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  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old motorcyclist presents with declining vision and no glasses. He is concerned...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old motorcyclist presents with declining vision and no glasses. He is concerned about his eligibility to drive and the potential voiding of his insurance if he doesn't seek professional advice. What criteria does the DVLA use to determine if someone should be advised not to drive based on visual acuity thresholds?

      Your Answer: The threshold for reading a number plate in good light is a distance of 5 metres

      Explanation:

      Driving and Sight Impairment

      Doctors have a responsibility to advise patients with sight impairment or severe sight impairment not to drive and to inform the DVLA. For those who are group 1 drivers (cars and motorcycles), they must be able to read a modern vehicle number plate in good light from a distance of 20 metres, or approximately 6/12 on a Snellen chart, with the use of corrective lenses if necessary. If there is any uncertainty, patients should contact the DVLA or seek an opinion from an eye specialist. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon reviewing his records, you discover that he was recently admitted to the hospital due to a possible seizure. His wife witnessed unusual jerking movements while he was asleep, and he is currently undergoing investigations to rule out epilepsy. The consultant neurologist has advised him not to drive, but you saw him driving his bus just three days ago. When confronted, he admits to still driving and refuses to inform DVLA as he has not received a definite diagnosis and believes there is no issue. Despite informing him of his legal duty to inform DVLA, he still refuses. As a doctor, what is your duty in this situation?

      Your Answer: You have no further responsibility as you have told the patient that he must inform DVLA

      Correct Answer: You should contact DVLA immediately disclosing the situation to them in confidence situation without the patient's knowledge

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance and Doctor’s Duties in Cases of Seizures

      This case highlights the importance of following DVLA guidance when it comes to seizures. If a driver experiences a seizure, they have a duty to inform DVLA and refrain from driving until a diagnosis is made. Depending on the diagnosis, they may be required to not drive for a further period.

      According to GMC guidance, if a doctor advises a patient that they may not drive, they should suggest and arrange a second opinion for the patient. In this case, the doctor is the second opinion and a third opinion is not necessary.

      If the patient refuses to inform DVLA of their condition, the doctor has a duty to disclose the information. However, they must inform the patient prior to the disclosure and confirm in writing that the disclosure has been made. It is important for doctors to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 3 - You visit a 78-year-old woman at home and she has difficulty understanding the...

    Correct

    • You visit a 78-year-old woman at home and she has difficulty understanding the treatment that she takes for her asthma. You think that this is largely because she has impaired hearing.

      In general terms, which of the following strategies is most likely to help?

      Your Answer: Minimising background noise

      Explanation:

      Communicating with Deaf and Hard-of-Hearing Patients

      When communicating with deaf and hard-of-hearing patients, it is important to minimise background noise and speak clearly at a normal or near normal rate. Non-verbal communication can also be helpful, as well as decreasing the pitch of your voice. Shouting should never be used, as it can be unpleasant and appear rude. Instead, use the patient’s name to get their attention and ask if they can hear you. Face them when speaking, as many deaf people use lip-reading to supplement their hearing aid(s) and what hearing they have. Remember that clear and polite communication is appreciated by the deaf and hard of hearing community.

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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect?

      Your Answer: A different appraiser should conduct the appraisal each year

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Appraisal for GPs

      Appraisal is a crucial process that has been mandatory for GPs since 2002. Its primary purpose is to identify areas for development rather than performance management. With the introduction of revalidation by the GMC, appraisals have become even more important as they provide a structured system for recording progress towards revalidation and identifying development needs.

      After the Primary Care Trusts were disbanded, NHS England took on the responsibility for appraisals. The appraiser should be another GP who has been properly trained in appraisal. It is recommended that a doctor should have no more than three consecutive appraisals by the same appraiser in the same revalidation cycle. The average time commitment for appraisal is a minimum of 4.5 to 6.5 hours, including between 2 and 4 hours for preparation.

      The content of appraisal is based on the 4 key domains set out in the GMC’s Good Medical Practice document. These domains include knowledge, skills, and performance, contributing and complying with systems to protect patients, communication, partnership, and teamwork, and maintaining trust. It is essential for GPs to participate in appraisal regularly to ensure they are providing the best possible care to their patients and maintaining their professional standards.

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  • Question 5 - Which of the following consultation models recommends discovering the motive for the patient's...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following consultation models recommends discovering the motive for the patient's visit in relation to thoughts, worries, and anticipations?

      Your Answer: Neighbour

      Correct Answer: Pendleton

      Explanation:

      The Calgary-Cambridge model also includes aspects of investigating concepts, worries, and anticipations.

      Consultation Models

      The following are various consultation models that healthcare professionals can use to guide their interactions with patients. Each model has its own unique approach and set of steps to follow. The Calgary-Cambridge observation guide focuses on initiating the session, gathering information, building the relationship, giving information, explaining and planning, and closing the session. The Stewart patient-centered clinical method emphasizes exploring both the disease and the illness experience, understanding the whole person, finding common ground, incorporating prevention and health promotion, enhancing the doctor-patient relationship, and being realistic with time and resources. The Pendleton model involves defining the reason for the patient’s attendance, considering other problems, choosing an appropriate action for each problem, achieving a shared understanding of the problems with the patient, involving the patient in the management and encouraging them to accept appropriate responsibility, using time and resources appropriately, and establishing or maintaining a relationship with the patient. The Fraser model includes interviewing and history-taking, physical examination, diagnosis and problem-solving, patient management, relating to patients, anticipatory care, and record-keeping. The Neighbour model, called the Inner Consultation, includes connecting, summarizing, handing over, safety netting, and housekeeping. Finally, the Tuckett model emphasizes that the consultation is a meeting between two experts, doctors are experts in medicine, patients are experts in their own illnesses, shared understanding is the aim, doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs, and doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system. By using these models, healthcare professionals can provide effective and patient-centered care.

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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past three months, announces that she is four months pregnant and would like to return to the practice one year after the birth of her child, then working only part time for the next two years.

      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations?

      Your Answer: You must allow her to return and she can work part time for the specified period

      Explanation:

      Maternity Leave Entitlements for Employed Women

      The rules regarding pregnancy and maternity leave are straightforward. All employed pregnant women are entitled to 52 weeks (one year) of maternity leave, regardless of their length of service with their employer. This consists of 26 weeks of ordinary maternity leave and 26 weeks of additional maternity leave. If a woman decides to return to work at the end of her leave period, she may request that her employer provide flexible working arrangements.

