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  • Question 1 - A 79-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of worsening lower urinary tract...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old gentleman comes to the clinic complaining of worsening lower urinary tract symptoms that have been affecting his quality of life for the past three months. He reports experiencing increased hesitancy, weak urine stream, and a feeling of incomplete emptying. Upon examination, his abdomen and genitals appear normal, while a PR exam reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate. His urine dipstick is negative, and his PSA level is 1.3ng/mL. He denies experiencing any weight loss, fevers, or new bone or back pain. He is currently taking tamsulosin to alleviate his symptoms. What is the most appropriate additional medical therapy to offer this patient?

      Your Answer: Alfuzosin

      Correct Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Management of Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms

      Managing lower urinary tract symptoms is a crucial aspect of general practice. It is essential to distinguish between the causes of these symptoms to make the correct management decisions. For obstructive symptoms, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors such as finasteride play a vital role in causing prostatic shrinkage by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, which is an important prostatic growth factor.

      However, alpha blockers such as alfuzosin and doxazosin would not be appropriate choices as they are already present in the form of tamsulosin. On the other hand, antimuscarinic medications like oxybutynin and tolterodine are used in the management of overactive bladder, which is more likely to present with symptoms of urgency and frequency rather than obstructive symptoms.

      In summary, understanding the underlying cause of lower urinary tract symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate management strategy. 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are effective in managing obstructive symptoms, while alpha blockers and antimuscarinic medications are more suitable for other types of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence. She reports frequent urine leakage and a strong urge to urinate that she cannot control. She denies experiencing dysuria or hematuria and has no gastrointestinal symptoms. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen, and urinalysis is normal. The patient drinks seven glasses of water per day and avoids caffeinated beverages. She has a BMI of 20.2 and is a non-smoker. If non-pharmacological interventions fail, what is the first-line medication for her condition?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for Urinary Urge Incontinence

      Urinary urge incontinence is a common condition that can be treated with supervised bladder training for at least six weeks. This training can be provided by a continence nurse, physiotherapist, or urology clinic. If symptoms persist, an Antimuscarinic drug can be prescribed, with the lowest effective dose used and titrated upwards if necessary. It may take up to four weeks for the drug to take effect, and side effects such as dry mouth and constipation may occur. First-line drugs include oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin.

      It is important to note that diuretics such as furosemide can potentially worsen symptoms of urinary urge incontinence. Amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition, as it is primarily used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis. Duloxetine may be used as a second-line treatment for stress incontinence, but it is not included in NICE guidelines for urinary urge incontinence. Desmopressin is typically used for other conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and bleeding disorders.

      In summary, supervised bladder training and Antimuscarinic drugs are effective treatment options for urinary urge incontinence. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three day history of feeling unwell, dysuria, and increased frequency of urination. He denies any macroscopic hematuria. Upon further questioning, he reports having long-standing lower urinary tract symptoms such as weakened urinary stream, hesitancy, urgency, and nocturia for the past year, which have slowly worsened. On examination, he appears well with no abdominal or loin tenderness. Urine dipstick shows nitrites positive and leukocytes+++. A diagnosis of urinary tract infection is made, and he is treated with oral antibiotics. The patient expresses interest in having a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test to evaluate his lower urinary tract symptoms. A digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign-feeling prostate. When would be the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer: Postpone the test for at least four weeks

      Correct Answer: Postpone the test for at least 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, and recent ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if a man has ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the previous 48 hours, the test should also be deferred. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, data suggest that rectal examination has minimal effect on PSA levels.

      In summary, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting PSA test results to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old man presents with sudden onset pain in the left flank radiating...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents with sudden onset pain in the left flank radiating to the left groin and testis. The pain is accompanied by vomiting. You suspect the patient may have ureteric colic.
      Select from the list the single other feature that would support this diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Symptoms are relieved by lying still

      Correct Answer: Haematuria

      Explanation:

      Renal/Ureteric Colic: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Renal/ureteric colic is characterized by sudden and severe pain, often caused by stones. However, in some cases, no obvious cause is found. Unlike biliary or intestinal colic, the pain of renal colic is constant, with periods of relief or dull aches before it returns. The location of the pain changes as the stone moves. Patients with renal colic experience intense pain and may writhe around in agony, while those with peritoneal irritation lie still. Although there may be severe pain in the testis, it should not be tender. Uncomplicated renal colic doesn’t cause fever, which suggests pyelonephritis. Haematuria, often detected only on dipstick testing, is a common symptom.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - What is the probable result after detecting minimal change nephropathy in a 9-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable result after detecting minimal change nephropathy in a 9-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: Chronic kidney disease not requiring renal replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: Full recovery but with later recurrent episode

      Explanation:

      The majority of patients with minimal change glomerulonephritis will experience recurrent episodes later on, with 1/3 having frequent relapses and 1/3 having infrequent relapses. However, it is important to reassure patients that the long-term prognosis is generally favorable.

      Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.

      The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.

      Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man has had a low-grade non-invasive papillary carcinoma completely removed from...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has had a low-grade non-invasive papillary carcinoma completely removed from his bladder by cystoscopy.
      What is the most probable long-term result for this man?

      Your Answer: Tumour recurrence

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Complications and Prognosis of Bladder Cancer

      Bladder cancer is a common malignancy with a high recurrence rate. While superficial tumors have a good prognosis, they are likely to recur even after complete resection. Patients with low-risk cancers can be managed through transurethral resection, while high-risk tumors may require intravesical immunotherapy with Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) to prevent progression to invasive disease. Metastases is less likely in patients with superficial tumors, but recurrent urinary infections may occur in the postoperative period. Urinary retention is not a common long-term complication. Overall, understanding the complications and prognosis of bladder cancer is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and swelling in...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and swelling in his legs. Upon conducting some blood tests, the following results are obtained:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 5.6 mmol/l
      - Urea: 19.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 299 µmol/l

      It is noted that his renal function was normal six months ago. Which of his regular medications should be stopped immediately?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Patients with acute kidney injury or chronic kidney disease should avoid NSAIDs like ibuprofen as they can exacerbate renal impairment.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.

      There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with drowsiness. Upon examination, he appears rigid. His concerned friends suspect neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following is not a typical feature of this condition?

      Renal failure
      16%
      Pyrexia
      5%
      Elevated creatine kinase
      6%
      Usually occurs after prolonged treatment
      68%
      Tachycardia
      5%

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often observed in patients who have just started treatment, and renal failure may result from rhabdomyolysis.

      Your Answer: Pyrexia

      Correct Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who have recently started treatment are commonly affected by neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can lead to renal failure due to rhabdomyolysis.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs for Parkinson’s disease. It can also occur with atypical antipsychotics. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion. A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases.

      Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. IV fluids are given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene may be useful in selected cases. Dantrolene works by decreasing excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle by binding to the ryanodine receptor and decreasing the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, may also be used. It is important to note that neuroleptic malignant syndrome is different from serotonin syndrome, although both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

    Whilst examining himself he noticed...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

      Whilst examining himself he noticed that he had a hard nodule in the shaft of his penis and has been concerned. His erectile function is normal but he is aware of some discomfort in his penis during intercourse.

      On examination you note that he has a firm fibrous nodule in the mid-shaft of his penis with no other abnormalities noted.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Peyronie’s Disease: A Common Condition with Asymptomatic Presentation

      This otherwise healthy man has recently discovered a nodule in the middle of his penis shaft, with no other abnormalities. This finding is suggestive of Peyronie’s disease, a common condition that affects approximately 1-3% of the population. Interestingly, many individuals with Peyronie’s disease are initially unaware of any deviation in their penis, as the condition is often asymptomatic.

      Despite its asymptomatic presentation, Peyronie’s disease can be associated with erectile dysfunction or painful intercourse due to curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly last week and is painful. He has no other relevant past medical history.

      On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like a 'bag of worms' and is above his right testicle. It remains there when he lies down.

      You discuss the fact that you think he has a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer: Varicoceles are not associated with abnormal semen parameters

      Correct Answer: About 90% of varicoceles occur on the left side

      Explanation:

      It is common for men with a varicocele to experience pain or a sensation of heaviness or dragging in the scrotum. However, a varicocele on the right side alone is uncommon and requires referral to a urologist. Additionally, around 25% of men with abnormal semen parameters are found to have a varicocele, and this condition affects 40% of infertile men.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of worsening voiding-predominant...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of worsening voiding-predominant lower urinary tract symptoms for the past year, including poor flow, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. There are no red flag features present. The patient's international prostate symptom score is 15, and prostate examination reveals a slightly enlarged, smooth prostate. Urine dipstick results are normal, and blood tests show normal renal function and a normal prostate-specific antigen level.

      What is the most appropriate class of medication to consider starting for this patient?

      Your Answer: Antimuscarinic medication

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonists

      Explanation:

      For patients with troublesome symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia, alpha-1 antagonists are the first-line medication to consider. This is particularly true for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms, such as the patient in this case who has an IPPS of 15. Alpha-1 agonists like tamsulosin and alfuzosin are recommended for patients with moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms (IPSS ≥ 8) and are likely to provide relief for this patient’s troublesome symptoms.

      However, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are only indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates, which is not the case for this patient. Therefore, they are not currently appropriate for him.

      Antimuscarinic medication is only appropriate if there is a combination of storage and voiding symptoms that persist after treatment with an alpha-blocker. Since this patient only describes voiding symptoms and is not currently on any treatment, this class of medication is not indicated at this time.

      Finally, GnRH analogues are commonly used in prostate cancer treatment, but they were previously investigated as a potential treatment for benign prostatic hypertrophy and found to have a side effect profile that outweighed any clinical improvement. Therefore, they are not appropriate for this patient.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 12 - You see a 60-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 60-year-old man who has right sided scrotal swelling which appeared suddenly 2 weeks ago. He says that it is uncomfortable and painful. He has no other relevant past medical history. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day.

      On examination, he has what feels like a varicocele in his right scrotum. He has a swelling which feels like veins. It is separate from his right testicle and situated above it. The swelling is palpable when standing and lying down.

      You discuss the fact that you think this is a varicocele with the patient. Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer: All left sided varicoceles should have an ultrasound to look for an underlying tumour

      Correct Answer: This patient requires urgent referral to a urologist

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, varicocele is present in approximately 40% of men who are diagnosed with infertility. However, it is not recommended to refer men with a left-sided varicocele for ultrasonography as a routine measure to detect any underlying tumor.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for a check-up. Upon routine examination, he is discovered to have hypertension with a blood pressure of 166/82 mmHg, which is confirmed by two separate readings. His urine dipstick is negative and his renal function is normal. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity may be caused by diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and angiotensin II receptor antagonists. According to the BNF, the combination of lithium with diltiazem or verapamil may increase the risk of neurotoxicity, but there is no significant interaction with amlodipine. Although alpha-blockers are not known to interact with lithium, they are not recommended as the first-line treatment for hypertension. The NICE guidelines for hypertension suggest that amlodipine could be a suitable initial option, even if the patient is taking lithium.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus presents for his annual review. He is currently taking metformin 500 mg twice daily.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/84 mmHg. His glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 63 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol), while his urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 1.2 mg/mmol (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
      What is the most appropriate action to take to minimise his risk of kidney disease?

      Your Answer: Switch to insulin

      Correct Answer: Increase metformin to 1 g twice daily

      Explanation:

      Optimizing Glycemic Control in Type II Diabetes: Treatment Options for Renal Protection

      The prevalence of kidney disease is increasing in those with type II diabetes, making primary prevention crucial. Optimal control of blood glucose and blood pressure are key factors in preventing renal disease. In a patient with normal blood pressure but elevated HbA1c, increasing metformin to optimize glycemic control is appropriate. While ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor antagonists are useful for renoprotection in diabetic patients, they should be reserved for those with evidence of kidney failure. Insulin therapy should also be considered only after trying other oral diabetic medications. Low-protein diets are recommended for patients with established renal disease, but not for those without microalbuminuria. Overall, optimizing glycemic control is the priority in preventing renal disease in type II diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 15 - Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years with no relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination doesn't reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda declines surgical intervention. What is the next most appropriate intervention for her incontinence?

      Your Answer: Tolterodine

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence doesn’t respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and declines surgical intervention, duloxetine may be considered as a treatment option. However, it is important to first rule out other potential causes of urinary incontinence, such as infection. Non-pharmacological management, such as pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, should be attempted before medical management. Duloxetine, a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, is commonly used for stress incontinence but may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are ineffective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due to his goserelin treatment.
      What medication can be prescribed to alleviate this issue?

