, while below 10 million would be clinically significant.
When conducting semen analysis, the results should be compared with the WHO reference values. The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, pH should be 7.2 or more, sperm concentration should be 15 million spermatozoa per ml or more, and the total sperm number should be 39 million spermatozoa per ejaculate or more. The total motility should be 40% or more motile or 32% or more with progressive motility, vitality should be 58% or more, and live spermatozoa sperm morphology should be 4% or more.
In conclusion, understanding semen analysis results is crucial in determining male fertility. It is important to follow the WHO guidelines and compare the results with the reference values to identify any potential issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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At what stage should thiazide diuretics be avoided in patients with chronic kidney disease, according to BNF guidance?
Your Answer: eGFR < 60 ml / min
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents reporting that she experiences vaginal pressure when she strains. She has a history of mild cognitive impairment and severe osteoarthritis. She has very poor mobility in her back, wrists and hands. Her body mass index is 35 kg/m2. Examination reveals a moderate uterine prolapse with a cystocele and a rectocele. The patient reports that she is still sexually active. She reports she cannot reliably attend follow-up at the surgery.
Why would a ring pessary likely be contraindicated in this patient?Your Answer: Inability to attend follow-up care
Explanation:Considerations for Ring Pessary Use in Patients with Specific Conditions
Ring pessaries are a non-surgical option for managing pelvic organ prolapse. However, certain patient factors must be considered before recommending this treatment.
Inability to attend follow-up care is a significant concern for patients using ring pessaries. These devices need to be changed every six months, and patients with poor mobility may require assistance from a healthcare provider. Failure to change the pessary can lead to infection and other complications. Therefore, patients who cannot attend follow-up appointments may not be suitable candidates for ring pessary use.
Obesity is a risk factor for pelvic organ prolapse, but it is not a contraindication for ring pessary use. In fact, weight loss may help alleviate the condition along with pessary use.
Age is not a barrier to pessary insertion. In fact, ring pessaries are often used in older or frailer patients where surgery is less desirable.
Sexual activity is not a contraindication for ring pessary use. Patients can leave the pessary in during intercourse, but some may find it uncomfortable. In such cases, the ring can be removed and reinserted after intercourse, or an alternative type of pessary can be tried.
Mild cognitive impairment doesn’t preclude pessary use, but patients may require additional follow-up to ensure the device is removed and replaced every six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She had an episode of acute cystitis 4 weeks ago, which was successfully treated without any complications. Her urine culture did not show any resistant or atypical organisms. However, she has a history of recurrent lower UTIs and is feeling frustrated as she has had 6 episodes in the past year, which has put a strain on her new relationship. She has tried cranberry juice and probiotics, but they did not provide any relief.
You ordered an abdominal ultrasound, which came back normal, and her post-void volume was 25 ml. After reviewing her behavioral and self-hygiene measures, you have identified sexual intercourse as the only trigger.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotic prophylaxis for single-dose use with sexual intercourse
Explanation:For women who experience regular urinary tract infections (UTIs) following sexual intercourse, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a single-dose oral antibiotic prophylaxis to be taken with sexual intercourse. This is in line with NICE guidance, which also advises first-line measures such as avoiding douching and occlusive underwear, wiping from front to back after defecation, and maintaining adequate hydration. Daily antibiotic prophylaxis is not recommended for premenopausal, non-pregnant women with an identifiable trigger, but may be considered for those who continue to have recurrences with single-dose antibiotic prophylaxis regimens. Vaginal oestrogen cream is recommended for postmenopausal women, while referral to secondary care is only necessary for certain groups, such as those with suspected cancer or persistent haematuria. A self-taken vulvovaginal swab for STIs is not necessary unless there are symptoms of vulvovaginitis, cervicitis, or pelvic inflammatory disease.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has developed persistent proteinuria. Renal function tests reveal a glomerular filtration rate [GFR] of 49 ml/minute/1.73 m2), similar levels were found four months previously. Her blood pressure today is 140/88 mmHg.
Which of the following medications is most likely to improve the patient's renal prognosis?Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is defined by the presence of kidney damage or decreased kidney function for three months or more. Patients with proteinuria of any cause can benefit from treatment with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, which improve renal prognosis and reduce cardiovascular risk. Blood pressure control with medications like doxazosin can also improve renal outcomes, but blocking the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system is most effective in halting disease progression. Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, while vitamin D supplementation is used to treat deficiency in later stages of CKD and CKD-mineral and bone disorders. Statins like atorvastatin should be offered to all CKD patients to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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You assess a 55-year-old man who has stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Which medication can be safely prescribed considering his level of renal dysfunction?
Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Severe renal failure patients should steer clear of tetracycline, metformin, nitrofurantoin, and lithium. However, warfarin may be well-tolerated, but patients may need more frequent monitoring.
Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure
Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.
On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.
There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.
In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 35-year old man presents with a scrotal swelling. He first noticed a lump a few weeks ago while taking a bath and reports that it has appeared quite rapidly. He is not experiencing any symptoms and is otherwise healthy.
Upon examination, the patient appears to be in good overall health. There is a firm, non-tender swelling on the right side. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the swelling is translucent when tested with a light source. It is easy to get above the swelling, and the scrotal skin appears normal in color and temperature.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer for a scrotal ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Refer to the general surgeons for routine elective hernia repair
Explanation:Understanding Hydroceles: Causes and Diagnosis
A hydrocele is a painless swelling that occurs in the scrotum due to a collection of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. It is often confined to one side and the underlying testicle may not be palpable. Transillumination with a light source can help diagnose a hydrocele.
Hydroceles can be primary or secondary. Primary hydroceles tend to occur in children and the elderly and appear gradually. Secondary hydroceles, on the other hand, are associated with testicular pathology and tend to appear rapidly. Possible underlying causes of a secondary hydrocele include testicular tumour, infection (epididymo-orchitis), torsion, and trauma.
A clinical diagnosis is often sufficient, but an ultrasound scan may be requested in cases of secondary hydrocele or when there is suspicion of an underlying pathology. For instance, a new onset, rapidly growing hydrocele in a man in his thirties may warrant an ultrasound scan to rule out a testicular tumour.
If the history and examination do not suggest an infective/inflammatory process, torsion, or trauma as an underlying cause, immediate referral to the hospital is not necessary. The use of anti-inflammatory and antibiotics is also not indicated in such cases. Understanding the causes and diagnosis of hydroceles can help in their appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A pair undergo examinations for sterility. What is the most suitable guidance to provide concerning sperm collection?
Your Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 4 hours
Correct Answer: Abstain for 3-5 days before giving sample + deliver sample to lab within 1 hour
Explanation:Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 43
Correct
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You see a 70-year-old patient with diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). He had an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) 2 months ago for which he had a stent. He is having his annual review when he mentions that he has suffered from erectile dysfunction for the last 2 years. He says that it came on gradually and that he now never has erections anymore, in any situation. He has been married for 45 years and this is having an effect on his relationship with his wife.
His blood pressure today is 135/85 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal that his blood glucose levels are well controlled on oral medications and his CKD is stable. He takes regular exercise.
What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's erectile dysfunction?Your Answer: A vacuum erection device along with lifestyle advice
Explanation:The NICE clinical knowledge summary (CKS) guidelines recommend phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitors, such as sildenafil and tadalafil, as the first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction (ED) unless there are contraindications. However, those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors may benefit from vacuum erection devices, which are recommended as the first-line treatment for well-informed older men with infrequent sexual intercourse and comorbidity requiring non-invasive, drug-free management of ED. Lifestyle changes and risk factor modification should also be considered, but this patient already has good control of his risk factors and regularly exercises. Intracavernous injections may be a second-line option for men with pelvic trauma or spinal cord injury. Vasculogenic causes, such as cardiovascular disease, are the most common organic cause of ED, and lifestyle changes and drug treatment can be effective in managing this condition.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with symptoms of prostatism has a serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 20 µg/l (normal < 4 µg/l).
Select from the list which single correct statement about the clinical importance of this result is the most likely.Your Answer: It could be elevated because a digital rectal examination was performed 48 hours before the blood sample was taken
Correct Answer: It is more likely to reflect prostatic cancer than benign prostatic hypertrophy
Explanation:Understanding Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA)
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is a protein produced by the prostate gland that plays a crucial role in male reproductive function. Its primary function is to liquefy semen, allowing sperm to move freely. PSA is also believed to help dissolve cervical mucous, facilitating the entry of sperm into the uterus.
While PSA is present in small amounts in the blood of men with healthy prostates, elevated levels can indicate the presence of prostate cancer or other prostate disorders. However, PSA is not specific to cancer and a biopsy is needed to confirm a diagnosis.
PSA levels increase with age and in benign prostatic hypertrophy and prostatitis, but a high concentration is more likely to be due to cancer than benign disease. It is important to note that PSA levels may also increase slightly after a digital rectal examination or ejaculation.