      Unless there are specific reasons why she cannot return to the same role, with the option of part-time work if necessary, her needs must be accommodated. It is generally not permissible to require her to return full-time or to transfer her to a different surgery.

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  • Question 7 - The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience...

    Incorrect

    • The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience of medical care, often in hospital.

      Which of the following statements best describes this concept?

      Your Answer: In studies, names must be made anonymous to protect the patients

      Correct Answer: Patients' care is fractionated, so that no-one is directly responsible for decision-making

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Collusion of Anonymity in Healthcare

      The collusion of anonymity is a significant issue in healthcare, particularly in hospitals where multiple professionals from different departments are involved in a patient’s care. This can lead to a breakdown in communication and compromised care, as the patient becomes an anonymous entity rather than an individual with specific needs.

      One example of how collusion of anonymity can occur is between primary and secondary care. Medications issued by secondary care often require strict monitoring, and without clear communication between primary and secondary care, issues can arise. To combat this, shared care protocols have been implemented to outline exactly who will be monitoring and acting on abnormal results.

      Multidisciplinary meetings involving various healthcare professionals are also common practice, but it is crucial to clarify each person’s role to avoid collusion of anonymity. This can be achieved through open communication and a clear understanding of each individual’s responsibilities.

      In summary, understanding the collusion of anonymity is essential in providing effective healthcare. By implementing clear communication and protocols, healthcare professionals can work together to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

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  • Question 8 - You are considering implementing electronic protocol based care pathways at your clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • You are considering implementing electronic protocol based care pathways at your clinic for some common conditions. You plan to introduce them for patients of all ages.
      Which of the following statements is true about electronic protocol based care pathways?

      Your Answer: All aspects of care can be controlled by protocols

      Correct Answer: Protocols inevitably lead to the dumbing down of medicine

      Explanation:

      The Benefits of Using Protocols in Healthcare

      Good protocols are essential in healthcare as they define the exact circumstances in which they should be used. They can be helpful regardless of the grade of the staff using them and do not necessarily lead to dumbing down. In fact, clinicians who actively follow protocols may improve their knowledge and the level of care they provide. It is important to note that not all aspects of care can be recorded or controlled by protocols, but they can still be a valuable tool in enhancing confidence and career development. The course of a condition doesn’t have to be entirely predictable before a protocol can be used. By using protocols, standards, policies, and guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide consistent and effective care to their patients.

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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man visits your clinic. He has been suffering from chronic bronchitis...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits your clinic. He has been suffering from chronic bronchitis for several years and was diagnosed with mesothelioma two months ago. He worked as an electrician for a long time and also worked as a dockworker. He expresses his dissatisfaction with the care he has received from you and the local hospital and wants to file a complaint. He also wants to review his medical records. You assure him that you will take care of it, but he insists on seeing the records right away. What is the legal timeframe for you to comply with his request?

      Your Answer: You must give him a copy of the records immediately

      Correct Answer: You must give him a copy of the records within 10 days

      Explanation:

      Accessing Medical Records

      Patients have the right to access their medical records, but it is important to obtain their consent before releasing any information to others, including their relatives. However, parents of young children are entitled to view their children’s records. For children over 16 and those under 16 who understand the significance of allowing others to see their records, their consent must be obtained before releasing any information.

      The NHS Choices website provides guidance on how to request access to health records, and it is important to note that GDPR regulations require access to be granted within one calendar month. NHS England advises that access should be granted within 28 days. The British Medical Association also provides a helpful PDF guide on accessing medical records. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that their medical information is kept confidential and that they have control over who can access their records.

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  • Question 10 - One of your GP colleagues in their 50s asks you what impact revalidation...

    Incorrect

    • One of your GP colleagues in their 50s asks you what impact revalidation will have on their practice. What areas will be evaluated during the revalidation process?

      Your Answer: Fitness to hold a medical licence + fitness to be on the GP Register + suitability of current career choice

      Correct Answer: Fitness to hold a medical licence + fitness to be on the GP Register

      Explanation:

      Understanding Revalidation for UK Doctors

      Revalidation is a process introduced in 2012 that changed the way UK doctors are licensed and certified. Previously, doctors automatically received their license to practice if they paid their annual fee and had no limitations on their registration. However, with revalidation, doctors are required to prove their fitness to practice every five years to continue working as a doctor. This process combines licensing and certification, and annual appraisals will continue as before, with a focus on progress towards the revalidation portfolio.

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) is creating an ePortfolio for the process, which will contain various elements such as a description of work, special circumstances, previous appraisals, personal development plans, continuing professional development, significant event audits, formal complaints, probity/health statements, multi-source/colleague feedback, patient questionnaire surveys, and clinical audit/quality improvement projects.

      To meet the requirements for revalidation, doctors must earn at least 50 learning credits per year, with one credit for each hour of education. However, if the education leads to improvements in patient care, it will count as two credits. The ePortfolio will be submitted electronically for review by a Responsible Officer, who will be based in one of the 27 Area Teams. The Responsible Officer will be advised by a GP assessor and a trained lay person.

      Before recommending a doctor for revalidation, the Responsible Officer must be confident that the doctor has participated in an annual appraisal process, submitted appropriate supporting information to their appraisals, and has no unresolved issues regarding their fitness to practice. Overall, revalidation ensures that UK doctors continue to provide safe and effective care to their patients.

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  • Question 11 - You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's...

    Incorrect

    • You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's family. This year, you receive a deluxe collection from an expensive retailer from the family and you are astonished to see that it costs £110.

      What would be the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Thank the patient but send the gifts back informing her that you cannot accept personal gifts

      Correct Answer: Thank the patient and accept the gifts

      Explanation:

      Registering Gifts as a GP

      As a GP, it is important to register any gifts received from patients or their relatives that are worth £100 or more, unless the gift is unrelated to the provision of services. This applies to all GPs, including locums, and equivalent regulations operate throughout the UK. The register should include the name of the donor, nature of the gift, and its estimated value. CCGs may request to see these registers. GPs may also need to seek tax advice for declaring large gifts. It is recommended to contact your trade union or indemnity provider if unsure about any gift policy. Most practices have their own gift policy, so it is worth asking about this when joining a new practice.