      Your Answer: Denosumab

      Correct Answer: Medroxyprogesterone acetate

      Explanation:

      Hormone Therapies for Prostate Cancer Management

      Goserelin is a type of hormone therapy used to manage prostate cancer. However, it can cause side-effects such as hot flashes. To address this, medroxyprogesterone acetate can be prescribed at a 20 mg dosage per day for 10 weeks. If this is not effective or not tolerated, cyproterone acetate at 50 mg twice a day for 4 weeks can be considered.

      Denosumab is another treatment option for men on androgen deprivation therapy who have osteoporosis and cannot take bisphosphonates. On the other hand, finasteride is an enzyme inhibitor that is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and androgenic alopecia.

      Prednisolone, on the other hand, has no role in managing hot flashes but can be used in treatment regimens for metastatic prostate cancer. Lastly, tamoxifen is a treatment option for gynaecomastia in men undergoing long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man presents with voiding difficulties. He reports passing urine twice a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with voiding difficulties. He reports passing urine twice a night, hesitancy of stream, and no frequency. He has also experienced a reduced appetite for the past 6 weeks and increased fatigue in the early evening. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft with no masses, but a digital rectal exam reveals a firm, irregularly enlarged prostate with no identifiable median sulcus. A urine dipstick shows the presence of blood and leukocytes. His blood test results are as follows: PSA 4.9 ng/ml; K+ 4.9 (3.5-5.5 mmol/L); Na 134 (135-145 mmol/l); creatinine 107 (60-110 μmol/l); urea 8.6 (2.8 - 8.5 mmol/L); and fasting glucose of 4.9. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Send urine for microscopy culture and sensitivities and treat as UTI

      Correct Answer: Referral to urologist to be seen within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding PSA Testing and Biopsy Risks for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing is a common screening tool for prostate cancer. However, it should not be measured without a digital examination. If the screen is positive, a biopsy may be needed, which carries risks such as infection, haematuria, and haematospermia, as well as a small mortality risk. It’s important to note that about one-third of men with a raised PSA will have prostate cancer, but biopsies can miss about one-fifth of cancers.

      When counselling a man for PSA testing, it’s crucial to explain the potential risks and benefits. Urgent referral is not necessary if the prostate is simply enlarged and the PSA is within the age-specific reference range. The Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme recommends age-specific cut-off PSA measurements, with a threshold of 3.5 ng/ml for men under 50, over 3.5 ng/ml for men aged 50-59, 4.0 ng/ml for men aged 60-69, and clinical judgement for men aged 70 and over.

      Understanding the nuances of PSA testing and biopsy risks can help men make informed decisions about their prostate health.

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  • Question 18 - A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria. She is a heavy smoker and has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. She previously lived in Australia and has used substantial amounts of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis and also phenacetin some years ago. Renal function testing is normal. She has a raised plasma viscosity and is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 100 g/l (115-155).
      Select the most likely diagnosis to fit with this clinical picture.

      Your Answer: Squamous-cell carcinoma of the kidney

      Correct Answer: Transitional-cell carcinoma of the bladder

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer: Risk Factors, Presentation, and Survival Rates

      Bladder cancer is a relatively uncommon malignancy, accounting for around 3% of cancer deaths. It is more prevalent in males, with a male to female ratio of 4:1, and is rare in individuals under 40 years of age. The most common type of bladder cancer is transitional-cell carcinoma.

      Several risk factors have been identified, including smoking, exposure to certain chemicals found in industrial settings, and the use of certain medications such as phenacetin and cyclophosphamide. Chronic inflammation caused by conditions such as schistosomiasis, indwelling catheters, or stones is associated with squamous-cell carcinoma of the bladder.

      The most common presentation of bladder cancer is painless hematuria (blood in the urine), although pain may occur due to clot retention. Women are more likely to have muscle-invasive disease at presentation.

      The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer varies depending on the stage of the disease at diagnosis. Patients with small, early superficial tumors have a survival rate of 80-90%, while those with metastases at presentation have a survival rate of only 5%.

      In conclusion, bladder cancer is a serious condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates.

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  • Question 19 - Which option from the following list is currently considered the least valuable use...

    Incorrect

    • Which option from the following list is currently considered the least valuable use of the prostate specific antigen (PSA) test in clinical practice?

      Your Answer: Follow-up after treatment

      Correct Answer: Screening

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Total PSA Test and Digital Rectal Examination for Prostate Cancer Diagnosis and Monitoring

      Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. The total PSA test and digital rectal examination (DRE) are commonly used to diagnose and monitor prostate cancer. These tests are ordered when a man has symptoms that could be due to prostate cancer, such as obstructive lower urinary symptoms, unexplained low back pain, pelvic pain, or bone pain.

      The PSA level at the time of diagnosis can indicate the tumor burden. A higher PSA level indicates a higher tumor burden in the body. A PSA of < 10 is favorable, while a PSA of > 20 is considered unfavorable. The stage/prognostic grouping of prostate cancer is based on the stage, PSA level, and Gleason score.

      The total PSA test may also be ordered during treatment for men who have been diagnosed with prostate cancer to verify the effectiveness of treatment and at regular intervals after treatment to monitor for cancer recurrence. It is also ordered at regular intervals when a man with cancer is participating in ‘watchful waiting’ and not currently being treated for his prostate cancer.

      Screening for prostate cancer, particularly by the PSA test, is controversial. While it can lead to early detection and treatment of prostate cancer, about 15% of men with a negative PSA test have prostate cancer, and about 65% of men with a positive PSA test have a negative prostate biopsy. A systematic review and meta-analysis of randomized controlled trials found that screening for prostate cancer increases the probability of diagnosis, but there is no statistically significant effect on death rates. The included studies provided little information about the potential harms associated with screening.

      In conclusion, understanding the total PSA test and digital rectal examination is crucial for the diagnosis and monitoring of prostate cancer. While screening for prostate cancer remains controversial, these tests are essential for men with symptoms that could be due to prostate cancer and for those who have been diagnosed with prostate cancer.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man presents with urinary frequency, occasional dysuria, and persistent perineal discomfort....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with urinary frequency, occasional dysuria, and persistent perineal discomfort. Ejaculation is also painful. Symptoms have been present for about 3 months. Before this, he had no history of urinary problems. Examination reveals no pyrexia but a tender prostate. Urine culture is reported as normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prostate Cancer

      Correct Answer: Chronic prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Perineal Pain and Urinary Symptoms in Men

      Chronic prostatitis is a likely cause of perineal pain or discomfort in men that lasts for at least 3 months. This condition may also be accompanied by lower urinary symptoms and sexual dysfunction. Recurrent urinary tract infections or a history of acute prostatitis may indicate chronic bacterial prostatitis. A positive urine culture confirms the presence of bacterial prostatitis, but it may be normal in non-bacterial prostatitis. Prostate cancer is unlikely to cause perineal pain or pain on ejaculation, and the examination findings do not support this option. Acute bacterial prostatitis is a more severe illness with sudden onset, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) doesn’t cause dysuria or prostate tenderness. Cystitis doesn’t affect the prostate and doesn’t explain the patient’s symptoms. Therefore, chronic prostatitis is the most probable diagnosis in this case.

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  • Question 21 - You encounter a 60-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension who reports experiencing erectile...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 60-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension who reports experiencing erectile dysfunction for the past 6 months. After prescribing sildenafil, which provided some relief, you increased the dosage but the patient is now experiencing adverse effects. He is curious about other treatment options available to him through the NHS. What medications can be prescribed for his condition?

      Your Answer: Only generic sildenafil and other phosphodiesterase inhibitors (PDE5)

      Correct Answer: Generic sildenafil, other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Men who have diabetes may be prescribed other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil on the NHS. Generic sildenafil is available without any restrictions on the NHS. However, Viagra®, tadalafil (Cialis®), vardenafil (Levitra®), avanafil (Spedra®), and alprostadil cannot be prescribed on an NHS prescription, except for men who have certain medical conditions or have undergone specific medical procedures. Additionally, specialist centers may prescribe PDE-5 inhibitors on the NHS if the man is experiencing severe distress due to impotence.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 22 - A 40-year-old man comes to see his General Practitioner with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to see his General Practitioner with sudden onset of severe right flank pain that radiates to his groin and vomiting. He has no medical history. During examination, his heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/79 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5 °C. He is well hydrated. A urine dipstick shows microscopic haematuria but nothing else. The doctor suspects renal colic. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe prophylactic antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Management of the patient from home

      Explanation:

      Management of Renal Colic at Home

      When managing a patient with renal colic at home, it is important to ensure that there are no urgent indications for admission, such as signs of sepsis or dehydration. If the patient is well hydrated and responding to analgesia, home treatment may be appropriate. However, urgent renal imaging should be arranged within 24 hours to confirm the diagnosis. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be offered as the first-line analgesic, but if contraindicated, intravenous paracetamol or opioid analgesia can be considered. Antibiotics are not necessary in the absence of infection, and prophylactic use should be avoided. It is important to monitor the patient’s symptoms and seek urgent medical attention if there is any deterioration.

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  • Question 23 - What is the most significant risk factor for prostate cancer among men residing...

    Correct

    • What is the most significant risk factor for prostate cancer among men residing in the UK?

      Your Answer: Selenium consumption

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer Risk Factors: Surprising Findings

      When it comes to prostate cancer risk factors, there are a few surprises to be found. One of the strongest known risk factors for this disease is a family history of prostate cancer, according to Cancer Research UK. However, there are other factors that may not be as expected. For example, diabetes may actually be associated with a lower risk of prostate cancer. Additionally, while obesity and physical inactivity have been linked to many types of cancer, they have not been proven to be significant risk factors for prostate cancer. On the other hand, consuming foods high in leucopene and selenium has been associated with a reduced risk. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the unique risk factors for prostate cancer.

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  • Question 24 - A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition. She has been experiencing these symptoms on and off for several months. Upon urinalysis, microscopic haematuria and 2-3 white cells per high power field are detected, but the urine culture is sterile. What is the most suitable treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Topical oestrogen cream

      Explanation:

      Atrophic Urethritis/Vaginitis in Postmenopausal Women: Symptoms and Treatment

      Postmenopausal women often experience symptoms of atrophic urethritis/vaginitis due to dryness and atrophy of the urethral tissue. This condition can cause discomfort, pain during intercourse, and urinary incontinence. However, topical oestrogen cream can have a dramatic response in improving or curing these symptoms.

      It is important to note that atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is not caused by an infection, so antibiotic therapy or alkalinisation of the urine will not be effective. Corticosteroids are also not helpful in treating this condition.

      In addition to improving urinary incontinence, topical oestrogen may also reduce the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections in postmenopausal women. However, it is important to rule out other underlying pathology before using oestrogen for this indication.

      Overall, atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is a common condition in postmenopausal women, but it can be effectively treated with topical oestrogen cream.

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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old boy presents with a history of poor urinary stream. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with a history of poor urinary stream. He has no other obvious abnormalities.
      Select the single investigation from this list that would be most helpful in this case.

      Your Answer: Excretion urography

      Correct Answer: Micturating cystourethrography

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Urinary Tract Obstruction in Children

      Urinary tract obstruction in children can lead to a poor urinary stream, indicating a blockage in the urinary system. The most common cause of this condition in boys is posterior urethral valves (PUVs), which are folds of urothelium that obstruct the bladder. PUVs can range in severity, from life-threatening to asymptomatic, but can lead to end-stage renal disease in 30% of patients. Vesicoureteric reflux, the backward flow of urine from the bladder into the kidneys, is also common in PUV patients.

      Antenatal ultrasound has increased the diagnosis of PUVs, with most cases recognized during the second and third trimester. Delayed presentation can include urinary infection, enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Neurogenic bladder, caused by a birth defect involving the spinal cord, can also lead to urinary retention, leakage, and infection. Urethral calculi and strictures are less common causes of urinary tract obstruction in children, but should still be considered in the differential diagnosis.

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  • Question 26 - A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic to discuss his recent blood test...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic to discuss his recent blood test results. He was prescribed 2.5 mg of ramipril daily two weeks ago due to his high blood pressure of 154/90 mmHg. Today, his blood pressure is 138/80 mmHg.

