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  • Question 1 - A researcher is studying the number of children in a family among a...

    Correct

    • A researcher is studying the number of children in a family among a population of married couples. The distribution curve representing the results is positively skewed.
      What is the correct effect on mean, median and mode in comparison to what the values would have been if the distribution had been normally distributed?

      Your Answer: Mean increases, median remains the same, mode remains the same

      Explanation:

      Effects of Skewed Distribution on Mean, Median, and Mode

      Skewed distribution can have different effects on the mean, median, and mode. In a positively skewed distribution, a small number of very large values will increase the mean, while the median and mode remain unchanged. On the other hand, a negatively skewed distribution with a small number of very small values will decrease the mean, while the median and mode remain unchanged. In some cases, the mode may increase while the mean and median remain the same, but this is not affected by skewed distribution. However, in all cases, the mean is affected by every score in the data set, while the median and mode are not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 2 - A comparison of 3 screening tests for cognitive decline in individuals over the...

    Incorrect

    • A comparison of 3 screening tests for cognitive decline in individuals over the age of 70 is shown below.
      Sensitivity Specificity
      Test A 94% 33%
      Test B 54% 89%
      Test C 76% 69%
      Select the single statement that is correct regarding this data. Select one only.

      Your Answer: Test B has a low number of false negatives

      Correct Answer: Test A has a low number of false negatives

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Dementia Testing

      When it comes to testing for dementia, it’s important to consider both sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of cases that are detected, while specificity refers to the proportion of negative test results that are true negatives. Test A has a high sensitivity, meaning it detects most cases of dementia with few false negatives. However, its specificity is only 33%, meaning that a significant proportion of those testing negative may actually have dementia. Test B has a low sensitivity but few false positives, while Test C is average for both. Cost effectiveness cannot be determined without information on the cost of the tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 3 - A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did...

    Incorrect

    • A new drug is released for use in elderly patients. Premarketing trials did not show any serious side-effects of the drug. Select from the list the most appropriate method for identifying any unanticipated adverse drug reactions.

      Your Answer: Cohort study

      Correct Answer: Case report

      Explanation:

      The Yellow Card Scheme: Reporting Adverse Drug Reactions

      Before a drug is released to the general public, it undergoes trials to assess its effectiveness and safety. However, these trials may only involve a limited number of patients, which means that rare side effects may not be identified. To address this issue, the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) and the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM) in the UK operate the Yellow Card Scheme.

      The Yellow Card Scheme is a system that collects information from both health professionals and the general public on suspected side effects of a medicine. Its success depends on people’s willingness to report adverse drug reactions. This scheme is particularly useful for identifying rare or long-term side effects of a drug, as the number of people taking the drug is much greater than in the trials.

      To report a suspected adverse drug reaction, individuals can fill out a Yellow Card online at http://yellowcard.mhra.gov.uk/. By reporting these reactions, individuals can help ensure the safety of drugs on the market and protect the health of the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 4 - In a study examining mortality outcomes after bariatric surgery, it was found that...

    Incorrect

    • In a study examining mortality outcomes after bariatric surgery, it was found that obese patients with type II diabetes had a lower 10-year mortality rate (RR = 0.65) compared to obese patients without diabetes (RR = 0.90). However, the study did not show a statistically significant difference between the two groups. If bariatric surgery does indeed decrease mortality more in patients with diabetes, what has this study demonstrated?

      Your Answer: Better outcomes for non-diabetics

      Correct Answer: A type II error

      Explanation:

      Understanding Type II Errors in Statistical Studies

      A type II error occurs when a study fails to reject a false null hypothesis, also known as a false negative. In the context of a study comparing the impact of bariatric surgery on mortality rates for diabetics versus non-diabetics, if the surgery does indeed have a significantly greater impact on mortality rates for diabetics but the study fails to detect this, it would be an example of a type II error.

      To reduce the risk of type II errors, the power of a study can be increased by, for example, increasing the sample size. It is important to note that a type II error is different from a type I error, which occurs when a true null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected (false positive).

      Other potential biases in a study include selection bias, where subjects are not chosen randomly or representatively, and misclassification bias, where subjects are wrongly assigned to a classification. However, there is no indication of these biases in the given study. Ultimately, understanding and minimizing the risk of type II errors is crucial for ensuring accurate and reliable statistical results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 5 - A parent mentions she has received a letter about her child taking part...