Understanding PSA and its role in prostate health is crucial for early detection and treatment of prostate cancer. Regular prostate exams and PSA screenings are recommended for men over the age of 50, or earlier for those with a family history of prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy visits his GP with his mother after he observed blood in his urine two days after receiving treatment for tonsillitis. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, it is positive for blood and protein. The doctor sends a sample for microscopy, culture, and sensitivity and receives the following results: Growth < 104 cfu/ml, Large numbers of red blood cells, < 10/mm3 of white blood cells, and red-cell casts in microscopy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Correct Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Haematuria: A Brief Overview
Haematuria, or the presence of blood in the urine, can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is glomerulonephritis, which is indicated by the presence of red-cell casts in the urine. In particular, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) may be suspected if the patient has a recent history of tonsillitis. PSGN typically resolves on its own, but symptom control and infection removal may be necessary.
Another possible cause of haematuria is myoglobinuria, which is characterized by a positive urine dipstick but the absence of red-cell casts. Myoglobinuria is an early sign of rhabdomyolysis, which requires fluid resuscitation and further investigations into renal function and creatine kinase.
Porphyria, on the other hand, may cause dark or reddish urine due to excessive excretion of haem precursors. However, red-cell casts are not present and a urine dipstick would not be positive for blood.
Renal calculus, or kidney stones, is unlikely in a young patient and would typically be accompanied by severe pain. No casts would be present in this case.
Finally, a urinary tract infection (UTI) may cause haematuria, but a diagnosis requires significant bacteriuria, which is defined as greater than 100,000 colonies of bacteria per milliliter of urine. Counts between 10,000 and 100,000 are indeterminate, while counts below 10,000 are considered normal. Sensitivity testing may be necessary to determine the appropriate antibiotics for treatment.
In summary, the presence of red-cell casts in the urine suggests glomerulonephritis, while a positive urine dipstick without casts may indicate myoglobinuria. Other possible causes of haematuria include porphyria, renal calculus, and UTI, but these require further investigation and testing for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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You encounter a 65-year-old woman who recently underwent a medication review and had urea and electrolytes performed. You have access to her previous results from 6 months ago for comparison. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. During examination, her blood pressure is measured at 135/80 mmHg.
Current blood test results:
- Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 6.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 54 ml/min/1.73m2
Blood test results from 6 months ago:
- Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 5.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 122 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 55 ml/min/1.73m2
What medication should be added to this woman's current regimen?Your Answer: Aspirin
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:According to NICE criteria, patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of CVD. This patient meets the criteria as she has a persistent reduction in renal function. Antiplatelet treatment is not necessary for secondary prevention of CVD in this patient. Losartan is not required as her blood pressure is well controlled and a combination of renin-angiotensin system antagonists should not be prescribed to patients with CKD. Metformin has no role in the management of CKD in non-diabetic patients.
Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 75-year-old terminally ill man with pancreatic cancer presents to the Emergency Department. He complains of abdominal pain and has not passed urine for ten hours.
On examination, he has an easily palpable, enlarged bladder. You decide to insert a urinary catheter.
What is the most appropriate way to approach this procedure in this patient?Your Answer: Once urine flow is achieved, push the catheter as far as it can go before inflating the balloon
Explanation:To ensure proper catheterisation, it is important to push the catheter in as far as it can go before inflating the balloon, once urine flow has been achieved. Aseptic technique should always be used to reduce the risk of infection. It is not advisable to use force to overcome resistance during catheter insertion, as this can create a false passage. The smallest catheter size that allows for effective drainage should be used, unless there is an infection or postoperative bleeding, in which case a larger bore may be necessary to minimise obstruction risk. For long-term catheterisation, an indwelling Foley catheter with an inflatable balloon should be used instead of a straight (Nelaton) catheter that is immediately removed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 25-year-old army recruit presents with a swelling in the left scrotum that has been present for at least two years. On examination, a large non-tender swelling is observed that can be palpated above and transilluminates brightly. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epididymo-orchitis
Explanation:Understanding Hydrocoele
A hydrocoele is a condition where there is a buildup of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. It can either be primary, which usually occurs in middle age, or secondary, which can happen in younger individuals and may be caused by an underlying malignancy, chronic epididymo-orchitis, or a hernia. The main symptom is a cystic-feeling swelling in the scrotum, which makes it difficult to feel the testis separately. However, the swelling can be felt above and transilluminates.
Ultrasound is not typically used to diagnose a simple hydrocoele, but it may be helpful in ruling out other conditions such as testicular tumors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with acute left sided pyelonephritis. She has a history of recurrent urinary tract infection as a child. Her blood pressure is 145/85. Investigations reveal: creatinine 58 μmol/l (Third trimester reference values 35-62 μmol/l).
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer: Urinary stasis of pregnancy
Correct Answer: Reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Reflux Nephropathy: A Condition Causing Kidney Damage
Reflux nephropathy is a condition that occurs in some children and infants where the vesico-ureteric junction allows urine to flow back up the ureters during bladder contraction. This can lead to incomplete bladder emptying and infection, which can cause kidney damage. The damage can be variable and unilateral, with papillary damage, interstitial nephritis, and cortical scarring in the affected kidney. As the child grows, infections usually stop, but hypertension may develop, and in severe cases, renal damage may be progressive, leading to chronic renal failure.
During pregnancy, there is an increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which can cause both urea and creatinine levels to decrease. However, dilatation of the ureters and pelvis during pregnancy can lead to urinary stasis and an increased risk of developing urinary tract infections. In cases where there is a history of reflux, it is likely that reflux nephropathy is the cause of kidney damage. Hypertension and renal failure are common features of this condition, but the presence of infection points to reflux as the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has suddenly developed a fever and is experiencing frequent urination, painful urination, and discomfort in the pelvic area. Upon examination, his prostate is tender. A dipstick test of his urine shows the presence of white blood cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic bacterial prostatitis
Correct Answer: Acute bacterial prostatitis
Explanation:Understanding Prostatitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Prostatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the prostate gland. There are different types of prostatitis, including acute bacterial prostatitis, chronic bacterial prostatitis, non-bacterial prostatitis, and asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis. In this article, we will focus on the symptoms and differential diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis.
Symptoms of Acute Bacterial Prostatitis
Acute bacterial prostatitis is characterized by a sudden onset of feverish illness, irritative urinary voiding symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency), perineal or suprapubic pain, and a very tender prostate on rectal examination. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also common. It is important to note that prostatic massage should not be done as it could lead to complications.Differential Diagnosis
It is important to differentiate acute bacterial prostatitis from other conditions with similar symptoms. Chronic bacterial prostatitis is more common but symptoms must last for more than three months before this diagnosis can be made. Benign prostatic hyperplasia typically presents with progressive obstructive symptoms, while cystitis doesn’t involve tenderness of the prostate on examination. Non-bacterial prostatitis is associated with chronic pain around the prostate.Conclusion
Acute bacterial prostatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis and rule out other conditions with similar symptoms. If you suspect acute bacterial prostatitis, seek medical attention immediately. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of loin pain and haematuria. The GP refers him to the Nephrology Department for further investigation. A renal ultrasound (US) shows multiple bilateral renal cysts.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Cysts are only confined to the kidneys in affected individuals
Correct Answer: Screening for it is usually delayed until an individual is an adult
Explanation:Screening for autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) in family members of affected individuals is typically delayed until they reach 20 years of age due to a high false-negative rate in childhood screening. However, there is ongoing debate about the benefits of earlier screening with more reliable ultrasound scanning. Loin pain is a common presenting symptom in newly diagnosed individuals, which can occur in the abdomen, side, and lower back. ADPKD is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion, and while an autosomal-recessive form of PKD exists, it is much less common. ADPKD can also affect other organs, such as the liver and pancreas, and can lead to renal failure in many elderly individuals, with about 50% requiring dialysis or transplantation before the age of 60.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old and has a PSA level of 10.5 ng/ml. What would be the next course of action that the urologist is likely to suggest?
Your Answer: Prostatectomy
Correct Answer: Multiparametric MRI
Explanation:The first-line investigation for suspected prostate cancer has been replaced by multiparametric MRI, replacing TRUS biopsy. This change was made in the 2019 NICE guidelines for investigating suspected prostate cancer in secondary care.
Investigation for Prostate Cancer
Prostate cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men. The traditional investigation for suspected prostate cancer was a transrectal ultrasound-guided (TRUS) biopsy. However, recent guidelines from NICE have now recommended the increasing use of multiparametric MRI as a first-line investigation. This is because TRUS biopsy can lead to complications such as sepsis, pain, fever, haematuria, and rectal bleeding.
