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  • Question 1 - A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years,...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with recurrent attacks of red eyes with a sensation of grittiness. Which of the following is most likely cause of the red eyes?

      Your Answer: keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory systemic disease associated with some extraarticular manifestations. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal changes, and retinal vasculitis are the most common ocular complications among extraarticular manifestations of RA. The overall prevalence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca also known as dry eye syndrome among patients of RA is 21.2% and is the most common with sense of grittiness in the eyes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      39.3
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  • Question 2 - A 68 year old male, previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis presents to your clinic...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male, previously diagnosed with osteoarthritis presents to your clinic with acute on chronic pain in his big toe. Past history is significant for hypertension for which he takes Bendroflumethiazide 5mg daily. Examination reveals an erythematous, red hot metatarsophalangeal joint that has a knobbly appearance. X-ray shows punched out bony cysts. Which of the following would be the most appropriate long term management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop Bendroflumethiazide and substitute a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is chronic tophaceous gout, which is classically associated with chronic renal impairment or long term diuretic therapy. There is tophus formation due to urate crystal deposition in and around the joint. These tophi can also form in the bones and soft tissues. Renal manifestations with uric acid include nephrolithiasis and uric acid nephropathy. Whenever there is an acute on chronic attack of gout, the inciting cause must be established and in case of diuretic use, they should be immediately replaced with another medication. Allopurinol is never started during an acute episode. it is first allowed to settle before administration of allopurinol. Although dietary restriction must be observed in people with a propensity of gout, this scenario clearly presents diuretics as the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      34.6
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  • Question 3 - A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female with a history of psoriatic arthritis would most likely have which of the following hand conditions?

      Your Answer: Proximal interphalangeal arthritis

      Correct Answer: Nail dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Nail dystrophy (pitting of nails, onycholysis, subungual hyperkeratosis), dactylitis, sausage shaped fingers are most commonly seen with psoriatic arthropathy. There is asymmetric joint involvement most commonly distal interphalangeal joints. Uveitis and sacroiliitis may also occur. Arthritis mutilans may occur but is very rare. Cutaneous lesions may or may not develop. When they do, its usually much after the symptoms of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache,...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache, fever and malaise. He also complains of scalp sensitivity while combing his hair. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following would be the definite test?

      Your Answer: Temporal artery biopsy

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling, and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      30.5
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  • Question 5 - A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen...

    Correct

    • A 46 year old male, known with Rheumatoid Arthritis presents with a swollen and painful right ankle. No drug allergies are reported. On examination, the vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.8 BP: 90/60 mmHg Pulse: 110/min. Right ankle examination reveals tenderness, warmth, erythema and tense joint effusion. Blood samples including blood cultures are collected and fluid resuscitation is initiated. Which of the following interventions would be most appropriate for this man?

      Your Answer: Administer i.v. flucloxacillin, and arrange joint aspiration urgently

      Explanation:

      Although microscopic analysis of joint fluid aspirate and culture is the basis of septic arthritis diagnosis and should usually be collected before the administration of antibiotics, the patient is showing signs of septic shock. A delay in antibiotics might lead to worsening of symptoms so they are administered first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old male presents with right sided elbow and wrist pain and left sided knee and ankle pain that has persisted for about two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Thailand that last for two weeks. The patient admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. Examination reveals swelling and tenderness of tendons around joints but no inflammation of the joints. A vesiculopustular skin rash is also observed. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      Patients with disseminated gonococcal arthritis may present with dermatitis-arthritis syndrome (60%) of with localized septic arthritis. (40%). Arthritis-dermatitis syndrome includes the classic triad of dermatitis, tenosynovitis, and migratory polyarthritis. Gout usually involves a singe joint and does not cause vesicopustular skin rash. Reactive arthritis has ocular symptoms (conjunctivitis), urethritis, and arthritis. Fungal arthritis occurs rarely and it may occur after a surgical infection or fungal spread hematogenously. it presents with tender, red, hot and swollen joint with loss of range of motion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      50
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  • Question 7 - A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Limited lumbar spine motion on physical examination

      Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      59.4
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  • Question 9 - A 22 year old man who has recently returned from a trip to...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old man who has recently returned from a trip to Far East presents with sore eyes and symmetrical joint pain in his knees, ankles and feet. Labs reveal an elevated ESR. The synovial fluid aspirate is sterile and has a high neutrophil count. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthropathy

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. Symmetric lower limb arthropathy and a sterile joint aspirate points towards reactive arthropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      16
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  • Question 10 - A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female presents with morning stiffness that usually takes an hour to settle and a one year history of intermittent pain and swelling of the small joints of her hands. Examination reveals symmetric soft tissue swelling over the PIP and MCP joints and rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. There is also an effusion of both wrists. Lab results are positive for rheumatoid factor. X-ray of the wrists and hands shows erosions and bony decalcification. NSAIDs are started and the patient is referred to a rheumatologist for consideration of DMARD. Previous history is significant for TB. Which of the following should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Infliximab

      Explanation:

      Anti-TNF-α therapy is effective for patients with arthritis but it can oftentimes lead to the reactivation of latent TB. Hence it should be used with great caution in patients with a past history of TB or current infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      36.7
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  • Question 11 - A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old complains of pain in her hands bilaterally. Which of the following symptoms would point towards an inflammatory joint disease such as rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Marked stiffness for more than an hour in the mornings

      Explanation:

      In rheumatoid arthritis (RA), clinical symptoms of joint stiffness, pain, and functional disability are commonly most severe in the early morning. These symptoms closely follow the circadian rhythm of the pro-inflammatory cytokine, interleukin (IL)-6. In RA, the increase in nocturnal anti-inflammatory cortisol secretion is insufficient to suppress ongoing inflammation, resulting in the morning symptoms characteristic of RA. Established diagnostic criteria for RA include prolonged morning stiffness that could last up to an hour. Loss of joint mobility, pain, malaise and swelling of finger joints are features that are not specific to rheumatoid arthritis, and are found in many other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 12 - A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic...

    Correct

    • A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?

      Your Answer: Linear areas of low density

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      99.9
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  • Question 13 - A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old female presents with dyspnoea, myalgia, arthralgia and a skin rash. The presence of which of the following antibodies would be the most specific for SLE?

      Your Answer: Anti-Sm

      Explanation:

      Anti-Sm antibodies are essential for diagnosis of SLE, especially in anti-dsDNA-negative patients. ANA are also found in 95% of the patients with SLE but they may also occur with other conditions like Juvenile inflammatory arthritis, chronic activity hepatitis, and Sjogren’s syndrome. Anti-Ro, although also found with SLE are more characteristic of Sjogren Syndrome. RF is usually associated with rheumatoid arthritis and cANCA with Wegener’s granulomatosis, Churg Strauss, and microscopic polyangiitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      27
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  • Question 14 - Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?...

    Incorrect

    • Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Procainamide

      Explanation:

      Many drugs are responsible for causing drug induced lupus. However, it is most commonly associated with hydralazine, procainamide and quinidine.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 15 - A 28 year old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever, arthralgia...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever, arthralgia and urethritis. On examination, the ankle is swollen and there is a pustular rash on the dorsal foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      DGI presents as two syndromes: 1) a bacteremic form that includes a triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis, and polyarthralgias without purulent arthritis and 2) a septic arthritis form characterized as a purulent arthritis without associated skin lesions. Many patients will have overlapping features of both syndromes. Time from infection to clinical manifestations may range from 1 day to 3 months. There is no travel history and the rash of Lyme disease is not purulent. Reactive arthritis presents with conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis usually with a red hot tender and swollen joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 16 - A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort, xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Examination reveals enlargement of the parotid glands bilaterally, hepatomegaly and peripheral motor neuropathy. Lab results are negative for RF, ANA, SS-A and SS-B antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sjogren's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS)