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  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old gentleman presents to you with a recent diagnosis of mild obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old gentleman presents to you with a recent diagnosis of mild obstructive sleep apnoea (AHI<15). He holds a group 1 driving licence and is seeking advice regarding driving. Upon reviewing the specialist's letter, you note that the patient has been prescribed night time continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) ventilation. What recommendations should you provide to the patient regarding driving?

      Your Answer: He can only drive once satisfactory control of his symptoms has been confirmed by consultant/specialist opinion

      Correct Answer: He can only drive once satisfactory control of his symptoms has been attained

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that is often overlooked, but it can have serious consequences for driving safety. Excessive daytime sleepiness caused by OSA has been linked to numerous road traffic accidents. Both group 1 and group 2 license holders have restrictions on driving if OSA continues to cause excessive awake time sleepiness. For group 1 drivers, they can resume driving once their symptoms are under control.

      The main issue is not treatment compliance, but rather the control of symptoms to eliminate excessive awake time sleepiness. Group 1 license holders do not require specialist approval to drive, and the method of treatment is not a determining factor. The DVLA uses the Apnea Hypopnea Index (AHI) to assess OSA, which may be unfamiliar to some. However, it is important to be familiar with it and interpret the latest DVLA guidance accordingly.

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  • Question 13 - You are seeing a 65-year-old patient that you have known for the past...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old patient that you have known for the past 3 months who has disabling rheumatoid arthritis. At the end of the consultation, she hands you a box of chocolates. What is the most appropriate response?

      Your Answer: Accept the gift and thank the patient for her kindness

      Explanation:

      When a patient expresses their gratitude by giving you a box of chocolates, it is important to exercise good judgement in how you respond. While it may not be necessary to formally register the gift, it is important to consider the appropriateness of accepting it, especially if it is a large or expensive gift.

      Rather than asking the patient to donate an equivalent amount to charity, which may come across as insensitive or inappropriate, it may be more appropriate to simply express your appreciation for the gesture and thank them for their kindness.

      Declining the gift outright may be seen as impolite or ungrateful, so it is important to consider the patient’s feelings and intentions when deciding how to respond. Similarly, it is never appropriate to scold or reprimand a patient for offering a gift, as this can damage the therapeutic relationship and undermine trust.

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  • Question 14 - A 36-year-old large goods vehicle (LGV) driver visits your clinic. He has type...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old large goods vehicle (LGV) driver visits your clinic. He has type II diabetes, managed with metformin and tolbutamide.

      He reports experiencing a hypoglycaemic episode while at work. He was conversing with a colleague before embarking on a delivery when he suddenly felt hot, dizzy, and disoriented. His colleague escorted him to the first-aid station, where his blood glucose was checked. It was 3.2. The first-aider administered oral glucose, and he quickly recovered.

      What guidance will you provide to your patient regarding his Group 2 (LGV) driving license?

      Your Answer: No driving for 12 months and he must notify the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Diabetes and Driving: DVLA Guidelines

      People with diabetes who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia must meet certain criteria to maintain their driving licence. The Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) guidelines state that patients must have no episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance in the past 12 months, have full awareness of hypoglycaemia, regularly monitor their blood glucose levels, and demonstrate an understanding of the risks of hypoglycaemia. Additionally, there should be no other complications of diabetes that could affect driving, such as a visual field defect.

      If a patient experiences an episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance, they must give up their Group 2 licence until they have been clear of any similar episodes for 12 months. It is also important to note that a lack of hypoglycaemic awareness can be a worrying feature, and referral to a specialist diabetic team may be necessary to optimize diabetic control and re-establish hypoglycaemic awareness. By following these guidelines and working with healthcare professionals, people with diabetes can maintain their driving privileges while ensuring their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old bus driver has a past medical history of an isolated seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old bus driver has a past medical history of an isolated seizure. He has notified the DVLA and has stopped driving his bus. He holds a full driving licence and has never taken medication. He has undergone a recent assessment by a neurologist and, following initial investigations, is thought to have no continuing increased risk of seizures.
      Assuming he remains free of epileptic attacks, when, if at all, can he resume driving a group 2 bus or lorry?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Correct Answer: 5 years

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Medical Conditions for Group 2 Bus and Lorry Drivers

      According to the DVLA’s guidance on medical conditions, drivers of group 2 buses or lorries who have experienced an isolated seizure must meet certain conditions in order to continue driving. Unlike drivers with epilepsy and a history of recurrent seizures, who must be seizure-free for 10 years, drivers with an isolated seizure must meet the following criteria:

      – Hold a full ordinary driving licence
      – Have been free of epileptic attacks for the last 5 years
      – Have not taken any medication to treat epilepsy during these 5 years or had a seizure during these 5 years
      – Have undergone a recent assessment by a neurologist
      – Have no continuing increased risk of seizures

      It is important for drivers to follow these guidelines in order to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road. By meeting these criteria, drivers can continue to operate group 2 buses and lorries without posing a risk to themselves or others.

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  • Question 16 - A middle-aged businesswoman visits you to discuss her medication for rheumatoid arthritis. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged businesswoman visits you to discuss her medication for rheumatoid arthritis. Her condition is worsening and she now requires a walking aid to move around. She is concerned about the financial burden of her condition and asks if she is eligible for any government assistance, given that she has been a taxpayer for most of her life. She mentions that she still pays higher rate tax on her pensions and investments. Can you advise her on whether she qualifies for Personal Independence Payment (PIP)?

      Your Answer: PIP is payable to someone who must reasonably need help with daily living or mobility activities for the next nine months

      Correct Answer: Higher rate tax payers are not eligible for PIP

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personal Independence Payment (PIP)

      Personal Independence Payment (PIP) is a government benefit that provides financial assistance to individuals with long-term conditions or disabilities that are expected to last for at least 12 months. PIP is divided into two components: Daily Living and Mobility, each with standard and enhanced rates. Unlike other benefits, PIP is not income-related and is not affected by earnings, savings, or taxes. It is available to anyone, regardless of their employment status.

      To qualify for PIP, an individual must have required assistance with daily living or mobility activities for at least three months and be reasonably likely to need help for the next nine months. However, individuals can submit a claim for PIP during the first three months of needing assistance. It is important to note that PIP is based on how a person’s condition affects them, not the condition itself. This means that the severity of the condition is not the only factor considered when determining eligibility for PIP.