Multiparametric MRI is now the first-line investigation for people with suspected clinically localised prostate cancer. The results are reported using a 5-point Likert scale. If the Likert scale is 3 or higher, a multiparametric MRI-influenced prostate biopsy is offered. If the Likert scale is 1-2, then NICE recommends discussing with the patient the pros and cons of having a biopsy. This approach helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with TRUS biopsy and ensures that patients receive the most appropriate investigation for their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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Karen, a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes, visits her practice diabetic nurse for her annual diabetes review. The nurse informs her that her HbA1c has increased since her last visit. Karen's results are as follows:
HbA1c 7.9% (63 mmol/mol)
Karen assures the nurse that she has been taking all her medications as prescribed, which include metformin 1g twice daily, gliclazide 160 mg twice daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg once daily.
The nurse suggests that gliclazide may not be effective in controlling her hyperglycaemia at this point and recommends that Karen switch to empagliflozin. Karen agrees but asks about the common side effects of the new medication.
What are the potential side effects of empagliflozin that should be discussed with Karen?Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Correct Answer: Increased risk of urinary tract infections
Explanation:Sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, have been linked to an increased risk of urinary tract infections, which is a common side effect that should be discussed with patients, especially females. While hypoglycemia is possible with SGLT2 inhibitors, it is typically only a concern when taken in combination with insulin or sulfonylurea, and may not require stopping other medications. Clinical studies have not shown any increase in renal calculi, and some studies suggest that SGLT2 inhibitors may even be renoprotective. Additionally, SGLT2 inhibitors do not cause weight gain and may even lead to weight loss. However, it is important to note that these medications can rarely cause serious conditions such as Fournier’s gangrene and atypical ketoacidosis, and patients should be warned about the symptoms of these conditions and advised to seek prompt medical attention if necessary.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic worried about red discoloration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a DVT two months ago and has been taking warfarin, with his most recent INR test two days ago showing a result of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A urine culture comes back negative. What is the probable cause of this man's symptoms?
Your Answer: Prostate carcinoma
Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma
Explanation:Consideration of Occult Neoplasia in a Patient with Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT
This patient is presenting with unexplained haematuria and has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. The most likely diagnoses in this case are bladder cancer or renal carcinoma, as it is uncommon for prostate cancer to present with haematuria.
It is important to note that warfarin alone is an unlikely cause of the haematuria, as the patient’s international normalized ratio (INR) is within the target range. Further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the haematuria and to rule out any potential neoplastic processes. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further complications and improving the patient’s overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with painless left testicular enlargement. He reports noticing it approximately 3 weeks ago and denies any urinary symptoms or penile discharge.
What is the most suitable plan of action?Your Answer: Prescribe antibiotics
Correct Answer: Refer to urology on a suspected cancer pathway
Explanation:Urgent Referral Pathway for Suspected Testicular Cancer
Any painless enlargement of the testis should be referred urgently to urology for investigation of testicular cancer. The patient should be seen within 2 weeks, and an ultrasound should be arranged urgently. While serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a tumour marker associated with testicular cancer, it should not be used alone to exclude a tumour. AFP can also be used in staging. A mid-stream specimen of urine (MSU) is not necessary unless there are urinary symptoms or signs of infection. Antibiotics are not indicated for painless swelling without signs of infection or epididymo-orchitis. While prompt investigation is necessary, urgent urological admission is not required unless the patient is acutely unwell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of urinary frequency and nocturia three times per night. These symptoms have gradually worsened over a period of several months. He denies fever or abdominal pain. He is normally fit and well and takes no regular medication.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound (US)
Correct Answer: Digital rectal examination (DRE)
Explanation:Investigations for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. To diagnose BPH and rule out other potential causes, several investigations may be necessary.
Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is the most appropriate initial investigation for BPH. It can identify an enlarged prostate and any irregular or hard areas that could indicate malignancy.
Abdominal Ultrasound (US) may be indicated after a DRE if there is evidence of raised creatinine or urinary retention, to identify evidence of reflux nephropathy.
Creatinine (Cr) is useful to investigate for acute or chronic renal impairment, which is a complication of BPH due to chronic urinary retention causing reflux nephropathy. However, it is not the most appropriate initial investigation.
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is useful, in combination with DRE, to rule out malignancy as the cause of symptoms. However, PSA levels can be raised due to many reasons, so it is important to avoid recent ejaculation, heavy exercise, or a recent DRE before taking the test.
Urine culture is useful to rule out a urinary tract infection (UTI) as the cause of symptoms. However, it is not the most likely cause for BPH symptoms. Urine culture would be appropriate if the patient had more symptoms of a UTI, such as dysuria, fever, or abdominal pain.
Overall, a combination of investigations may be necessary to diagnose and manage BPH effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his right flank, nephrotic syndrome, elevated blood urea, collateral abdominal veins, and gross haematuria. During the examination, a mass is detected in the right lumbar region. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)
Correct Answer: Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Clinical Features of Renal-Cell Carcinoma
Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC) is a highly vascular tumor that can obstruct the renal veins. The classic triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass is present in this case, which is suggestive of RCC. However, other conditions may also present with similar clinical features.
Renal papillary necrosis may cause flank pain and haematuria, but an abdominal mass would be unlikely. Polyarteritis nodosa can cause renal failure, hypertension, or both, but a renal mass would not be present, and frank haematuria would be unusual.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is characterized by loin pain and hypertension, with enlarged and palpable kidneys bilaterally. Renal amyloidosis is most likely to present as nephrotic syndrome, but it would be unlikely to cause flank pain or a renal mass.
Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat patients presenting with clinical features of RCC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies experiencing any urgency or abdominal pain, and her urine dipstick test is unremarkable. The patient has already attempted physiotherapy and received lifestyle recommendations, but she has declined surgical intervention at this time.
What is the optimal course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Solifenacin
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:It appears that this woman is experiencing stress incontinence, but there are no signs of urgency. She has already attempted to address the issue through lifestyle changes and pelvic floor muscle training, but is not interested in being referred to a specialist at this time. As an alternative, duloxetine may be worth trying. For urinary urgency, medications such as oxybutynin, solifenacin, and tolterodine can be used. However, amitriptyline is not effective for stress incontinence.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with stable chronic renal impairment has routine blood tests and urine testing for proteinuria. The results show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 42 ml/min/1.73m2 and an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 1.3 mg/mmol.
According to NICE guidance, select the optimal clinical blood pressure in this patient.Your Answer: < 130/70 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Managing Blood Pressure in Chronic Kidney Disease Patients
According to NICE guidance, patients with chronic kidney disease should aim for a target blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or less if they do not have proteinuria. However, if they have an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, the target should be 130/80 mmHg or less.
For those with chronic kidney disease and diabetes with an ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more, or hypertension with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, or an ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more (regardless of hypertension or cardiovascular disease), an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should be used.
It is important to note that microalbuminuria is defined as an ACR > 2.5 mg/mmol (men) or > 3.5 mg/mmol (women), while proteinuria is defined as an ACR > 30 mg/mmol. Without knowing if the patient is hypertensive, it is unclear if they meet the criteria for medication use. Proper management of blood pressure is crucial in the care of patients with chronic kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman visits the clinic having experienced stress urinary incontinence for 2 years. She visited you for the first time 8 months ago and after a thorough evaluation, you recommended lifestyle modifications and referred her for a 3-month supervised pelvic floor muscle training (PFMT) trial.
She returns to your clinic and reports that her symptoms persist. She declines surgical intervention and requests medication instead.
What is the most suitable medication to suggest?Your Answer: Darifenacin
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Patients with stress incontinence who do not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuse surgical intervention may be prescribed duloxetine as a second-line treatment, according to NICE guidelines. If conservative treatments fail or the patient desires further management, referral to a urogynaecologist, gynaecologist, or urologist for assessment and surgical management may be considered. For urgency incontinence, anticholinergic drugs such as darifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine are typically used as first-line treatments, while mirabegron may be prescribed if antimuscarinic drugs are ineffective, not tolerated, or contraindicated.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical department complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 4 months.
Upon examination, the left scrotum is visibly enlarged and transilluminates. The swelling is soft to the touch and doesn't cause any pain. The testis cannot be fully palpated due to the presence of fluid.
What would be the most suitable next step to take?Your Answer: Provide reassurance
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Even though the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient later would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound confirms the absence of malignancy. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. Although a unilateral hydrocele can be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the first-line investigation in this scenario. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.
A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are caused by the patency of the processus vaginalis, which allows peritoneal fluid to drain down into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.
The features of a hydrocele include a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum, and it can be transilluminated with a pen torch. The testis may be difficult to palpate if the hydrocele is large. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.
Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation (e.g. ultrasound) is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with painless blood staining of the semen upon ejaculation. He reports no recent unprotected sexual intercourse and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Prostate cancer
Correct Answer: Idiopathic and self-limiting
Explanation:Understanding Haematospermia: Causes and Symptoms
Haematospermia, the presence of blood in the ejaculate, is a common and usually benign symptom that can affect men of any age. In about 50% of cases, the cause is unknown and the symptom is self-limiting. However, further investigation may be necessary for men over 40 or those with accompanying symptoms such as perineal pain or abnormal examination findings.