      However, his blood test results have changed significantly since his last visit. Two weeks ago, his creatinine level was 50 mmol/l and his potassium level was 4.8 mmol/l. Today, his creatinine level has increased to 106 mmol/l and his potassium level has risen to 5.7 mmol/l.

      What is the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer: Reduce the dose of ramipril and review blood pressure and urea and electrolytes within 1 week

      Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and review blood pressure and urea and electrolytes within 1 week

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s creatinine levels rise above 177 micromol/l or potassium levels rise above 5.5 mmol/l, it is recommended to discontinue the use of ACE inhibitors. Hospital admission on the same day is not necessary in this case. Although the patient’s blood pressure is under control, it is advisable to stop the use of ramipril due to the increase in creatinine and potassium levels. Continuing the use of ramipril would pose a risk to the patient’s health. Similarly, increasing the dosage of ramipril is not recommended.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment one month after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment one month after being prescribed colchicine for his first gout attack. He has fully recovered and has no lingering symptoms. He has no significant medical history except for a resolved AKI after experiencing diarrhea last year. He is not taking any regular medication.

      What is the best course of action for long-term urate-lowering therapy?

      Your Answer: Advise he can continue taking colchicine as long term urate lowering therapy

      Correct Answer: Offer allopurinol today

      Explanation:

      The updated guidelines from the British Society for Rheumatology recommend that urate-lowering therapy should be initiated early after the first episode of gout. Therefore, it is suggested that all patients should be offered this therapy after their initial attack, rather than waiting for further episodes or ongoing symptoms. It is important to note that colchicine cannot be used as a long-term urate-lowering medication on its own. There is no need to wait for a month before starting allopurinol, as long as the acute attack has resolved. Although allopurinol can still be prescribed for patients with renal impairment, caution must be taken with the dosage. Febuxostat should only be considered as a second line medication if allopurinol is not suitable or has not been tolerated by the patient.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man with chronic renal failure has been diagnosed with renal osteodystrophy....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic renal failure has been diagnosed with renal osteodystrophy. A medical student is present and asks for an explanation of the mechanism for this.
      Select the option that most accurately describes the changes involved.

      Your Answer: Phosphate excretion is increased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are increased

      Correct Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Osteodystrophy: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Renal osteodystrophy is a condition that occurs as a result of hyperparathyroidism secondary to hyperphosphatemia combined with hypocalcemia. These conditions are caused by the decreased excretion of phosphate by the damaged kidney. Additionally, low activated vitamin D3 levels are a result of the damaged kidneys’ inability to hydroxylate vitamin D3 into its active form, calcitriol, which results in further hypocalcemia due to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Hyperparathyroidism then leads to increased osteoclastic activity, cyst formation, and bone marrow fibrosis.

      Diagnosis of renal osteodystrophy usually occurs after treatment for end-stage renal disease begins. Blood tests will indicate decreased calcium and calcitriol and increased phosphate and parathyroid hormone. X-rays will also show bone features of renal osteodystrophy, such as chondrocalcinosis at the knees and pubic symphysis, osteopenia, and bone fractures.

      Treatment for renal osteodystrophy involves increasing 25(OH)-vitamin D levels by taking alfacalcidol, which increases endogenous calcitriol production and can effectively suppress parathormone in the early stages of chronic kidney disease. Normal 25(OH)-vitamin D levels also prevent the development of osteomalacia. Gut phosphate binders, such as calcium salts and sevelamer (Renagel®), may help reduce phosphate levels.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment of renal osteodystrophy is crucial for managing this condition effectively. Early detection and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the quality of life for those affected.

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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old diabetic woman is in her seventh year of haemodialysis. She visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old diabetic woman is in her seventh year of haemodialysis. She visits her General Practitioner with symptoms of pain, numbness and tingling in both hands during the early hours of the morning. She also complains of stiffness in her shoulders, hips and knees.
      What diagnosis best fits with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Diabetic neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Dialysis amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome, Shoulder Pain, and Flexor Tenosynovitis

      Dialysis Amyloidosis: A Likely Diagnosis

      The patient in question has been undergoing dialysis therapy for six years, which puts them at risk for dialysis amyloidosis. This condition occurs due to the accumulation of beta-2-microglobulin (B2M) in the body, which is not effectively cleared during dialysis. Symptoms of B2M amyloidosis typically appear after five years of dialysis therapy and often present as a triad of carpal tunnel syndrome, shoulder pain, and flexor tenosynovitis in the hands. The presence of all three symptoms in this patient strongly supports a diagnosis of dialysis amyloidosis.

      Other Possible Diagnoses

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a possible diagnosis due to joint pain and stiffness, but the absence of joint swelling makes it less likely. Diabetic neuropathy can cause sensory and motor neuropathies, but the joint symptoms in this patient do not support this diagnosis. Seronegative arthritis is unlikely due to the absence of joint swelling, and it doesn’t account for the neuropathic symptoms seen in this patient. Uraemic neuropathy is a distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy caused by uraemic toxins, but the presence of joint symptoms in this patient doesn’t support a diagnosis of neuropathy.

      Conclusion

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, dialysis amyloidosis is the most likely diagnosis. However, further testing and evaluation may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis and rule out other possible conditions.

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  • Question 30 - A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump in his scrotum that he noticed while showering. He reports feeling some discomfort in the area but denies any pain. He has been in a committed relationship with his girlfriend and had a clear sexual health screen two weeks ago.

      During the physical examination, the GP notes a soft mass on the front part of the right testis that cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. The lump is not tender to touch and transilluminates.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Varicocoele

      Correct Answer: Hydrocoele

      Explanation:

      When examining scrotal lumps, it is crucial to differentiate between a hydrocoele and other types of testicular masses. This can be done by determining whether the lump is connected to the testis or separate from it, and whether it is solid or fluid-filled.

      A hydrocoele is a fluid-filled sac that forms around the testis within the tunica vaginalis. It is cystic in nature and cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. However, it can be identified by its ability to transilluminate. Although a hydrocoele is typically benign, it can sometimes be a symptom of a testicular tumor, which can be ruled out with an ultrasound scan.

      In contrast, testicular tumors are usually connected to the testis and have an irregular shape. They are not cystic and do not transilluminate, but they can also cause a secondary hydrocoele.

      Varicocoeles and epididymal cysts are separate from the testis and can be identified by their distinct location.

      Scrotal Swelling: Causes and Management

      Scrotal swelling can be caused by various conditions, including inguinal hernia, testicular tumors, acute epididymo-orchitis, epididymal cysts, hydrocele, testicular torsion, and varicocele. Inguinal hernia is characterized by inguinoscrotal swelling that cannot be examined above it, while testicular tumors often have a discrete testicular nodule and symptoms of metastatic disease. Acute epididymo-orchitis is often accompanied by dysuria and urethral discharge, while epididymal cysts are usually painless and occur in individuals over 40 years old. Hydrocele is a non-painful, soft fluctuant swelling that can be examined above, while testicular torsion is characterized by severe, sudden onset testicular pain and requires urgent surgery. Varicocele is characterized by varicosities of the pampiniform plexus and may affect fertility.

      The management of scrotal swelling depends on the underlying condition. Testicular malignancy is treated with orchidectomy via an inguinal approach, while torsion requires prompt surgical exploration and testicular fixation. Varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, but surgery or radiological management can be considered if there are concerns about testicular function or infertility. Epididymal cysts can be excised using a scrotal approach, while hydroceles are managed differently in children and adults. In children, an inguinal approach is used to ligate the underlying pathology, while in adults, a scrotal approach is preferred to excise or plicate the hydrocele sac.

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  • Question 31 - A 66-year-old man is experiencing difficulty starting to urinate and frequently wakes up...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man is experiencing difficulty starting to urinate and frequently wakes up at night to use the bathroom. His PSA level is normal and a prostatic biopsy did not show any signs of cancer. What is the quickest treatment option to relieve his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are the first-line pharmacological treatment as they relax the smooth muscle of the bladder neck and improve urinary flow rates. Improvement in symptoms can be seen within a few days of therapy. Finasteride, an inhibitor of 5-alpha-reductase, can also be used to reduce prostatic volume over a period of around 6 months. However, it doesn’t provide rapid relief of symptoms. Cyproterone acetate and goserelin are not used in the treatment of BPH, as they are indicated for advanced prostate cancer. Oxybutynin, an antimuscarinic drug, can worsen symptoms of BPH and is not recommended for this condition.

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  • Question 32 - A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He has hypertension, depression, type II diabetes and benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
      On examination, he is found to have an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (normal range: > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2).
      What is the most appropriate medication to reduce given this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Renal Impairment: A Case Study

      In managing patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use. In this case study, we will review the medication regimen of a patient with an eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 and discuss any necessary adjustments.

      Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis and should be avoided if the patient’s eGFR is ≤ 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. The dose should be reviewed if the eGFR is ≤ 45 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Treatment should also be withdrawn in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function.

      Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression, can be used with caution in renal failure and doesn’t require dose reduction.

      Finasteride, used to treat BPH, doesn’t require dose adjustment in those with renal failure.

      Tamsulosin, also used to treat BPH, should be used with caution in patients with an eGFR level < 10 ml/min per 1.73 m2. However, this patient's eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 doesn't meet this threshold, so no adjustment is necessary at this time. Nifedipine, used to treat hypertension and angina, doesn’t require dose modification in those with renal impairment. In conclusion, medication management in renal impairment requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual case and potential risks and benefits of medication use. Close monitoring and regular review of medication regimens are essential to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

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  • Question 33 - A 56-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up. He reports feeling healthy...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up. He reports feeling healthy and has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. Tests show an eGFR of 75 mL/min/1.73m², microalbuminuria in the urinalysis, and unilateral hydronephrosis on ultrasound. What stage of chronic kidney disease is he in?

      Your Answer: Stage 3b

      Correct Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease should only be diagnosed as stages 1 and 2 if there is supporting evidence to accompany the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). In this case, the patient has been diagnosed with stage 2 chronic kidney disease due to the eGFR and the presence of hydronephrosis and microalbuminuria, indicating structural kidney issues.

      However, if the patient had a normal ultrasound and no protein in their urine, the eGFR alone would not be enough to diagnose chronic kidney disease.

      Stage 1 chronic kidney disease is diagnosed when the eGFR is above 90, but only if there is also evidence of proteinuria and/or an abnormal ultrasound.

      Stage 3a chronic kidney disease is diagnosed when the eGFR is between 45-59, regardless of whether there is structural damage or not.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 34 - A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency surgery complaining of abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency surgery complaining of abdominal pain that started earlier in the day and is gradually worsening. The pain is situated on his left flank and extends down to his groin. He has no history of similar pain and is generally healthy. Upon examination, the man appears flushed and sweaty, but there are no other notable findings. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral co-amoxiclav and metronidazole

      Correct Answer: IM diclofenac 75 mg

      Explanation:

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 35 - A 58-year-old man has hesitancy, a weak and sometimes intermittent urinary stream and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has hesitancy, a weak and sometimes intermittent urinary stream and terminal dribbling. He has to pass water once or twice in the night. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is firm and smooth and without nodules. It is enlarged to about two fingers’ breadth. Urinalysis is normal. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 1.5 ng/ml (cut off age 55 - 59 = 3.5 ng/ml). He is otherwise well. He finds the symptoms troublesome and requests something to help quickly.
      Which would be the most appropriate drug to prescribe to relieve his symptoms quickly?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in men, characterized by troublesome symptoms such as difficulty urinating. There are several treatment options available, depending on the severity of symptoms and the size of the prostate.

      Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are usually the first-line treatment for men with moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms. These drugs reduce the tone in the muscle of the neck of the bladder, providing relief within days.

      5-alpha-reductase inhibitors, such as finasteride, can be offered to men with symptoms. These drugs block the synthesis of dihydrotestosterone from testosterone and can reduce symptoms, but it may take several months before benefit is noted.

      Oral desmopressin, an analogue of antidiuretic hormone, can be used when nocturnal polyuria is the predominant symptom and there is no other obvious treatable cause.

      Goserelin, a gonadorelin analogue, is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Given the examination findings of a smoothly enlarged prostate and a normal PSA, prostate cancer is unlikely.

      Antimuscarinic drugs, such as oxybutynin, can be added for men with a mixed picture of voiding and storage symptoms. However, for men with predominantly voiding symptoms and signs of BPH on examination, oxybutynin would not be first line.