    Correct

    • A parent mentions she has received a letter about her child taking part in the National Child Measurement Program, where all Year 4 & Year 8 children have their Body Mass Index measured. Data is collated nationally, and used to analyse trends and inform the planning of health services. In some areas the children and parents are not routinely informed of their individual results. How might the main purpose of this initiative be described?

      Your Answer: Health surveillance

      Explanation:

      Public health is a crucial aspect of the RCGP curriculum, with a focus on promoting health and preventing disease. GPs are required to understand the surveillance systems involved in public health. An example of a health surveillance program in the UK is the National Child Measurement Program, which involves the continuous collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data for public health practice. Health protection involves safeguarding the public against health threats, such as air pollution or infectious diseases. Health promotion aims to empower individuals to improve their health, such as through education on healthy eating or access to smoking cessation services. Screening involves testing a population or subgroup for a disease in its early stages to provide early treatment and improve outcomes. Examples of screening programs in the UK include breast, cervical, and bowel cancer screening. Confidential enquiries are investigations into morbidity and mortality to identify areas for improvement, such as the annual Confidential Enquiry into Maternal and Child Health (CEMACH).

      Understanding Health Promotion and Surveillance

      Health promotion refers to the process of empowering individuals to take control of their health and improve it. This is achieved through various means such as education, awareness campaigns, and access to healthcare services. The World Health Organisation defines health promotion as a continuous process that enables people to increase their control over their health.

      On the other hand, health surveillance is the systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of health-related data. This data is used to plan, implement, and evaluate public health practices. Health surveillance is crucial in identifying health trends and patterns, which can help in the prevention and control of diseases. An example of health surveillance is the National Child Measurement Program, which collects data on childhood obesity.

      In summary, health promotion and surveillance are essential components of public health. Health promotion empowers individuals to take control of their health, while health surveillance provides valuable data that can be used to plan and implement effective public health interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 6 - A researcher is analysing the body mass index (BMI) of patients in a...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is analysing the body mass index (BMI) of patients in a geriatric ward. Most of the patients have a BMI that falls within the normal range; however, a few outliers have very low BMIs.
      Which of the following is most likely to be affected by the outliers?

      Your Answer: Median

      Correct Answer: Mean

      Explanation:

      Measures of Central Tendency: Mean, Median, and Mode

      When analyzing a set of data, it is important to understand the measures of central tendency: mean, median, and mode. The mean is calculated by adding up all the scores and dividing by the number of scores. However, the mean is heavily influenced by extreme values, which can significantly lower the overall value. The median, on the other hand, is the middle number in a sorted list of values and is less affected by extreme values. Finally, the mode is the most frequently occurring value in the data set and is not influenced by extreme values. Understanding these measures of central tendency can help provide a more accurate representation of the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old woman comes to see the GP with symptoms of stress and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to see the GP with symptoms of stress and anxiety. She is a single mother of three children and is struggling with financial debt. She works part-time as a cleaner at a local cafe for 15 hours a week on minimum wage and is receiving Jobseeker's Allowance. Considering her financial concerns, you contemplate whether she may be eligible for Universal Credit.

      What advice would you give her regarding Universal Credit based on the given information?

      Your Answer: She may be eligible for Universal Credit as she is a single mum

      Correct Answer: She may be eligible for Universal Credit as she is on a low income

      Explanation:

      Universal Credit is not only available to those who are unemployed, but also to individuals with a low income. To qualify for Universal Credit, you must be 18 years or older (with some exceptions for 16-17 year olds), under State Pension age (or have a partner who is), have savings of £16,000 or less between you and your partner, and reside in the UK. Your relationship status and number of children do not impact your eligibility, but they may affect the amount of payment you receive. It is possible to receive both Universal Credit and Jobseeker’s Allowance if you meet the requirements for both, but you cannot receive Employment Support Allowance and Jobseeker’s Allowance simultaneously. If you have a disability or health condition that affects your ability to work, and you are under State Pension age, you may be eligible for Employment and Support Allowance.

      Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies

      Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.

      The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.

      Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.

      Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 8 - Admissions to a pediatric admissions unit were audited for a period of one...

