00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace shows ischaemia of the inferior part of the heart. What is the term that best describes the artery or arterial branch that provides blood supply to the inferior aspect of the heart?

      Your Answer: Left coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular branch

      Explanation:

      Coronary Artery Branches and Circulation Dominance

      The coronary artery is responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscles. It branches out into several smaller arteries, each with a specific area of the heart to supply. Here are some of the main branches of the coronary artery:

      1. Posterior Interventricular Branch: This branch supplies the inferior aspect of the heart, with ischaemic changes presenting in leads II, III and aVF. In 90% of the population, it arises as a branch of the right coronary artery, while in 10%, it arises as a branch of the left coronary artery.

      2. Circumflex Branch: This branch supplies the anterolateral area of the heart.

      3. Left Coronary Artery: This artery gives off two branches – the left anterior descending artery supplying the anteroseptal and anteroapical parts of the heart, and the circumflex artery supplying the anterolateral heart. In 10% of the population, the left coronary artery gives off a left anterior interventricular branch that supplies the inferior part of the heart.

      4. Marginal Branch: This branch is a branch of the right coronary artery supplying the right ventricle.

      5. Right Coronary Artery: This artery branches out into the marginal artery and, in 90% of the population, the posterior interventricular branch. These individuals are said to have a right dominant circulation.

      Understanding the different branches of the coronary artery and the circulation dominance can help in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the most accurate statement regarding the electrocardiograph? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate statement regarding the electrocardiograph?

      Your Answer: A 2-mm ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF, V4 and V5 is consistent with an anterior myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: ST depression and tall R waves in leads V1 and V2 are consistent with a diagnosis of a posterior myocardial infarction

      Explanation:

      Common ECG Findings and Their Significance

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) is a valuable tool in diagnosing various cardiac conditions. Here are some common ECG findings and their significance:

      1. ST depression and tall R waves in leads V1 and V2 are consistent with a diagnosis of a posterior myocardial infarction.

      2. Pneumonia causes low-voltage QRS complexes. This can be caused by the dampening effect of extra layers of fat, fluid, or air between the heart and thoracic wall.

      3. The corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated by Bazett’s formula: QTc = QT interval ÷ square root of the RR interval (in seconds).

      4. A 2-mm ST elevation in leads II, III, aVF, V4, and V5 is consistent with an anterior myocardial infarction. This suggests an inferior lateral infarction, as opposed to just an inferior myocardial infarction.

      5. The S1Q3T3 pattern is seen in up to 20% of patients with a pulmonary embolism. Sinus tachycardia is the most common ECG abnormality seen in patients presenting with pulmonary emboli. Other potential findings include a right ventricular strain pattern, complete and incomplete right bundle branch block (RBBB), and P pulmonale indicating right atrial enlargement.

      Understanding these common ECG findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of various cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP after being discharged from the hospital. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP after being discharged from the hospital. She was admitted three weeks ago due to chest pain and was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. During her hospital stay, she was prescribed several new medications to prevent future cardiac events and is seeking further guidance on her statin dosage. What is the most suitable advice to provide?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin 80 mg od

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg od

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Statin Dose for Secondary Prevention of Coronary Events

      All patients who have had a myocardial infarction should be started on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a beta-blocker, a high-intensity statin, and antiplatelet therapy. Before starting a statin, liver function tests should be checked. The recommended statin dose for secondary prevention, as per NICE guidelines, is atorvastatin 80 mg od. Simvastatin 40 mg od is not the most appropriate drug of choice for secondary prevention, and atorvastatin is preferred due to its reduced incidence of myopathy. While simvastatin 80 mg od is an appropriate high-intensity statin therapy, atorvastatin is still preferred. Atorvastatin 20 mg od and 40 mg od are too low a dose to start with, and the dose may need to be increased to 80 mg in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      169.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A previously healthy 58-year-old man collapsed while playing with his grandchildren. Although he...

