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  • Question 1 - As the GPST1 in the emergency department, you are requested to assess a...

    Correct

    • As the GPST1 in the emergency department, you are requested to assess a 34-year-old woman who fell and struck her head while drinking three hours ago. Your consultant instructs you to confirm the absence of any clinical indications of a base of skull fracture. Which of the following is not linked to a base of skull injury?

      Your Answer: Stellwag's sign

      Explanation:

      The base of the skull is made up of three bony fossae: the anterior, middle, and posterior. These structures provide support for various internal structures within the cranium. If these bones are fractured, it can result in damage to associated neurovascular structures, which can have external manifestations in areas such as the nasal cavity or auditory canal. Bleeding from ruptured vessels can lead to haemotympanum or Battle’s sign in the mastoid area, while ruptured CSF spaces can cause CSF rhinorrhoea and otorrhoea. Stellwag’s sign, on the other hand, is not related to base of skull trauma and refers to reduced blinking.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/frusemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

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      • ENT
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old female comes to the doctor's office complaining of progressive paraesthesia in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female comes to the doctor's office complaining of progressive paraesthesia in her fingers, toes, and peri-oral area for the past two weeks. She also experiences muscle cramps and spasms. The patient had a thyroidectomy for Graves' disease recently but has no other health issues or drug allergies. What can be expected from this patient's ECG results, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: T wave inversion, QTc prolongation and visible U waves

      Correct Answer: Isolated QTc elongation

      Explanation:

      Following thyroid surgery, a patient is experiencing paraesthesia, cramps, and spasms, which are likely due to hypocalcemia resulting from damage to the parathyroid glands. The most common ECG change associated with this condition is isolated QTc elongation, while dysrhythmias are rare. Alternating QRS amplitude is not associated with this condition and is instead linked to pericardial effusion. Isolated QTc shortening is also incorrect as it is typically associated with hypercalcemia, which can be caused by hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. The combination of T wave inversion, QTc prolongation, and visible U waves is associated with hypokalemia, which can be caused by vomiting, thiazide use, and Cushing’s syndrome. Similarly, the combination of tall, peaked T waves, QTc shortening, and ST-segment depression is associated with hyperkalemia, which can be caused by Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, acute kidney injury, and potassium-sparing diuretics.

      Complications of Thyroid Surgery: An Overview

      Thyroid surgery is a common procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the thyroid gland. While the surgery is generally safe, there are potential complications that can arise. These complications can be anatomical, such as damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which can result in voice changes or difficulty swallowing. Bleeding is another potential complication, which can be particularly dangerous in the confined space of the neck and can lead to respiratory problems due to swelling. Additionally, damage to the parathyroid glands, which are located near the thyroid, can result in hypocalcaemia, a condition in which the body has low levels of calcium. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential complications and to discuss them with their healthcare provider before undergoing thyroid surgery.

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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of constant fatigue. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of constant fatigue. He wakes up feeling tired and unrefreshed. He has type II diabetes and is taking metformin. His body mass index is 40 kg/m2. Blood tests come back normal. The doctor suspects obstructive sleep apnoea.
      What is the most suitable assessment tool to be utilized in primary care to assist in determining the appropriate referral?

      Your Answer: Stanford Sleepiness Scale

      Correct Answer: Epworth Sleepiness Scale

      Explanation:

      Different Sleep Assessment Tools and Their Uses

      There are various tools used to assess sleep in individuals, each with its own specific purpose. The Epworth Sleepiness Scale is commonly used in the UK to diagnose obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome by measuring an individual’s perception of sleepiness. The Insomnia Severity Index, on the other hand, is used to assess insomnia in adults and monitor treatment response. The Stanford Sleepiness Scale is a quick assessment tool used to measure alertness throughout the day, while the Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index is used to evaluate sleep quality over a month, particularly in patients with psychiatric illness. Lastly, the Sleep Quality Scale assesses the subjective effect of poor sleep on the patient. Understanding the different uses of these tools can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment of sleep disorders.