    Incorrect

    • Admissions to a pediatric admissions unit were audited for a period of one week. For 225 admissions, the mean length of time to see a doctor was 2.5 hours and the median time to see a doctor was 1.5 hours.
      Which of the following correctly describes the distribution of the time to see a doctor?

      Your Answer: Left skewed

      Correct Answer: Positively skewed

      Explanation:

      Understanding Skewed Distributions

      Skewed distributions are a common occurrence in data analysis. A positively skewed distribution is one where the tail on the right side is longer than the left side, caused by a small number of extremely large values. This can cause the mean to be pulled towards the right tail, with most values being less than the mean. An approximately normal distribution is symmetric, with the median and mean being equal. A left-skewed distribution has a long left tail caused by a small number of extremely low values, with the mean usually being less than the median. A negatively skewed distribution is synonymous with left-skewed, with the median usually being higher than the mean. A symmetric distribution, such as the normal distribution, has no skew and the mean and median are equal. Understanding the type of distribution can help in making accurate interpretations and decisions based on the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old girl presented to A&E with malaise and fever. She was given...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presented to A&E with malaise and fever. She was given advice about managing her symptoms and sent home. Unfortunately, the girl's condition deteriorated whilst at home and she had a cardiac arrest. Despite attempts by her family to resuscitate her, she sadly died.

      You later discover that she had pneumococcal meningitis. Her past medical history reveals that she should have been immunised against pneumococcus.

      As per the NHS vaccination programme, which of the following patient populations should receive the pneumococcus vaccine?

      Your Answer: Coeliac Disease

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Recommendations for Specific Patient Groups

      According to The Green Book, certain patient groups have specific vaccination recommendations. For example, individuals with coeliac disease and absent or dysfunctional spleens should be fully vaccinated according to the national schedule, with a particular emphasis on vaccination against pneumococcal infection and annual influenza vaccine. Patients with immune suppression due to infections such as HIV, those receiving chemotherapy or oral steroids, and those with cochlear implants may also have increased risks of contracting bacterial infections and should be vaccinated accordingly. However, patients with thyroid disease alone or those who have received a contraceptive implant are not listed on the NHS vaccination schedule. Pregnant patients are advised to wait until after giving birth to receive the pneumococcal vaccine, unless the benefits outweigh the risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these recommendations for routine immunisation and to consider them in the context of specific patient populations. This knowledge can also be useful for conducting audits in practice, such as assessing the pneumococcal vaccination rates among patients with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 10 - In a sample of 1000 individuals, the diastolic blood pressure (DBP) measurements follow...

    Correct

    • In a sample of 1000 individuals, the diastolic blood pressure (DBP) measurements follow a normal distribution with a mean of 74 mmHg and a standard deviation of 6 mmHg. How many subjects are expected to have a DBP between 68 mmHg and 80 mmHg?

      Your Answer: 680

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Distribution and Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP)

      Normal distribution is a statistical concept that helps us understand the distribution of data in a population. In the case of diastolic blood pressure (DBP), normal distribution can help us determine the range of DBP values that are most common in a population.

      68% of the data in a normally distributed curve falls within one standard deviation of the mean. For DBP, this means that 68% of patients will have a DBP that falls within 6 mmHg of the mean. This translates to approximately 680 out of 1000 patients.

      32% of the data falls outside one standard deviation of the mean. For DBP, this means that 32% of patients will have a DBP that falls either below 68 mmHg or above 82 mmHg.

      When we consider two standard deviations from the mean, 95% of the data falls within this range. For DBP, this means that approximately 950 out of 1000 patients will have a DBP that falls between 62 mmHg and 86 mmHg.

      Understanding normal distribution and its application to DBP can help healthcare professionals better interpret and analyze patient data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic acid intake. The patient has a medical history of insulin-treated type 1 diabetes. What recommendations would you make regarding the duration and dosage of folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: 5 mg daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken after conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Requirements for Women During Pregnancy

      Most women are advised to take 400 mcg of folic acid daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects, such as those with a history of bearing children with NTDs, or women with diabetes or taking anticonvulsants, should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy.

      Another group of women who require a higher dose of folic acid are those with sickle cell disease. They need to take 5 mg of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, and even when not pregnant, they’ll usually be taking folic acid 5mg every 1 to 7 days, depending on the severity of their disease. It’s important for women to consult with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose of folic acid for their individual needs during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 12 - Which option is the most effective in lowering LDL cholesterol? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is the most effective in lowering LDL cholesterol?