Other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, epididymitis, hypertension, and prostate cancer, can also cause haematospermia. However, these conditions are usually accompanied by other symptoms such as dysuria, testicular pain, urinary symptoms, penile discharge, headaches, visual disturbance, or are unlikely in a 35-year-old man without any other symptoms.
It is important to seek medical attention if haematospermia persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old-man presents to his General Practitioner very anxious as he has noticed blood in his urine that morning. For the past three days, he has been experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort, increased urinary frequency and mild dysuria. He is usually fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications. He is afebrile and normotensive. Urine dipstick is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Send a routine nephrology referral
Correct Answer: Prescribe antibiotics and advise him to return if no improvement in symptoms within 48 hours
Explanation:If a patient presents with symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to prescribe antibiotics and advise them to return if their symptoms do not improve within 48 hours. A routine nephrology referral is not necessary in this case, as the patient’s haematuria can be explained by the UTI. However, if a patient has unexplained visible haematuria, urgent urological investigations should be conducted. It is not advisable to book an urgent blood test for prostate-specific antigen until after the UTI has been treated, unless there is a strong suspicion of prostate cancer. According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotics should be started immediately for men with typical UTI symptoms, and urine culture should be sent away for analysis. If visible haematuria persists or recurs after successful treatment of the UTI, an urgent suspected cancer referral should be sent. In men over 45 years old, a 2-week-wait referral should be considered in the absence of UTI symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man goes for a routine medical check-up before starting a new job. He has no complaints, and his physical examination is unremarkable. Blood tests are ordered, and all the results are normal except for:
Uric acid 0.66 mmol/l (0.18-0.48 mmol/l)
After reading about gout online, the patient is concerned about his risk. What treatment should be started based on this finding?Your Answer: Probenecid
Correct Answer: No treatment
Explanation:NICE doesn’t recommend treating asymptomatic hyperuricaemia to prevent gout. While high levels of serum uric acid are associated with gout, it is possible to have hyperuricaemia without experiencing any symptoms. Primary prevention of gout in such cases has been found to be neither cost-effective nor beneficial to patients. Instead, lifestyle changes such as reducing consumption of red meat, alcohol, and sugar can help lower uric acid levels without the need for medication. The other options listed are only indicated for the treatment of gout when symptoms are present.
Understanding Hyperuricaemia
Hyperuricaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of uric acid in the blood. This can be caused by an increase in cell turnover or a decrease in the excretion of uric acid by the kidneys. While some individuals with hyperuricaemia may not experience any symptoms, it can be associated with other health conditions such as hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and the metabolic syndrome.
There are several factors that can contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia. Increased synthesis of uric acid can occur in conditions such as Lesch-Nyhan disease, myeloproliferative disorders, and with a diet rich in purines. On the other hand, decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by drugs like low-dose aspirin, diuretics, and pyrazinamide, as well as pre-eclampsia, alcohol consumption, renal failure, and lead exposure.
It is important to understand the underlying causes of hyperuricaemia in order to properly manage and treat the condition. Regular monitoring of uric acid levels and addressing any contributing factors can help prevent complications such as gout and kidney stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 65
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a history of stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD) attends his annual check-up with his General Practitioner. He reports feeling well.
During the examination, his haemoglobin (Hb) level is measured at 107 g/l (normal range: 125–165 g/l), and his mean cell volume (MCV) is 86 fl (normal range: 80–100 fl). Iron studies come back normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer the patient to nephrology for erythropoietin consideration
Explanation:Management of Renal Anaemia in CKD Patients
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and anaemia may require referral to nephrology for erythropoietin treatment if their hemoglobin (Hb) levels are below 110 g/l or if they experience symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, lethargy, and palpitations. Other causes of anaemia should be ruled out before considering erythropoiesis-stimulating agents to maintain Hb levels between 100-120 g/l in adults. Endoscopy may be necessary in cases of iron-deficiency anaemia, but not in normocytic anaemia with normal iron studies. Iron-replacement therapy is not required in this case. Referral to nephrology is necessary for patients with CKD and renal anaemia, diagnosed when Hb levels drop below 110 g/l. Waiting for Hb levels to drop below 10.0 g/dl before referral is not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with liver failure underwent successful transplantation 3 months ago. He has now developed progressive renal failure.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Ciclosporin
Explanation:Immunosuppressive Therapy for Liver Transplant Rejection: Drugs and Potential Side Effects
Liver transplant rejection can be prevented through a combination of drugs, including a calcineurin inhibitor, steroids, and azathioprine. Subsequent immunosuppression may involve tacrolimus or ciclosporin alone, or dual therapy with either azathioprine or mycophenolate. However, these drugs can also cause various side effects.
Ciclosporin toxicity, for instance, can lead to chronic renal failure in patients who have received different types of allografts. It may also cause a dose-dependent increase in serum creatinine and urea, which may require dose reduction or discontinuation. Azathioprine can cause blood dyscrasias and liver impairment, while mycophenolate mofetil can cause hypogammaglobulinaemia, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Prednisolone, on the other hand, doesn’t affect renal function.
It is important to monitor patients for potential side effects and adjust the dosage or switch to alternative drugs as needed. Additionally, it is unlikely that perioperative causes of renal dysfunction will be significant three months after surgery. About 10-20% of patients taking tacrolimus may develop calcineurin inhibitor-related renal impairment five years after transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 67
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman takes lithium for bipolar disorder. She presents with symptoms of polyuria, nocturia, and polydipsia, and her family is concerned about her confusion. They suspect diabetes, but her random blood glucose measurement is within the normal range. Her urine has a low specific gravity, and further tests reveal high plasma osmolality and low urine osmolality.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified as either cranial or nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is caused by head injury or pituitary disease, which leads to reduced production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). On the other hand, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by renal insensitivity to ADH, which can be acquired due to renal disease, drugs (such as lithium), or metabolic abnormalities (such as hypercalcaemia). There is also a congenital variety of diabetes insipidus.
The typical symptoms of diabetes insipidus include polyuria and polydipsia, which can lead to confusion if there is coexistent hypernatraemia. Paired urine and serum osmolality tests can show inappropriately low urine osmolality, and in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, plasma ADH is normal or elevated.
Treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus involves the use of desmopressin or chlorpropamide, along with addressing the underlying cause where appropriate. In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, high doses of desmopressin are needed, and a combination of a thiazide diuretic and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent is usually more effective.
It is important to note that patients who have been treated long-term with lithium salts for mood disorders have a higher prevalence of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (about 10%). Therefore, it is crucial to monitor these patients for this condition. Once it is established in a patient on lithium, it may not improve even after the drug is stopped, so early recognition is key.
In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for diabetes insipidus is crucial for proper management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Linda, who is experiencing symptoms of stress incontinence, has recently quit smoking and is making efforts to lose weight. She has done some research on pelvic floor muscles and is seeking your advice on how often she should exercise them. What frequency of pelvic floor muscle exercises would you recommend for Linda?
Your Answer: 8 contractions minimum up to 2 times a day
Correct Answer: 8 contractions minimum up to 3 times a day
Explanation:Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female with a history of Crohn's disease comes in with right flank pain that extends to her groin. Upon urinalysis, there is evidence of non-visible blood in the urine. What is the probable underlying biochemical anomaly?
Your Answer: Hyperuricaemia
Correct Answer: Hyperoxaluria
Explanation:Enteric Hyperoxaluria and Renal Stones
Patients who suffer from chronic diarrhoeal illnesses like ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are at risk of developing enteric hyperoxaluria. This condition leads to an increased risk of developing renal stones. The high levels of oxalate in the body are due to increased absorption of oxalate. This can be a serious complication for patients with chronic diarrhoeal illnesses and requires careful management to prevent the development of renal stones. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients with these conditions closely and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy. He has no other significant medical history and is not taking any other medications.
How should his bone density be managed in light of this treatment?Your Answer: Start vitamin D supplementation
Correct Answer: Formally assess his fracture risk to determine the need for further investigation and treatment for osteoporosis
Explanation:Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Men with Prostate Cancer
Osteoporosis is a potential risk for men undergoing hormonal androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer. While bisphosphonates are not routinely recommended, assessing fracture risk can guide the need for investigation and treatment. Bisphosphonates may be offered to men with confirmed osteoporosis, while denosumab can be used if bisphosphonates are not an option. However, a confirmed diagnosis of osteoporosis is necessary before treatment can be prescribed. Lifestyle advice is important, but it is not a substitute for fracture risk assessment and further investigation, such as a DEXA scan, may be necessary. By managing osteoporosis risk, men with prostate cancer can reduce the likelihood of fractures and maintain their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner with complaints of painful urination and left knee pain. He had experienced a severe episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. What could be the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis, and this patient exhibits two of these classic symptoms.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
This condition is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection where the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease.
The arthritis associated with reactive arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis. Other symptoms include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles).