      In summary, treatment options for BPH depend on the individual’s symptoms and prostate size. Alpha-blockers and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors are commonly used, while desmopressin and goserelin are reserved for specific cases. Antimuscarinic drugs may be added for men with mixed symptoms, but are not first-line for those with predominantly voiding symptoms.

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  • Question 36 - A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts you over the phone, requesting antibiotics for a suspected UTI. She complains of dysuria and frequency for the past two days and had a confirmed UTI with the same symptoms last year. As per GMC guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics should not be prescribed during a telephone consultation

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics can be prescribed, with normal safeguards and advice

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines for Prescribing and Managing Medicines and Devices

      Prescribing and managing medicines and devices is a crucial aspect of a doctor’s role. The General Medical Council (GMC) has published guidelines for good practice in prescribing medicines, which were last updated in 2008. The principles of prescribing include only prescribing drugs to meet the identified needs of patients and avoiding treating oneself or those close to them. Doctors with full registration may prescribe all medicines except those in Schedule 1 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.

      To ensure that doctors prescribe in patients’ best interests, the guidelines recommend keeping up to date with the British National Formulary (BNF), National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), and Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN). Doctors should also report adverse reactions to medicines to the Committee on the Safety of Medicines through the Yellow Card Scheme. If a nurse or other healthcare professional without prescribing rights recommends a treatment, the doctor must ensure that the prescription is appropriate for the patient and that the professional is competent to have recommended it.

      The guidelines also address doctors’ interests in pharmacies, emphasizing the importance of ensuring that patients have access to information about any financial or commercial interests the doctor or their employer may have in a pharmacy. When it comes to prescribing controlled drugs for oneself or someone close, doctors should avoid doing so whenever possible and should be registered with a GP outside their family. If no other person with the legal right to prescribe is available, doctors may prescribe a controlled drug only if it is immediately necessary to save a life, avoid serious deterioration in the patient’s health, or alleviate otherwise uncontrollable pain.

      Finally, the guidelines provide recommendations for remote prescribing via telephone, email, fax, video link, or a website. While this is supported, doctors must give an explanation of the processes involved in remote consultations and provide their name and GMC number to the patient if they are not providing continuing care. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they prescribe and manage medicines and devices in the best interests of their patients.

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  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old man presents with a 3 days history of dysuria accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a 3 days history of dysuria accompanied by urinary frequency and urgency. He reports pain in the suprapubic region but denies having fevers or chills. He has not experienced any loss of weight or appetite. There are no known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases.

      Upon examination, his vital signs are normal and the abdomen is soft with no palpable mass. However, the suprapubic region is tender upon palpation. The patient is suspected to have acute cystitis and a midstream urine sample is obtained for culture and susceptibility testing.

      What is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Allow him to go home and consider a back-up antibiotic prescription (to use if symptoms do not start to improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time)

      Correct Answer: Allow him to go home on oral antibiotics according to local guidelines for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Men with lower UTI should be offered an immediate antibiotic prescription, unlike women who are not pregnant who may be given a backup antibiotic prescription. UTIs in men are considered complicated and require at least 7 days of antibiotic therapy. Pregnant women and men with lower UTI should be given an immediate antibiotic prescription, taking into account previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as previous antibiotic use that may have led to resistant bacteria. The choice of antibiotic should be reviewed when microbiological results are available. The patient doesn’t need to be admitted or referred at this time as he is clinically well and has no underlying condition. Women with lower UTI who are not pregnant may be considered for a back-up antibiotic prescription if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 38 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a general feeling of unwellness. She reports low...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a general feeling of unwellness. She reports low mood and energy, along with body aches. She is experiencing increased nausea, constipation, and reflux, which has led to a decrease in her appetite. However, she is staying well hydrated. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, GORD, and recently diagnosed hypertension. Recent blood tests revealed Hb of 135 g/L (115 - 160), urea of 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine of 60 µmol/L (55 - 120). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of depression, nausea, constipation, and bone pain suggest a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. This condition is characterized by hypercalcaemia, which can cause the ‘moans, groans, and bones’ of hyperparathyroidism. Other common symptoms include polydipsia, polyuria, hypertension, renal stones, and pancreatitis.

      It is important to distinguish primary hyperparathyroidism from secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is usually caused by renal disease. In this case, the patient’s recent blood tests showed normal renal function, making secondary hyperparathyroidism less likely. Primary hypoparathyroidism, a congenital condition, is also unlikely as it would cause low calcium and high phosphate levels, resulting in different symptoms than those presented by the patient.

      Secondary hypoparathyroidism, which can result in depression due to chronic hypocalcaemia, is also unlikely as it is usually caused by damage to the parathyroid glands from neck surgery or radiation therapy, which the patient has not undergone.

      Therefore, primary hyperparathyroidism remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms.

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.

      The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.

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  • Question 39 - Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has scheduled an appointment with you for a medication review. She is currently on ramipril 2.5mg once daily and amlodipine 5mg once daily. Her recent blood and urine tests are as follows:

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      eGFR 39 ml/min/1.73m²

      Urine albumin:creatinine ratio = 73 mg/mmol.

      Based on the above results, what is the target blood pressure for Samantha according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: <130/80 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      For patients with chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 or more, it is recommended to aim for a lower blood pressure target of <130/80 mmHg. This approach can provide advantages such as reducing the risk of cardiovascular complications and slowing the progression of the disease. However, if the patient’s ACR is less than 70 mg/mmol, the blood pressure target can be slightly higher at <140/90 mmHg. For individuals under 80 years old, the recommended target for home blood pressure readings is <135/85 mmHg. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease. Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

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  • Question 40 - You are seeing a 65-year-old gentleman who has come to discuss PSA testing....

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old gentleman who has come to discuss PSA testing. He recently read an article in a newspaper that discussed the potential role of PSA testing in screening for prostate cancer and mentioned seeing your GP to discuss this further.

      He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.

      What advice would you give regarding PSA testing?

      Your Answer: For every 20 men identified with prostate cancer following a high PSA test result, subsequent treatment will save one life

      Correct Answer: 1 in 25 men with a normal PSA level will turn out to have prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer: Benefits and Limitations

      PSA testing for prostate cancer in asymptomatic men is a contentious issue with some advocating it as a screening test and others wary of over-treatment and patient harm. It is important to clearly impart the benefits and limitations of PSA testing to the patient so that they can make an informed decision about whether to be tested.

      One of the main debates surrounding PSA testing is its limitations in terms of sensitivity and specificity. Two out of three men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, and 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, leading to potential over-treatment.

      There is also debate about the frequency of PSA testing. Patients with elevated PSA levels who are undergoing surveillance often have PSA levels done every three to six months, but how often should a PSA level be repeated in an asymptomatic man who has had a normal result? Some experts suggest a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.

      When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. It is important for patients to weigh the potential benefits and limitations of PSA testing before making a decision.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 41 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 37 weeks of pregnancy complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 37 weeks of pregnancy complaining of urinary frequency and urgency. She reports feeling generally well, with good fetal movements and no vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are within normal limits, with a temperature of 37.4ºC, heart rate of 85 bpm, respiratory rate of 18/min, and blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.

      Upon performing a urine dipstick test, leukocytes are detected while nitrites, blood, and ketones are absent.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Send urine for microscopy, culture and sensitivities and treat based on sensitivities

      Correct Answer: Treat with seven days of amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      For a pregnant woman in the third trimester with a UTI, the recommended antibiotic treatment is amoxicillin for seven days. Nitrofurantoin is the first-line antibiotic, but it should be avoided later in pregnancy due to potential harm to the baby. Cefalexin is also an appropriate second-line option. It is important to obtain a urine sample for testing before starting treatment and to confirm cure with a follow-up test. Hospital admission is not necessary unless there are signs of sepsis or pyelonephritis or pregnancy complications. Empirical therapy should be initiated promptly, and treatment can be adjusted based on sensitivity results if necessary.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 42 - A 35-year-old patient comes to the surgery with suspected renal colic. The patient's...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient comes to the surgery with suspected renal colic. The patient's pain is managed with oral naproxen and hospitalization is not necessary. What imaging technique is the most suitable for examining the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Non-contrast CT

      Explanation:

      Non-contrast CT is now directly accessible to many GPs.

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

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  • Question 43 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of dysuria and visible blood in his urine. He also reports some frequency of urination. However, he denies fever, abdominal pain, or loin pain. He mentions that his urine has gradually cleared up since it was like red wine 48 hours ago and now looks normal. On examination, he appears to be in good health with no fever. His pulse rate is 76 bpm regular, and his blood pressure is 138/76 mmHg. His abdomen and loins are normal to palpation. A urine sample is taken, which appears macroscopically normal, but dipstick testing reveals leucocytes ++ and blood+++. You prescribe antibiotics to cover a urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Send a urine sample to establish accurately the presence of a urinary infection

      Correct Answer: Request an urgent CT urogram to rule out a renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Referral for Suspected Bladder Cancer

      According to NICE guidelines, individuals with certain symptoms should be referred for suspected cancer pathway referral within 2 weeks. For bladder cancer, this includes individuals aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. It also includes individuals aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.

      However, before referral, it is important to establish whether there is a urinary tract infection present. If there is, appropriate treatment can be given and referral for further investigation into the haematuria may not be necessary. In cases where there are symptoms suggestive of a urinary infection and macroscopic haematuria, investigations should be undertaken to diagnose and treat the infection before considering referral. If infection is not confirmed, urgent referral is warranted to investigate the haematuria further.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 44 - A 53-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with a swollen, tender, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with a swollen, tender, and red glans penis that he has been experiencing for the past five days. He is unable to retract his foreskin fully and is experiencing pain while urinating. He has no history of sexual activity and has been treated for balanitis three times in the past year with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, despite testing negative for sexually transmitted and bacterial infections. He has a medical history of diabetes mellitus.

      After treating the acute episode with saline baths and topical clotrimazole, what is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for circumcision

      Explanation:

      Recurrent balanitis can be effectively treated with circumcision.

      Balanitis, which is characterized by inflammation of the glans penis, can be caused by various factors such as sexually transmitted infections, dermatitis, bacterial infections, or fungal infections like Candida. In this case, the patient’s diabetes has made them susceptible to opportunistic fungal infections.

      For acute infections, treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and using saline baths. Topical treatments like hydrocortisone, clotrimazole, miconazole, or nystatin cream may also be recommended depending on the cause of the infection.

      However, if the balanitis keeps recurrent, circumcision is the most appropriate treatment option. This procedure can effectively prevent the condition from happening again.

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

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  • Question 45 - A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with acute retention of urine. He has a palpable bladder up to his umbilicus and is in significant discomfort. His GP sends him to the emergency department where he is catheterised and blood is taken to test his renal function. His serum creatinine concentration is 520 µmol/l (normal range 60–120 µmol/l).
      Which of the following additional results would be most suggestive that his renal failure was chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Markers for Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be classified as acute or chronic based on the duration and severity of the condition. Biochemical markers can help distinguish between the two types of renal failure.

      Hypocalcaemia is a common feature of chronic renal failure and occurs due to the gradual increase of phosphorus in the bloodstream. Low serum bicarbonate concentration is indicative of acute kidney injury and can lead to metabolic acidosis. Hyperkalaemia and hyperuricaemia can occur in both acute and chronic renal failure, while mild hyponatraemia is relatively common in both types of renal failure.

      Overall, while these biochemical markers can provide some insight into the type of renal failure, they are not definitive and should be considered in conjunction with other clinical factors.

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  • Question 46 - A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.

      He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.

      He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons

      PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.

      Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.

      Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.

      Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.

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  • Question 47 - A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half of his left testicle for the past 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testicular ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Testicular Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that typically affects young men in their third or fourth decade of life. The most common symptom is a painless, unilateral mass in the scrotum, but in about 20% of cases, scrotal pain may be the first symptom. Unfortunately, in about 10% of cases, a testicular tumor can be mistaken for epididymo orchitis, leading to a delay in the correct diagnosis.

      Diagnostic ultrasound is the most effective way to confirm the presence of a testicular mass and explore the contralateral testis. It has a sensitivity of almost 100% in detecting a testicular tumor and can determine whether a mass is intra- or extratesticular. Even if a testicular tumor is clinically evident, an ultrasound should still be performed as it is an inexpensive test.