      Your Answer: Rosuvastatin 5 mg daily

      Correct Answer: Pravastatin 10 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statin Intensity and LDL Cholesterol Reduction

      Statins are a class of drugs that can have varying effects on reducing LDL cholesterol levels, depending on the specific statin used and its dosage. Low intensity statins typically reduce LDL cholesterol by 20-30%, while medium intensity statins can reduce it by 31-40%. High intensity statins, on the other hand, can produce a reduction greater than 40%.

      To be considered a high intensity statin, a drug must cause an approximate 55% reduction in LDL cholesterol. Atorvastatin 80 mg daily is the only option listed that meets this criteria. The other options are either low or medium intensity, exerting a lesser effect on LDL cholesterol reduction.

      Understanding the efficacy of different statins and dosages is important in determining which treatment options are recommended in guidelines and what results can be expected. The statin intensity table provided by NHS England is a helpful tool for comparing statins and their dosages in terms of their intensity. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 13 - A study is designed to assess the safety of recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO)...

    Correct

    • A study is designed to assess the safety of recombinant human erythropoietin (rhEPO) when used in premature infants of less than 32 weeks gestation to reduce postnatal haemoglobin decline. Out of 29 infants given the treatment, none suffered serious side-effects.

      Your Answer: Nothing conclusive can be said, a larger study is needed

      Explanation:

      Importance of Further Study on Infant Drug Safety

      Although none of the 31 infants in the study experienced serious side-effects from the drug, it doesn’t necessarily mean that the drug is completely safe for all infants. If 3% of infants were to suffer from serious side-effects, it would only be expected to occur in 1 out of 30 infants, making it possible to have no occurrences in a small sample size. Therefore, a larger study is necessary to obtain a more accurate estimate of the percentage of infants who may experience serious side-effects. It is crucial to conduct further research to ensure the safety of infants who may be prescribed this drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 14 - A child is being monitored for body weight at a routine 12-week check....

    Correct

    • A child is being monitored for body weight at a routine 12-week check. The child’s weight is taken and plotted on a centile chart. It is determined that the child's current weight is on the 40th centile.
      What does this indicate about this child’s weight compared with other children of his age in the population?

      Your Answer: This child is heavier than 40% of the children in his age group

      Explanation:

      Understanding Centile Ranks: Interpreting an Individual Score in Relation to a Population

      Centile ranks provide a way of understanding an individual score in relation to all the other scores in a population. The 40th centile, for example, is the value at which 40% of observations would be less than that value. This means that if fewer than 40% of the children in the child’s age group weighed less than the child, the child would be below the 40th centile. On the other hand, if the child were heavier than 60% of the children in his age group, the child would be on the 60th centile. It’s important to note that centiles do not relate an individual score to the average score of a population, but rather to where it would fall if all the scores of a population were arranged in order. By understanding centile ranks, we can better interpret an individual score in relation to a larger population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 15 - You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed with COPD.

      You wish to use the 'stages of change' model, which is comprised of:

      A Action
      B Contemplation
      C Maintenance
      D precontemplation
      E Preparation

      Which of the following correctly orders the listed stages in the 'stages of change' model?

      Your Answer: D B E A C

      Correct Answer: A D C B E

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change Model for Smoking Cessation

      The ‘stages of change’ model is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to categorize a patient’s readiness to act on a new health behavior, such as smoking cessation. The correct order of the model is precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.

      It is important to determine where the patient fits in the model to tailor the approach accordingly. Patients in the earlier stages may benefit from education on the benefits of quitting smoking and increasing their awareness of the positive outcomes. This can help them move towards the later stages of the model.

      Patients in the later stages may require more direct intervention, such as pharmacological management with nicotine replacement or varenicline, and advice on preventing relapse. By utilizing the stages of change model, healthcare professionals can provide personalized care and support for patients seeking to quit smoking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman who is four months pregnant is planning to travel to...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is four months pregnant is planning to travel to Africa with her husband for his business. She visits your clinic as she needs to update her vaccinations.
      Which of the following vaccines is safe to administer during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      Live, Antigenic, and Toxoid Vaccines

      Live vaccines are those that contain a weakened or attenuated form of the virus or bacteria they protect against. Examples of live vaccines include oral polio vaccines, measles, mumps, rubella, yellow fever, and BCG. These vaccines are effective because they stimulate the immune system to produce a strong and long-lasting response.

