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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman has plaques of psoriasis on her face.
    Select the single most...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has plaques of psoriasis on her face.
      Select the single most suitable preparation for her to apply.

      Your Answer: Calcipotriol ointment

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone cream 1%

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Facial Psoriasis: Precautions and Options

      When it comes to treating psoriasis on the face, it is important to keep in mind that the skin in this area is particularly sensitive. While various preparations can be used, some may cause irritation, staining, or other unwanted effects. For instance, calcipotriol can irritate the skin, betamethasone can lead to skin atrophy, and coal tar and dithranol can cause staining. Therefore, milder options are typically preferred, such as hydrocortisone or clobetasone butyrate. These may also be combined with an agent that is effective against Candida for flexural psoriasis.

      It is important to note that corticosteroids should only be used for a limited time (1-2 weeks per month) to treat facial psoriasis. If short-term moderate potency corticosteroids do not provide satisfactory results or if continuous treatment is needed, a calcineurin inhibitor such as pimecrolimus cream or tacrolimus ointment may be used for up to 4 weeks. However, it is worth noting that these options do not have a license for this particular indication. Overall, caution and careful consideration of the options are key when treating psoriasis on the face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 71-year-old insulin-treated diabetic patient is curious about driving with diabetes. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old insulin-treated diabetic patient is curious about driving with diabetes. He has experienced occasional episodes of hypoglycemia while at home but always carries a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with him and checks his blood sugar levels at the recommended intervals while driving. He is aware of the blood sugar threshold below which he should cease driving. If he needs to stop driving due to low blood sugar, he knows he should consume fast-acting carbohydrate and wait for his blood glucose levels to return to normal. How long should he wait after his blood sugar levels have returned to normal before resuming his journey?

      Your Answer: 45 minutes

      Correct Answer: 30 minutes

      Explanation:

      Safe Driving for Insulin-Treated Diabetics

      Insulin-treated diabetics need to take extra precautions when driving to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road. It is important for them to test their blood sugar levels within two hours of starting a journey and every two hours thereafter. If their blood sugar drops below 5 mmol/litre, they should take a snack to raise their blood sugar levels. If their blood sugar drops below 4, they should stop driving immediately.

      Insulin-treated diabetics should always carry a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with them in case of an episode of low blood sugar. They should not continue their journey until 45 minutes have elapsed after their blood sugar levels have returned to normal. By following these guidelines, insulin-treated diabetics can ensure their safety while driving and avoid any potential accidents on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      64.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with needle marks on his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with needle marks on his arms, looking underweight and unwell. He admits to drug abuse and is febrile with shivering, but no localising symptoms are evident. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Endocarditis in Intravenous Drug Abusers: A Common Cause of Pyrexia of Unknown Origin

      Pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO) can be caused by various factors, but in intravenous drug abusers without localizing symptoms, infective endocarditis should be considered a strong possibility. This may be the only sign of endocarditis in such patients, making diagnosis difficult and requiring a high index of suspicion. Tricuspid valve involvement is common, and a murmur may be absent due to the small pressure gradient across this valve. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common infecting organism, and many patients also have Human Immunodeficiency Virus infection, which can also cause PUO. Pulmonary manifestations are often seen in patients with tricuspid valve infection, including pleuritic pain, lung abscess, and radiographic changes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What criteria must a patient meet to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What criteria must a patient meet to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: A 66-year-old fit and well asymptomatic gentleman with a fasting glucose of 6.6 mmol/L and a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol. A second HbA1c test a few weeks later also comes back as 48 mmol/mol

      Correct Answer: A 69-year-old asymptomatic gentleman who is otherwise well who has a one-off random glucose of 11.5 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus

      In a patient showing symptoms such as thirst, polyuria, nocturia, and blurred vision, diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed if any of the following criteria are met: HbA1c ≥48 mmol/mol, fasting glucose ≥7.0 mmol/L, OGTT 2 hour value ≥11.1 mmol/L, or random glucose ≥11.1 mmol/L. However, in the absence of classic symptoms or hyperglycaemic crisis, the test(s) should be repeated to confirm the criteria are met before a diagnosis can be made.