      Serum tumor markers, including αfetoprotein, HCG, and LDH, are important prognostic factors and contribute to diagnosis and staging. In about half of all cases of testicular cancer, markers are increased, but there is variation between different cancers and different markers.

      In conclusion, early detection and diagnosis of testicular cancer are crucial for successful treatment and a positive prognosis. Men should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their testicles.

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  • Question 48 - A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence. He denies any voiding symptoms or post-micturition symptoms. There is no evidence of haematuria.

      On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender with no evidence of a distended bladder and his prostate feels normal. Blood tests for renal function, fasting glucose and PSA were all normal. Urinalysis is also reported as normal as well as MSU.

      He was sent for bladder training which didn't help his symptoms and tolterodine and darifenacin haven't helped his symptoms. He became confused with oxybutynin.

      Which of the following options would you offer next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to urology

      Explanation:

      Management of Overactive Bladder in Frail Older Men

      When dealing with an overactive bladder in frail older men, it is important to rule out other diagnoses and try bladder training before considering medication. Oxybutynin is not recommended due to potential risks, while solifenacin is unlikely to work. Duloxetine is not recommended for overactive bladder in men, but may be used for stress incontinence in women. Desmopressin has no role in overactive bladder in men. Urology referral may be an option, but mirabegron can be used prior to referral and its effectiveness can be reviewed at 4-6 weeks. It is important to note that mirabegron is a ‘black triangle’ drug and is subject to intensive post-marketing safety surveillance. For more information on managing overactive bladder in men, visit the link provided.

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  • Question 49 - A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with swollen legs and proteinuria (> 3.5g/24 hours). After referral and kidney biopsy, a diagnosis of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is made.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may present as a nephritic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glomerulonephritis: Types, Symptoms, and Causes

      Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation in the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can be primary or secondary, and may present with various symptoms such as haematuria, proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome, nephritic syndrome, acute or chronic renal failure.

      Primary glomerulonephritis can be classified based on clinical syndrome, histopathological appearance, or underlying aetiology. One common type is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, which causes segmental scarring and podocyte fusion in the glomerulus. It often leads to nephrotic syndrome and may progress to end-stage renal failure, but can be treated with corticosteroids.

      Another type is IgA nephropathy, which is characterised by IgA antibody deposition in the glomerulus and is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults worldwide. It usually presents with macroscopic haematuria but can also cause nephrotic syndrome.

      Interstitial nephritis, on the other hand, affects the area between the nephrons and can be acute or chronic. The most common cause is a drug hypersensitivity reaction.

      In summary, understanding the types, symptoms, and causes of glomerulonephritis is crucial in diagnosing and managing this group of kidney disorders.

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  • Question 50 - A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary stream, dysuria and urinary frequency. He denies any possibility of a sexually transmitted disease. He feels quite unwell. On examination, he has temperature of 38.7°C and digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a very tender and slightly enlarged prostate.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Dysuria and a Tender Prostate on DRE in Men

      When a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on digital rectal examination (DRE), several conditions may be considered. Acute prostatitis is a likely diagnosis, especially if the patient also has lower urinary tract symptoms and fever. The cause is often a urinary tract infection, with Escherichia coli being the most common culprit. In sexually active men under 35, Neisseria gonorrhoeae should also be considered.

      Prostate cancer is less likely to present with acute symptoms and is more commonly associated with a gradual onset of symptoms or urinary retention. Cystitis is rare in men and would not explain the tender prostate on examination. Urethritis may cause dysuria and urinary frequency but is not typically associated with a tender prostate on DRE. Prostatic abscess should be suspected if symptoms worsen despite treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis or if a fluctuant mass is palpable in the prostate gland.

      In summary, when a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on DRE, acute prostatitis is the most likely diagnosis, but other conditions should also be considered based on the patient’s history and clinical presentation.

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  • Question 51 - A 51-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria. She has a history of multiple attendances and a previous neurology referral for headache.
      On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg. Dipstick urinalysis reveals haematuria. She commences a three-day course of trimethoprim. She returns, still complaining of symptoms, at which point the presence of normochromic normocytic anaemia is noted, along with a serum creatinine of 220 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l). A urine culture result shows no growth.
      What diagnosis is most likely to explain her reduced renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Analgesic nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Renal Dysfunction in a Patient with Chronic Headache

      One possible cause of renal dysfunction in a patient with chronic headache is analgesic nephropathy. This condition is characterized by polyuria, haematuria, deteriorating renal function, hypertension, and anaemia, which can result from long-term use of over-the-counter analgesics. Another possible cause is acute glomerulonephritis, which can present with asymptomatic proteinuria, haematuria, or nephrotic or nephritic syndrome. However, the patient’s history is more suggestive of analgesic nephropathy. Renal failure secondary to sepsis is unlikely, as the patient has no symptoms of sepsis and the urine culture is negative. Hypertensive renal disease usually presents with asymptomatic microalbuminuria and deteriorating renal function in patients with a long history of hypertension, which doesn’t fit with the clinic history given above. Reflux nephropathy, which commonly occurs in children due to a posterior urethral valve or in adults due to bladder outlet obstruction, is not suggested by the above history.

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  • Question 52 - An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.

      Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.

      It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.

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  • Question 53 - A 64-year-old man comes to your clinic. He has a medical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man comes to your clinic. He has a medical history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin as an anticoagulant. During a routine hypertension clinic appointment 10 weeks ago, a urine dipstick showed the presence of blood and leucocytes. However, the initial urine microscopy and culture did not reveal any growth. The urine dipstick has been repeated twice since then, with the same result.

      What would be the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to urology

      Explanation:

      Patients taking warfarin have a comparable incidence of non-visible haematuria to the general population, and thus should be evaluated in the same manner. While most haematuria protocols recommend referring younger patients (under 40 years) to nephrology, this patient’s age warrants referral to urology for a cystoscopy.

      Haematuria: Causes and Management

      The management of haematuria can be challenging due to the lack of widely followed guidelines. Haematuria is now classified as visible or non-visible, with the latter being found in approximately 2.5% of the population. Transient or spurious non-visible haematuria can be caused by urinary tract infections, menstruation, vigorous exercise, or sexual intercourse. Persistent non-visible haematuria may be caused by cancer, stones, benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urethritis, or renal conditions such as IgA nephropathy or thin basement membrane disease. Spurious causes of haematuria include certain foods and drugs.

      Screening for haematuria is not recommended, and patients taking aspirin or warfarin should also be investigated. Urine dipstick is the preferred test for detecting haematuria, and persistent non-visible haematuria is defined as blood being present in 2 out of 3 samples tested 2-3 weeks apart. Renal function, albumin:creatinine or protein:creatinine ratio, and blood pressure should also be checked. NICE guidelines recommend urgent referral for patients aged 45 or older with unexplained visible haematuria or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. Patients aged 60 or older with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test should also be urgently referred. Patients under 40 years of age with normal renal function, no proteinuria, and who are normotensive may be managed in primary care.

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  • Question 54 - A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner complaining of poor urinary stream and dribbling. He has had four urinary tract infections (UTIs) diagnosed in the last eight months. He is otherwise developmentally normal.
      What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valve

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Poor Urinary Stream in Boys

      Poor urinary stream in boys can be a sign of urinary-tract obstruction, which is often caused by posterior urethral valves. While this condition is usually diagnosed before birth, delayed presentation can be due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other possible causes of poor urinary stream include urethral stricture, bladder calculi, and neurogenic bladder. However, these conditions are less common and may be associated with other developmental or neurological issues. Vesicoureteric reflux, which occurs when urine flows back from the bladder up the ureters, may also be a result of urinary tract obstruction but is not likely to be the primary cause of poor urinary stream and terminal dribbling.

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  • Question 55 - A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis.
      Select from the list the single most important item that should be regularly monitored.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function

      Explanation:

      Renal Adverse Drug Reactions Associated with NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they come with a relatively high incidence of renal adverse drug reactions. These reactions are caused by changes in renal haemodynamics, which are usually mediated by prostaglandins that are affected by NSAIDs. Patients with renal impairment should avoid these drugs if possible, or use them with caution. It is important to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration and monitor renal function. NSAIDs may cause sodium and water retention, leading to deterioration of renal function and possibly renal failure. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential renal adverse drug reactions associated with NSAIDs.

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  • Question 56 - A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of red discolouration of his urine. He was diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis two months ago and has been taking warfarin since then. His most recent INR test, done two days ago, shows a reading of 2.7. During the examination, no abnormalities are found, but his dipstick urine test shows +++ of blood and + protein. A MSU test shows no growth. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and monitor INR and warfarin dose closely

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Haematuria and Previous DVT

      This patient presents with unexplained haematuria and a history of previous DVT. It is important to consider the possibility of underlying occult neoplasia of the renal tract. Therefore, an urgent referral to the urologists is the most appropriate course of action.

      It is important to note that in cases where the patient is on therapeutic INR with warfarin, the haematuria should not be attributed to the medication. Warfarin may unmask a potential neoplasm, and it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of the haematuria. Early detection and treatment of neoplasia can significantly improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 57 - A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies any dysuria or haematuria and reports no gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and urinalysis is unremarkable. She reports drinking 7 glasses of water daily and abstaining from caffeinated beverages. Her BMI is 23.5, and she is a non-smoker. You decide to refer her to a physiotherapist for pelvic floor exercises. How long should she continue these exercises before seeing a benefit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Referral for Pelvic Floor Exercises

      Referral for supervised pelvic floor exercises is recommended for women who experience urinary stress incontinence after making lifestyle changes. This referral can be made to a continence advisor, specialist nurse, or physiotherapist. The program is tailored to the individual’s needs and lasts for at least three months, with the option to continue if benefits are observed. Patients are advised to perform a minimum of eight pelvic floor muscle contractions three times a day.

      It is important to be aware of the evidence-based approach to inform patients of what they may expect in secondary care. For more information on pelvic floor exercises, visit pogp.csp.org.uk.

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  • Question 58 - A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner concerned about his recent diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis. He inquires if there is any other health condition that could be associated with this diagnosis.
      What is a possible condition that can lead to membranous glomerulonephritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Membranous Glomerulonephritis

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is a kidney disease that often presents with a mixed nephrotic and nephritic picture. The condition is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, and its cause is often unknown. However, certain factors have been linked to the development of membranous glomerulonephritis, including cancers of the lung and bowel, infections such as hepatitis and malaria, and drugs like penicillamine and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      One of the most significant risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is malignancy, which is responsible for approximately 5-10% of cases. Patients over the age of 60 are at higher risk, and effective treatment of the underlying malignancy can sometimes lead to improvement in renal symptoms. However, spontaneous recovery occurs in about one-third of patients, while one-third remain with membranous nephropathy and one-third progress to end-stage renal failure.

      Other conditions, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hepatic fibrosis, hypercholesterolemia, and hypertension, can also impact renal function but do not directly cause membranous glomerulonephritis. COPD, for example, can induce microvascular damage, albuminuria, and a worsening of renal function, while hepatic fibrosis can lead to hepatorenal syndrome. Chronic hypertension can also lead to hardening of the arteries and a reduction in renal function. However, understanding the specific causes and risk factors for membranous glomerulonephritis is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 59 - You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the most recent blood test results for a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus who is in their 60s. The patient is currently taking simvastatin 20 mg, metformin 1g twice daily, and gliclazide 80 mg twice daily. The patient's latest renal function results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 141 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 3.9 mmol/l
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 115 µmol/l

      What is the creatinine threshold at which NICE recommends considering a change in metformin dosage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: > 130 µmol/l

      Explanation:

      If the creatinine level is above 130 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 45 ml/min), NICE suggests that the dosage of metformin should be reevaluated. Additionally, if the creatinine level is above 150 micromol/l (or eGFR is below 30 ml/min), NICE recommends that metformin should be discontinued.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 60 - A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 38+6 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She denies experiencing any vaginal bleeding or discharge and reports no contractions. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis reveals the presence of nitrates and 3+ leucocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.