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  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old gentleman comes in seeking benefits due to his poor vision. He...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old gentleman comes in seeking benefits due to his poor vision. He has been experiencing this for quite some time and had to give up driving a few months ago as he felt it was no longer safe.

      Regarding the registration of sight impairment, who is authorized to issue a certificate of vision impairment?

      Your Answer: Consultant ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Registration for People with Sight Impairment

      Registration for people with sight impairment is not mandatory, but it provides access to benefits and low vision services. To complete the registration process, a consultant ophthalmologist must fill out a certificate of vision impairment. There are two categories for registration: severely sight-impaired (blind) and sight-impaired/partially sighted. The severely sight-impaired category includes people with corrected visual acuity worse than 3/60 or corrected visual acuity of 3/60 to 6/60 with a contracted field of vision. It also includes people with corrected visual acuity of 6/60 or better who have a contracted field of vision, especially if it is in the lower part of the field. The sight-impaired/partially sighted category includes any person who is substantially and permanently handicapped by defective vision caused by a congenital defect, illness, or injury.

      For more information on registering for sight impairment as a disability, visit the .Gov website or the RNIB website. Additionally, the Royal College of Ophthalmologists has published a guide on low vision that may be of general interest to healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 18 - You have a patient who is a 50-year-old heavy goods vehicle driver for...

    Correct

    • You have a patient who is a 50-year-old heavy goods vehicle driver for a haulage company. A few weeks ago, he was involved in an accident that caused a severe eye injury, and he has now been informed that he will never regain any vision in his left eye. He is curious about his eligibility to hold a Group 2 drivers licence. What is the DVLA's advice on holding a Group 2 licence after experiencing permanent vision loss in one eye?

      Your Answer: He cannot hold a Group 2 licence

      Explanation:

      Group 2 Licence Requirements for Vision

      Applicants for a Group 2 licence must meet certain vision requirements. Specifically, they must have at least corrected acuity of 3/60 in both eyes and no complete loss of vision in either eye. If an applicant has a complete loss of vision in one eye or corrected acuity of less than 3/60 in one eye, they are legally barred from holding a Group 2 licence. It is important for applicants to understand these requirements before applying for a Group 2 licence to ensure they meet the necessary criteria.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man comes to see you about his depression. He lost his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to see you about his depression. He lost his job six months ago and has been living on savings. He lives with his two sons who are both in school. He divorced six years ago and neither he nor his children have seen his ex-wife since. He says that he has been ignoring bills and is now running out of money, relying on food banks to feed his family. His landlord has issued an ultimatum after failing to pay rent.

      He says that his sister is in receipt of Universal Credit (UC), but he doesn't know anything about it. You have advised him to contact the Benefits Agency, but in the meantime, what can you say about Universal Credit in this man's case?

      Your Answer: He has to be in receipt of a fit note to obtain UC

      Correct Answer: He will receive extra allowance if he has a health condition which prevents him from working

      Explanation:

      Understanding Universal Credit

      Universal Credit (UC) is a monthly payment that replaces six income-related benefits, including Income-based Jobseeker’s Allowance, Income-related Employment and Support Allowance, Income Support, Child Tax Credit, Working Tax Credit, and Housing Benefit. It is available to people in and out of work. If someone is currently receiving any of these six benefits, they do not need to take any action unless there is a change in their circumstances or the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) contacts them about moving to Universal Credit.

      A person’s monthly Universal Credit payment consists of a standard allowance and any additional amounts that apply to them, such as having children, a disability or health condition that prevents them from working, or needing help paying their rent. If a patient claims UC on health grounds, they may ask for a fit note. In cases where a patient is working but has restricted ability to work, they may request medical evidence of their health condition.

      The patient will be referred to CHDA for a Work Capability Assessment, similar to ESA. Medical evidence, such as fit notes, is required until the DWP makes a decision on their claim. No further fit notes are necessary unless the patient wishes to appeal the decision. If the patient’s appeal is unsuccessful and it is determined that they are fit for work, further fit notes should only be issued if their condition significantly worsens or they develop a new condition.

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  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old gentleman was confirmed to have mild dementia after a review in...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old gentleman was confirmed to have mild dementia after a review in the local memory clinic. He wants more information on whether he can continue to drive his car to the nearby shops.

      According to DVLA guidance, which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate advice about continuing to drive?

      Your Answer: He should inform the DVLA of his new diagnosis for further potential assessment

      Explanation:

      Importance of Informing DVLA about Mild Dementia

      Although the patient’s dementia is classified as mild, it is crucial for him to inform the DVLA to determine if he can still drive safely.

      It is important to note that individuals with mild cognitive impairment, not mild dementia, may still be able to drive without any impairment and do not need to notify the DVLA.

      However, in this case, the patient should liaise with the DVLA to determine the next appropriate steps, which may include driving restrictions or cessation.

      It is essential to prioritize safety on the road, and informing the DVLA is a crucial step in ensuring this.

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  • Question 21 - A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a holiday company. He developed a moderately severe depressive illness 12 months ago, presenting with poor memory, poor concentration and suicidal thoughts. He has been off work since then.

      He has responded well to a selective serotonin receptor inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant and feels that the medication doesn't impair him in any way. He feels ready to return to work.

      What is the recommended duration of stability on medication for a patient with moderate depression before driving with a Group 2 licence?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Driving with Anxiety and Depression: DVLA Guidelines

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with anxiety and depressive illnesses who wish to drive. If the illness is more than just mild, meaning it includes significant memory or concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts, the DVLA must be informed. However, if the person is well and stable for a period of six months, driving may be permitted. It is important to note that medication must not cause side effects that interfere with alertness or concentration. If the anxiety or depression is long-standing and maintained symptom-free on doses of psychotropic medication that do not impair, driving is usually permitted. In some cases, the DVLA may require psychiatric reports. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

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  • Question 22 - What is a Roger Neighbour 'checkpoint'? ...

    Correct

    • What is a Roger Neighbour 'checkpoint'?

      Your Answer: Safety Netting

      Explanation:

      Neighbour’s Consultation Model for Telehealth

      Roger Neighbour’s consultation model for doctors has been adapted for telehealth consultations. The model breaks down the consultation into five checkpoints that doctors should consider during the consultation.

      The first checkpoint is connecting, which involves building rapport with the patient. This is especially important in telehealth consultations where the doctor and patient may not have met before. The second checkpoint is summarising, which involves listening and eliciting information from the patient. This is important in all consultations, but particularly in telehealth where non-verbal cues may be missed.