      The correct answer to diagnose diabetes mellitus is a gentleman who has a raised fasting glucose. Although the fasting glucose on its own is not diagnostic of diabetes mellitus, it would have to be ≥7.0 mmol/L and confirmed on a repeat test. However, the HbA1c is compatible with the diagnosis, and a second HbA1c test confirms the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      41.5
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is most audible at the left sternal edge. The apex beat is also displaced outwards. What condition is commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Aortic Regurgitation

      Aortic regurgitation is a heart condition characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole. One of the key features of this condition is a blowing high pitched early diastolic murmur that can be heard immediately after A2. This murmur is loudest at the left third and fourth intercostal spaces.

      In addition to the murmur, aortic regurgitation can also cause displacement of the apex beat. This is due to the dilatation of the left ventricle, which occurs as a result of the increased volume of blood that flows back into the ventricle during diastole. Despite this dilatation, there is relatively little hypertrophy of the left ventricle.

      Overall, the combination of a high pitched early diastolic murmur and displacement of the apex beat can be strong indicators of aortic regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old male presents at your clinic with symptoms resembling the flu. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presents at your clinic with symptoms resembling the flu. He has recently been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and seeks guidance on managing his diabetes during illness. What is one of the 'sick-day rules' that insulin-dependent diabetics should follow when they are sick?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aim to drink at least 3L of fluid

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that patients consume a minimum of 3 liters of fluids within a 24-hour period. Patients should maintain their regular insulin routine but monitor their blood glucose levels more frequently, making options 1 and 2 incorrect. It is not advisable to replace main meals with sugary foods, but if a patient is having difficulty eating, they may consume sugary beverages. Additionally, ketone levels should be checked more frequently, every 3-4 hours or more frequently based on the results.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus during Illness: Sick Day Rules

      When a patient with diabetes mellitus becomes unwell, it is important to provide them with key messages to manage their condition. Increasing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring to at least four hourly is crucial, as well as encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 litres in 24 hours. If the patient is struggling to eat, sugary drinks may be necessary to maintain carbohydrate intake. Educating patients to have a box of sick day supplies can also be helpful. Access to a mobile phone has been shown to reduce the progression of ketosis to diabetic ketoacidosis.

      Patients taking oral hypoglycemic medication should continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. However, metformin should be stopped if the patient is becoming dehydrated due to its potential impact on renal function. Patients on insulin must not stop taking it, as this can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. They should continue their normal insulin regime and check their blood sugars frequently. If ketone levels are raised and blood sugars are also raised, corrective doses of insulin may be necessary. The corrective dose varies by patient, but a rule of thumb is the total daily insulin dose divided by 6 (maximum 15 units).

      Possible indications for hospital admission include suspicion of underlying illness requiring hospital treatment, inability to keep fluids down for more than a few hours, persistent diarrhea, significant ketosis in an insulin-dependent diabetic despite additional insulin, blood glucose persistently >20 mmol/l despite additional insulin, patient unable to manage adjustments to usual diabetes management, and lack of support at home (e.g., a patient who lives alone and is at risk of becoming unconscious). By following these sick day rules, patients with diabetes mellitus can better manage their condition during illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 7 - A pediatrician is presented with a report of a clinical trial for a...

    Incorrect

    • A pediatrician is presented with a report of a clinical trial for a new medication for children. The report states:

      In a comparison between the new medication and a placebo, a higher proportion of pediatric patients taking the new medication experienced relief from symptoms (p <0.05).

      What can be concluded about the study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The result may have occurred by chance alone in less than one in 20 occasions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Significance in Medical Studies

      In medical studies, statistical significance is used to determine whether the results of a study are likely to have occurred by chance or if they are truly meaningful. The correct answer to a statistical significance test is that the result may have occurred by chance alone in less than one in 20 occasions. This means that the observed difference between the placebo and treatment groups is deemed statistically significant if the likelihood of it happening by chance is less than one in 20.

      It is important to note that statistical significance is not the same as clinical significance. A statistically significant result may not necessarily have practical clinical value if the clinical change is tiny or negligible. Therefore, it is crucial to consider both statistical and clinical significance when interpreting the results of a medical study.

      To determine whether a study was well designed, it is necessary to have the full details of the study design, including the method of subject selection, type of study, randomisation, study regime, blinding, and assessment of clinical results. Only with this information can we assess the validity and reliability of the study’s findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex the day before. She expresses her reluctance to use intrauterine methods and is prescribed Levonelle. Additionally, she is interested in starting a combined contraceptive pill.