      What is the next best course of action in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure

      Explanation:

      When treating a suspected urinary tract infection in pregnant women, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidance. This includes sending urine for culture and sensitivity before and after treatment, and starting treatment before awaiting culture results. Local antibiotic prescribing guidelines should be followed, but nitrofurantoin should be avoided at term due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. Cefalexin is a safe alternative. The recommended course of antibiotics is seven days.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 61 - Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is most likely to render the use of the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation inappropriate for calculating an individual's eGFR, assuming the patient is 65 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, GFR typically experiences an increase, although this may not be reflected in the eGFR.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

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  • Question 62 - A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man of Mediterranean origin with chronic kidney disease presents for his annual check-up. His most recent eGFR is 50 mL/min/1.73m2 and his urine albumin creatinine ratio is 42 mg/mmol. He reports feeling well and adhering to the aspirin and atorvastatin prescribed to him last year. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home and provides a week's worth of readings, which indicate an average blood pressure of 143/95 mmHg.

      What recommendations would you make for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      For patients with chronic kidney disease, the urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) is an important measure of protein loss in the urine. If the ACR is 30 or more, the first line of treatment should be an ACE inhibitor, as it can reduce proteinuria and provide renal protection beyond its use as an antihypertensive. However, if the ACR is less than 30, current NICE guidelines on hypertension should be followed for treatment.

      In the case of this patient, an ACE inhibitor should be considered as the first line of treatment since their ACR is greater than 30. Thiazide-like diuretics are a suitable alternative to calcium channel blockers for non-diabetic patients with hypertension and can be used as a second line option. Beta blockers are not a first line option for blood pressure control in non-diabetic patients and are only recommended as a step 4 treatment for hypertension.

      If there is doubt about the validity of the patient’s home readings or if they prefer lifestyle management, monitoring without medication changes may be a viable option. However, tight blood pressure control is essential to slow the rate of deterioration of chronic kidney disease and reduce cardiovascular risk.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

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  • Question 63 - A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is worried about his left testis as he has observed a swelling and some slight discomfort. The discomfort intensifies when he stands and subsides when he lies down. The left side scrotum hangs lower and feels like “a bag of worms”. Both testes are of the same size and feel normal. The swelling becomes more noticeable when he performs a Valsalva manoeuvre while standing.
      Select the accurate statement from the options given.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Controversy surrounds the need for treatment

      Explanation:

      Varicocele: To Treat or Not to Treat?

      Varicocele is a common condition found in 20% of all men in the general population and 40% of infertile men. While it may cause abnormal sperm count and infertility, controversy surrounds the need for treatment. A Cochrane review has cast doubt on the merits of varicocelectomy, but European guidelines cite several meta-analyses favoring treatment. Surgery is only indicated for persistent pain. In older men with newly symptomatic varicocele, an advanced renal tumor is possible and should be excluded. Overall, most varicoceles do not require treatment and are unlikely to cause long-term complications.

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  • Question 64 - A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with periorbital and pedal oedema and ‘frothy urine'. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
      Which of the following is the most characteristic finding you could expect from a blood test in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased serum cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal Lab Results in Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Abnormal lipid metabolism is common in patients with renal disease, particularly in nephrotic syndrome. This can result in marked elevations in the plasma levels of cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides, and lipoprotein A. However, fibrinogen levels tend to be increased rather than decreased in nephrotic syndrome. Hypocalcemia is also more common in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to loss of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in the urine. The ESR is typically elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome or end-stage renal disease. It is important to understand these abnormal lab results in order to properly diagnose and manage nephrotic syndrome.

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  • Question 65 - A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with no significant medical history asks for a PSA test after hearing about a friend of his father who was diagnosed with prostate cancer. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give him a patient information leaflet with details of the PSA test and allow him to make the choice

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.

      The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.

      PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.

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  • Question 66 - A 60-year-old woman with longstanding diabetes presents with proteinuria. Her serum creatinine level...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with longstanding diabetes presents with proteinuria. Her serum creatinine level is normal.
      What is the most common renal complication in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetic Nephropathy

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body. People with diabetes are at a higher risk of developing atherosclerosis, urinary infections, and papillary necrosis. However, the most significant complications arise from diabetic nephropathy, which affects the glomeruli in the kidneys.

      There are three major histological changes that occur in the glomeruli of people with diabetic nephropathy. Firstly, hyperglycemia directly induces mesangial expansion. Secondly, the glomerular basement membrane thickens. Finally, glomerular sclerosis occurs due to intraglomerular hypertension, which can be caused by a dilated afferent renal artery or ischaemic injury.

      It is important to note that obstructive uropathy is not a common complication of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels and undergo regular kidney function tests to prevent and manage diabetic nephropathy.

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  • Question 67 - A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
      Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.

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  • Question 68 - A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of severe pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of severe pain in the left flank and left lower abdomen with radiation to the left testicle. He reports that he woke up with the pain, but was “fine last night”. The clinician suspects uncomplicated renal colic.
      What feature would best support this diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haematuria

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Renal Colic

      Renal colic is a condition characterized by sudden and severe pain caused by stones in the urinary tract. The pain typically starts in the loin and moves to the groin, with tenderness in the renal angle. Patients with renal colic may experience periods of relief or dull aches before the pain returns. Other symptoms include microscopic haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike patients with peritoneal irritation, those with renal colic may writhe around in agony and have increased bowel sounds. Apyrexia is common in uncomplicated cases, while pyrexia suggests infection. It’s important to note that although there may be severe pain in the testis, the testis itself should not be tender. Understanding these symptoms can help with the diagnosis and management of renal colic.

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  • Question 69 - A 45-year-old man received a kidney transplant for end-stage renal disease. After four...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man received a kidney transplant for end-stage renal disease. After four weeks, he experiences fever, night sweats, and myalgia. He visits his General Practitioner and is referred to the Nephrology Clinic. His CXR reveals bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia. What is the probable reason for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Post-Transplant Infections: Common Causes and Symptoms

      Renal transplant patients are at risk for various infections due to immunosuppressive therapy. One of the most common infections is caused by cytomegalovirus, which typically presents with nonspecific symptoms such as fever and myalgia. A chest X-ray may reveal bilateral interstitial or reticulonodular infiltrates that start in the lower lobes and spread outwards. Epstein-Barr virus can also cause complications post-transplant, leading to lymphoproliferative disease. However, this tends to develop months to years after transplantation and would not account for the CXR results. Herpes simplex virus usually results in oral or anogenital lesions, while Mycobacterium tuberculosis can present with fever and night sweats but would not explain the diffuse CXR findings. Varicella-zoster virus is more likely to cause a classic Chickenpox rash or shingles-type rash. It is important to monitor for these infections and promptly treat them to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 70 - A 55-year-old man presents to the GP clinic with complaints of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the GP clinic with complaints of lower back pain, fevers, and weight loss. He has also noticed a weakened urinary stream and increased frequency of urination over the past six months. On examination, including digital rectal examination, there are no significant findings. The GP recommends that he see the practice phlebotomist to check his prostate serum antigen level. What is the most probable factor that could lead to a false positive result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A confirmed UTI, successfully treated two weeks ago

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting PSA Measurement

      Prostate serum antigen (PSA) measurement is a crucial screening tool for detecting prostate cancer. However, recent urinary tract infections can increase PSA levels, which may remain elevated for up to a month. There are several other factors that can influence PSA levels, including recent prostate biopsy, vigorous exercise within the last 48 hours, and ejaculation within the last 48 hours. It is recommended that men avoid PSA testing under these circumstances. On the other hand, there is no evidence to suggest that an intercurrent illness, such as an upper respiratory tract infection, affects PSA levels. Proper understanding of these factors can help ensure accurate PSA measurement and reliable prostate cancer detection.

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  • Question 71 - You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with a medical history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction 6 years ago. During her blood test taken a week ago, her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was found to be 45 mL/min/1.73 m2, indicating reduced kidney function and a possible diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is curious about what other tests are needed to confirm CKD, aside from repeating her kidney function test in 3 months. What other tests should be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample to be dipped for haematuria and sent for urine ACR calculation

      Explanation:

      To diagnose CKD in a patient with an eGFR <60, it is necessary to measure the creatinine level in the blood, obtain an early morning urine sample for ACR testing, and dip the urine for haematuria. CKD is confirmed when these tests show a persistent reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. Proteinuria is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease and mortality, and an early morning urine sample is preferred for ACR analysis. The patient should provide another blood sample after 90 days to confirm the diagnosis of CKD. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.

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  • Question 72 - A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some recent results. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 25 ml/min/1.73 m2.
      Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Managing Calcium and Phosphate Metabolism in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, particularly in moderate to severe cases (stage 4 and 5). Patients with stage 4 CKD (eGFR 15-29 ml/minute/1.73 m2) should be referred for specialist assessment.

      In stage 3+ CKD, the goal is to maintain normal calcium levels, serum phosphate at or below 1.8 mmol/l (reference range 0.7-1.4 mmol/l), and parathormone (PTH) below twice (to three times) the upper limit of normal. Low-normal or low calcium levels are common in renal failure, and high PTH levels are a physiological response to the low serum calcium and phosphate retention.

      Dietary advice to reduce phosphate intake and phosphate binders taken with food may be necessary to keep phosphate levels within acceptable limits. Vitamin D derivatives (alfacalcidol, calcitriol) can correct hypocalcaemia resulting from reduced renal activation of vitamin D and suppress PTH secretion. However, initiation of these agents should be on the advice of specialists.

      Hypercalcaemia in a patient with kidney disease may indicate that the cause of the renal problem is related to the hypercalcaemia or its underlying cause, such as oral calcium and vitamin D treatment or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Advanced CKD may also present with anaemia and hyperkalaemia.

      In summary, managing calcium and phosphate metabolism is crucial in CKD, and referral to specialists may be necessary for severe disturbances in these levels.

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  • Question 73 - A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of significant urge incontinence (UI) for the past year. She denies any stress incontinence and has been ruled out for infection. What is the initial recommended treatment for urge incontinence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder training for a minimum of six weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Urge Incontinence

      Urge incontinence is a condition where urine leakage occurs involuntarily, often preceded by a sudden urge to urinate. According to NICE guidance on Urinary incontinence (CG171), women with urge incontinence or mixed incontinence should be offered bladder training as a first-line treatment for at least six weeks. This involves learning techniques to control the urge to urinate and gradually increasing the time between visits to the toilet. If bladder training is not effective, immediate release oxybutynin may be offered as an alternative treatment.

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  • Question 74 - Which of the following indicate the presence of authentic stress incontinence (GSI)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following indicate the presence of authentic stress incontinence (GSI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Passage of large amounts of urine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many people, particularly women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, and each has its own set of symptoms. Genuine stress incontinence is characterized by the loss of urine during physical activity such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or intercourse. The urine loss is immediate and often described as a squirt of urine.

      On the other hand, detrusor dyssynergia (DD) is characterized by a sudden urge to urinate that may occur while at rest or after physical activity. This is followed by a large loss of urine. Dysuria, or painful urination, may indicate an infection of the bladder and urethra or irritation of the vulval and perineal epithelium due to the dribbling of urine.

      In some cases, urinary incontinence may be associated with other pelvic relaxation problems such as cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse.

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  • Question 75 - Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has...

    Incorrect

    • Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has a medical history of well-controlled osteoarthritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Currently, she takes Symbicort (budesonide with formoterol) 200/6, salbutamol, and uses senna and naproxen tablets as required.

      Her recent urine sample indicates an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 87 mg/mmol, which is higher than the previous sample taken 6 months ago, showing an ACR of 79 mg/mmol. Additionally, her serum urea and creatinine results have mildly deteriorated over the last 6 months.

      During her clinic visit, her blood pressure measures 129/76 mmHg.

      What medication changes would you suggest for Evelyn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start ramipril and atorvastatin, consider alternatives to naproxen

      Explanation:

      Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, all patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. In the case of a patient experiencing a decline in renal function, it may be advisable to discontinue the use of naproxen, although this decision should be made in consideration of the patient’s symptoms and functional impairment. The recommended course of action would be to start the patient on ramipril and atorvastatin while exploring alternative treatments for osteoarthritis. The second option is only partially correct, as ramipril is advised regardless of blood pressure in CKD patients with this level of proteinuria. The third option doesn’t include ramipril or atorvastatin, while the fourth and fifth options do not include atorvastatin. Ultimately, the decision to discontinue naproxen use will depend on the healthcare professional’s clinical judgement, the patient’s preferences, and the frequency of use.