      Explanation:

      The Diffuse Infiltrative Lymphocytosis Syndrome (DILS) is a rare multisystemic syndrome described in HIV-infected patients. It is characterised by CD8(+) T-cell lymphocytosis associated with a CD8(+) T-cell infiltration of multiple organs. DILS is usually seen in uncontrolled or untreated HIV infection but can also manifest itself independently of CD4(+) T-cell counts. The syndrome may present as a Sjögren-like disease that generally associates sicca signs with bilateral parotiditis, lymphadenopathy, and extra glandular organ involvement. The latter may affect the lungs, nervous system, liver, kidneys, and digestive tract. Anomalies of the respiratory system are often identified as lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia. Facial nerve palsy, aseptic meningitis or polyneuropathy are among the more frequent neurological features. Hepatic lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytic interstitial nephropathy and digestive tract lymphocytic infiltration account for more rarely noted complications. Sicca syndrome, organomegaly and/or organ dysfunction associated with polyclonal CD8(+) T-cell organ-infiltration are greatly suggestive of DILS in people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      140.1
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  • Question 17 - A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3 month history of pain and stiffness in the joints of his hands and feet. He also complains of dyspnoea occurring for the past 6 weeks. On examination there is a right pleural effusion and swollen hand joints. The clinician makes a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is most characteristic of a rheumatoid pleural effusion?

      Your Answer: It has a high pH

      Correct Answer: It has a low glucose level

      Explanation:

      The typical “rheumatoid effusion” is a sterile exudative fluid with low pH (<7.3), low glucose (<60 mg. dL−1) and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (may be >700 IU). It should initially be treated with NSAIDs. Decortication should be reserved in patients with thickened pleura who have symptomatic dyspnoea.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 18 - A 42 year old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male arrives at the clinic due to cough and haemoptysis. Examination shows nasal mucosal ulceration. The doctor suspects Wegener's granulomatosis. Which anatomical area would be most commonly involved in this condition?

      Your Answer: Lungs

      Explanation:

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis) is a systemic vasculitis that affects both small and medium-sized vessels. Patients typically initially suffer from a limited form that may consist of constitutional symptoms and localized manifestations such as chronic sinusitis, rhinitis, otitis media, ocular conditions. In later stages, more serious manifestations may arise, including pulmonary complications and glomerulonephritis, although the skin, eyes, and heart may also be involved but these lesions are less common.
      Diagnosis is based on laboratory testing (positive for PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA), imaging, and biopsy of affected organs, which demonstrate necrotizing granulomatous inflammation. GPA is treated with immunosuppressive drugs, typically consisting of glucocorticoids combined with methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, or rituximab. Relapses are common and the following systems are affected: Lower respiratory tract (95% of cases), renal involvement (80% of cases), skin lesions (45% of cases), ocular involvement (45% of cases) and cardiac involvement (33% of cases).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 19 - A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On...

    Correct

    • A 34 year old female presents to the clinic with skin tightness. On examination she has sclerodactyly, thickened skin of the shoulders and bi-basal crepitations. Her HRCT chest shows ground glass changes. Raynaud phenomenon is suspected and she is started on a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide (1 gm/month) for 6 months and a daily dose of 10 mg of oral prednisolone. However, she returned over a period of few weeks after developing exertional dyspnoea, pedal oedema and feeling unwell. On examination, JVP is raised, there is marked pedal oedema and bi basal crepitations on chest auscultation. Urine dipstick shows haematuria (++) and proteinuria (++). What in your opinion is the most likely cause of her deteriorating renal function?

      Your Answer: Scleroderma renal crisis

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma renal crisis (SRC) is a rare but severe complication in patients with systemic sclerosis (SSc). It is characterized by malignant hypertension, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia with schistocytes and oligo/anuric acute renal failure. SRC occurs in 5% of patients with systemic scleroderma, particularly in the first years of disease evolution and in the diffuse form. Patients may develop symptoms of fluid overload.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is the most characteristic of primary Raynaud's phenomena?

      Your Answer: More common in middle aged females

      Correct Answer: Fingers are symmetrically involved during an attack

      Explanation:

      A typical attack may last less than an hour but can also persist for longer. In primary Raynaud’s, attacks are more likely symmetric, episodic, and without evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Patients more commonly have a negative ANA and normal inflammatory markers. There should be no evidence of tissue gangrene, digital pitting, or tissue injury in primary Raynaud’s. In contrast, patients with secondary Raynaud’s will describe attacks that are more frequent, painful, often asymmetric and may lead to digital ulcerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 21 - A 23 year old male patient presents with urethritis for the last 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male patient presents with urethritis for the last 2 weeks that has not responded to antibiotics. Lately he has developed an onset of new range of symptoms that are linked to his HLA B27 positivity. Which of the following signs is not related to Reiter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: A well demarcated rash on the penis with serpiginous edges

      Correct Answer: A mild fever with a generalised macular rash

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. Dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      120.3
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  • Question 22 - A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The pain has worsened over the past 2 weeks. He is a diabetic and gives a history of recent alcohol consumption. Joint aspirate shows rhomboid crystals with numerous neutrophils. Radiological examination shows evidence of chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pseudogout

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic.
      Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 23 - A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reiter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 24 - A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?

      Your Answer: Monozygotic twin

      Explanation:

      An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 25 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5 BP: 125/75mmHg Pulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Sodium 145 mmol/L, Potassium 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 89 μmol/L, Rheumatoid factor: Negative, Antinuclear antibody: Negative, Anti-dsDNA: Negative, ASO titre: Not detected. Electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.
      In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 26 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Correct

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show: Hb: 130g/l Platelets: 359*109/L, WBC: 10*109/L, CRP: 89mg/l Which of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 27 - Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?

      Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint disease

      Correct Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy

      Explanation:

      Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 28 - A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen...

    Correct

    • A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?

      Your Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases.
      Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals.
      Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils.
      X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis).
      Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 29 - A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres

      Explanation:

      A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.

      In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.

      A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.

      Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

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      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 30 - A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at 290 U/L (normal range 35-120). Plain radiographs reveal sclerotic lesions of the bone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bony metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma. The other cancers listed in the options are osteolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 31 - A 35 year old female, known case of anti phospholipid syndrome, arrives at...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female, known case of anti phospholipid syndrome, arrives at the clinic due to a swollen and painful left leg. Doppler ultrasonography confirms the diagnosis of a deep vein thrombosis. She was previously diagnosed with DVT 4 months back and was on warfarin therapy (target INR 2-3) when it occurred. How should her anticoagulation be managed?

      Your Answer: Life-long warfarin, increase target INR to 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      If the INR in the range of 2-3 has still resulted in thrombosis, the target INR is increased to 3-4. However, because the risk of bleeding increases as the INR rises, the INR is closely monitored and adjustments are made as needed to maintain the INR within the target range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      29.2
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  • Question 32 - Which of the following options best describes rheumatoid factor? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following options best describes rheumatoid factor?

      Your Answer: IgM against the Fc portion of IgG

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid factor is an IgM antibody that targets the Fc portion of IgG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      14.5
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  • Question 33 - A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips over the last four months. Finger flexion is also weak but the extension is normal. There has been some difficulty swallowing liquids. Past medical history is not significant except for sexually transmitted disease that he caught some 40 years ago in South Pacific and got treated with antibiotics. He smokes and drinks one or two tots of rum at the weekend. Creatine kinase level is 125. Which of the following investigations is most significant in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Muscle biopsy with electron microscopy

      Explanation:

      Inclusion body myositis (IBM) is a progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle inflammation, weakness, and atrophy (wasting). It is a type of inflammatory myopathy. IBM develops in adulthood, usually after age 50. The symptoms and rate of progression vary from person to person. The most common symptoms include progressive weakness of the legs, arms, fingers, and wrists. Some people also have weakness of the facial muscles (especially muscles controlling eye closure), or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). Muscle cramping and pain are uncommon, but have been reported in some people. The underlying cause of IBM is poorly understood and likely involves the interaction of genetic, immune-related, and environmental factors. Some people may have a genetic predisposition to developing IBM, but the condition itself typically is not inherited. Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood (at most ,10 times normal) are typical in IBM. Muscle biopsy may display several common findings including; inflammatory cells invading muscle cells, vacuolar degeneration, inclusions or plaques of abnormal proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      41.5
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  • Question 34 - A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on the extensor surfaces of her upper limbs and a telescoping deformity of both index fingers. Nails show pitting and horizontal ridging. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans

      Explanation:

      Arthritis mutilans is a rare (occurs in only 5% of the patients) and extremely severe form psoriatic arthritis characterized by resorption of bones and the consequent collapse of soft tissue. When this affects the hands, it can cause a phenomenon sometimes referred to as ‘telescoping fingers.’ The associated nail changes are also characteristic of arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      24.8
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  • Question 35 - A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia, dry mouth, gritty sensation in her eyes and increased photosensitivity. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, which of the following tests should be performed?

      Your Answer: Schirmer’s test

      Correct Answer: Labial gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis, especially in patients with negative anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies, labial gland biopsy is done. In performing a labial biopsy, the surgeon typically makes a shallow 1/2 inch wide incision on either side of the inner lip after numbing the area with a local anaesthetic. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test can be done for ocular symptoms of Sjogren syndrome but is of no diagnostic importance as it can be positive with many other diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      40.4
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  • Question 36 - Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features occurs very less frequently with drug induced lupus?

      Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus typically presents with pulmonary involvement and no renal or neurological involvement. Hence glomerulonephritis would be highly unlikely in this case. Rash and arthralgias are classic presentations. Pleurisy can be present as pulmonary involvement may occur with DILE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      6.8
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  • Question 37 - A 56 year old woman taking procainamide develops drug induced erythematosus. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old woman taking procainamide develops drug induced erythematosus. Which of the following features is the most characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer: It may occur with chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Drug induced lupus is usually positive for antinuclear and antihistone antibodies, typically without renal or neurologic involvement. However, pulmonary involvement is common. Drugs that can induce lupus include isoniazid, hydralazine, procainamide, chlorpromazine, and other anticonvulsants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      30.5
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  • Question 38 - A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She has a history of Sjogren Syndrome. The foetus would be at a risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Complete heart block

      Correct Answer: All correct

      Explanation:

      Women with Sjögren syndrome are likely to experience more complications during pregnancy than women without an autoimmune disease as the anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies cross the placenta and lead to various life threatening complications. Studies show a high incidence of poor fetal outcomes for these patients. Congenital heart block, neonatal lupus, congestive cardiac failure, hydrops fetalis can all be caused as a result of Sjogren syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      16.1
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  • Question 39 - A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values: Hb 7.9 g/dL, Plt 97*109/l, WBC 2.7*109/l. Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Fast acetylator status

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      22.8
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  • Question 40 - A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of cough and intermittent haemoptysis for the last 3 months. He has a 50 pack year smoking history and is currently waiting for bronchoscopy to assess a left lower lobe collapse. The patient also has a marked muscle weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of his shoulders and pelvic girdle. His wife states that lately he has been unable to eat solids. Which of the following statements would be true regarding this scenario?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroids have no role in his treatment

      Correct Answer: He may have a photosensitive facial rash

      Explanation:

      The patient has presented with signs of small cell lung cancer. The associated proximal muscle weakness is most probably due to dermatomyositis which occurs as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma. In most cases, the first symptom is a distinctive skin rash on the face, eyelids, chest, nail cuticle areas, knuckles, knees or elbows. The rash is patchy and usually a bluish-purple colour. Corticosteroids are helpful in the management of the cutaneous changes and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      76.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (25/40) 63%
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