      Antigenic vaccines, on the other hand, contain a part of the virus or bacteria that triggers an immune response. Hepatitis A and B vaccines are examples of antigenic vaccines. They are indicated in cases where there is a risk of exposure to Hepatitis A or B.

      Toxoid vaccines contain a toxin produced by the bacteria they protect against that has been inactivated or detoxified. Tetanus vaccination is an example of a toxoid vaccine. These vaccines are effective because they stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies that neutralize the toxin.

      In summary, live, antigenic, and toxoid vaccines are all important tools in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. Each type of vaccine works differently, but all are designed to stimulate the immune system to produce a protective response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 17 - A process that facilitates a collaborative communication structure between the teacher(s) and a...

    Incorrect

    • A process that facilitates a collaborative communication structure between the teacher(s) and a group of educators in a subject area to generate ideas, requirements, goals or projections about a subject.
      This describes which of the below options?

      Your Answer: Focus group

      Correct Answer: Delphi method

      Explanation:

      Research Techniques: Delphi Method, Cross-Sectional Study, Focus Group, Non-Directive Interview, and Triangulation

      The Delphi method is a research technique that involves asking questions of experts and analyzing their responses. The information is then fed back to each expert, who has the opportunity to revise their answers in light of their colleagues’ replies. This iterative process continues until a consensus is reached, resulting in a synthesis of knowledge. The Delphi method is considered rigorous and valid due to the input of experts and the iterative nature of the process.

      A cross-sectional study involves observing a sample at a single point in time. This type of study is useful for examining the prevalence of a particular condition or behavior in a population.

      A focus group is a form of qualitative research in which a group of people is asked about their perceptions, opinions, beliefs, and attitudes on a particular topic. Participants are free to interact with each other, allowing for a deeper exploration of the topic.

      Non-directive interviews are the opposite of structured interviews. They allow for open-ended questions based on the interviewee’s responses, creating a more conversational and relaxed atmosphere.

      Triangulation is a method used by qualitative researchers to establish validity in their studies by analyzing a research question from multiple perspectives. This can include using different research methods, such as one-to-one interviews, focus groups, and engaging with different stakeholders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 18 - What proportion of the population in the United Kingdom has coeliac disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What proportion of the population in the United Kingdom has coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: 1 in 500

      Correct Answer: 1 in 1000

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease Prevalence and Risk Factors

      The prevalence of coeliac disease in the United Kingdom is approximately 1 in 100. However, this can vary significantly between different countries, with Finland and Northern European countries having higher rates.

      If a patient has a first degree relative with coeliac disease, their risk of having the condition increases to 1 in 10. In such cases, it is advisable to offer testing, even if the patient is not experiencing symptoms. This is because untreated coeliac disease can increase the risk of other diseases, including lymphoma and gut malignancy.

      It is important to be aware of these risk factors and prevalence rates in order to identify and diagnose coeliac disease early, and to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 19 - Which statement accurately interprets the data from a review of statin trials, including...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately interprets the data from a review of statin trials, including the trial type, number of patients, drug used, and relative risk of cardiac event in the treatment arm for each trial?

      Your Answer: Rosuvastatin is the most effective statin in terms of reducing cardiovascular events

      Correct Answer: The data suggests a class effect

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Statins in Primary and Secondary Prevention Trials

      The table provided contains data from both primary and secondary prevention trials, making direct comparisons between the statins difficult. While atorvastatin appears to be more potent in the three secondary prevention trials, the lack of information on confidence intervals and P values prevents a definitive conclusion. Additionally, cost-effectiveness cannot be compared without data on the cost of both drugs and outcome costs. More data is needed on the other statins in primary prevention, but the fact that all three drugs were associated with a reduction in risk suggests a class effect. A class effect refers to the effect produced by all members of a chemically related group of medications, rather than just a single drug from that class.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 20 - You are researching month-on-month changes in septoplasty rates nationally.
    Select from the options the...

    Incorrect

    • You are researching month-on-month changes in septoplasty rates nationally.
      Select from the options the best source of information.

      Your Answer: Quality Outcome Framework data

      Correct Answer: Hospital Episode Statistics

      Explanation:

      Limitations of Different Data Sources for Healthcare Research

      When conducting healthcare research, it is important to consider the limitations of different data sources. National census data, while useful for understanding demographics, cannot provide information on specific healthcare issues. Quality Outcome Framework data is limited to the issues measured in GP practices, and local PAS data may not provide a comprehensive national picture. Additionally, a postal survey of ENT surgeons may result in a low response rate. Therefore, researchers must carefully consider the strengths and limitations of each data source before drawing conclusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 21 - A 62-year-old man is found to have a raised cholesterol level on routine...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man is found to have a raised cholesterol level on routine blood tests. His blood pressure is normal; he is not diabetic, and his QRISK®3 score is 15%. He drinks 12 units of alcohol per week.
      What would be the most appropriate management option in this case?

      Your Answer: Start 20 mg atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Management of High Cholesterol – Dosage and Referral Guidelines

      Explanation:

      When managing high cholesterol, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure appropriate treatment. According to NICE guidelines, lipid-lowering therapy should be offered if the QRISK®3 score is > 10%. For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, a dose of 20 mg atorvastatin is indicated.

      While lifestyle advice is important, drug treatment should be offered to modify cholesterol levels for patients at high risk of atherosclerosis. Referral to the Lipid Clinic is only necessary if the patient has not tolerated three different types of statin or has a family history of familial hypercholesterolaemia.

      For this patient, a higher dose of statins is not necessary as he has not had any episode of arterial disease. Therefore, he should be started on a lower dose of statins, such as 20 mg atorvastatin. If his cholesterol level doesn’t respond, the dose may need to be increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 22 - A study looks at the risk of myocardial infarction in 2 groups of...

    Correct

    • A study looks at the risk of myocardial infarction in 2 groups of patients with different ages. There are 1000 patients in the group aged 50 and above, and 1000 in the group aged below 50. In the group aged below 50, there were 20 myocardial infarctions, while in the group aged 50 and above there were 80 myocardial infarctions.
      Select from the list the risk of a myocardial infarction in the group aged below 50.

      Your Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk: Calculating the Proportion of Patients Developing a Condition

      Risk is a term used to describe the likelihood of an event occurring. In the context of healthcare, risk is often used to calculate the proportion of patients who develop a specific condition. For example, if 200 out of 1000 patients develop a certain condition, the risk of that condition is 0.2 or 20%. Understanding risk is important in healthcare as it helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options and preventative measures. By calculating the risk of a particular condition, healthcare providers can identify patients who may be at higher risk and take steps to mitigate that risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 23 - A 5 year-old child has a minor nosebleed. She received a vaccination the...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year-old child has a minor nosebleed. She received a vaccination the previous day. Which immunisation is most likely responsible for her epistaxis?

      Your Answer: BCG

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      Children are now being offered annual influenza vaccination, with the current rollout in winter 2015 targeting those aged 2, 3, and 4, as well as children in years 1 and 2 of school. It is expected that all children will receive the vaccine annually in the future. Unlike the inactivated injectable vaccine given to adults, the vaccine for children is a live attenuated vaccine administered through nasal spray. Common side effects include nasal congestion and rhinorrhea, and in some cases, epistaxis. However, it should be noted that the vaccine contains porcine gelatin, which may not be suitable for certain religious groups.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 24 - What is the meaning of the P value of less than 0.05 in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of the P value of less than 0.05 in a study comparing the effectiveness of drug A versus drug B in lowering blood pressure, where drug A was found to be more effective?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is true

      Correct Answer: The probability that the results could have occurred by chance is less than 0.05

      Explanation:

      Understanding Null and Alternative Hypotheses and the Significance of P Values

      In any scientific study, researchers formulate a null hypothesis that assumes there is no difference between two treatments. The alternative hypothesis, on the other hand, suggests that there is a difference. It is important to note that while the convention is to assume the null hypothesis is true, rejecting it doesn’t necessarily mean that the alternative hypothesis is true.

      The P value is a measure of the probability that the observed results in a study (or more extreme results) could have occurred by chance. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the possibility of chance occurrences when interpreting study results. Accepting the alternative hypothesis is not the same as saying it is true, but rather that it is more likely than the null hypothesis.

      A P value of 0.05 or below is conventionally considered statistically significant, but this still carries a risk of a chance occurrence of 1 in 20. To reduce this risk, a more stringent rule is to use a P value of 0.01. Understanding null and alternative hypotheses and the significance of P values is essential for accurate interpretation of study results.

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  • Question 25 - A novel oral hypoglycaemic agent has been developed to manage type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A novel oral hypoglycaemic agent has been developed to manage type 2 diabetes (drug B). A recently published paper appears to show very favourable results for this drug. A brief extract is given below.
      ‘Patients were recruited from outpatient clinics to receive drug B. A questionnaire developed by the trial coordinator was filled out by the clinician if they felt a patient might be suitable for the trial and these were collated by the trial coordinator. Baseline blood tests were taken at this time. Suitable patients were then selected by the coordinator and invited to join the trial. The group had the following characteristics: 32% female, 96% white, 2% black, 2% Asian. They were given drug B to take for a 12-month period. At the end of the trial questionnaires were given out to patients who were still taking the drug to evaluate side-effects and repeat blood tests were taken.’
      Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the trial described above?

      Your Answer: The study was performed on an intention-to-treat basis

      Correct Answer: The study design is prone to inclusion bias

      Explanation:

      Limitations of a Diabetes Study

      The Limitations of a Diabetes Study are evident in the inclusion of patients based on the clinician and coordinator’s discretion, leading to inclusion bias. This bias may result in a higher representation of English-speaking white patients, while Asians and black patients are under-represented. Additionally, the study only followed patients who completed the trial, excluding those who dropped out due to side-effects, resulting in a lack of intention-to-treat analysis. Furthermore, there is no information on whether the study was placebo-controlled. These limitations suggest that the study’s findings may not be representative of the broader diabetic population in the UK.

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  • Question 26 - A completely well pregnant woman in her 20s comes to see you because...

    Incorrect

    • A completely well pregnant woman in her 20s comes to see you because she has been in contact with a child who has been diagnosed with measles.

      Her exposure to the child was within six days of the onset of rash in the affected child. She has not been immunised against measles and she doesn't think that she has contracted measles in the past.

      How would you manage this woman?

      Your Answer: Arrange for her to receive human normal immunoglobulin as soon as possible

      Correct Answer: Offer immediate MMR immunisation

      Explanation:

      Managing Measles Exposure in Pregnant Women

      When a pregnant woman is exposed to measles, it is crucial for GPs to know how to respond appropriately. Simply reassuring her that no further action is necessary or to re-attend if she becomes unwell is not enough. Instead, GPs should offer an urgent blood test to check for measles IgG if there is no history of the patient receiving two doses of measles containing vaccine or if she is not known to be immune from previous measles disease.

      If the patient is immune, GPs can reassure her that the risk of measles is low and advise her to contact her GP or midwife if she develops a rash. However, if the patient is non-immune and has been exposed within six days of onset of rash in the suspected or confirmed case, GPs can offer human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) after checking IgG for measles first rather than giving HNIG empirically.

      It is important to note that pregnant women should not be offered MMR vaccine. Measles infection in pregnancy can lead to intrauterine death and preterm delivery, and severe illness in the mother, but is not associated with congenital infection or damage. While HNIG may not prevent measles, it has been shown to attenuate the illness. However, there is no evidence that it prevents intrauterine death or preterm delivery. By following these guidelines, GPs can effectively manage measles exposure in pregnant women and prevent further harm.

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  • Question 27 - A study is undertaken to investigate the impact of exercise on the blood...

    Incorrect

    • A study is undertaken to investigate the impact of exercise on the blood pressure of individuals over 60 years old. A random sample of individuals is tested before the intervention, and a second random sample is tested after the intervention. The results are presented in a 2 × 2 contingency table, and the reduction in blood pressure is tested with a t-test. The result of the t-test is reported as ‘t = 2.1, P = 0.04’.
      Select from the list the meaning of ‘P = 0.04’.

      Your Answer: The probability that this intervention has reduced the contamination rate is 3%

      Correct Answer: The probability that a difference of this magnitude would have occurred by chance is 3%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the P-Value: What it Represents in Statistical Testing

      The P-value in statistical testing represents the probability that a result of equal or greater magnitude to the actual result of the study would have occurred by chance if the intervention had no effect. It doesn’t represent the contamination rate or the reduction in contamination. In this case, a P-value of 0.03 could be interpreted as meaning that the probability that the intervention has truly reduced the contamination rate is 97%. To reject the null hypothesis, a predetermined significance level is set, usually either 0.05 (95%) or 0.01 (99%). If 0.05 was used, the null hypothesis would have been rejected, and the results are said to be statistically significant, presumably indicating a reduction in MRSA contamination rates. Overall, understanding the P-value is crucial in interpreting the results of statistical testing accurately.

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  • Question 28 - A General Practitioner is approached by an expert reviewer working on the Saving...

    Incorrect

    • A General Practitioner is approached by an expert reviewer working on the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers' Care report, to provide details about the demise of a postpartum patient who was under the care of the practice. What type of procedure does the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers Care report exemplify?

      Your Answer: Inquest

      Correct Answer: Confidential enquiry

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum includes public health education, which involves promoting health and preventing disease. GPs are required to have an understanding of the surveillance systems they are involved in. The Saving Lives, Improving Mothers’ Care report is an example of a Confidential Enquiry, which replaces the previous Confidential Enquiry into Maternal and Child Health (CEMACH), also known as Why Mothers Die. The purpose of a Confidential Enquiry is to investigate morbidity and mortality cases to identify areas of practice that need improvement. The details of each individual case are kept confidential and not published. GPs are often involved in providing information about maternal deaths to the team responsible for producing the Saving Lives, Improving Mothers’ Care report. Expert reviewers gather and assess information from various healthcare professionals involved in the patient’s care, including GPs.

      Understanding Confidential Enquiries

      A confidential enquiry is a process of investigating morbidity and mortality cases to identify areas of practice that need improvement. The purpose of this investigation is to ensure that healthcare providers are delivering the best possible care to their patients. The confidentiality of each case is maintained, and no details are published to protect the privacy of the individuals involved.

      During a confidential enquiry, healthcare providers review cases of morbidity and mortality to identify any shortcomings in their practice. This process helps to identify areas where improvements can be made to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. The confidentiality of each case is essential to encourage healthcare providers to participate in the process without fear of retribution or legal action.

      In conclusion, confidential enquiries are an essential tool for improving healthcare practices. By identifying areas of improvement, healthcare providers can work to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future. The confidentiality of each case is critical to ensure that healthcare providers feel comfortable participating in the process and that the privacy of the individuals involved is protected.

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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statement regarding the 2010 Mental Capacity Act is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statement regarding the 2010 Mental Capacity Act is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Applies to a patient who is suffering a temporary impairment

      Correct Answer: Applies to patients of any age

      Explanation:

      The Mental Capacity Act is not applicable to minors. It is important to presume that all patients have the ability to make decisions, regardless of their condition, until it is demonstrated otherwise.

      The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.

      To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.

      When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A 31-year-old woman attends with her partner. Unfortunately the couple suffered a cot...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman attends with her partner. Unfortunately the couple suffered a cot death. They would like to try for another child and would like to discuss some of the features of cot death with you. Both smoke heavily.

      Which one of the following is true with respect to the risk of cot death in future offspring?

      Your Answer: Risk is reduced if parents give up smoking

      Explanation:

      Sudden Unexpected Death in Infancy (SUDI)

      Sudden unexpected death in infancy (SUDI), commonly known as cot death, is a condition where infants die without any apparent cause found in their history, clinical examination, or post mortem investigations. This condition is most common in infants under six months of age, with the peak incidence occurring in the second month. SUDI is the leading cause of death in this age group, and premature and low birth weight babies, as well as twins, are at higher risk.

      Boys are more susceptible to SUDI than girls, and infants born to young mothers, in low socio-economic class, and households with smokers are also at higher risk. Smoking is a dose-related risk factor. A minor preceding illness in the previous day or so is often reported before the occurrence of SUDI.

      Sleeping on their fronts is another factor that increases the risk of SUDI, which is why the back to sleep campaign has significantly reduced the incidence of SUDI. Co-sleeping with parents, especially in families with a history of drug or alcohol misuse, is also a risk factor for SUDI.

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      • Population Health
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Population Health (9/30) 30%
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