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 58-year-old man collapsed while playing with his grandchildren. Although he quickly regained consciousness and became fully alert, his family called an ambulance. The emergency medical team found no abnormalities on the electrocardiogram. Physical examination was unremarkable. However, the patient was admitted to the Coronary Care Unit of the local hospital. During the evening, the patient was noted to have a fast rhythm with a wide complex on his monitor, followed by hypotension and loss of consciousness.
      After electrical cardioversion with 200 watt-seconds of direct current, which one of the following may possible therapy include?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      The patient in the scenario is experiencing a fast rhythm with wide complexes, which is likely ventricular tachycardia (VT). As the patient is unstable, electrical cardioversion was attempted first, as recommended by the Resuscitation Council Guideline. If cardioversion fails and the patient remains unstable, intravenous amiodarone can be used as a loading dose of 300 mg over 10-20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 900 mg/24 hours. Amiodarone is a class III anti-arrhythmic agent that prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential by blocking potassium efflux. Side-effects associated with amiodarone include deranged thyroid and liver function tests, nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, interstitial lung disease, jaundice, and sleep disorders.

      Epinephrine is used in the treatment of acute anaphylaxis and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It acts on adrenergic receptors, causing bronchodilation and vasoconstriction. Side-effects associated with epinephrine include palpitations, arrhythmias, headache, tremor, and hypertension.

      Intravenous propranolol is a non-selective β-adrenergic receptor blocker that has limited use in treating arrhythmias and thyrotoxic crisis. It is contraindicated in patients with severe hypotension, asthma, COPD, bradycardia, sick sinus rhythm, atrioventricular block, and cardiogenic shock. Side-effects associated with propranolol include insomnia, nightmares, nausea, diarrhea, bronchospasm, exacerbation of Raynaud’s, bradycardia, hypotension, and heart block.

      Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside extracted from the plant genus Digitalis, can be used in the treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias and heart failure. However, it is of no use in this scenario as the patient is experiencing a broad complex tachycardia. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic window, and even small changes in dosing can lead to toxicity. Side-effects associated with digoxin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, bradycardia, dizziness, yellow vision, and eosinophilia.

      Diltiazem, a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is normally used for hypertension and prophylaxis and treatment of ang

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      270.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man experiences a myocardial infarction (MI) that results in necrosis of the anterior papillary muscle of the right ventricle, leading to valve prolapse. Which structure is most likely responsible for the prolapse?

      Your Answer: Anterior and septal cusps of the tricuspid valve

      Correct Answer: Anterior and posterior cusps of the tricuspid valve

      Explanation:

      Cusps and Papillary Muscles of the Heart Valves

      The heart valves play a crucial role in regulating blood flow through the heart. The tricuspid and mitral valves are located between the atria and ventricles of the heart. These valves have cusps, which are flaps of tissue that open and close to allow blood to flow in one direction. The papillary muscles, located in the ventricles, attach to the cusps of the valves and help to control their movement.

      Tricuspid Valve:
      The tricuspid valve has three cusps: anterior, posterior, and septal. The anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the anterior and posterior papillary muscles, respectively. The septal cusp is attached to the septal papillary muscle.

      Mitral Valve:
      The mitral valve has two cusps: anterior and posterior. These cusps are not attached to papillary muscles directly, but rather to chordae tendineae, which are thin tendons that connect the cusps to the papillary muscles.

      Understanding the anatomy of the heart valves and their associated papillary muscles is important for diagnosing and treating heart conditions such as valve prolapse or regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with aortic stenosis came for his annual check-up. During the visit, his blood pressure was measured at 110/90 mmHg and his carotid pulse was slow-rising. What is the most severe symptom that indicates a poor prognosis in aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syncope

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Mortality Risk in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion and potentially fatal outcomes. Here are some common symptoms and their associated mortality risks:

      – Syncope: This is a major concern and indicates the need for valve replacement, regardless of valve area.
      – Chest pain: While angina can occur due to reduced diastolic coronary perfusion time and increased left ventricular mass, it is not as significant as syncope in predicting mortality.
      – Cough: Aortic stenosis typically does not cause coughing.
      – Palpitations: Unless confirmed to be non-sustained ventricular tachycardia, palpitations do not increase mortality risk.
      – Orthostatic dizziness: Mild decreased cerebral perfusion can cause dizziness upon standing, but this symptom alone does not confer additional mortality risk.

      It is important to be aware of these symptoms and seek medical attention if they occur, as aortic stenosis can be a life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure....