      What advice would you give regarding the need for supplementary contraception when initiating a combined contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Starting Hormonal Contraception After Emergency Contraception

      When starting hormonal contraception after taking progesterone-only emergency contraception, it is important to advise the use of additional contraception until contraceptive efficacy is established. If there is still a risk of pregnancy, the woman should express her preference for contraception immediately and be aware of the theoretical risk of fetal exposure to hormones, although evidence indicates no harm. A pregnancy test should be suggested at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse.

      After taking progesterone-only emergency contraception, it is recommended to use condoms or avoid sex for seven days before starting most hormonal contraception. However, if ulipristal emergency contraception is taken, its effectiveness could be reduced if progestogen is taken in the following five days. Therefore, the quick start of suitable hormonal contraception should be delayed for five days (120 hours) after ulipristal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      0
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  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of recurrent falls and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of recurrent falls and syncopal attacks. He reports that a few of these episodes have occurred while he was getting dressed for church, putting on his shirt and tie; others have happened while he was out shopping, and one at the church itself. He explains that sometimes he doesn't actually lose consciousness, but just feels extremely dizzy, and on other occasions he passes out completely.

      The patient has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, and dyslipidaemia, for which he takes 10 mg of atorvastatin. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/88, his pulse is 65 and regular, and his heart sounds are normal. His chest is clear.

      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 130 g/L (135-180), a white cell count of 4.9 ×109/L (4-10), platelets of 222 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 139 mmol/L (134-143), potassium of 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine of 139 μmol/L (60-120). His ECG shows sinus rhythm with an inferior lead Q wave (lead III only), and a 72-hour ECG doesn't identify any significant rhythm disturbance.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sick sinus syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carotid Sinus Hypersensitivity and Differential Diagnosis

      The history of syncope during dressing for church, particularly when putting on a collared shirt, may suggest the possibility of carotid sinus hypersensitivity. To diagnose this condition, a tilt table test is the optimal method, but it is important to exclude significant carotid artery stenosis before performing carotid sinus massage. In patients with bradycardia carotid sinus hypersensitivity, cardiac pacing is the preferred treatment.

      Ménière’s disease is unlikely to be the cause of syncope in this case, as it typically presents with a triad of dizziness, deafness, and tinnitus. Sick sinus syndrome is also less likely, as it often manifests with sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, and alternating bradycardia and tachycardia. However, a Q wave in one inferior lead (III) may be a normal finding.

      In summary, when evaluating syncope, it is important to consider carotid sinus hypersensitivity as a potential cause and to differentiate it from other conditions such as Ménière’s disease and sick sinus syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions that she has noticed over the past few weeks. She is a single mother and works as a waitress, and has a long history of smoking and poor engagement with health and social services.
      On examination, she is overweight with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 (normal range: 20-25 kg/m2), with obvious cigarette burns on her arms. She has multiple small (ranging from 2-12 mm in diameter), flat, purple bruise-like lesions across her chest, back and arms.
      What causative agent is associated with the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)

      Explanation:

      The patient in this case has Kaposi’s sarcoma, a common tumor found in individuals with HIV infection. The tumor presents as dark purple/brown intradermal lesions that resemble bruises and can appear anywhere on the skin or oropharynx. Since HIV often goes undiagnosed, it is important to consider this diagnosis in patients with risk factors. This patient has a history of IV drug use and poor engagement with services, making it possible that they have never been tested for HIV. The patient is underweight with a low BMI, which could be a sign of HIV infection. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by the human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV).

      Shingles, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, is not related to Kaposi’s sarcoma. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpesvirus that can cause serious infections in immunocompromised individuals, but it is not associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is linked to cervical cancer and is not a herpesvirus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes oral and genital herpes, but it is not responsible for Kaposi’s sarcoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old White woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old White woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper quadrant pain, a liver mass, weight loss and anaemia. She describes no symptoms prior to this episode and is not on any regular medications.
      She drinks around ten units of alcohol per week and was previously an intravenous (IV) drug user, although she has not done this for many years. She has no significant family history.
      She is diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
      What is the most likely predisposing factor for this diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)

      Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of liver cancer that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the patient’s history of intravenous (IV) drug use puts her at risk of hepatitis B and C, which are the most common causes of HCC in Europe. Chronic hepatitis B or C infection can increase the risk of developing HCC by 3-5% per year, and having both infections can further increase the risk.