To remember the symptoms associated with reactive arthritis, the phrase can’t see, pee, or climb a tree is often used. It is important to note that the term Reiter’s syndrome is no longer used due to the fact that the eponym was named after a member of the Nazi party. Understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of haematospermia over the past few weeks. He denies any urinary symptoms or pain and reports no other unusual bleeding. He is generally healthy and not on any regular medications.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Haemophilia A
Correct Answer: Chlamydial infection
Explanation:Causes of Haematospermia in a Young Adult
Haematospermia, the presence of blood in semen, can be a distressing symptom for men. In those under 40 years of age, infections are the most common cause, with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as chlamydia being a likely culprit, especially in the absence of urinary symptoms. Haemophilia A, a genetic disorder that affects blood clotting, is unlikely to present with haematospermia as the first symptom, especially in a young adult. Malignant hypertension, a rare and severe form of high blood pressure, can cause end-organ damage but is an unusual cause of haematospermia. Prostate cancer, which is more common in older men, can also cause haematospermia, but is usually associated with urinary symptoms and erectile dysfunction. Prostatitis, an inflammation of the prostate gland, can cause haematospermia and other symptoms such as pain and fever, but is less common than UTIs or STIs. A thorough medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help identify the underlying cause of haematospermia and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is experiencing depression. She has early morning waking, low mood, and no energy. She has lost interest in all her usual activities and feels like giving up. Additionally, she has a history of stress incontinence. Which medication can effectively treat both her depression and stress incontinence?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Depression and Stress Incontinence
Duloxetine is a medication that can be used to treat both depression and stress incontinence. It may be the best choice for patients who do not want or are not suitable for surgical treatment. However, before considering drug treatment, it is recommended that patients undertake at least three months of pelvic floor exercises. This can help improve symptoms and reduce the need for medication.
It is important to counsel patients about the potential adverse effects of duloxetine, which may include nausea, dry mouth, and constipation. Patients should also be advised to report any unusual symptoms or side effects to their healthcare provider. With proper management and monitoring, duloxetine can be an effective treatment option for depression and stress incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with Parkinson’s disease has a serum creatinine of 746 μmol/l (60-120 μmol/l). He was known to have normal renal function two years previously. On examination, he has evidence of rigidity, resting tremor and postural instability. He appears to have bilateral small pupils. He has a postural BP drop from 160/72 mm/Hg when supine to 138/60 mmHg when standing. Ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis and a full bladder.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of obstructive renal failure in this patient?Your Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy
Correct Answer: Neurogenic bladder
Explanation:Neurogenic Bladder and Other Causes of Obstructive Renal Failure in Parkinson’s Disease
Parkinson’s disease is often associated with autonomic dysfunction, which can lead to bladder problems such as urgency, frequency, nocturia, and incontinence. In some cases, these symptoms may be mistaken for benign prostatic hypertrophy, but it is important to consider the possibility of neurogenic bladder when risk factors are present. Multichannel urodynamic studies can help confirm the diagnosis and prevent complications such as post-prostatectomy incontinence. Other potential causes of obstructive renal failure in Parkinson’s disease include retroperitoneal fibrosis and renal papillary necrosis, which are rare but serious conditions that require prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman with a catheter in place visits your clinic with complaints of offensive-smelling urine and suprapubic pain. She mentions having experienced similar symptoms during a previous urinary tract infection. The patient seems to be in considerable discomfort at present.
What would be the best course of action to take?Your Answer: Topical antibiotics applied to the catheter
Correct Answer: Treat with a 7 day course of antibiotics based on previous sensitivities (if available) and send another sample for culture today
Explanation:Research suggests that catheterised patients with a UTI experience better outcomes when treated with a 7-day course of antibiotics instead of a 3-day course. In cases where a patient has mild symptoms, it may be appropriate to wait for a culture before administering treatment. However, if a patient is experiencing significant discomfort, delaying treatment is not recommended. A history of only one previous UTI is not sufficient reason to refer a patient to urology. At present, there is no recommendation for the use of topical antibiotics in catheterised patients with UTIs.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic with complaints of increased urgency to urinate and frequent leakage of urine. A urinary dipstick test shows no abnormalities, and a vaginal examination is unremarkable. Malignancy is not suspected. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient's urgency urinary incontinence?
Your Answer: Refer to a specialist for botulin injections
Correct Answer: Bladder retraining
Explanation:The initial treatment for urge incontinence is bladder retraining, while pelvic floor muscle training is the first-line approach for stress incontinence. Toileting aids alone are not effective in resolving urge incontinence and should not be recommended as the primary treatment. Oxybutynin and botulin injections may be considered as secondary treatment options if necessary.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 77
Correct
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A 68-year-old man has a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate confirmed by biopsy. His PSA is 25 ng/ml (normal range < 5 ng/ml in over 60s). The biopsy showed a Gleason score of 6 (range 2 - 10) and confirmed that the tumour is confined to the prostate. His general health is otherwise good, and he was asymptomatic at diagnosis. His father was also diagnosed with prostate cancer at a similar age.
Which of the following is most likely to signify a high-risk prostate cancer?Your Answer: Prostate specific antigen >20 ng/mL
Explanation:Understanding Prostate Cancer Risk Factors
Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and risk stratification is important for determining appropriate treatment. The three main factors that contribute to risk stratification are prostate-specific antigen (PSA), Gleason score, and cancer stage. A PSA level of over 20 ng/mL signifies high-risk disease. The Gleason score estimates the grade of prostate cancer based on its differentiation, with a score of 8-10 indicating high-risk disease. Cancer stage is also important, with T2c indicating high-risk disease. Lower urinary symptoms and family history of prostate cancer are not significant determinants of risk. It is important to understand these risk factors in order to make informed decisions about prostate cancer treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man undergoes renal function testing and obtains an eGFR result of 54 ml/min. What is the most probable factor that accounts for this lower-than-expected outcome?
Your Answer: Being very tall
Correct Answer: Large muscle mass secondary to body building
Explanation:Individuals with extreme muscle mass, such as body builders, may frequently receive an inaccurate eGFR result, which may indicate a lower than expected value.
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.
CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 79
Correct
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A 65 year-old man visits your clinic following a blood test that revealed an elevated prostate specific antigen (PSA) level. He inquires if this indicates the presence of cancer. Can you provide an estimate of the proportion of men with an elevated PSA who have prostate cancer?
Your Answer: 1-Mar
Explanation:The PSA blood test is used to screen for prostate cancer, but it lacks specificity as only one-third of patients with elevated levels are actually diagnosed with the disease. Therefore, it is crucial to inform patients about this before they undergo the test.
PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.
The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.
PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has been diagnosed with autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). He underwent screening after his brother was recently diagnosed with the condition. He is currently otherwise well with no other medical issues.
Which extra-renal complication of ADPKD is this patient most likely to develop?Your Answer: Male infertility
Correct Answer: Hepatic cysts
Explanation:Extra-renal Complications of ADPKD
ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the development of cysts in the kidneys. However, it can also lead to the formation of cysts in other organs, resulting in various extra-renal complications.
Hepatic cysts are the most common extra-renal complication, occurring in 80% of patients. While they are more prevalent in women, they are also common in men. Most cases of polycystic liver disease are asymptomatic, but symptoms can arise from the mass effect or complications of the cyst.
Seminal vesicle cysts are also common in patients with ADPKD, but they rarely result in male infertility. On the other hand, cerebral aneurysms occur in 10-20% of patients and can cause cranial nerve palsies or seizures. They are not as common as hepatic cysts.
Pancreatitis is a rare complication that can develop if cysts grow large enough to impact the pancreas. Fortunately, it is unlikely to occur in most patients.
Mitral valve prolapse and aortic incompetence are also associated with ADPKD. Mitral valve prolapse occurs in 25% of patients, making it a common occurrence but not the most likely extra-renal complication that this patient is likely to develop.
In summary, ADPKD can lead to various extra-renal complications, but hepatic cysts and cerebral aneurysms are the most common. Regular monitoring and management of these complications are essential to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy presents with puffy eyes and oedematous legs. Dipstick testing reveals proteinuria and haematuria. After referral a diagnosis of minimal change glomerulonephritis is made.
Select the single most likely outcome in this case.Your Answer: Chronic renal failure within 2 years
Correct Answer: Complete recovery
Explanation:Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis: A Common Cause of Nephrotic Syndrome in Children
Minimal change glomerulonephritis is a pathological classification that accounts for 90% of cases of nephrotic syndrome in children and about 20% of cases in adults. It is characterized by normal renal function, normal blood pressure, and normal complement levels, but an increased risk of infections, especially urinary tract infections and pneumococcal infections. The condition usually presents in children aged between 2 and 4 years and is associated with atopy in children and underlying Hodgkin’s disease in adults.