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 60s is undergoing treatment for high blood pressure. During a dental check-up, his dentist informs him that he has gingival hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Drugs Associated with Gingival Hyperplasia

      Gingival hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to discomfort, difficulty in maintaining oral hygiene, and even tooth loss. There are several drugs that have been associated with this condition, including Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine. These drugs are commonly used to treat various medical conditions, such as epilepsy, organ transplant rejection, and hypertension.

      According to Medscape, drug-induced gingival hyperplasia is a well-known side effect of these medications. The exact mechanism by which these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to their effect on the immune system and the production of collagen in the gums.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing these medications, and to monitor patients for any signs of gingival hyperplasia. Patients who are taking these drugs should also be advised to maintain good oral hygiene and to visit their dentist regularly for check-ups and cleanings.

      In summary, Phenytoin, Ciclosporin, and Nifedipine are drugs that have been associated with gingival hyperplasia. Healthcare providers should be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients accordingly, while patients should maintain good oral hygiene and visit their dentist regularly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath on exertion. On examination, bibasilar wet pulmonary crackles are noted with mild bilateral lower limb pitting oedema. His jugular vein is slightly distended. An S4 sound is audible on cardiac auscultation. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows evidence of left ventricular (LV) hypertrophy. Chest radiography shows bilateral interstitial oedema without cardiomegaly.
      Which one of the following findings is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired LV relaxation – increased LV end-diastolic pressure – normal LV end-systolic volume

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Types of Left Ventricular Dysfunction in Heart Failure

      Left ventricular (LV) dysfunction can result in heart failure, which is a clinical diagnosis that can be caused by systolic or diastolic dysfunction, or both. Diastolic dysfunction is characterized by impaired LV relaxation, resulting in increased LV end-diastolic pressure but normal LV end-systolic volume. This type of dysfunction can be caused by factors such as LV hypertrophy from poorly controlled hypertension. On the other hand, impaired LV contraction results in systolic dysfunction, which is characterized by LV dilation, increased LV end-systolic and end-diastolic volumes, and increased LV end-diastolic pressure. It is important to differentiate between these types of LV dysfunction in order to properly diagnose and manage heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents with bilateral ankle oedema. On examination, the jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated at 7 cm above the sternal angle and there are large V-waves. On auscultation of the heart, a soft pansystolic murmur is audible at the left sternal edge.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Common Heart Murmurs and their Characteristics

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve disorders. Here are some common heart murmurs and their characteristics:

      Tricuspid Regurgitation: This condition leads to an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP) with large V-waves and a pan-systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. Other features include pulsatile hepatomegaly and left parasternal heave.

      Tricuspid Stenosis: Tricuspid stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border.

      Pulmonary Stenosis: Pulmonary stenosis causes an ejection systolic murmur in the second left intercostal space.

      Mitral Regurgitation: Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex, which radiates to the axilla.

      Mitral Stenosis: Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex, and severe cases may have secondary pulmonary hypertension (a cause of tricuspid regurgitation).

      Knowing the characteristics of these murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional if you suspect you may have a heart murmur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a two hour history...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a two hour history of central crushing chest pain. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease and poorly controlled diabetes. The ECG shows ST-elevation in V1, V2 and V3, and her serum troponin levels are elevated. What is the most suitable definitive management approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI)

      ST-Elevation Myocardial Infarction (STEMI) is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention. The diagnosis of STEMI is confirmed through cardiac sounding chest pain and evidence of ST-elevation on the ECG. The primary treatment option for STEMI is immediate revascularization through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) and placement of a cardiac stent.

      Therapeutic alteplase, a thrombolytic agent, used to be a common treatment option for STEMI, but it has been largely replaced by primary PCI due to its superior therapeutic outcomes. Aspirin is routinely given in myocardial infarction, and clopidogrel may also be given, although many centers are now using ticagrelor instead.

      High-flow oxygen and intravenous morphine may be used for adequate analgesia and resuscitation, but the primary treatment remains primary PCI and revascularization. Routine use of high flow oxygen in non-hypoxic patients with an acute coronary syndrome is no longer advocated.

      It is crucial to avoid delaying treatment for STEMI, as it can lead to further deterioration of the patient and increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmia or arrest. Therefore, waiting for troponin results before further management is not an appropriate option. The diagnosis of STEMI can be made through history and ECG findings, and immediate intervention is necessary for optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (1/5) 20%
Passmed