      Alcohol abuse is also a risk factor for HCC, but in this patient’s case, her drinking is not excessive. Hereditary hemochromatosis, a condition that causes the body to absorb too much iron, can also increase the risk of HCC, but it is less common than chronic hepatitis. However, this patient’s lack of previous symptoms and family history make it unlikely that hemochromatosis is the underlying cause of her HCC.

      Another possible predisposing factor for HCC is primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), an autoimmune disease that affects the liver’s bile ducts. PBC is more common in women and may present with fatigue and pruritus, but this patient’s symptoms do not fit this clinical picture.

      In summary, understanding the possible causes of HCC can help in identifying the underlying factors and developing appropriate treatment plans. In this patient’s case, chronic hepatitis B or C infection is the most likely cause of her HCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - You see a 6-year-old boy with some mild bruising to his buttocks.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-year-old boy with some mild bruising to his buttocks.

      Which of the following would be an unsuitable explanation when assessing an injury to a child and considering child maltreatment?

      Select the most appropriate answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The parents explain that bruising their child in certain circumstances is normal in their culture

      Explanation:

      Signs of Child Maltreatment

      It is crucial to remain vigilant for signs of child maltreatment in situations where an appropriate explanation is not provided. NICE has identified specific examples of unsuitable explanations, including when the explanation doesn’t account for the presenting symptoms, when it is inconsistent with the child’s typical behavior or medical history, when there are discrepancies between the explanations given by parents or between parents and the child, and when cultural beliefs are used to justify harm to the child. It is important to be aware of these warning signs and to take appropriate action to protect the child’s well-being. By recognizing these indicators, we can help prevent child abuse and ensure that children receive the care and protection they deserve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

    He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes and angina is seen for review.

      He has been known to have ischaemic heart disease for many years and has recently seen the cardiologists for outpatient review. Following this assessment he opted for medical management and they have optimised his bisoprolol dose. His current medications consist of:

      Aspirin 75 mg daily

      Ramipril 10 mg daily

      Bisoprolol 10 mg daily

      Simvastatin 40 mg daily, and

      Tadalafil 5 mg daily.

      He reports ongoing angina at least twice a week when out walking which dissipates quickly when he stops exerting himself. You discuss adding in further treatment to try and reduce his anginal symptoms.

      Assuming that his current medication remains unchanged, which of the following is contraindicated in this gentleman as an add-on regular medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Contraindication of Co-Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors and Nitrates

      Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors and nitrates should not be co-prescribed due to the potential risk of life-threatening hypotension caused by excessive vasodilation. It is important to consider whether nitrates are administered regularly or as needed (PRN) when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors. Patients who take regular daily nitrates, such as oral isosorbide mononitrate twice daily, should avoid phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors altogether.

      For patients who use sublingual GTN spray as a PRN nitrate medication, it is recommended to wait at least 24 hours after taking sildenafil or vardenafil and at least 48 hours after taking tadalafil before using GTN spray. This precaution helps to prevent the risk of hypotension and ensures patient safety. Overall, it is crucial to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of co-prescribing these medications and to follow appropriate guidelines to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of headaches that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of headaches that have been bothering her for the past four months. She reports that the pain is located over the right fronto-parietal area and describes it as a constant dull ache that is worse at night and sometimes wakes her up from sleep. She has tried taking paracetamol, but it hasn't provided much relief. She denies experiencing any nausea, vomiting, loss of consciousness, seizures, forgetfulness, or tinnitus. Her medical history includes breast cancer at the age of 35, which required a right mastectomy. She has been managing her hypertension with amlodipine 10 mg daily for the past ten years. On examination, there is evidence of mild osteoarthritis in several joints, a right-sided mastectomy scar, and no neurological abnormalities or papilloedema. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient and advise her to re-attend if the symptoms worsen or she notices new signs or symptoms

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Cancer Patients with Neurological Symptoms

      In patients previously diagnosed with cancer, urgent referral is necessary if they develop any new neurological symptoms such as recent onset seizure, persistent headache, progressive neurological deficit, new mental or cognitive changes, or new neurological signs. Although amlodipine can cause headaches, if the patient has been taking the medication for a long time without problems, it is unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms.