Light microscopy is normal in minimal change glomerulonephritis, but electron microscopy shows widespread fusion of the epithelial cell foot processes on the outside of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence is usually negative. The disease usually responds to a course of high-dose prednisolone, but relapse is frequent. Relapsing disease may go into remission following treatment with prednisolone and cyclophosphamide or ciclosporin. One-third of patients have one episode, one-third occasional relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood. However, minimal change glomerulonephritis doesn’t progress to chronic renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his GP for a new-patient screen. His only previous complaints have been type-2 diabetes and mild long-standing back pain. Screening tests reveal an elevated serum creatinine of 215 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and anaemia with Hb of 101 g/d (135-175 g/L). He has marked proteinuria. An X-ray shows collapse of the lumbar spine and there is a monoclonal band on serum protein electrophoresis.
Select the most likely cause of his abnormal renal function.Your Answer: Metformin toxicity
Correct Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Understanding Amyloidosis: Causes, Symptoms, and Prognosis
Amyloidosis is a group of conditions characterized by the abnormal deposition of amyloid proteins in organs or tissues, leading to damage. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 60 and 70 years. In most cases, amyloidosis is caused by light-chain deposition from a myeloma, as evidenced by a monoclonal band on electrophoresis and lumbar spine collapse. Symptoms of generalized amyloidosis include fatigue, dyspnea, diarrhea, macroglossia, hepatomegaly, and weight loss. Cardiac involvement may result in a restrictive picture with right-sided heart failure and jugular venous distension. Renal amyloidosis can lead to the development of the nephrotic syndrome.
Apart from myeloma, other causes of amyloidosis include hereditary forms such as familial Mediterranean fever, and those related to chronic disease, infection, or malignancy, such as rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis, and renal cell carcinoma. Amyloidosis associated with myeloma has a very poor prognosis, with less than 1-year survival. In contrast, familial forms are associated with much better outcomes, with a prognosis of up to 10-15 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 8-year-old girl presents generally unwell, with reduced volumes of smoky-coloured urine.
She had a sore throat two weeks previously. Immunisations up to date. There is no FH/SH of note.
On examination her temperature is 37.6°C. She looks quiet and unwell, with slight periorbital oedema. Respiratory rate 15/min, pulse 90/min, blood pressure is 130/100 mmHg. Her JVP is elevated and she has tenderness in both loins.
Urine dipstick show 3+ haematuria and 3+ proteinuria. Red cell casts are seen on urine microscopy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection
Explanation:Understanding Nephritis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Nephritis, also known as acute nephritic syndrome, is a condition characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, and oedema with elevated blood pressure. In most cases, the antecedent throat infection makes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis the most likely cause. While blood tests such as ASOT may be useful in confirming the diagnosis, the clinical picture is usually clear.
The severity of nephritis varies from transient asymptomatic haematuria to severe nephritis with acute renal and heart failure. Treatment is supportive, with close attention to fluid balance. Penicillin is often prescribed, but it may not influence the disease course or spread to family members. Fortunately, 95% of patients recover completely.
In some cases, uraemia may accompany oliguria, but the clinical and dipstick findings are usually enough for a presumptive diagnosis. In children, the prognosis is excellent, with complete recovery in the vast majority of cases. Fewer than 1% of children experience elevated creatinine levels 10-15 years after an episode.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of nephritis is crucial for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old gentleman who is being investigated for subfertility. His semen analysis result shows a mild oligozoospermia.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Repeat test in 4 weeks along with an antisperm antibody test
Correct Answer: Repeat test in 12 weeks
Explanation:Repeat Confirmatory Semen Analysis and Other Fertility Advice
According to NICE, it is recommended to repeat confirmatory semen analysis after 3 months (12 weeks) from the initial test. This is to allow the cycle of spermatozoa to be completed. However, if there is a significant deficiency in spermatozoa, a repeat test should be taken as early as possible.
While it is known that elevated scrotal temperatures can reduce semen quality, it is uncertain whether wearing loose-fitting underwear can improve fertility. Nevertheless, it is still advisable to wear looser underwear while trying to conceive.
Screening for antisperm antibodies is not recommended as there is no effective treatment to improve fertility. The significance of these antibodies is still unclear.
Overall, these recommendations can help couples who are trying to conceive to take practical steps towards improving their fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results of a 75-year-old man. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his results are as follows:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 92 µmol/l
You look back through his notes and see that he had blood taken as part of his annual review two weeks ago when his eGFR was at 58 (mL/min/1.73 m2). These current blood tests are a repeat organised by another doctor.
He takes 10 mg of Lisinopril for hypertension but he has no other past medical history.
You plan to have a telephone conversation with him regarding his renal function.
What is the correct information to give this man?Your Answer: This lady has chronic kidney disease (CKD), she needs no further tests to diagnose it
Correct Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 90 days you can then diagnose CKD
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where there is an abnormality in kidney function or structure that lasts for more than three months and has implications for health. Diagnosis of CKD requires an eGFR of less than 60 on at least two occasions, separated by a minimum of 90 days. CKD can range from mild to end-stage renal disease, with associated protein and/or blood leakage into the urine. Common causes of CKD include diabetes, hypertension, nephrotoxic drugs, obstructive kidney disease, and multi-system diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment of CKD aim to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to end-stage renal disease. Testing for CKD involves measuring creatinine levels in the blood, sending an early morning urine sample for albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) measurement, and dipping the urine for haematuria. CKD is diagnosed when tests persistently show a reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. This requires an eGFR persistently less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and/or ACR persistently greater than 3 mg/mmol. To confirm the diagnosis of CKD, a repeat blood test is necessary at least 90 days after the first one. For instance, a lady needs to provide an early morning urine sample for haematuria dipping and ACR measurement, and another blood test after 90 days to confirm CKD diagnosis.
Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man undergoes routine blood tests at his General Practice Surgery. These reveal an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 64 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min).
A repeat test three months later gives an eGFR result of 62 ml/min. A urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.5 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol). He is otherwise well with no symptoms.
What is the most appropriate interpretation of these results?Your Answer: CKD stage 2
Correct Answer: No CKD
Explanation:Understanding eGFR Results and CKD Stages
When interpreting eGFR results, it is important to consider other markers of kidney damage such as albuminuria. An eGFR of 60-89 ml/min is considered mild and not indicative of CKD in the absence of albuminuria.
A sustained reduction in eGFR over three months is not indicative of acute kidney injury, which typically involves a sudden and drastic reduction in eGFR.
CKD stage 1 is diagnosed when eGFR is >90 ml/min and there is proteinuria (urine ACR >3 mg/mmol). This patient’s eGFR result of 62 ml/min and ACR of 2.5 mg/mmol doesn’t meet these criteria.
CKD stage 2 is diagnosed when eGFR is 60-89 ml/min and ACR is >3 mg/mmol. While the patient’s eGFR result fits this criteria, the sustained drop and normal ACR exclude this diagnosis.
CKD stage 3a is diagnosed when eGFR is 45-59 ml/min with or without other markers of kidney damage. This patient doesn’t meet this diagnostic marker.
In summary, understanding eGFR results and other markers of kidney damage is crucial in determining CKD stages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 87
Correct
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A 72-year-old lady presents with urinary incontinence. Her history appears to be consistent with stress incontinence. She describes large leaks of urine over the past six months. She often leaks urine when coughing or climbing up stairs and sometimes wakes up a few times at night to urinate. She doesn't complain of dysuria or haematuria. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender and urinalysis is normal. Her BMI is 25.1 and she doesn't smoke. She has tried pelvic floor exercises for 9 months which haven't worked. She is not keen on surgery.
What medication is licensed for urinary stress incontinence in this patient?Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence
Urinary stress incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine intake, maintaining steady fluid intake, losing weight, and quitting smoking. Pelvic floor exercises can also be helpful. If these measures are not effective, surgical options may be considered. Duloxetine can be used as a second-line treatment if the patient prefers medical grounds or if surgery is not an option. For urge incontinence, first-line medications include solifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine. Desmopressin is used for conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and haemophilia and von Willebrand’s disease. By following these treatment options, patients can manage their urinary incontinence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 88
Correct
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A 57-year-old man with type-2 diabetes had a serum creatinine concentration of 250 µmol/l (50-110) before admission to hospital for radiographic investigation including intravenous contrast medium visualisation. Two days after discharge home his creatinine concentration is now 470 µmol/l and he has only passed small amounts of urine.
Select from the list the single most correct option.Your Answer: He has acute tubular necrosis
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI) is diagnosed through decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR), increased serum creatinine or cystatin C, or oliguria. AKI is categorized into prerenal, renal, and postrenal. Prerenal AKI occurs when a normally functioning kidney responds to hypoperfusion by decreasing the GFR. Renal AKI refers to a condition where the pathology lies within the kidney itself. Postrenal failure is caused by an obstruction of the urinary tract. The most common cause of AKI in the renal category is acute tubular necrosis (ATN), which is usually due to prolonged ischaemia or nephrotoxins. Contrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is defined as a significant increase in serum creatinine after a radiographic examination using a contrast agent. Preexisting renal insufficiency, preexisting diabetes, and reduced intravascular volume are associated with an increased risk of CIN. Adequate hydration is an important preventative measure. In most cases, renal function returns to normal within 7-14 days of contrast administration. Dialysis is required in less than 1% of patients, with a slightly higher incidence in patients with underlying renal impairment and in those undergoing primary coronary intervention for myocardial infarction. However, in patients with diabetes and pre-existing severe renal failure, the rate of dialysis can be as high as 12%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 64-year-old who has come to you for guidance on vaccinations. She has chronic kidney disease stage 1 and uses salbutamol as needed for her asthma. She wants to know if she is eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. What advice should you give her?