      The third checkpoint is handing over, which involves explaining and negotiating with the patient. This is important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may need to explain complex medical information to the patient. The fourth checkpoint is safety netting, which involves anticipating potential issues and dealing with uncertainty. This is particularly important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may not have access to all the patient’s medical information.

      The final checkpoint is housekeeping, which involves addressing the doctor’s own needs. This is important in telehealth consultations where the doctor may be working from home and need to ensure they have a suitable environment for the consultation. By following these checkpoints, doctors can ensure that their telehealth consultations are effective and provide the best possible care for their patients.

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  • Question 23 - A patient has passed away at home.
    The pediatrician knows that the cause of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has passed away at home.
      The pediatrician knows that the cause of death is pneumonia, but she has not seen the patient for a while and is worried that she has not seen the patient within the legal timeframe that permits her to write on the death certificate.
      What is the duration of this legal timeframe?

      Your Answer: 28 days

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance on Death Certification in England and Wales

      The guidance on death certification in England and Wales was recently updated in March 2022. One significant change was the extension of the period of time for seeing a patient before death from 14 days to 28 days. While this may be an important learning point for doctors, it is uncertain whether it will be tested in the RCGP exam as candidates are expected to know guidance that applies to all parts of the UK, including Scotland. Nonetheless, this information is still useful for doctors working in England and Wales. The UK government has provided guidance for doctors completing medical certificates of cause of death in these regions.

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  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old woman has presented to you with a six month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has presented to you with a six month history of amenorrhoea. On examination you diagnose a mid trimester pregnancy. An ultrasound reveals a single live foetus of approximately 24 weeks gestation with multiple congenital defects including left ventricular hypoplasia.

      She comes to you for further discussion, having talked to the gynaecologist and neonatal paediatrician. She decides that she wishes to be referred for a termination of pregnancy.

      Who must sign the HSA 1 Form before a termination of pregnancy may proceed?

      Your Answer: The patient's own GP and a consultant gynaecologist

      Correct Answer: A gynaecologist and any other registered doctor

      Explanation:

      Abortion Laws in the UK

      Under the UK Abortion Act 1967, a registered medical practitioner may terminate a pregnancy if two other registered medical practitioners agree and sign in good faith that certain conditions relating to the woman or her unborn foetus apply. These conditions were updated in 1990, but the requirement for two signatures remains unchanged. It is important to note that this requirement applies regardless of the stage of the pregnancy.

      To comply with these laws, healthcare providers must complete the HSA1 and HSA2 abortion forms. These forms require detailed information about the woman’s medical history and the reasons for seeking an abortion. The forms must also include the signatures of the two medical practitioners who have agreed that the conditions for a legal abortion have been met.

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  • Question 25 - A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after a recent bout of pneumonia. His asthma has been poorly managed in the weeks leading up to his illness and he expresses concern about his ability to return to full-time work in the near future. He mentions that his finances are tight and that friends have suggested he apply for Employment Support Allowance (ESA). He also mentions that he is hesitant to attend any Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) assessments and asks if you could provide a letter of support. What advice would you give him regarding ESA?

      Your Answer: Fit notes are required until DWP makes a decision on their claim, if the patient remains unfit for work

      Correct Answer: If contacted by a healthcare professional from the Centre for Health and Disability Assessments (CHDA), you will need to seek consent from the patient before discussing further

      Explanation:

      Benefits System – A Guide for GPs

      ESA, or Employment and Support Allowance, is a financial support system for individuals who are unable to work due to illness or disability. It also provides personalized assistance for those who are able to work. Eligibility for ESA is determined through an assessment process, which can range from 3 months to 3 years. Claimants with severe conditions may not be called for reassessment. During the assessment phase, claimants are paid the same amount as Jobseeker’s Allowance. Medical evidence and completion of the ESA50 self-assessment form are required. If necessary, a Work Capability Assessment will be conducted by a healthcare professional. Fit notes are required until a decision is made. The ESA65B letter is used to inform claimants of the decision. GPs may be contacted for additional information, and may occasionally be asked to contribute to the ESA50 form. For individuals claiming solely due to cancer, only a portion of the ESA50 form needs to be completed.

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  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to you to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to you to discuss creating an advanced decision. She wants to make it clear to her family, carers, and medical professionals which treatments she would not want to receive if her condition worsens and she is hospitalized. Specifically, she doesn't want to be placed on a ventilator to support her breathing to sustain her life. Currently, her condition is stable.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the advanced decision?

      Your Answer: If future life-sustaining treatment is refused then this must be written down, signed by the patient, signed by a witness, and must contain a statement that the advanced decision applies even if their life is at risk

      Correct Answer: Refusal of any future life-sustaining treatment is valid if verbally communicated to a medical professional and documented in his clinical record by a suitably qualified medical professional

      Explanation:

      Advanced Decisions and Statements

      An advanced decision, also known as an advanced decision to refuse treatment or a living will, is a document that informs others about a patient’s wishes for future treatment refusal in case they are unable to make or communicate a decision themselves. To be valid, the specific treatment or treatments being refused must be named, and the circumstances in which the treatment should be refused should be clear. Life-sustaining treatment, such as artificial ventilation, is an example of treatment that may be refused.

      The advanced decision is made by the patient while they have the mental capacity to do so. To refuse life-sustaining treatment, the decision needs to be written down, signed by the patient, and signed by a witness. If the advanced decision is legally binding, it has precedence over best interest decisions of other people.

      For an advanced decision to be valid with regards to refusal of life-sustaining treatment, the person making the decision must be 18 years old or over with appropriate mental capacity, the treatment(s) to be refused must be clearly specified, the circumstances of refusal must be explained, it must be signed by the patient and a witness, the decision must have been made without duress, and the patient must not have said or acted in any way to contradict the advanced decision since it was made.

      On the other hand, an advanced statement is a written statement outlining a patient’s preferences, wishes, beliefs, and values regarding their future care. It is different from an advanced decision, as it doesn’t refuse any specific treatment but rather provides guidance on the patient’s overall care preferences.

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Advise him that you can complete a 'return to work' note for him but you will need to see him face to face to assess him first

      Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note in UK Practice

      When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.

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  • Question 28 - A health insurance company contacts you requesting medical information about a patient who...