      The referral pathway may vary by region, but the NICE guidance on suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12) recommends direct access for urgent MRI instead of referral to a neurologist. This is because it results in a faster diagnostic process for adults with a tumor, as they will be referred straight to a neurosurgeon after the scan instead of first to neurology, then for a scan, and then to neurosurgery.

      It is important to note that these recommendations are not requirements and do not override clinical judgment. Primary care clinicians have expertise in recognizing patients who are ill and knowing when something is wrong. Therefore, clinicians should trust their clinical experience where there are particular reasons that this guidance doesn’t pertain to the specific presentation of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness of breath, and purulent sputum for the past week. He has a medical history of G6PD deficiency, COPD, and gallstones. The lab report shows that his sputum sample is positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. What class of medications could potentially cause a severe adverse reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulpha-containing drugs

      Explanation:

      Sulphur-containing drugs such as sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, and sulfonylureas can cause haemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency. On the other hand, penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are considered safe for use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful and red left eye. She denies...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful and red left eye. She denies any recent trauma to the eye but reports seeing floaters and experiencing discomfort when moving her eye. She also notes blurred vision. This is the fourth time she has experienced these symptoms.

      Upon examination, the left eye appears red and the pupil is irregular. The patient's visual acuity is slightly worse in the left eye compared to the right. Corneal staining reveals no abnormalities, but there are some cells present in the anterior chamber.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, and what is the recommended management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange same day assessment in eye casualty

      Explanation:

      If a patient displays symptoms consistent with anterior uveitis, such as a red and painful eye with reduced vision and flashes/floaters, urgent referral for assessment by an ophthalmologist on the same day is the most appropriate course of action. Anterior uveitis is characterized by inflammation in the anterior segment of the eye, with the presence of cells in the aqueous humour and an abnormally shaped or differently sized pupil compared to the unaffected eye. While the pain is not as severe as scleritis, prompt evaluation by a specialist is crucial for proper treatment.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of fever, chills and a headache after returning from a trip to Sub-Saharan Africa. Past data shows that 70% of patients with these symptoms and a travel history to this region have Malaria. The calculated likelihood for a negative test result is 0.1.

      What is the significance of this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a 10 fold decrease in the odds of the patient having malaria with a negative test result

      Explanation:

      When a test result is negative, the likelihood ratio measures how much the odds of having the disease decrease. This ratio is used to determine the likelihood of a patient having a particular condition or disease. A higher likelihood ratio indicates a greater likelihood of having the condition, while a lower likelihood ratio suggests that the patient is less likely to have the condition. The negative likelihood ratio specifically measures the change in odds for patients with a negative test result. Conversely, the positive likelihood ratio measures the change in odds for patients with a positive test result.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of morning sickness. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of morning sickness. She is 10 weeks pregnant. She can keep down oral fluid but has vomited twice in the previous 24 hours. There are no acid reflux symptoms, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding or urinary symptoms.

      She takes folic acid and is not on any other medications.

      On examination, her temperature is 36.8ºC. Blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg and heart rate is 80/min. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urine B-HCG is positive and urine dipstick shows 1+ ketone only. There is no weight loss.

      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence on oral cyclizine

      Explanation:

      The first-line management for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy/hyperemesis gravidarum is antihistamines, specifically oral cyclizine. Second-line options include ondansetron and domperidone. Hospital admission may be necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral antiemetics or fluids, symptoms are not controlled with primary care management, or hyperemesis gravidarum is suspected. There is no indication for oral omeprazole in this case as the patient has not reported any dyspeptic symptoms.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.

      Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.

      Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old man presents to the surgery with intermittent palpitations, occurring for approximately...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the surgery with intermittent palpitations, occurring for approximately 60 minutes every five to six days.

      Careful questioning reveals no clear precipitating factors, and he is otherwise an infrequent attender to the surgery. On examination, his BP is 140/80 mmHg, his pulse irregular at 100 bpm, but otherwise cardiovascular and respiratory examination is unremarkable.

      You arrange for an ECG the following day with the practice nurse, which is normal.

      What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an event recorder ECG

      Explanation:

      Recommended Investigation for Diagnosis of Heart Condition

      The recommended investigation for confirming the diagnosis of the heart condition in this scenario is an event recorder electrocardiogram (ECG). This is because symptomatic episodes are more than 24 hours apart, making a 24-hour ambulatory ECG less likely to confirm the diagnosis. While echocardiography may be useful in evaluating atrial fibrillation, a diagnosis must first be made.