Your Answer: No, he is not eligible as he doesn't have stage 4 chronic kidney disease
Correct Answer: Yes he is eligible as he is aged over 65 years
Explanation:Jason’s eligibility for the vaccine is based on his age of over 65 years, as his chronic kidney disease is not at stage 3, 4 or 5, and he is not using oral steroids for his asthma.
The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.
The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 90
Correct
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A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath over the past few months. He reports no current medication use but mentions experiencing back pain in recent weeks. Upon examination, initial tests show a serum creatinine level of 654 µmol/l (normal range: 60–120 µmol/l). What diagnostic test would be most beneficial in determining a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bence-Jones proteinuria
Explanation:Understanding Laboratory Findings in Renal Failure
Renal failure can be caused by various underlying conditions, and laboratory findings can help identify the specific cause. Bence-Jones proteinuria, the excretion of immunoglobulin light chains, is indicative of multiple myeloma. Other symptoms such as fatigue, breathlessness, and back pain can further support this diagnosis. Anaemia is a common occurrence in renal failure due to decreased erythropoietin production and marrow suppression. Hyperuricaemia, on the other hand, is not associated with any particular underlying cause. Hypocalcaemia is also common in renal failure, but it is typically secondary to decreased renal synthesis of calcitriol and doesn’t indicate a specific cause. Metabolic acidosis occurs in renal failure due to decreased renal acid excretion, but it alone doesn’t help differentiate between potential causes. Understanding these laboratory findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a 6-month history of fatigue and low back pain has an episode of severe loin pain. Physical examination is unremarkable except for pallor. An X-ray of the lower abdomen shows a ureteric calculus, and lytic lesions and osteoporosis in the lumbar vertebrae. Blood urea, serum creatinine, serum calcium and uric acid levels are raised.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Acute pyelonephritis
Correct Answer: Myeloma
Explanation:Distinguishing Features of Myeloma, Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia, Hyperparathyroidism, Acute Pyelonephritis, and Chronic Renal Failure
Myeloma is a type of plasma cell neoplasm that causes diffuse bone marrow infiltration and localized osteolytic deposits. Patients with myeloma often experience anemia, hypercalcemia, and elevated levels of urea, uric acid, and creatinine. Back pain is a common symptom, and long-term hypercalcemia can lead to the formation of calculi.
Chronic myeloid leukemia is characterized by massive splenomegaly, but patients typically have normal levels of urea and creatinine. However, uric acid levels may be elevated.
Hyperparathyroidism is associated with increased bone turnover and elevated serum calcium levels. Subperiosteal resorption, especially on hand X-rays, is a common finding. However, lytic lesions are not typically seen.
Acute pyelonephritis is not suggested by the patient’s history or physical exam findings.
Hypocalcemia is a hallmark of chronic renal failure, but urolithiasis is unlikely in this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral artery disease is prescribed ramipril for newly diagnosed stage 2 hypertension. After 10 days, his repeat U&Es show a decline in renal function. What is the probable cause of this deterioration?
Before starting ramipril, his U&Es were within normal limits, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 3.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine level of 78 µmol/L (55 - 120). However, ten days later, his U&Es showed an increase in urea level to 8.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0) and creatinine level to 128 µmol/L (55 - 120), while his sodium and potassium levels remained stable and his bicarbonate level increased to 26 mmol/L (22 - 29).Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Explanation:If a patient with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis starts taking an ACE inhibitor, they may experience significant renal impairment. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of bilateral renal artery stenosis in patients with risk factors for atherosclerotic vascular disease, especially if they develop hypertension later in life and experience a sudden drop in renal function after starting an ACE inhibitor. This acute decline in renal function is not consistent with chronic kidney conditions like diabetic or hypertensive nephropathy. Glomerulonephritis or pre-renal acute kidney injury from dehydration are unlikely based on the information provided.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes in seeking advice about urinary symptoms and the decision is made to perform a PSA test. He is a regular gym-goer and exercises daily. What is the recommended duration for him to abstain from intense exercise before taking the PSA test?
Your Answer: 48 hours
Correct Answer: 1 week
Explanation:Factors that can affect PSA levels
PSA testing is a common method used to screen for prostate cancer. However, there are several factors that can increase PSA levels, which can lead to false positives and unnecessary biopsies. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of these factors before undergoing a PSA test.
Firstly, men should not have a PSA test if they have an active urinary infection, as this can cause inflammation and increase PSA levels. Additionally, if a man has had a prostate biopsy in the last 6 weeks, this can also cause an increase in PSA levels and should be avoided.
Furthermore, vigorous exercise in the last 48 hours or ejaculation in the last 48 hours can also affect PSA levels. This is because physical activity and sexual activity can cause temporary inflammation in the prostate gland, leading to an increase in PSA levels.
In conclusion, men should be counselled on these factors prior to undergoing a PSA test to ensure accurate results and avoid unnecessary procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria and severe right flank pain. She is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On physical examination, there is tenderness in the right lumbar region, but her abdomen is soft. She has no fever.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Renal calculi
Explanation:Symptoms and Presentations of Various Kidney Conditions
Kidney conditions can present with a variety of symptoms and presentations. Renal colic, caused by the passage of stones into the ureter, is characterized by severe flank pain that radiates to the groin, along with haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Acute pyelonephritis presents with fever, costovertebral angle pain, and nausea/vomiting, while acute glomerulonephritis doesn’t cause severe loin pain. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease can cause chronic loin pain, but it is not as severe as renal colic unless there is a stone present. Renal cell carcinoma may present with haematuria, loin pain, and a flank mass, but the pain is not as severe as in renal colic and pyrexia is only present in a minority of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old male presents to your clinic with complaints of overactive bladder symptoms. After a thorough investigation, you decide to initiate medication for his symptoms. His blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, his pulse is 72 bpm and regular. Urodynamic studies reveal no urinary retention, and recent blood tests show normal renal and liver function. The patient is currently taking medications for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. However, due to his age and medication regimen, you want to avoid prescribing a medication with a high anticholinergic burden. What medication would you consider starting for this patient's overactive bladder symptoms?
Your Answer: Prolifenacin
Correct Answer: Mirabegron
Explanation:Mirabegron, a beta 3 agonist, is recommended by NICE as a second option medication for overactive bladder symptoms, following antimuscarinics. However, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as hypertension (including severe cases) and tachycardia. The other drugs listed are also used for overactive bladder symptoms, but they are anticholinergics.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease is diagnosed.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible for this?
Your Answer: Chloroquine
Correct Answer: Gold
Explanation:Side Effects of Commonly Used Medications
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, oedema, hyperlipidaemia, and hypoalbuminaemia. It can be caused by various primary and secondary glomerular diseases, as well as certain drugs. Some drugs that can cause nephrotic syndrome include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, captopril, lithium, gold, diamorphine, interferon alfa, penicillamine, and probenecid.
Gold, specifically sodium aurothiomalate, is used to treat active progressive rheumatoid arthritis. However, it can cause immune complex nephritis, leading to unexplained proteinuria above 300 mg/l, and blood dyscrasias and gastrointestinal bleeding.
Chloroquine is associated with several side effects, such as visual disturbances, skin reactions, nausea and vomiting, hepatitis, and abdominal pain. However, nephrotic syndrome and renal impairment are not known complications.
Methotrexate can cause various blood dyscrasias and liver toxicity, but nephropathy is a rare complication.
Paracetamol, when used in its oral form, has rare side effects. However, overdose can lead to liver damage, but kidney damage is infrequent.
Prednisolone is associated with numerous side effects, including anxiety, abnormal behavior, cataracts, cognitive impairment, Cushing syndrome, hypertension, increased risk of infection, and weight gain. Renal complications are not commonly associated with prednisolone use.
In summary, while these medications can be effective in treating certain conditions, it is important to be aware of their potential side effects and to monitor for any adverse reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease.
Which complication is most likely to occur?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B
Correct Answer: Nausea and headache
Explanation:Complications of Dialysis: Understanding the Risks and Symptoms
Dialysis is a life-saving treatment for patients with end-stage renal disease, but it is not without its risks and complications. One of the most common side effects of removing too much fluid or removing it too rapidly is hypotension, fatigue, chest pains, leg cramps, nausea, and headaches. These symptoms can persist after treatment and are sometimes referred to as the dialysis hangover or dialysis washout.