    Correct

    • A health insurance company contacts you requesting medical information about a patient who has requested health insurance. They enclose written consent from the patient. They request that you complete a short questionnaire and also include a photocopy of the patients' notes. What is the most appropriate response?

      Your Answer: Advise the patient against including a photocopy of their medical notes

      Explanation:

      The ABI prohibits doctors from sending full medical records as medical reports for insurance purposes. Insurance companies only require relevant information and sending unnecessary information may breach the Data Protection Act 1998 and compromise a doctor’s registration.

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports

      When writing insurance reports, it is important for doctors to be familiar with the GMC Good Medical Practice and supplementary guidance documents. The Association of British Insurers (ABI) website provides helpful information on best practices for insurance reports. One key point to remember is that NHS referrals to clarify a patient’s condition are not appropriate for insurance reports. Instead, the ABI and BMA have developed a standard GP report (GPR) form that doctors can use. It is acceptable for GPs to charge the insurance company a fee for this work, and reports should be sent within 20 working days of receiving the request.

      When writing the report, it is important to only include relevant information and not send a full print-out of the patient’s medical records. Written consent is required before releasing any information, and patients have the right to see the report before it is sent. However, doctors cannot comply with requests to leave out relevant information from the report. If an applicant or insured person refuses to give permission for certain relevant information to be included, the doctor should indicate to the insurance company that they cannot write a report. It is also important to note that insurance companies may have access to a patient’s medical records after they have died. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that their insurance reports are accurate and ethical.

      Guidelines for Insurance Reports:
      – Use the standard GP report (GPR) form developed by the ABI and BMA
      – Only include relevant information and do not send a full print-out of medical records
      – Obtain written consent before releasing any information
      – Patients have the right to see the report before it is sent
      – Insurance companies may have access to medical records after a patient has died

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  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding Local Medical Committees (LMC) is accurate?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Local Medical Committees (LMC) is accurate?

      Your Answer: LMC members include GP Registrars

      Explanation:

      Local Medical Committees: Representing the Interests of GPs

      Local Medical Committees (LMCs) were established in 1911 as part of Lloyd George’s National Insurance Act to ensure that GPs had a say in the government’s health insurance scheme. LMCs represent the interests of GPs on a local level, while a committee within the British Medical Association (BMA) represents GPs on a national level to the government. This committee, now called the General Practitioners Committee (GPC), has the authority to negotiate with the government on matters such as pay and contracts and is recognised by the Department of Health as the GP’s sole negotiating body.

      LMCs are funded by a statutory levy on GPs and may cover the area which corresponds to one or more Clinical Commissioning Groups. LMC members are elected and include partners, salaried doctors, and GP Registrars from both GMS and PMS practices. The GPC meets annually with the representatives of the LMCs, who may submit motions for the conference. These motions may then go on to form GPC policy.

      Overall, LMCs play an important role in representing the interests of GPs on a local level and ensuring that their voices are heard in the government’s decision-making processes.

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  • Question 30 - A 62-year-old patient attends for a routine blood pressure check. He is fit...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old patient attends for a routine blood pressure check. He is fit and well with good blood pressure control. He says he has heard that he will have to re-apply for his motor car driving licence at some stage.

      To what age is a Group 1 licence (motorcars and motorcycles) valid provided there is no medical disqualification from driving?

      Your Answer: 80 years old

      Correct Answer: 70 years old

      Explanation:

      Group 1 Licence Renewal Requirements

      Group 1 licences are typically issued until the age of 70, unless a shorter duration is specified for medical reasons. There is no maximum age limit, but individuals over the age of 70 must renew their licence every three years. To apply for a licence, all applicants must complete a medical self-declaration.

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  • Question 31 - You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following fitting of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD).

      He had several episodes of sustained ventricular tachycardia requiring hospital admission before having the defibrillator implanted. He needs a medical certificate for work as he is a travelling salesman and has to drive for his work.

      How long should he refrain from driving a car following the fitting of an implantable defibrillator?

      Your Answer: 1 month

      Correct Answer: 2 months

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions for Patients with ICDs

      Patients who have received an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmias should be aware of driving restrictions. For the first six months after the initial implant, patients should not drive. Additionally, after any shock therapy or symptomatic anti-tachycardia pacing, patients should refrain from driving for an additional six months. It is important for patients to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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  • Question 32 - A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student has presented to you after being hospitalized with a seizure a few days after completing her final exams. The discharge summary and follow-up letter from the neurologist both indicate that this was an alcohol-related seizure. Despite having normal CT and EEG results, the student admits to consuming a large amount of alcohol before the seizure. She denies any previous alcohol misuse and has normal liver function tests. She has not consumed alcohol since the episode and has been advised to inform the DVLA. As a motorcyclist, she is concerned about any potential restrictions. How long should she refrain from using her motorcycle after experiencing a single alcohol-induced seizure?

      Your Answer: Two years

      Correct Answer: One year

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance on Fitness to Drive

      The DVLA provides guidance on fitness to drive, which takes into account different types of seizures, including those caused by alcohol. In this case scenario, the seizure is solitary and alcohol-induced, and the driver holds a Group one entitlement for cars and motorcycles.

      The DVLA distinguishes between different types of seizures, and provides specific conditions for the return or issue of a driving licence when there is a background of substance misuse or dependence. Independent medical assessment and consultant reports are usually necessary in these cases.

      It is important to note that the driving restrictions for Group one entitlement drivers, such as the student in this scenario, are the same as those for car drivers. However, if the student held a Group two entitlement for heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles, their licence would have been revoked for a minimum of five years.

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  • Question 33 - You speak with a 27-year-old care assistant who works in the local residential...

    Correct

    • You speak with a 27-year-old care assistant who works in the local residential care home. She has a sore throat, fever and rash. She requests antibiotics as she is eager to get back to work for her night shifts in 2 days. Her 4-year-old son recently had a course of antibiotics following a similar presentation.

      On examination, she has a fine rough feeling rash on her torso and her tongue appears red and swollen. Her observations are normal.

      Given the likely diagnosis, what advice from the options below would be most appropriate to give?

      Your Answer: Advise her that you need to contact the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and she should not go into work. If she doesn't consent, confirm that you will still need to inform the HPA

      Explanation:

      Kindly request that she notifies her workplace and the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and arranges a discussion with them regarding her return date.

      Sharing patient information is crucial for providing safe and effective care, especially in multi-disciplinary teams. However, it is important to ensure that information is shared in a legal and ethical manner while facilitating access to those who require it. Inappropriate sharing of information can have significant consequences for the clinician-patient relationship and the wider profession. Patients generally expect some information to be shared with those involved in their care, but if they object, the information should not be disclosed unless it is justified for the public interest or the patient lacks capacity. It is important to explain the potential consequences of not sharing personal information and reach a compromise where possible.

      When sharing information, it is essential to access it to support the patient’s direct care or be satisfied that it is being shared for that purpose. Patients should be informed about how their personal information will be used, and they have the right to object. It is also crucial to ensure that anyone who receives the information understands that it is given in confidence. When sharing information with friends or relatives, it is necessary to establish the patient’s wishes and gain explicit consent. In cases where the patient lacks capacity, it is essential to consider various factors, such as the patient’s beliefs and values, before disclosing information.

      Disclosing information without the patient’s express consent is generally not allowed, except when required by law or justified in the public interest. In exceptional circumstances, such as gunshot wounds and knife injuries, the police should be informed, but personal information should not be disclosed initially. It is crucial to follow the relevant guidelines to avoid inappropriate information sharing and maintain transparency between the doctor and patient.

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  • Question 34 - A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon examination, you observe several bruises on her arms. She confides in you that there have been issues at home, but she is hesitant to involve law enforcement. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Give her the details of a domestic violence support group

      Explanation:

      Dealing with scenarios involving domestic violence can be challenging. It is important to seek advice from domestic violence support groups as they have specific knowledge and resources to offer practical advice on housing and financial issues. General counseling services may not be equipped to provide such support and may inadvertently blame the victim. While it is still good practice to document injuries, drawing a diagram may not be necessary if the victim is not ready to involve the police. Checking the victim’s bloods is unlikely to be relevant as the bruises are likely a result of violence by their partner. Breaking confidentiality should only be considered if there is a fear for the victim’s life, as it may put them at further risk. Phoning the partner directly is not recommended as it violates confidentiality and may lead to retribution against the victim.

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  • Question 35 - You have a child who has developed occupational asthma due to exposure to...

    Correct

    • You have a child who has developed occupational asthma due to exposure to mold in their school. To whom should occupational asthma be reported?

      Your Answer: It should be reported under the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences regulations to the Health & Safety Executive

      Explanation:

      Reporting and Compensation for Occupational Asthma

      Patients who develop occupational asthma may be eligible for benefits through the Industrial Injuries Disablement Benefit. Additionally, if their employer failed to take necessary precautions to prevent harm, the patient may be entitled to make a civil claim for compensation for personal injury. It is important to report cases of occupational asthma to the appropriate authorities. RIDDOR regulations require that cases of occupational asthma be reported to the Health and Safety Executive (HSE), which can be done by the patient’s occupational health department if they were involved in the initial diagnosis. In cases of certain infectious diseases, the local authority should be notified. However, the Chief Medical Officer is not directly involved in the reporting of occupational asthma, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) is responsible for regulating medication and medical devices, not reporting cases of occupational asthma. By reporting cases of occupational asthma, appropriate action can be taken to prevent further harm and ensure that patients receive the necessary support and compensation.

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  • Question 36 - Who is authorized to sign the DVLA Notification form for healthcare professionals? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is authorized to sign the DVLA Notification form for healthcare professionals?

      Your Answer: A GP receptionist

      Correct Answer: A practice manager

      Explanation:

      DVLA Form 3854: Who Can Complete It?

      The DVLA accepts submissions of the Notification form for health professionals form DOM 3854 completed by a nurse, as long as they provide an active NMC number. However, some specialist reports may require a registered medical practitioner’s counter-signature before acceptance.

      Typically, the patient’s GP completes DVLA medical reports. However, opticians or optometrists can also complete this particular form, provided they supply their GOC number.

      To summarize, the DVLA Form 3854 can be completed by nurses and optometrists, but some specialist reports may require a registered medical practitioner’s counter-signature.

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  • Question 37 - A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother from cancer of the colon. She is anxious to know the risks of familial tendency, and would like access to her mother's records.

      You know this young woman was fathered by someone else (not her mother's husband) who still lives in the village, but this fact is unknown to her. Her mother stipulated before death that her records should be confidential.

      In accordance with the access to medical records act of 1990, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The mother's wishes are paramount

      Correct Answer: You may not charge a fee for access

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality of Deceased Person’s Information

      When dealing with the records of a deceased person, it is important to respect their wishes regarding the disclosure of information. If the deceased person had explicitly stated that certain information should remain confidential, or if the record contains sensitive information that the deceased person expected to remain private, then it must be kept confidential.

      However, if the mother of the deceased person requests that certain information be kept confidential, then the rest of the records can be released. It is up to the record holder to make a judgement call on whether the information could be harmful to the applicant or if it would identify a third party. In any case, it is crucial to handle the information with care and respect the wishes of the deceased person and their family.

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  • Question 38 - The practice nurse comes to see you. In her consulting room a carer...

    Incorrect

    • The practice nurse comes to see you. In her consulting room a carer has brought in a 13-month-old boy for his routine immunisations.
      Which one of the following people doesn't have the right to consent to the immunisations?

      Your Answer: Civil partner

      Correct Answer: Au pair

      Explanation:

      Parental Responsibility in England and Wales

      In England and Wales, parental responsibility is a legal term that refers to the rights and responsibilities that parents have towards their children. If the parents of a child are married or have jointly adopted a child, then they both have parental responsibility. However, if the parents are unmarried, the mother automatically has parental responsibility, while the father only has it if he meets certain criteria.

      To acquire parental responsibility, a father can either jointly register the birth of the child with the mother, enter into a parental responsibility agreement with the mother, or obtain a parental responsibility order from a court. Stepfathers, civil partners, and grandparents can also apply for parental responsibility through a court order.

      It is important to note that parents do not lose parental responsibility if they divorce, and this applies to both the resident and non-resident parent. Overall, parental responsibility is a crucial aspect of parenting in England and Wales, and it is important for parents to understand their rights and responsibilities towards their children.

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  • Question 39 - Your friend and colleague, a 60-year-old nurse at the practice, asks for your...