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

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  • Question 76 - A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his scrotum on one side. He mentioned experiencing dysuria and frequency last week, but it went away on its own. Upon examination, there was a tender swelling at the back of his left testicle. The patient is in good health otherwise and has normal vital signs.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Testicular Pain

      The most probable diagnosis for testicular pain in this scenario is epididymo-orchitis. This condition is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis and testes, often following a UTI or sexually transmitted infection. While testicular torsion is also a possibility, the patient’s age, recent UTI, and mild pain make it less likely. However, if the patient experiences severe pain, testicular torsion should be considered and referred to emergency care. Other potential differentials exist, but epididymo-orchitis is the most likely diagnosis.

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  • Question 77 - Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin and LH levels should be measured

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Erectile Dysfunction

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the population, with prevalence estimates ranging from 32 to 52%. It is important to measure both lipids and glucose in all patients, as early detection of ED may precede cardiovascular disease (CVD) symptoms by up to three years. While the causes of ED are multifactorial, it is recommended to only measure pituitary hormones if testosterone levels are low. Additionally, it is important to note that recreational drugs such as cocaine and heroin can also cause ED. Overall, it is crucial to be aware of the potential risk factors and causes of ED in order to properly diagnose and treat this condition.

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  • Question 78 - A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify the one characteristic that would strongly indicate a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome instead of nephritic syndrome.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proteinuria > 3.5g/24 hours

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome and Nephritic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. On the other hand, nephritic syndrome is defined by azotemia, hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria. Both syndromes present with edema, but the amount of proteinuria is higher in nephrotic syndrome.

      In nephrotic syndrome, the glomerulus has small pores that allow protein to pass through but not cells, resulting in proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia. The liver compensates for protein loss by increasing the synthesis of albumin, LDL, VLDL, and lipoprotein(a), leading to lipid abnormalities. Patients with nephrotic syndrome are also at risk of hypercoagulability and infection due to the loss of inhibitors of coagulation and immunoglobulins in the urine.

      The etiology of nephrotic syndrome varies depending on age and comorbidities. Minimal change disease is the most common cause in children, while focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause in younger adults. Membranous nephropathy is the most common cause in older people, and diabetic nephropathy in adults with long-standing diabetes. Secondary causes include amyloidosis, lupus nephritis, and multiple myeloma.

      Categorizing glomerular renal disease into syndromes such as nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome helps narrow the differential diagnosis. Understanding the differences between these two syndromes is crucial in the diagnosis and management of glomerular renal disease.

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  • Question 79 - A 49-year-old man presents with left loin pain which has been present for...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents with left loin pain which has been present for the last four to six weeks. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications.

      The pain doesn't radiate from the left loin and it is not mechanical in nature. It is constant and has started to disturb his sleep at night. He reports that he is opening his bowels normally and denies any lower urinary tract symptoms. Systems review reveals he has lost just over half a stone in weight over the last two months. He tells you he also feels more tired over the last few months.

      On examination there is no tenderness on palpation of the lower back at the site of pain. The overlying skin is normal and no masses are felt. Truncal movements and walking do not exacerbate the pain. Abdominal examination is normal. There are no groin abnormalities palpated. A left sided varicocoele is noted. His blood pressure is elevated at 178/98 mmHg.

      What is the next best course of action in primary care to aid in establishing a diagnosis for this 49-year-old man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Faecal occult blood testing

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Renal Carcinoma

      This patient is displaying signs and symptoms that suggest a possible renal carcinoma. The presence of non-mechanical back pain, weight loss, tiredness, hypertension, and left sided varicocoele should alert the clinician to consider a renal cause. It is important to rule out musculoskeletal causes for the back pain and to check for the presence of blood in the urine through a dipstick test.

      Renal tumours are often picked up by ultrasound, with haematuria and PUO being more common presentations than pain. It is worth noting that renal and retroperitoneal tumours may cause obstruction of the left testicular vein, leading to a left-sided varicocoele. Therefore, if a varicocoele is found on testicular imaging, the kidneys should also be scanned for any masses. Overall, it is crucial to consider a renal aetiology when presented with these symptoms.

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  • Question 80 - You assess a 78-year-old woman who has a history of type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 78-year-old woman who has a history of type 2 diabetes and mild cognitive impairment. During a previous visit, you referred her for bladder retraining due to urge incontinence. However, she reports that her symptoms have not improved and the incontinence is becoming increasingly bothersome and embarrassing. She is interested in exploring other treatment options, but expresses concerns about potential medication side effects on her memory. What would be the most suitable next step in managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mirabegron

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing urge incontinence, anticholinergics like solifenacin and oxybutynin can cause confusion in elderly patients, making them less suitable for those with cognitive impairment. Instead, mirabegron, a beta-3 adrenergic agonist, is a better alternative that can effectively treat urge incontinence without the risk of anticholinergic side effects. Long-term catheterisation and fluid restriction should not be considered as viable options for managing incontinence.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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  • Question 81 - A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
      What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis

      Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.

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  • Question 82 - You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining test results of a 23-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant. The midstream specimen of urine (MSU) indicates bacteriuria. During the discussion with the patient, she reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or fever. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin for 7 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics should be administered promptly to pregnant women with asymptomatic bacteriuria.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

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  • Question 83 - A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic with his partner seeking evaluation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic with his partner seeking evaluation for infertility. He gives a specimen that shows azoospermia. He has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicocoele

      Explanation:

      Retrograde Ejaculation as a Cause of Infertility

      Retrograde ejaculation is a condition that can lead to infertility in men. It may occur after surgery for benign prostatic hyperplasia or due to chronic urethral scarring caused by recurrent infections. In retrograde ejaculation, semen is redirected to the bladder instead of being expelled through the penis during ejaculation. This can make it difficult or impossible for sperm to reach the female reproductive system and fertilize an egg, leading to infertility. It is important to note that there are no other known causes of infertility in this case, based on the patient’s history and examination findings.

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  • Question 84 - A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of frequent urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a complaint of frequent urine leakage. What is the initial method to evaluate urinary incontinence or overactive bladder in women?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of therapy

      Explanation:

      Importance of a Bladder Diary in Assessing Urinary Incontinence

      A bladder diary is a crucial tool in the initial assessment of urinary incontinence or overactive bladder syndrome in women. It helps to identify patterns and triggers of urinary symptoms, which can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of the condition. Women should be encouraged to complete a minimum of three days of the diary to cover variations of their usual activities, including work and leisure time.

      By keeping track of their urinary habits, women can provide their healthcare provider with valuable information about their symptoms, such as frequency, urgency, and leakage. This information can help the provider to determine the type and severity of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, it is essential for women to use a bladder diary when experiencing urinary incontinence or overactive bladder syndrome.

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  • Question 85 - Which one of the following statements regarding the assessment of proteinuria in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the assessment of proteinuria in elderly patients with chronic kidney disease is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An ACR sample is collected over 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

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  • Question 86 - A 72-year-old man presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction. You suggest a trial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with complaints of erectile dysfunction. You suggest a trial of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (such as sildenafil) after discussing his condition. What would be a contraindication to prescribing this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recent chest pain awaiting cardiology opinion

      Explanation:

      The use of PDE 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, is contraindicated in individuals who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or unstable angina. However, in the case of someone experiencing chest pain and awaiting cardiology opinion, caution should also be exercised before prescribing these medications due to the potential cardiac nature of the symptoms. Additionally, patients with known angina who use a GTN spray should wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil, or 48 hours after taking tadalafil, to avoid the risk of excessive hypotension leading to a myocardial infarction.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 87 - A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist.

      What is an example of a medication that falls under the category of muscarinic antagonist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 88 - Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty...

    Incorrect

    • Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Gout and Kidney Disease: Prevalence and Risks

      Gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, is associated with an increased risk of kidney disease. The prevalence of nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) in people with gout is higher than in the general population, and chronic urate nephropathy can lead to inflammation and fibrosis in the kidneys. Screening for kidney disease is important for patients with gout, as the prevalence of CKD stage ≥3 is 24%. However, end-stage CKD is less common in gout patients. It is important to note that glomerulosclerosis is associated with diabetes mellitus, while glomerulonephritis is an acute inflammation of the kidney caused by an immune response, and pyelonephritis is due to bacterial infection.

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  • Question 89 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of fever, low-grade back pain, and rigors that have been going on for 3 days. He also reports an increase in his frequency of urination. He has a medical history of well-controlled asthma and type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM).

      What is the most common causative agent of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by E. coli, with young females having the highest incidence. Given the patient’s symptoms and previous T1DM diagnosis, this is a likely diagnosis. While other organisms can also cause pyelonephritis, any that can ascend up the genitourinary tract, E. coli is the most frequent culprit.

      Understanding Acute Pyelonephritis

      Acute pyelonephritis is a condition that is commonly caused by an ascending infection, usually E. coli from the lower urinary tract. However, it can also be caused by the spread of infection through the bloodstream, leading to sepsis. The clinical features of acute pyelonephritis include fever, rigors, loin pain, nausea/vomiting, and symptoms of cystitis such as dysuria and urinary frequency.

      To diagnose acute pyelonephritis, patients should have a mid-stream urine (MSU) test before starting antibiotics. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered. Local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available, and the BNF currently recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone (for non-pregnant women) for 7-10 days.

      In summary, acute pyelonephritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience any of the clinical features mentioned above.

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  • Question 90 - A 55-year-old man is found to have an eGFR of 65 ml/min/1.73 m2...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is found to have an eGFR of 65 ml/min/1.73 m2 on routine testing. This is the first time this test has been done.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about his management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His eGFR should be repeated in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      This man is likely to have stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD). If an initial abnormal eGFR result is detected, it is important to conduct clinical assessment and repeat the test within 2 weeks to evaluate the rate of change in GFR. If CKD is confirmed, at least three eGFR assessments should be made over a period of not less than 90 days to monitor the rate of change in GFR. The frequency of eGFR monitoring will depend on the severity of kidney impairment. Significant progression of CKD is defined as a decline in eGFR of > 5 ml/min/1.73 m² within 1 year or >10 ml/min/1.73 m² within 5 years.

      Proteinuria should be assessed by measuring the protein:creatinine or albumin:creatinine ratio, ideally on an early-morning urine specimen. Proteinuria (ACR ≥30 mg/mmol) together with haematuria may indicate glomerulonephritis and is an indication for referral. However, dipstick testing for haematuria is a screening tool that requires microscopy to make a definitive diagnosis. Haematuria is defined as >3 RBC/high power field of centrifuged sediment under the microscope. If there is only a trace, a sample needs to be sent to confirm haematuria. Patients with CKD should have their proteinuria level assessed at least annually.

      To manage CKD, systolic blood pressure should be lowered to <140 mm Hg (target range 120-139 mmHg) and diastolic blood pressure to <90 mm Hg. Atorvastatin 20 mg should be offered for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD to people with CKD.

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  • Question 91 - A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the past 10 years presents with painless haematuria. He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day.

      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin of 110 g/L (120-160), urinalysis shows ++ blood and PA chest x ray shows small flecks of white opacifications in the upper lobe of the left lung.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Risk Factors for Haematuria and Anaemia in a Middle-Aged Male

      The most likely diagnosis for a middle-aged male presenting with haematuria and anaemia is carcinoma of the bladder. This is supported by the patient’s history of smoking, which is a known risk factor for bladder cancer. Although renal TB is a possibility, the absence of systemic symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss makes it less likely. The opacifications in the lung are consistent with previous primary TB. It is important to note that renal TB can present without systemic symptoms, but bladder cancer is more common in this scenario. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial in cases of haematuria and anaemia, and further investigations should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

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  • Question 92 - You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a relationship for 3 years, and this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.

      After conducting a thorough psychosexual history, which findings from the following list would indicate an organic cause rather than a psychogenic cause for his issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A normal libido

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, mixed, or drug-induced.

      Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset of the condition, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems, major life events, and psychological issues.

      On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset of the condition, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history such as cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological conditions, previous operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.

      Therefore, having a normal libido is indicative of an organic cause of ED.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old man comes in with an inflamed glans and prepuce of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes in with an inflamed glans and prepuce of his penis. He has not been sexually active for six months and denies any discharge. He reports cleaning the area twice a day. He has no history of joint problems or skin conditions. Which of the following statements is accurate in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is likely this is an allergic reaction

      Explanation:

      Balanitis: Causes and Management

      Balanitis is a common condition that presents in general practice. It can have various causes, but the most likely cause in many cases is an irritant reaction from excessive washing and use of soaps. Other common causes include Candida, psoriasis, and other skin conditions. If there is any discharge, swabbing should be done. If ulceration is present, herpes simplex virus (HSV) should be considered. In older men with persistent symptoms, Premalignant conditions and possible biopsy may be considered.