Another rare but serious neurological complication is dialysis disequilibrium syndrome, which is characterized by weakness, dizziness, headache, and mental status changes. Hypertension, hyperkalemia, infection, amyloidosis, and malnutrition are other potential complications.
Contrary to popular belief, hyperkalemia is more commonly seen in dialysis patients than hypokalemia. Patients who undergo hemodialysis are also at an increased risk of contracting hepatitis B, but vaccination has significantly reduced the incidence of this complication.
Secondary hyperparathyroidism and associated osteodystrophy have been major causes of morbidity in long-term dialysis patients, but better management of calcium and phosphorus metabolism and the availability of new drugs have improved outcomes. Malnutrition and weight loss are more commonly seen than weight gain, which may be due to loss of amino acids and peptides in the dialysate, sodium restriction, and dialysis-induced hypercatabolism.
In conclusion, understanding the risks and symptoms of dialysis complications is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to ensure the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man, John, reports that his older brother has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer after having his PSA test done as part of the national screening programme. John says that he has had his PSA test today and the results were normal.
When will John's next PSA test be due?Your Answer: 2 years
Correct Answer: 3 years
Explanation:In the UK, breast cancer screening is currently offered to women between the ages of 50 and 70 every three years. However, there are plans to expand this service to include women aged 47 to 73 by the end of 2016. Additionally, women between the ages of 40 and 50 who are at a high risk of developing breast cancer may be offered screening every two years.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth. At 6 months, the testicle is palpable in the inguinal canal, but cannot be brought down into the scrotum.
What is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer: Hormone treatment at 6 months
Correct Answer: Surgery at 6 months
Explanation:Undescended Testicles in Infants: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Undescended testicles, also known as cryptorchidism, is a common condition in male infants where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum. This can lead to potential complications such as infertility and an increased risk of testicular cancer.
The recommended course of action is to refer the infant to paediatric surgery or urology before six months of age. The current recommended timing for surgery is before 12 months of life to preserve the stem cells for subsequent spermatogenesis. However, even with surgical treatment, long-term outcomes remain problematic with impaired fertility and an increased cancer risk.
If one or both testicles are retractile, annual follow-up throughout childhood is advised due to the risk of ascending testis syndrome. Hormone treatment is an option, but it has a lower success rate and more adverse effects compared to surgery.
For cases where a single testis is undescended, a referral to paediatric surgery or urology should be made by six months of age if the testis has not descended. It is important to review the surgical option after 12 months of age.
Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing undescended testicles in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) has transferred to the surgery. He is reviewed in clinic and it is noted that his vaccination history is not up to date. The patient's renal disease is advanced and he says that his renal specialist has been discussing the potential for haemodialysis and eventually transplantation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination regimen for this patient?Your Answer: Hib MenC, Men B Pneumococcal vaccine
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B, influenza and pneumococcal
Explanation:Vaccination Recommendations for Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) are at increased risk of infections due to their compromised immune system. Vaccination is an important preventive measure for these patients. The following vaccines are recommended for patients with CKD:
Hepatitis B, influenza, and Pneumococcal Vaccines
Patients on Renal Replacement Therapy (RRT) or those likely to require RRT in the future should receive the standard series of three doses of hepatitis B vaccine. influenza vaccine should be given annually to all patients with CKD. Patients with CKD 3 or above should be offered two doses of Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) two months apart, followed by a booster dose of PCV every five years.Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B Vaccine
Patients with haemophilia should receive the combination of Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccine.Hib MenC, Men B Pneumococcal Vaccine
Patients with a defective spleen, such as those with sickle cell disease or those who have had or will require splenectomy, should receive this combination vaccine.influenza and Pneumococcal and BCG Vaccine
The BCG vaccine is not recommended for patients with CKD unless they are at increased risk of tuberculosis.It is important to note that immunisation should be given early in the course of progressive renal disease to maximise the chance of immunity. Live vaccines may need to be deferred in severely immunocompromised patients, but the majority of patients with CKD have sufficient immune function to safely receive live vaccines if there is no inactivated form available. Patients should also be monitored for antibody levels and offered booster doses as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation visits the General Practice Surgery with complaints of being unable to pass urine for the past 10 hours. As a result, he has not been drinking fluids and is now dehydrated. Upon examination, you find a tender bladder palpable to his umbilicus and immediately catheterise him. The residual volume is 500 ml. What is the most suitable advice you can provide to this patient regarding his acute retention?
Your Answer: It is nearly always due to prostatic enlargement
Correct Answer: Constipation is the most likely cause
Explanation:Mythbusting Urinary Retention: Common Misconceptions Debunked
Urinary retention is a condition where the bladder is unable to empty completely or at all. However, there are several misconceptions surrounding this condition that need to be debunked.
Firstly, severe constipation can lead to urinary retention and should be considered as a cause. Other common causes include prostatic disease, urethral strictures, pelvic tumors, and medications. It is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.
Secondly, suprapubic catheterization is not always indicated for co-existent urinary tract infections. It is only recommended when transurethral catheterization is not possible.
Thirdly, urinary retention may not always be painful. Chronic retention may not cause pain, and even with acute retention, patients may not always report pain.
Lastly, while benign prostatic hyperplasia is the most common cause of urinary retention in men, there are many other causes, and thorough evaluation is needed to identify and treat the underlying cause. Additionally, urinary retention can occur in both men and women.
In conclusion, it is important to dispel these myths surrounding urinary retention to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 102
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 103
Correct
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You are seeing a 65-year-old man who has come to discuss PSA testing. He plays tennis once a week with a friend who is on medication for his 'waterworks' and has had his PSA tested. He has come as he is not sure whether he would benefit from a PSA test.
He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.
Which of the following is appropriate advice to give regarding PSA testing?Your Answer: For every 25 men identified with prostate cancer following a high PSA test result, subsequent treatment will save one life
Explanation:PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer Screening: Understanding the Limitations
PSA testing for prostate cancer screening is a topic of debate among medical professionals. While some advocate for its use, others are wary of over-treatment and patient harm. One of the main concerns is the limitations of PSA testing in terms of its sensitivity and specificity.
When counseling men about PSA testing, it is important to provide them with understandable statistics and facts. For instance, two-thirds of men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, while 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow- and fast-growing cancers, and many men may have slow-growing cancers that would not have impacted their life expectancy if left undiscovered.
Another point of debate is the frequency of PSA testing. While some patients opt for annual testing, experts suggest that a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.
When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. Overall, it is important to understand the limitations of PSA testing and to weigh the potential benefits and risks before making a decision about screening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 104
Correct
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A 70-year-old male patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and bony metastases. Apart from mild urinary symptoms, he is otherwise well.
The local urology department has asked you to initiate 'hormone manipulation of your choice'.
What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?Your Answer: Any of the below are equally valid
Explanation:Treatment options for metastatic prostate cancer
In the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer, any luteinising hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) analogue can be used, such as goserelin or leuprorelin. However, there is a small risk of tumour flare in patients with metastatic disease, so it is recommended to initiate LHRH analogue therapy with a short-term anti-androgen like bicalutamide or cyproterone acetate. This risk is minimal, but it is considered good practice to take precautions.
Once treatment has been established, three-monthly preparations of LHRH analogues are convenient for both patients and healthcare professionals. Anti-androgen mono-therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is not recommended. It is important to discuss all treatment options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of urinary incontinence. She recently gave birth to her second child through vaginal delivery about two months ago and has resumed exercising. However, she experiences incontinence during aerobics and jogging. On physical examination, she appears healthy with a blood pressure of 120/80 and a BMI of 24 kg/m2. Abdominal examination is normal.
What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer: Refer her for bladder training
Correct Answer: Start treatment with solifenacin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Urinary Incontinence
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects many women. Stress or mixed UI can be treated with supervised pelvic floor muscle training, which should be offered as first-line treatment for at least three months. Bladder training, oxybutynin, or solifenacin are treatments for overactive bladder, while sacral nerve stimulation is used for detrusor overactivity in patients who have failed conservative treatment. Pelvic floor exercises are effective in preventing and treating stress incontinence, and supervised exercises have been shown to improve symptoms post-pregnancy. Electrical stimulation or surgical referral are other options if exercises are ineffective. Urodynamic investigations before initial treatment do not improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a three month history of pain in the perineum, lower urinary tract symptoms, and sexual dysfunction.
MSU is negative and PR is normal other than a tender prostate.
Which one of the following is true with regard to chronic prostatitis?Your Answer: An infective cause is identified in 90% of patients
Correct Answer: It is considered a chronic pelvic pain syndrome in 90% of men
Explanation:Chronic Prostatitis: A Complex Diagnosis
The diagnosis and underlying cause of chronic prostatitis can be challenging to determine. While some experts debate whether it is a chronic pain syndrome, only 10% of cases are caused by infection, and antibiotics are often ineffective in treating the condition. As a result, the term chronic pelvic pain syndrome has been adopted to better reflect the complex nature of this condition. Despite ongoing research, the diagnosis and management of chronic prostatitis remain a challenge for healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 107
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