      It is important to note that there is no indication of haemodynamic compromise in this scenario, so acute admission is not necessary. By conducting the appropriate investigation, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat the heart condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old man presents to your emergency clinic with worsening pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to your emergency clinic with worsening pain in his right ear. He had previously been diagnosed with otitis externa and started on antibiotic ear drops by another physician four days ago. However, he reports that the pain has only gotten worse and he has been unable to apply the drops for the past 24 hours due to swelling of the canal. Upon examination, you notice that the right external auditory canal is completely swollen shut and you are unable to see any further. The patient's vital signs are normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to on-call ENT

      Explanation:

      If topical antibiotics do not provide relief for otitis externa, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist. This is because the infection can cause swelling and narrowing of the ear canal, making it difficult for antibiotic drops to be effective. In such cases, microsuction and insertion of a pope wick may be necessary, which requires the expertise of an ENT specialist.

      Ear syringing should not be performed during an active infection as it will not be helpful.

      Steroids are often included in antibiotic ear drops, but they will not be effective if the drops cannot reach the ear canal.

      Oral antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin, may be prescribed alongside topical antibiotics if there is concern of a deep tissue infection. However, this is unlikely in a young and otherwise healthy patient, and the primary treatment remains antibiotic drops.

      If necrotising otitis externa is suspected, a CT scan may be helpful, but this would be arranged by an ENT specialist and is not necessary in most cases.

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management

      Otitis externa is a prevalent condition that often prompts primary care visits in the UK. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and can be caused by bacterial or fungal infections, seborrhoeic dermatitis, or contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger for otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal may appear red, swollen, or eczematous.

      The recommended initial management for otitis externa is the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. If there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, and if the canal is extensively swollen, an ear wick may be inserted. Second-line options include taking a swab inside the ear canal, considering contact dermatitis secondary to neomycin, or using oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin if the infection is spreading. Empirical use of an antifungal agent may also be considered.

      It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, they should be referred to an ENT specialist. Malignant otitis externa is a more severe form of the condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics. While some ENT doctors disagree, concerns about ototoxicity may arise with the use of aminoglycosides in patients with perforated tympanic membranes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 21 - Admissions to a pediatric admissions unit were audited for a period of one...

    Incorrect

    • Admissions to a pediatric admissions unit were audited for a period of one week. For 225 admissions, the mean length of time to see a doctor was 2.5 hours and the median time to see a doctor was 1.5 hours.
      Which of the following correctly describes the distribution of the time to see a doctor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positively skewed

      Explanation:

      Understanding Skewed Distributions

      Skewed distributions are a common occurrence in data analysis. A positively skewed distribution is one where the tail on the right side is longer than the left side, caused by a small number of extremely large values. This can cause the mean to be pulled towards the right tail, with most values being less than the mean. An approximately normal distribution is symmetric, with the median and mean being equal. A left-skewed distribution has a long left tail caused by a small number of extremely low values, with the mean usually being less than the median. A negatively skewed distribution is synonymous with left-skewed, with the median usually being higher than the mean. A symmetric distribution, such as the normal distribution, has no skew and the mean and median are equal. Understanding the type of distribution can help in making accurate interpretations and decisions based on the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with burns on the extensor...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with burns on the extensor aspects of his lower legs. He accidentally spilled hot water on himself while wearing shorts. Upon examination, he has pale, pink skin with small blisters forming. The burns are classified as superficial dermal burns. Using a chart, you calculate the TBSA of the burns. What is the minimum TBSA that would require immediate referral to the plastic surgeons?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      First Aid and Management of Burns

      Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.

      Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - During her annual medication review, a 36 year old woman with psoriasis should...

    Incorrect

    • During her annual medication review, a 36 year old woman with psoriasis should be screened for which associated conditions as recommended by NICE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthropathy

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is linked to all the aforementioned conditions. To ensure early detection of psoriatic arthropathy, NICE advises annual screening of psoriasis patients using a validated tool like the Psoriasis Epidemiological Screening Tool (PEST). Additionally, patients should undergo cardiovascular risk assessment every 5 years, or more frequently if necessary.

      Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48 hour history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48 hour history of dysuria and visible blood in his urine. He also reports some frequency of urination. However, he denies fever, abdominal pain or loin pain and feels generally well. He mentions that his urine has gradually cleared and looks normal again since he first noticed the frank blood. On examination, he appears systemically well with a regular pulse rate of 76 and blood pressure of 138/76 mmHg. His abdomen and loins are unremarkable on palpation. A urine sample is obtained and dipstick testing reveals leucocytes ++ and blood+++. You prescribe antibiotics to cover a urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send a urine sample to establish accurately the presence of a urinary infection

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria

      Male or female patients who present with painless visible haematuria should be referred urgently for specialist assessment. However, if a patient presents with dysuria and visible haematuria, it is important to establish whether there is a urinary tract infection. If an infection is present, it can be treated appropriately, and referral for further investigation of the haematuria may not be necessary.

      On the other hand, if an infection is not confirmed, urgent referral is warranted to investigate the haematuria with speed. Therefore, the next most appropriate step is to establish if a urinary tract infection is present. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of haematuria to ensure prompt and effective treatment. Early referral and assessment can help prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 25 - A 32 year old woman who is 15 days postpartum visits your clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman who is 15 days postpartum visits your clinic complaining of feeling feverish and hot for the past 3 days. She reports having a painful, swollen, and red right breast. During examination, her temperature is 37.8 degrees, and there is firmness and erythema in the upper quadrant of the right breast. Based on the diagnosis of puerperal mastitis, what is the most appropriate advice to provide her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise her to continue Breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women, typically occurring six weeks after giving birth. It can be difficult to distinguish between an engorged breast, blocked duct, non-infectious mastitis, and infected mastitis. Milk accumulation in breast tissue can cause an inflammatory response, leading to bacterial growth and resulting in a painful breast with fever, malaise, and a tender, red, swollen, and hard area of the breast.

      If symptoms do not improve or worsen after 12-24 hours despite effective milk removal, or if a nipple fissure is infected, infectious mastitis should be suspected. Breast milk culture is not routinely required unless mastitis is severe, there has been no response to antibiotics, or this is recurrent mastitis.

      Management of mastitis involves relieving pain with simple analgesia and warm compresses, and ensuring complete emptying of the breast after feeding. Breastfeeding should be continued as it improves milk removal and prevents nipple damage. If pain prevents breastfeeding, expressing breast milk by hand or pump is recommended until breastfeeding can be resumed.

      Antibiotics are only recommended if necessary, and the first line antibiotic is flucloxacillin for 14 days (erythromycin if penicillin allergic). Intravenous antibiotics are rarely needed, but urgent referral to breast surgeons for drainage may be necessary if a breast abscess is suspected.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Management

      Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.

      Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.

      Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.

      Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.

      Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old man of Mediterranean descent presented to his GP with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man of Mediterranean descent presented to his GP with complaints of increased fatigue, jaundice, and abdominal discomfort. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, hyperlipidaemia, and glucose-6-phosphate deficiency. The patient takes lansoprazole, ramipril, metformin, simvastatin, and glimepiride regularly and drinks about 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, the patient had mild scleral icterus, splenomegaly, and mild abdominal tenderness in the left upper quadrant. His recent blood results showed low Hb levels, normal platelets and WBC count, high bilirubin, ALP, and γGT levels, and low albumin levels. The blood film showed bite cells and blister cells. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glimepiride

      Explanation:

      Glimepiride, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes and belonging to the sulphonylurea class, can trigger haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency. This can be indicated by mild anaemia, elevated bilirubin levels, and the presence of bite cells and blister cells on a blood film, suggesting haemolytic anaemia. Simvastatin, on the other hand, can induce hepatitis and cause jaundice, but this is unlikely if alanine transaminase and alkaline phosphatase levels are normal. Metformin, ramipril, and lansoprazole are not associated with haemolytic anaemia.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with cyclical pelvic pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with cyclical pelvic pain and painful bowel movements. She has previously sought treatment from gynaecology and found relief with paracetamol and mefenamic acid, but the pain has returned and she is seeking alternative options. She is not pregnant but plans to start a family within the next few years.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition from the options provided below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      If simple analgesia with paracetamol and NSAIDs is not effective in treating endometriosis symptoms, hormonal treatment with the combined oral contraceptive pill or a progestogen should be considered.

      Although a referral to gynaecology may be necessary due to the recurrence of symptoms and potential pelvic/bowel involvement, primary care can offer further treatment options in the meantime. Hormonal treatment is recommended for this patient, and the combined oral contraceptive pill or any progestogen options can be considered. As the patient plans to start a family soon, a hormonal option that can be quickly reversed is preferred.

      Buscopan is not an appropriate treatment for endometriosis. While it may provide some relief for pelvic symptoms during menstruation, it is not a treatment for the condition. It may be used to alleviate cramps associated with irritable bowel syndrome.

      Injectable depo-provera is not the best option for this patient as it may delay the return of fertility, which conflicts with her desire to start a family soon.

      Opioid analgesia is not recommended for endometriosis treatment as it carries the risk of side effects and dependence. It is not a suitable long-term solution for managing symptoms.

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus, affecting around 10% of women of reproductive age. Symptoms include chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, pain during sex, and subfertility. Diagnosis is made through laparoscopy, and treatment depends on the severity of symptoms. First-line treatments include NSAIDs and hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens. If these do not improve symptoms or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Treatment options in secondary care include GnRH analogues and surgery, with laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis recommended for women trying to conceive. Ovarian cystectomy may also be necessary for endometriomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 28 - You are asked to see a 4-month-old baby girl as an emergency.
    Her parents...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 4-month-old baby girl as an emergency.
      Her parents are increasingly concerned about her, she has a four day history of runny nose, and increasing difficulty in breathing, and has worsened over the past 24 hours.
      She was born at 35/40 weighing 2.2 kg and bottle feeds. There were no neonatal problems. She has received the first two routine immunisations. Both parents are heavy smokers.
      On examination she has a temperature of 38.3°C, with respiratory rate of 65/min and a heart rate of 150/min. She has nasal flaring, grunting and marked recession and scattered wheeze and crackles throughout both lung fields. You cannot hear any heart mumurs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Virus-induced wheeze

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis: A Common Respiratory Infection in Infants

      Bronchiolitis is a respiratory infection that commonly affects infants, with symptoms ranging from mild upper respiratory tract infection to severe lower respiratory tract symptoms. The infection is typically caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which leads to epidemics during the winter season. The severity of the infection is influenced by both baby and maternal factors.

      Baby factors that increase the risk of severe bronchiolitis include chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, immunodeficiency, and gastro-oesophageal reflux. On the other hand, maternal factors such as smoking and bottle feeding can also contribute to the severity of the infection. Breastfeeding, however, has been found to be partly protective against bronchiolitis.

      In summary, bronchiolitis is a common respiratory infection in infants that can range from mild to severe. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the risk factors that can increase the severity of the infection and take appropriate measures to prevent and manage it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 29 - For individuals with Trisomy 21, what is the most prevalent congenital heart defect?...

    Incorrect

    • For individuals with Trisomy 21, what is the most prevalent congenital heart defect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Disease in Trisomy 21

      Congenital heart disease is a common condition among individuals born with Trisomy 21. Approximately 50% of people with this genetic disorder have some form of heart defect. The most frequent defects are atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot, and atrial septal defect.

      Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common type of heart defect in Trisomy 21, followed by ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus. Tetralogy of Fallot and atrial septal defect are less common but still occur in a significant number of cases. It is important for individuals with Trisomy 21 to receive regular cardiac evaluations and monitoring to ensure early detection and treatment of any heart defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 30 - A 6-year-old boy presents with swelling under his arm. He was well until...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents with swelling under his arm. He was well until six days before, when he developed mild fever and malaise. Immunisations are up-to-date. No family history of note. The family have a pet kitten and there were visible scratches on his arm.

      On examination the temperature is 37.8°C. He has a 2.5 cm smooth enlargement of a node in the right axilla. This is slightly red but not fluctuant. Otherwise there are no abnormalities to find.

      What is the single most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin and incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      Cat-Scratch Disease: A Brief Overview

      The patient’s medical history suggests subacute regional gland enlargement due to inflammation. This is a common symptom of cat-scratch disease, which is caused by the bacteria Bartonella henselae. The incubation period for this disease is typically 3-30 days, and small erythematous lesions may be found along the scratch marks. After 1-4 weeks, regional adenopathy develops.

      In most cases, patients who are not immunocompromised do not require specific antibiotic treatment for cat-scratch disease. However, those with severe symptoms or compromised immune systems may benefit from treatment with either azithromycin or ciprofloxacin. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications from this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
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