      The management of balanitis involves advice, reassurance, and a topical steroid as the initial treatment. Testing for glycosuria should be considered to rule out Candida. If the symptoms persist, further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause. It is important to identify the cause of balanitis to ensure appropriate management and prevent recurrence. By understanding the causes and management of balanitis, healthcare professionals can provide effective care to patients with this condition.

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  • Question 94 - You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 60-year-old gentleman who has presented with a three day history of dysuria and frequency of urination. There is no reported visible haematuria. He has no history of urinary tract infections, however, he does report longstanding problems with poor urinary stream, hesitancy of urination, and nocturia.

      Clinical examination of his abdomen and loins is unremarkable and he has no fever or systemic upset.

      Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites positive
      leucocytes ++
      protein ++
      blood ++.

      You diagnose a urinary tract infection, send a urine sample to the laboratory for analysis, and treat him with a course of antibiotics.

      You go on to chat about his more longstanding lower urinary tract symptoms. Following this discussion, he is keen to have a rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. Digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign feeling prostate.

      Two days later, the laboratory urine results return confirming a urinary tract infection.

      When is the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The test can be performed any time from now

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, or ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if the person has recently ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the past 48 hours, the test should also be postponed. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, studies have shown that rectal examination has minimal impact on PSA levels.

      In summary, several factors can affect the results of the PSA blood test, and it is crucial to consider these factors before interpreting the test results accurately.

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  • Question 95 - A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman with diet-controlled type II diabetes is being treated with a thiazide, a beta blocker and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for hypertension. Her General Practitioner has recently increased some of her medication and has asked her to return to the surgery for a repeat blood pressure measurement and blood test to check for renal function and electrolytes.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Serum potassium concentration 3.1 mmol/l 3.5-5.0 mmol/l
      Blood pressure 156/94 mmHg <140/90 mmHg
      Serum creatinine concentration 115 µmol/l 70-120 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the single most likely cause of her hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The thiazide diuretic

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypokalaemia: Understanding the Factors that Lower Potassium Levels

      Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is the use of thiazide diuretics, which inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney. This can lead to excess potassium loss via urine, especially in patients with underlying renal impairment. However, the use of a potassium-sparing diuretic can help offset this problem.

      Another possible cause of hypokalaemia is primary aldosteronism, also known as Conn syndrome. This condition can cause hypertension and hypokalaemia, but it only accounts for a small percentage of hypertension cases.

      Low dietary potassium intake is also a factor that can contribute to hypokalaemia, although it is less common in people who are eating normally. Potassium depletion is more likely to occur in cases of starvation.

      Renal tubular acidosis type 4, which is often seen in patients with diabetes, is associated with hyperkalaemia rather than hypokalaemia. On the other hand, renal tubular acidosis types 1 and 2 are linked to hypokalaemia.

      Lastly, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors tend to raise the plasma potassium concentration rather than decrease it, due to their action on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

      Understanding the various causes of hypokalaemia is important in identifying and treating the underlying condition.

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  • Question 96 - A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
    Select the single most...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with chronic renal failure presents with anaemia.
      Select the single most likely cause.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease

      Anaemia is a common complication in patients with chronic kidney disease, with a prevalence of about 12%. As the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) falls, the prevalence of anaemia increases. Patients should be investigated if their haemoglobin falls to 110g/L or less or if symptoms of anaemia develop.

      The typical normochromic normocytic anaemia of chronic kidney disease mainly develops from decreased renal synthesis of erythropoietin. Anaemia becomes more severe as the glomerular filtration rate decreases. Iron deficiency is also common and may be due to poor dietary intake or occult bleeding. Other factors contributing to anaemia include the presence of uraemic inhibitors, a reduced half-life of circulating blood cells, or deficiency of folate or vitamin B12.

      Although supplements of vitamin C have been used as adjuvant therapy in the anaemia of chronic kidney disease, NICE recommends that they should not be prescribed for this purpose as evidence suggests no benefit. It is important to monitor and manage anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease to improve their quality of life and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 97 - You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a 84-year-old woman in a nursing home. The result shows a pure growth of Escherichia coli with full sensitivity but levels of white cells and red blood cells are within the normal range. You telephone the nursing home and are told that she is well in herself but that they routinely send urine specimens on all patients.
      Select the single most appropriate management option in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action required

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Elderly and Pregnant Women

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition in elderly and pregnant women. In healthy patients, a pure growth with normal white and red cells doesn’t require treatment unless an invasive urological procedure is planned. However, in pregnant women, it should be treated as it is associated with low birth weight and premature delivery. There is no evidence of long-term harm or benefit from medication in patients with a normal renal tract. It is important to be cautious in apparently asymptomatic men who may have chronic prostatitis.

      Public Health England advises against sending urine for culture in asymptomatic elderly individuals with positive dipsticks. Urine should only be sent for culture if there are two or more signs of infection, such as dysuria, fever > 38 °C, or new incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in the elderly should not be treated as it is very common, and treating it doesn’t reduce mortality or prevent symptomatic episodes. In fact, treating it can increase side effects and antibiotic resistance.

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  • Question 98 - A 62-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with bothersome urinary symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with bothersome urinary symptoms of urinary frequency, nocturia and hesitancy. His International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) is 20/35. A recent digital rectal examination (DRE) shows a smoothly enlarged prostate. His blood test results show a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level of 3.5 ng/ml (age-specific normal range for ages 60-69: < 4.0 ng/ml). What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamsulosin and finasteride

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which is common in men over 45 years old and presents with urinary frequency, nocturia, and hesitancy. Upon examination, his prostate is enlarged but his PSA is normal. Based on his moderate voiding symptoms, he should receive combination therapy with an alpha-blocker (such as tamsulosin) and a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (such as finasteride). Finasteride works to physically reduce the size of the prostate, but may take up to six months to show improvement, while the alpha-blocker works quickly to relieve symptoms but has no long-term impact. For patients at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor alone should be offered. It is important to counsel patients about common side-effects, including erectile dysfunction and safety issues. Goserelin is not appropriate in this case as it is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Oxybutynin may be added for patients with a mixture of storage and voiding symptoms that persist after treatment with an alpha-blocker. Tamsulosin alone may be offered for those with mild symptoms not responding to conservative management or those who decline treatment with finasteride. Common side-effects of tamsulosin include dizziness and sexual dysfunction, and it should be used with caution in the elderly and those with a history of postural hypotension or micturition syncope.

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  • Question 99 - A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he should undergo a digital rectal examination to assess his prostate.
      For which of the following would it be most appropriate to conduct a digital rectal examination (DRE) to assess prostate size and consistency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing: Important Considerations

      In patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), it is important to consider the possibility of locally advanced prostate cancer causing obstructive LUTS. Therefore, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test and digital rectal exam (DRE) should be offered to men with obstructive symptoms.

      While family history is a significant risk factor for prostate cancer, a grandfather’s history of the disease may not be as significant as a first-degree relative’s (father or brother) history.

      If a man presents with symptoms of urinary tract infection, it is important to investigate and treat the infection before considering any PSA testing. Prostate cancer typically doesn’t cause symptoms of urinary tract infection.

      Currently, there is no formal screening program for prostate cancer. However, men may choose to request a PSA test after being informed of the potential benefits and risks. It is important to note that DRE alone should not be used for screening.

      Prior to testing for PSA, it is recommended to perform DRE at least a week prior as it can falsely elevate PSA levels.

      Key Considerations for Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing

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  • Question 100 - An individual who is 70 years old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer...

    Incorrect

    • An individual who is 70 years old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is prescribed goserelin (Zoladex). During the first three weeks of treatment, what is the most crucial medication to co-prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Explanation:

      To prevent tumour flare, it is recommended to co-prescribe anti-androgen treatment like cyproterone acetate when initiating gonadorelin analogues. This is because the initial stimulation of luteinising hormone release by the pituitary gland can lead to an increase in testosterone levels. According to the BNF, cyproterone acetate should be started three days prior to the gonadorelin analogue.

      Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.

      In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

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  • Question 101 - You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present for a few months. The varicocele is not causing him any discomfort and has not increased in size, measuring about 2 cm in diameter. During examination, the varicocele is only noticeable when the patient performs the Valsalva manoeuvre. The patient expresses concern about his future fertility, despite not having any immediate plans for children.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Men should not be offered surgery for varicoceles as a form of fertility treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.

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  • Question 102 - A 40-year-old male patient complains of a lump in his right scrotum that...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male patient complains of a lump in his right scrotum that has been present for the past 2 weeks. He denies any pain or urinary symptoms and reports stable weight. Upon examination, a smooth 4mm lump is palpated above and separate from the testicle, which is mobile and non-tender. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epididymal cyst

      Explanation:

      Based on the description provided, it is probable that the lump is an epididymal cyst. The patient doesn’t appear to be experiencing any symptoms associated with the lump. It is not a teratoma as it is not located in the testicle. A hydrocoele is a swelling of one side of the scrotum, and there are no lymph nodes in this area. Varicoceles typically feel like a cluster of veins and are more commonly found on the left side. An ultrasound of the scrotum can be used to confirm the diagnosis of an epididymal cyst.

      Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele

      Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.

      Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

      Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.

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  • Question 103 - A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with acute urinary retention. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with acute urinary retention. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Urinary Retention: Understanding the Common Triggers

      Urinary retention is a condition that affects many people, and it can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause of urinary retention is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which accounts for over half of all cases. Prostate cancer is another potential cause, although it is less common, accounting for only 13% of cases.

      In addition to these conditions, drugs can also cause urinary retention in some cases. Anticholinergics, antihistamines, calcium channel blockers, nasal decongestants, opioids, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, benzodiazepines, and alcohol are all potential culprits. Spinal cord compression, such as intervertebral disc lesions and spinal tumors, can also lead to urinary retention, although this is a less common cause.

      Finally, acute urinary retention is often seen after surgery. This can be due to pain from traumatic instrumentation, bladder overdistension, or drugs. Understanding the various causes of urinary retention can help individuals and healthcare providers identify potential triggers and develop effective treatment plans.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 104 - A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been bothering him for two months. He has been in good health but noticed tenderness and swelling in the right breast during a basketball game. Upon examination, breast tissue is palpable in both breasts, and the right breast is tender. Additionally, a non-tender lump of 3 cm in diameter is found in the right testicle, which does not transilluminate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Testicular Lesions and Gynaecomastia in Young Males

      This young male is presenting with tender gynaecomastia and a suspicious testicular lesion. The most likely diagnosis in this age group is a teratoma, as seminoma tends to be more common in older individuals. Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of testicular tumours, as the tumour may secrete betaHCG. Other tumour markers of teratoma include alphafetoprotein (AFP). It is important to note that testicular lymphoma typically presents in individuals over the age of 40 and is not associated with gynaecomastia. Early detection and treatment of testicular lesions is crucial for optimal outcomes.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 105 - A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man who has type II diabetes attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He takes metformin and gliclazide.
      On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 130/80 mmHg. There are no signs of retinopathy. He feels well.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) 53 mmol/mol < 43 mmol/mol
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 55 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) 5.4 mg/mmol (up from 3.0 mg/mmol three months ago) < 1.0 mg/mmol
      What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Kidney Disease in a Patient with Diabetes: Treatment Options

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a common complication of diabetes, and early management is crucial to slow progression. In a patient with diabetic nephropathy and stage 3a CKD, the following treatment options are available:

      1. Start an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor: This is the most appropriate first-line treatment to reduce the risk of all-cause mortality in patients with diabetic kidney disease.

      2. Refer him to a Nephrologist: Management of CKD requires specialized care to slow progression.

      3. Optimise his diabetic control and repeat the test in six months: While important, diabetic control should not be the focus of immediate management in this patient.

      4. Start a direct renin inhibitor: This treatment is not a priority as the patient’s blood pressure is already below the target.

      5. Start a low-protein diet and repeat urinalysis in six months: Dietary protein restriction is not recommended in early-stage CKD, but high-protein intake should be avoided in stage 4 CKD under the guidance of a dietitian.

      In conclusion, early management of CKD in patients with diabetes is crucial to slow progression and reduce the risk of mortality. Treatment options should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and managed by a specialist.

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      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 106 - You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal...