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  • Question 1 - A patient has been diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and is currently bring...

    Correct

    • A patient has been diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and is currently bring treated with rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide. He is commenced on streptomycin. Which among the following is the most likely neurological side-effect of streptomycin?

      Your Answer: Vestibular damage

      Explanation:

      Vestibular damage is a neurological side effect of streptomycin.

      Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside bactericidal antibiotic. It is used in the treatment of tularaemia and resistant mycobacterial infections.
      The most common neurological side-effect is vestibular damage leading to vertigo and vomiting.
      Cochlear damage is less frequent and results in deafness.
      Other side-effects include rashes, angioneurotic oedema, and nephrotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. She's sexually active and is not using any birth control other than barrier method. Which among the following antihypertensives is contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Among the following hypertensives, lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) is contraindicated in patients who are planning for pregnancy.

      Per the NICE guidelines, when treating the woman in question, she should be treated as if she were pregnant given the absence of effective contraception.
      ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril are known teratogens and most be avoided.

      Drugs contraindicated in pregnancy:
      Antibiotics
      Tetracyclines
      Aminoglycosides
      Sulphonamides and trimethoprim
      Quinolones

      Other drugs:
      ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists
      Statins
      Warfarin
      Sulfonylureas
      Retinoids (including topical)
      Cytotoxic agents
      The majority of antiepileptics including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin are known to be potentially harmful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state....

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department in a confused state. He tells you that he consumed two bottles of antifreeze. On examination, his pulse is 120 bpm and blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg. An arterial blood gas analysis shows uncompensated metabolic acidosis. He is transferred to the high dependency unit and ethanol is given via a nasogastric tube. How does ethanol help this patient?

      Your Answer: Competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase

      Explanation:

      Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
      Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
      Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
      Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
      Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failure

      Management has changed in recent times:
      Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
      Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
      Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).
      It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.
      The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect.
      Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile.
      Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common clinical feature of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning:
      It is considered as the great imitator of other diseases as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.

      Clinical features of carbon monoxide toxicity:
      Headache: 90% of cases (most common clinical feature)
      Nausea and vomiting: 50%
      Vertigo: 50%
      Confusion: 30%
      Subjective weakness: 20%
      Severe toxicity: ‘pink’ skin and mucosa, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, death
      Cherry red skin is a sign of severe toxicity and is usually a post-mortem finding.
      Management
      • 100% oxygen
      • Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT)

      The use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.
      The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:
      • COHb levels > 20-25%
      • COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient
      • Loss of consciousness
      • Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)
      • Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?

      Your Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally will be low if it undergoes a high degree of first pass (presystemic) metabolism

      Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination

      Explanation:

      Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.
      The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation.
      Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose.

      Other options are true:
      By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.
      Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine.
      Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is the beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine?

      Your Answer: Increase of left ventricular preload

      Correct Answer: Dilation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      Dilation of systemic veins is a beneficial effect of nitro-glycerine.

      Administration of nitro-glycerine results in the dilation of systemic veins and decrease of myocardial wall tension and oxygen demand. Dilatation of systemic veins can cause reduced systemic vascular resistance leading to reduced cardiac workload thus reducing anginal symptoms secondary to demand ischemia.

      This is accompanied by vasodilation of large and medium-sized coronary arteries with increased coronary blood flow to the sub endocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?

      Your Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      238.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with T1N1M1 malignancy in the left breast,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with T1N1M1 malignancy in the left breast, with metastases detectable in the lower thoracic vertebrae and the left lung. Before the initiation of treatment of this patient with trastuzumab, which is the most important investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Echo

      Explanation:

      Before the initiation of trastuzumab, an echocardiography is a must to rule out any pre-existing cardiac abnormalities as trastuzumab is cardiotoxic.

      Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is a monoclonal antibody directed against the HER2/neu receptor. It is used mainly in metastatic breast cancer although some patients with early disease are now also given trastuzumab.

      Adverse effects include:
      Flu-like symptoms and diarrhoea are common.
      Cardiotoxicity:
      – Risk increases when anthracyclines are used concomitantly.
      – Trastuzumab-induced cardiac dysfunctions are regarded as less severe and largely reversible because primary cardiomyocyte do not show ultrastructure changes unlike those associated with anthracycline-induced cardiotoxicity.
      – Primary myocyte injury does not occur in patients who were treated with trastuzumab.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old male is admitted after drinking engine coolant in an apparent suicide...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male is admitted after drinking engine coolant in an apparent suicide attempt. Lab investigations reveal: pH 7.1 (7.36-7.44) pO2 15.3 kPa (11.3-12.6) pCO2 3.2 kPa (4.7-6.0) Standard bicarbonate 2.2 mmol/L (20-28) Serum calcium 1.82 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) After replacing calcium, which of the following is the most urgent treatment for this man?

      Your Answer: Alcohol infusion

      Correct Answer: 8.4% bicarbonate infusion

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide has high affinity for haemoglobin and myoglobin resulting in a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve and tissue hypoxia. There are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning in the UK. In these circumstances, antidotal therapy to block alcohol dehydrogenase with ethanol or 4-MP alone is insufficient to treat the poisoning. Data suggest that a severe lactic acidosis needs initial correction and in this patient the most appropriate treatment would be IV fluids with bicarbonate to correct the metabolic acidosis. Haemodialysis may be required thereafter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old patient under treatment for gout gave a history of progressive weakness of his limbs over 2 months. He noticed that it was particularly difficult for him to get up from the toilet seat and to get out of his car. He also felt some tingling and numbness of his toes at night, which was distressing. He was taking several medications which included Ibuprofen, perindopril, colchicine, vitamin supplements, and indapamide. On examination his pulse was 85/min, blood pressure was 140/90 mmHg and fundi revealed arteriovenous nipping. He had proximal lower limb weakness of 4/5 and absent ankle reflexes. Plantar reflexes were upgoing on both sides. His serum creatinine phosphokinase level was normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colchicine toxicity

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario is suggestive of myo-neuropathy and is most likely to be caused by colchicine toxicity.
      It gives rise to subacute proximal muscle weakness and on occasions can lead to an acute necrotizing myopathy. Creatine phosphokinase may be normal or may be elevated.
      Weakness resolves when the drug is discontinued but the neuropathic features remain.
      Death is usually a result of respiratory depression and cardiovascular collapse.
      Treatment is symptomatic and supportive, and the treatment for colchicine poisoning includes lavage and measures to prevent shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted with nausea and excessive drowsiness after taking an antihistamine tablet with grapefruit juice. Which of the following liver enzyme systems is affected by grapefruit juice causing the given side effect?

      Your Answer: Cytochrome p450 3A4

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 3A4 enzyme system in the liver is affected by grapefruit juice.

      Patients taking antihistamines should be advised to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. This is because constituents of grapefruit juice such as naringin and bergamottin inhibit CYP3A4 in the liver, particularly at high doses, leading to decreased drug elimination via hepatic metabolism and can increase potential drug toxicities.

      Inhibition of this enzyme system leads to reduced metabolism of antihistamines leading to an increased incidence of side effects like excessive drowsiness and nausea as in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of pins and needles sensation in both hands. He also has prognathism. He also gives a history of recent onset right upper quadrant pain after being started on a new medication for his condition. Which of the following medications acting on his endocrine system can be responsible for this adverse effect?

      Your Answer: Bromocriptine

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      The patient (known case of acromegaly) seems to have developed cholelithiasis (presenting with right upper quadrant pain) probably due to octreotide.

      It is a long-acting analogue of somatostatin which is released from D cells of the pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin.

      Uses
      – Acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage
      – Acromegaly
      – Carcinoid syndrome
      – Prevent complications following pancreatic surgery
      – VIPomas
      – Refractory diarrhoea

      Adverse effects
      Gallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)

      Other options:
      – Bromocriptine – a dopamine agonist with side effects arising from its stimulation of the brain vomiting centre.
      – Desmopressin – predominantly used in patients with diabetes insipidus by increasing the presence of aquaporin channels in the distal collecting duct to increase water reabsorption from the kidneys. The main side effects include headache and facial flushing due to hypertension.
      – Metformin – mainly reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis in patients with type 2 diabetes, common side effects include diarrhoea, vomiting, and lactic acidosis
      – Levothyroxine – synthetic thyroxine used in patients with hypothyroidism, common side effects result from incorrect dosing and mimic the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression. Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.

      Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).

      Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.

      Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes:
      Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension
      Central nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.
      Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rash
      Endocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.
      Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
      Genitourinary: Urinary tract infection
      Hepatic: Abnormal hepatic function tests
      Neuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle cramps
      Ophthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbance
      Otic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitus
      Renal: Acute renal failure

      Other options:
      Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours.
      Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient was started on ezetimibe, for his cholesterol a few days back. Which among the following statements is true regarding ezetimibe?

      Your Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption

      Explanation:

      Ezetimibe is a cholesterol-lowering agent that acts to prevent cholesterol absorption by directly inhibiting cholesterol receptors on enterocytes.
      It does not affect the absorption of drugs (e.g. digoxin, thyroxine) or fat-soluble vitamins (A, D and K) as the anion-exchange resins do. It does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
      The increased risk of myositis associated with the statins is not seen with ezetimibe.
      The most common adverse effects include headache, runny nose, and sore throat.
      Less common reactions include body aches, back pain, chest pain, diarrhoea, joint pain, fatigue, and weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.3
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  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?

      Your Answer: Replenishes glutathione

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.

      Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.
      N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.

      Paracetamol overdose:
      The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).

      Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.

      Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.3
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old agitated male was brought to the emergency department by his friend. Though there is little previous history, the friend believes that he has been suffering from depression for several years, and his medications have been changed by his general practitioner quite recently. On examination the patient is agitated and confused, his pupils are dilated. He also has tremors, excessive sweating, and grinding of teeth. His heart rate is 118 beats/min, which is regular, and is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is serotonin syndrome.

      The serotonin syndrome is a cluster of symptoms and signs (range from barely perceptible tremor to life-threatening hyperthermia and shock).
      It may occur when SSRIs such as citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, fluoxetine, paroxetine, and sertraline that impair the reuptake of serotonin from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic neuron are taken in combination with monoamine oxidase inhibitors or tricyclic antidepressants. It has also been reported following an overdose of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) alone.

      Treatment:
      Most cases of serotonin syndrome are mild and will resolve with removal of the offending drug alone.
      After stopping all serotonergic drugs, management is largely supportive and aimed at preventing complications.
      Patients frequently require sedation, which is best facilitated with benzodiazepines.
      Antipsychotics should be avoided because of their anticholinergic properties, which may inhibit sweating and heat dissipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.3
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  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis has failed to respond to methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Her GP decides to start her on etanercept injections. Which one among the following is an adverse effect associated with the use of etanercept?

      Your Answer: Reactivation of tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Among the give options, reactivation of tuberculosis may occur in a patient under treatment with etanercept.
      Etanercept is a biological TNF inhibit commonly used to control ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, plaque psoriasis, psoriatic arthritis, and rheumatoid arthritis.
      Etanercept is a soluble receptor that binds both TNF-alpha and TNF-beta to inhibit the inflammatory response in joints and skin that is characteristic of these autoimmune disorders.
      The most common adverse effects include infections (viral, bacterial, and fungal – mostly upper respiratory tract infections) and injection site reaction (erythema, itching, pain, swelling, bleeding, bruising).
      Rarely it can also cause, reactivation of hepatitis B and TB, pneumocystis pneumonia, congestive cardiac failure, Steven-Johnson syndrome, toxic epidermal necrolysis, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.9
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      33.5
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female admitted for a course of chemotherapy, has been taking high dose steroids for a few days. The nurses report that she is very agitated and talks about trying to open the window of her room and jump out from the fourth floor. You review her notes and see that she admits to drinking a few glasses of wine per week and has smoked cannabis on a few occasions. On examination her BP is 145/88 mmHg, her pulse is 80 bpm. Blood investigations reveal: Haemoglobin: 12.1 g/dL (11.5-16.5) WBC count: 16.2 x 103/dL (4-11) Platelets: 200 x 109/L (150-400) C-reactive protein: 9 nmol/l (<10) Sodium: 140 mmol/l (135-146) Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine: 92 μmol/l (79-118) Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cannabis-related psychosis

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroid-related psychosis

      Explanation:

      Agitation, hypomania and suicidal intent within a few days after initiating corticosteroid therapy is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of corticosteroid-induced psychosis.

      In some patients corticosteroid related psychosis has been diagnosed up to 12 weeks or more after commencing therapy.

      Euphoria and hypomania are considered to be the most common psychiatric symptoms reported during short courses of steroids.
      During long-term treatment, depressive symptoms were the most common.
      Higher steroid doses appear to carry an increased risk for such adverse effects; however, there is no significant relationship between dose and time to onset, duration, and severity of symptoms.

      Management: Reduction or cessation of corticosteroids is the mainstay of treatment for steroid psychosis. For those patients who cannot tolerate this reduction/cessation of steroids, mood stabilizers may be of some benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      61.8
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma is about to be started on the CHOP regimen (cyclophosphamide, hydroxydaunorubicin, vincristine, and prednisolone). Her pre-chemotherapy blood investigations show: Hb: 11.8 g/dL, Platelets: 423 x 109/L, WBC: 11.2 x 109/L, Na+: 143 mmol/L, K+: 3.9 mmol/L, Urea: 6.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 78 μmol/L, Uric acid: 0.45 mmol/L, Ciprofloxacin is prescribed in addition to the CHOP regimen to reduce the risk of neutropenic sepsis. Which of the following drugs should be added to lower the risk of other complications?

      Your Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) occurs most notably in patients with haematological malignancies including, Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) and Acute Lymphocytic Leukaemia (ALL).
      Risk factors for TLS include:
      • Large tumour burden
      • Sensitivity of the tumour to chemotherapy
      • Rapid tumour growth rate
      TLS is characterized by:
      • Hyperuricemia
      • Hyperkalaemia
      • Hyperphosphatemia
      • Hypocalcaemia
      Treatment of TLS:
      • Allopurinol: It is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, it reduces the conversion of nucleic acid by-products to uric acid. Thus, it prevents urate nephropathy and subsequent oliguric renal failure. Note: dose reduction is essential in renal failure or if given along with mercaptopurine or azathioprine.
      Alternatives to Allopurinol: Febuxostat; Rasburicase are useful in patients with hyperuricemia.
      • Hydration
      • Diuresis: Should be considered in well hydrated patients with insufficient urine output. Furosemide to be considered in normo-volemic patients with hyperkalaemia. Urine alkalization can be considered for promoting alkaline diuresis.
      • Treatment of electrolyte imbalances including hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcaemia.
      • Dialysis can be considered in refractory cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      137.2
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  • Question 22 - A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Mydriasis occurs

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      47.9
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presented to accident and emergency 4 days ago, following an intentional paracetamol overdose. He had taken 20x 500mg tablets, all at once. He denies any alcohol intake. Blood investigations 4 hours after ingestion showed: Paracetamol: 14 mg/l INR: 1 Liver enzymes: No abnormality detected Bilirubin: Mild elevation He was seen by the mental health team and discharged. The blood investigations were repeated: Bilirubin: Within normal limits Urea: 21 mmol/L, Creatinine: 300 µmol/L, What is the likely cause of these results?

      Your Answer: Delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for these results is delayed paracetamol nephrotoxicity.

      The blood investigations of this patient are highly suggestive of acute kidney injury.
      Paracetamol overdose is well known to cause hepatotoxicity, but not for its delayed nephrotoxicity, especially in significant overdose. Appropriate monitoring of a patient’s blood tests is important.

      Management:
      NAC (N-Acetyl cysteine) has a clear role in preventing acetaminophen-induced liver necrosis. Although NAC has not been proven to be harmful to the kidney, its role in patients without hepatoxicity and only isolated renal dysfunction is uncertain.

      Other options:
      -There are no features in the history that are suggestive of dehydration and pre-renal AKI presenting in this manner in a 25-year-old would be very unusual.
      – Minimal change nephropathy typically presents with a nephrotic picture of kidney injury.
      – Berger’s more commonly presents with isolated haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      35.2
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  • Question 24 - A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes to you for counselling regarding the initiation of combined oral contraceptive pill. Which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: She is likely to put on 2-3 kilograms of weight per year while using the combined pill

      Correct Answer: She will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill

      Explanation:

      The true statement among the given options is that she will still be protected against pregnancy if she takes amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection while on the combined pill.

      Other than enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin, antibiotics do not reduce the efficacy of the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      It was previously advised that barrier methods of contraception should be used if taking an antibiotic while using the contraceptive pill, due to concerns that antibiotics might reduce the absorption of the pill. This is now known to be untrue. However, if the absorptive ability of the gut is compromised for another reason, such as severe diarrhoea or vomiting, or bowel disease, this may affect the efficacy of the pill.

      The exception to the antibiotic rule is that hepatic enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin and rifaximin do reduce the efficacy of the pill. Other enzyme-inducing drugs, such as phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine or St John’s Wort can also reduce the effectiveness of the pill.

      Other options:
      The combined pill is often prescribed for women with heavy periods as it can make them lighter and less painful.
      There is no evidence that women on the combined pill put on any significant weight, although they may experience bloating at certain times in the course.
      Women on the pill require monitoring of their blood pressure.
      There are multiple different types of combined pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presented to the ER after being rescued from a house fire. He complained of feeling dizzy and having a worsening headache. On examination, he was dyspnoeic, drowsy and confused. There was no evidence of facial burns and no stridor. He was normotensive, tachycardic (pulse rate: 102 bpm), tachypnoeic (respiratory rate: 35/min) and had O2 saturation of 100% in room air. His venous blood gas results are given below: pH - 7.28 pCO2 - 3.5 kPa pO2 - 15.9 kPa Na+ - 139 mmol/L, K+ - 4.5 mmol/L, Bicarbonate - 11 mmol/L, Chloride - 113 mmol/L, Lactate - 13.6 mmol/L, Keeping in mind the likely diagnosis, which among the following is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: 15 litres of high-flow oxygen via face mask

      Correct Answer: Intravenous hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate intervention in this patient is intravenous hydroxocobalamin.
      The clinical scenario provided is suggestive of acute cyanide toxicity secondary to burning plastics in the house fire.
      Cyanide ions inhibit mitochondrial cytochrome oxidase, preventing aerobic respiration. This manifests in normal oxygen saturations, a high pO2 and flushing (or ‘brick red’ skin) brought on by the excess oxygenation of venous blood. In the question above it is important to note that the blood gas sample given is venous rather than arterial. His blood gas also demonstrates an increased anion gap, consistent with his high lactate (generated by anaerobic respiration due to the inability to use available oxygen).

      The recommended treatment for moderate cyanide toxicity in the UK is one of three options: sodium thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin or dicobalt edetate.

      Among the options given is hydroxocobalamin and this is, therefore, the correct answer. Hydroxocobalamin additionally has the best side-effect profile and speed of onset compared with other treatments for cyanide poisoning.

      Other options:
      – Intubation would be appropriate treatment in the context of airway burns but this patient has no evidence of these, although close monitoring would be advised.
      – High-flow oxygen is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning – a sensible differential, but this man’s very high lactate and high venous pO2 fit better with cyanide toxicity. Intravenous dexamethasone would be another treatment for airway oedema once an endotracheal tube had been placed.
      – Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is a treatment for high blood pressure that can cause cyanide poisoning, and would, therefore, be inappropriate.

      Note:

      Cyanide may be used in insecticides, photograph development and the production of certain metals. Toxicity results from reversible inhibition of cellular oxidizing enzymes
      Clinical presentation:
      Classical features: brick-red skin, the smell of bitter almonds
      Acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
      Chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitis

      Management:
      Supportive measures: 100% oxygen
      Definitive: hydroxocobalamin (intravenously), also a combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer: Thrombin

      Correct Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):
      It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot.

      LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation.
      Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.

      Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.

      Dosage and uses:
      LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.

      Adverse effects:
      The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.
      Less commonly it can cause:
      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
      Osteoporosis and spontaneous fractures
      Hypoaldosteronism
      Hypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis...

    Correct

    • What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of mast-cell degranulation

      Explanation:

      Sodium cromoglycate principally acts by inhibiting the degranulation of mast cells triggered by the interaction of antigen and IgE.
      The inhibitory effect on mast cells appears to be cell-type specific since cromoglycate has little inhibitory effect on mediator release from human basophils.
      Thus, it inhibits the release of histamine, leukotrienes, and slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by inhibiting degranulation following exposure to reactive antigens.

      Adverse effects include cough, flushing, palpitation, chest pain, nasal congestion, nausea, fatigue, migraine, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with prostate cancer, what is the mechanism by which goserelin acts?

      Your Answer: Androgen receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: GnRH agonist

      Explanation:

      Androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) for prostate cancer:

      Goserelin (Zoladex) is a synthetic gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogue; chronic stimulation of goserelin results in suppression of LH, FSH serum levels thereby preventing a rise in testosterone.

      Dosage form: 3.6 mg/10.8mg implants.

      Adverse effects include flushing, sweating, diarrhoea, erectile dysfunction, less commonly, rash, depression, hypersensitivity, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills. Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.
      Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.
      If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.
      Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male was under treatment for bipolar disease. He was brought to the emergency department as he had become increasingly confused over the past two days. He had vomiting and diarrhoea. He was also consuming and passing a lot of water. On examination, he was disoriented. He had vertical nystagmus and was ataxic. What two investigations are likely to lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum lithium level

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin test and serum lithium level

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin test (done to differentiate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from central diabetes insipidus), and serum lithium levels can together confirm a diagnosis of lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

      Bipolar disease is most often managed with mood stabilizers like lithium. This patient develops gastrointestinal symptoms followed by an acute confusional state associated with polyuria and polydipsia. These symptoms are suggestive of diabetes insipidus.

      In a case where these symptoms occur in a bipolar patient under treatment, lithium-induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus should be considered as the most probable cause.

      Lithium intoxication can present with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, mental dullness, action tremor, weakness, ataxia, slurred speech, blurred vision, dizziness, especially vertical nystagmus and stupor or coma. Diffuse myoclonic twitching and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus can also occur. Such a clinical syndrome occurs above the serum level of lithium of 1.5–2.0 mEq/L.

      Management:
      – Correcting electrolyte abnormalities in patients with acute disease is critical and often life-saving.
      – Treatment should be initiated with parenteral fluids to replete hypovolemia (normal saline at 200-250 mL/h), followed by administration of hypotonic fluid (0.5% normal saline).
      – On the restoration of the volume status of the patient forced diuresis should be initiated by the administration of parenteral furosemide or bumetanide accompanied by continued intravenous hypotonic fluid administration to maintain volume status.
      – Polyuria is managed with hydrochlorothiazide combined with amiloride, acetazolamide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      88.7
      Seconds

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