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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her right ear and decreased hearing on that side. She has been experiencing these episodes every few months, but now notices the discharge on most days. During childhood, she frequently swam and had grommet insertion for glue ear, which fell out when she was around 10 years old. She has no significant medical history and takes only the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      After conducting hearing tests, the following results were obtained:
      - Rinne's test (right side): bone conduction > air conduction
      - Rinne's test (left side): air conduction > bone conduction
      - Weber's test: lateralisation to the right

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis externa

      Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a conductive hearing loss on the right side, as evidenced by Rinne’s test showing bone conduction > air conduction in the affected ear and Weber’s test lateralizing to the right ear. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, which is associated with recurrent ear discharge and glue ear. Cholesteatoma occurs when squamous epithelium forms pockets on the tympanic membrane, leading to cyst-like growths that produce keratin and slough over time. This causes erosion in the middle ear, creating an environment for anaerobic bacterial growth.

      Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, causes sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by air conduction > bone conduction in both ears and Weber test lateralizing to the unaffected ear. It is associated with dizziness and typically causes unilateral hearing loss. As the tumor grows, patients may develop neurological symptoms that can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves.

      Otitis externa is an acute infection of the outer ear that can cause conductive hearing loss, but as the patient has a chronic history and lacks ear pain, this diagnosis is less likely. Otosclerosis, which presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and tinnitus, is an autosomal dominant trait that typically affects individuals aged 20-40 years with a family history of early-onset hearing loss. As it does not typically present with smelly ear discharge, other diagnoses should be considered first.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP on the same day with a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her GP on the same day with a sudden onset of hearing loss in her right ear while having breakfast. She reports feeling well otherwise and denies any ear pain, discharge, or previous ENT issues. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities, and tuning fork tests confirm a sensorineural loss. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      If someone experiences sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, it is important to refer them to an ENT specialist within 24 hours for investigation and potential treatment with steroids.

      Understanding Hearing Loss with Weber and Rinnes Tests

      Hearing loss can be classified as either conductive or sensorineural, and a formal assessment with pure tone audiometry is often necessary to determine which type is present. However, in a clinical setting, Weber and Rinnes tests can also be helpful in categorizing different types of hearing loss.

      The Weber test involves using a tuning fork to determine if a patient has symmetrical or asymmetrical hearing loss. In a normal patient, the sound is heard equally loud in both ears. However, in a patient with asymmetrical hearing loss, the sound is heard louder in one ear than the other. This finding should be confirmed by repeating the procedure and having the patient occlude one ear with a finger.

      The Rinne test involves comparing air conduction to bone conduction in both ears. In a patient with normal hearing, air conduction is greater than bone conduction in both ears. However, in a patient with sensorineural hearing loss, air conduction is greater than bone conduction in the unaffected ear. In a patient with conductive hearing loss, bone conduction is greater than air conduction in the affected ear.

      Understanding the results of these tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat hearing loss. By identifying the type and severity of hearing loss, appropriate interventions such as hearing aids or cochlear implants can be recommended.

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  • Question 6 - A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that these symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past two months. Specifically, he feels that his left nostril is blocked while his right nostril feels normal. He denies any history of nosebleeds and reports feeling generally healthy. Upon examination, a large nasal polyp is observed in the left nostril. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Trial of intranasal steroids

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to refer him to an ENT for a comprehensive examination as unilateral polyps are a warning sign.

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.

      The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of sudden hearing loss in her left ear,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of sudden hearing loss in her left ear, accompanied by dizziness and a sensation of pressure in the affected ear. What results would you anticipate from the Rinne and Weber tests?

      Your Answer: Weber: louder in the left ear. Rinne: bone conduction louder than air in the left ear

      Correct Answer: Weber: louder in the right ear: Rinne air conduction louder than bone in the left ear

      Explanation:

      To diagnose sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne and Weber tests can be used. In this type of hearing loss, air conduction will be louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test will lateralise away from the affected ear. However, before making a diagnosis, it is important to correctly identify the symptoms. For example, sudden hearing loss accompanied by dizziness and pressure in the ear may indicate Meniere’s disease, which causes sensorineural hearing loss in the affected ear. If the symptoms suggest sensorineural hearing loss in the left ear, the results of the tests should show air conduction louder than bone on Rinne test and Weber test lateralising away from the left ear. If the results show different patterns, they may suggest conductive or mixed hearing loss in one or both ears.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
      On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
      What is the best initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic

      Correct Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines

      Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:

      1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.

      2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.

      3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.

      4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.

      5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.

      In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about experiencing frequent episodes...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about experiencing frequent episodes of dizziness for the past four weeks, lasting about 1 hour each time. He has also noticed a ‘fullness sensation and ringing’ in his right ear.
      Select the SINGLE most probable diagnosis from the options below.

      Your Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Causes of Vertigo: Ménière’s Disease, BPPV, Acoustic Neuroma, Vestibular Neuritis, and Cholesteatoma

      Vertigo is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is Ménière’s disease, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms including fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. On the other hand, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is induced by specific movements and is accompanied by nausea, light-headedness, and imbalance. Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, presents with progressive ipsilateral tinnitus, sensorineural hearing loss, facial numbness, and giddiness. Vestibular neuritis, which follows a febrile illness, is characterized by sudden vertigo, vomiting, and prostration, while cholesteatoma tends to be asymptomatic in the early stages and is characterized by a foul-smelling discharge and conductive hearing loss. Management of vertigo includes self-care advice, medication, and referral to an ENT specialist to confirm the condition and exclude sinister causes.

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  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He is worried that his daughter has been refusing to eat for 3 days and has been more irritable than usual. When asked, the girl points to her neck and complains of soreness. She has no significant medical history and is up to date with her vaccinations.

      During the examination, the girl has a temperature of 38.7ºC. Her tonsils are enlarged and inflamed, and her throat is red. There are palpable lymph nodes in the anterior cervical chain that are tender to the touch. The rest of her examination is normal, and Kernig's sign is negative.

      What is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe for this 6-year-old girl?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic treatment should be given to individuals who are likely to have Streptococcus species isolated. However, Amoxicillin is not the most appropriate antibiotic for tonsillitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash is not indicated for the treatment of tonsillitis. Dexamethasone is primarily used for the management of croup, which is characterized by a barking cough and is more common in the winter months.

      Sore throat is a term used to describe various conditions such as pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, throat swabs and rapid antigen tests should not be routinely carried out for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be managed with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not typically necessary. However, in cases where there is marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when three or more Centor criteria are present, antibiotics may be indicated. The Centor and FeverPAIN scoring systems can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin (for penicillin-allergic patients) can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. It is worth noting that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, although this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge for ten days. He describes how he initially felt 'okay' with milder symptoms, but noticed a sudden deterioration in his symptoms a few days ago.
      Which of the following treatments would be the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Sinusitis: Antibiotics, Decongestants, and Antihistamines

      Acute bacterial sinusitis is a common condition that can cause severe symptoms such as discolored or purulent discharge, severe localized pain, and fever. Antibiotics are prescribed only if the patient has a co-morbidity or if acute bacterial sinusitis is clinically suspected. The antibiotics of choice include amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, or erythromycin. Second-line treatments include co-amoxiclav and azithromycin.

      Decongestants such as ephedrine can be used to relieve nasal congestion, but they should not be used for more than seven days to avoid rebound congestion. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are not recommended unless there is a coexisting allergic rhinitis.

      It is important to note that flucloxacillin and metronidazole are not the antibiotics of choice for acute sinusitis. Doxycycline or erythromycin are acceptable alternatives. Treatment should be used only for persistent symptoms or purulent nasal discharge lasting at least 7 days, or if the symptoms are severe.

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  • Question 12 - A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father who has concerns about her motor development which are echoed by her daycare provider. There are no concerns about her speech and she is usually well apart from a few episodes of constipation in the past for which she has received laxatives. Neurological examination is normal. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness in the left upper quadrant.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      .

      Your Answer: Glue ear

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children

      Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. Two common causes are glue ear and otosclerosis. Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear without acute inflammation. It can lead to conductive hearing loss, recurrent ear infections, speech delay, and behavioral problems. Children with Down syndrome and cleft palate are at higher risk of developing glue ear. On the other hand, otosclerosis is the abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear, resulting in gradual hearing loss in early adulthood.

      It is important to note that speech delay alone may not indicate autistic spectrum disorder. Children with this disorder typically exhibit issues with social interactions, non-verbal communication, and restrictive behaviors. In contrast, selective mutism is an anxiety disorder that causes a child to be unable to speak in certain situations. Impacted ear wax can also cause hearing loss or speech delay, but it can be diagnosed through ear examination.

      In summary, a child with recurrent earache and retracted tympanic membranes is more likely to have glue ear, especially if they have Down syndrome or cleft palate. It is important to monitor their development closely, especially if they also have a learning disability.

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  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old man presents following a fall. During an assessment of his fall,...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents following a fall. During an assessment of his fall, he complained of balance problems, nausea and dizziness whenever he looked upwards, eg to change a light bulb. He denies loss of consciousness and did not injure himself during the fall. His past medical history consists of hypertension and high cholesterol.
      On examination, his gait and balance and neurological examination are normal, and there are no injuries. The Hallpike test is positive.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s vertigo?

      Your Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common vestibular disorder that can cause dizziness and vertigo. The Epley manoeuvre is the best first-line management option for BPPV, as it can reposition the debris in the vestibular canals and provide rapid relief. If symptoms persist, investigations may be necessary to rule out more serious brain pathologies, but a brain MRI is not typically required for a BPPV diagnosis.

      Medications such as betahistine or prochlorperazine may provide short-term relief of symptoms, but they do not address the underlying cause of BPPV. Vestibular retraining exercises, such as Brandt-Daroff exercises, can also be effective in reducing symptoms if they persist despite the Epley manoeuvre. Overall, a combination of these management options can help alleviate the symptoms of BPPV and improve quality of life for patients.

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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old woman requests a referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman requests a referral to the Ear, Nose and Throat Clinic from her General Practitioner. She wishes to discuss the potential removal of unilateral nasal polyps which have failed to respond to a steroid nasal spray.
      Which of the following conditions is most likely associated with this patient’s pathology?

      Your Answer: Kartagener syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Their Association with Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are abnormal growths that develop in the lining of the nasal passages or sinuses. While they can occur in anyone, certain medical conditions may increase the likelihood of their development. Here are some medical conditions and their association with nasal polyps:

      Kartagener Syndrome: This rare autosomal recessive condition is characterized by primary ciliary dyskinesia and situs inversus. Patients with this condition tend to develop chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, recurrent chest and ENT infections, and nasal polyps.

      Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia: This condition is characterized by fatigue, shortness of breath, palpitations, and jaundice as a consequence of haemolysis driving high levels of bilirubin. However, it does not affect the nose and is not linked to nasal polyps.

      Crohn’s Disease: This inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and can also cause extraintestinal manifestations such as arthritis, iritis, and rashes. However, nasal polyps are not associated with this condition.

      Diabetes Mellitus: While nasal polyps are not associated with diabetes mellitus, other conditions including coeliac disease, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and thyroid dysfunction can all develop in affected individuals.

      Hereditary Spherocytosis: This condition is characterized by abnormally shaped erythrocytes and symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Clinical signs include pallor, jaundice, and splenomegaly. However, nasal polyps are not associated with this condition.

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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has been diagnosed with nasal polyps. Which medication sensitivity is commonly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitors

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.

      The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 16 - A 49-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with a sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with a sudden onset of dizziness, describing the sensation of the room spinning around her. The dizziness persists and does not improve with rest, accompanied by severe nausea and vomiting. She reports hearing loss in her left ear and has recently experienced a cough and coryza episode. The patient has no prior medical history.

      Upon examination, Rinne's test reveals air conduction greater than bone conduction in both ears, and Weber's test lateralizes to her right ear. The patient displays normal eye movements with mild horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze and intact coordination.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniere’s disease

      Correct Answer: Labyrinthitis

      Explanation:

      A typical scenario for viral labyrinthitis involves a person who has recently had a respiratory infection and suddenly experiences vertigo, vomiting, and hearing loss. The symptoms are usually severe and persistent, and rest may not provide relief. This is likely caused by a viral infection in the inner ear, which is known as labyrinthitis. Given the patient’s history, this is the most probable diagnosis.

      Understanding Vertigo and Its Causes

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. It can be caused by various factors, including viral infections, vestibular neuronitis, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, Meniere’s disease, vertebrobasilar ischaemia, and acoustic neuroma.

      Viral labyrinthitis and vestibular neuronitis are often associated with recent viral infections and can cause sudden onset vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. While hearing may be affected in viral labyrinthitis, vestibular neuronitis does not cause hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, on the other hand, has a gradual onset and is triggered by changes in head position. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds.

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and a sensation of fullness or pressure in one or both ears. Vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is more common in elderly patients, can cause dizziness when the neck is extended. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with neurofibromatosis type 2, can cause hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. An absent corneal reflex is an important sign of this condition.

      Other causes of vertigo include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin. Understanding the different causes of vertigo can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 17 - You assess a 24-year-old female patient who complains of bilateral nasal obstruction, nocturnal...

    Correct

    • You assess a 24-year-old female patient who complains of bilateral nasal obstruction, nocturnal cough, and clear nasal discharge for the past three weeks. She reports experiencing similar symptoms around the same time last year and has a medical history of asthma. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic rhinitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Allergic Rhinitis

      Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.

      The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.

      In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily activities. Proper management involves identifying and avoiding allergens, as well as using medication as prescribed by a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 18 - A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic after falling off her scooter two...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is seen in clinic after falling off her scooter two hours ago. She fell forward and used her right arm to break her fall. Upon examination, she has minor scrapes on her right forearm but no indication of a fracture. Her nose is red and has some scrapes. Upon examination of her nostrils, there is a bilateral red swelling in the middle that is slightly soft. There are no other indications of a head injury. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent ENT review

      Explanation:

      Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma

      Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the surrounding perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm to the touch.

      If left untreated, nasal septal haematoma can lead to irreversible septal necrosis within just a few days. This occurs due to pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, which can result in necrosis and a saddle-nose deformity. To prevent this, surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics are necessary. It is important to be vigilant for this complication after any nasal trauma, no matter how minor.

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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old woman presents to surgery with a complaint of not having a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to surgery with a complaint of not having a regular menstrual cycle for the past year, despite a negative pregnancy test. You order initial tests to establish a baseline. Which of the following is not included in your list of possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Primary amenorrhoea is caused by Turner’s syndrome instead of secondary amenorrhoea.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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  • Question 20 - A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with persistent left-sided epistaxis following...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with persistent left-sided epistaxis following a fall and hitting his nose on a door. He has a medical history of hypertension managed with amlodipine, atrial fibrillation managed with apixaban, stroke, and type 2 diabetes managed with metformin. On examination, he has active bleeding from the left anterior nasal septum and is spitting blood. Despite attempting to control the bleeding by squeezing his nose for 30 minutes and inserting a Rapid Rhino, the bleeding persists. What is an indication for surgical intervention in this case?

      Your Answer: Anticoagulant therapy

      Correct Answer: Failure of nasal packing

      Explanation:

      If all emergency measures fail to stop epistaxis, sphenopalatine ligation in a surgical setting may be necessary.

      To manage epistaxis in an emergency, it is important to provide adequate first aid for at least 20 minutes by firmly squeezing both nasal ala and sitting forward. Ice in the mouth can also be helpful. Topical adrenaline and local anaesthetic, as well as topical tranexamic acid, can be applied. If these measures are unsuccessful, nasal packing with devices such as Rapid Rhino may be necessary. If the bleeding persists, a posterior pack or Foley catheter may be used. In cases where all of these measures fail, surgical intervention such as sphenopalatine artery ligation may be required.

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.

      Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, certain factors can exacerbate the condition, such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia. Other causes include the use of cocaine, hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures. This involves asking the patient to sit with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid activities that increase the risk of re-bleeding.

      In cases where emergency management fails, sphenopalatine ligation in theatre may be required. Patients with unknown or posterior sources of bleeding should be admitted to the hospital for observation and review. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing this condition.

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