    Correct

    • Your friend and colleague, a 60-year-old nurse at the practice, asks for your help. She reports dysuria and frequency. These symptoms are typical of previous UTIs which she typically gets once a year. There is no haematuria, fevers or loin pain and she feels systemically well. She reports that it is difficult to get an appointment with her own practice and doesn't want to take time off work. She says she will see her GP but doesn't want to delay treatment as it has become worse in the past.

      What would be the most appropriate next step for a 60-year-old nurse who reports dysuria and frequency, typical of previous UTIs, but is having difficulty getting an appointment with her own practice and doesn't want to take time off work? She feels systemically well and there is no haematuria, fevers or loin pain, but doesn't want to delay treatment as it has become worse in the past.

      Your Answer: Advise her to book an appointment with her regular practice

      Explanation:

      Providing Medical Care to Close Personal Relationships

      The General Medical Council advises against providing medical care to individuals with whom you have a close personal relationship. This is because the lack of independent assessment may lead to feeling pressured by the person and not having access to necessary information for ongoing treatment.

      While it is important to consider the nurse’s concerns about worsening symptoms, it is necessary to explain the position and why prescribing cannot be justified. Even prescribing a three-day course and asking the nurse to see her usual practice is not clinically justifiable at this time.

      Referring the nurse to the NMC is an extreme option, as it is unlikely that she is acting with malice but rather was not aware of the potential seriousness of her request. It is important to prioritize patient safety and maintain professional boundaries in all medical situations.

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  • Question 40 - Under what conditions would you be authorized to reveal information without the patient's...

    Incorrect

    • Under what conditions would you be authorized to reveal information without the patient's consent?

      Your Answer: If the patient mentions during a consultation that they have obsessive thoughts about shoplifting

      Correct Answer: If the patient was under the age of 18 and was sexually active

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality Guidelines for Doctors in England and Wales

      Doctors in England and Wales have a legal obligation to report suspected cases of certain infectious diseases to the local Health Protection Unit or Proper Officer of the local authority. The notification certificate should be completed immediately upon diagnosis, without waiting for laboratory confirmation. The list of notifiable diseases can be found on Public Health England’s website.

      When it comes to patients with a low IQ, confidentiality guidelines relate to their capacity to consent to disclosure of information and for what purpose that information is needed. The GMC guidance emphasizes the importance of making the care of the patient a top priority, respecting their dignity and privacy, and involving them in decisions about the disclosure of their personal information.

      In situations where a patient has thoughts about shoplifting, there is no reason to disclose information without consent. However, there are legal situations where disclosure of information is required, such as when ordered to do so by a judge or presiding officer of a court.

      When it comes to children and young people, doctors have the same duty of confidentiality as they do to adults. However, parents often need information about their children’s care to make decisions or provide support. Sharing information with parents is often in the best interests of the child, particularly if their health would benefit from special care or ongoing treatment. In cases of abusive or harmful sexual activity involving a child or young person, relevant information should be shared with appropriate agencies, such as the police or social services, to protect the child. For more guidance on children and young people, doctors can refer to the GMC’s 0-18 years guidance.

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  • Question 41 - Samantha is a 35-year-old teacher with no symptoms. She mentions that her mother...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 35-year-old teacher with no symptoms. She mentions that her mother died last year, after suffering for many years with Alzheimer's.
      Samantha has two sons, one of whom is starting college soon. She was offered a genetic test at the time her mother was diagnosed, but declined it. Now she is reconsidering.
      Which is the single, most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Offer to refer him for genetic counselling

      Correct Answer: Offer to take a blood sample from Andrew for testing

      Explanation:

      Genetic Testing Considerations

      Deciding whether or not to undergo genetic testing requires careful consideration after receiving genetic counseling. It is important to note that most laboratories will not test a sample taken in a primary care setting. Additionally, performing a neurological examination can potentially reveal unwanted genetic information.

      In cases where there is a 50% risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant condition with no effective treatment, the decision to undergo genetic testing can be particularly challenging. It is important to weigh the potential benefits and drawbacks of testing, and to consider the emotional and psychological impact of receiving a positive result. Ultimately, the decision to undergo genetic testing should be made in consultation with a healthcare professional and with a full understanding of the potential implications.

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  • Question 42 - A 29-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He recently...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He recently experienced acute mechanical lower back pain after twisting his back while working in the garden two weeks ago. He self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note and then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last one week.

      Upon reviewing the notes, you notice that your colleague marked the fit note as you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice and has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked, I will not need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.

      He works in a factory and some of his duties involve heavy lifting, but he is still able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. He informs you that his back has fully recovered, but his employer has requested a fit note stating that he is fit to resume his full work activities.

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: You do not need to sign a 'return to work' note - he may return to full duties without any further input or paperwork from yourself

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note: What You Need to Know

      When you’re on sick leave, your employer may ask you to sign a return to work note. However, you should know that you are not obligated to sign it. Employers may ask for this note to protect themselves or for insurance purposes, but you have the right to return to work at any time, even before the end of your sick note.

      It’s important to inform your employer that you can return to work without seeing your doctor again, even if the doctor has indicated that they need to assess you again. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) has provided guidance for employers and managers, which states that as long as a suitable risk assessment has taken place, returning to work early will not breach your Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance.

      In summary, if you’re asked to sign a return to work note, remember that you have the right to return to work at any time and that you don’t need to sign the note. Refer your employer to the DWP guidance for employers and managers to ensure that they understand their obligations and your rights.

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  • Question 43 - What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient with low back pain who wishes to return to work but needs workplace alterations to avoid prolonged periods of sitting?

      Your Answer: If you have doubts about your patient's capacity to work the RM7 form can be completed to arrange an independent medical assessment

      Correct Answer: You do not need to see the patient in person when completing the certificate

      Explanation:

      Changes to Sickness Certification in 2010

      In 2010, the process of sickness certification underwent significant changes with the introduction of a new ‘fit note’. The aim of this new certificate was to encourage patients to return to work as soon as possible by suggesting options such as a phased return, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. The form also includes a section where clinicians can provide additional details to support their recommendations.

      It is important to note that employers are not legally obligated to follow the advice provided on the fit note. If the employer cannot facilitate an earlier return to work, the patient doesn’t need to see a doctor for a further certificate. The original certificate will cover them as being unfit for work.

      Patients no longer require a ‘fit for work’ certificate, and the new certificates do not include the option to state that a patient ‘need not refrain from work’. If an employer requires such a certificate, they should arrange for a private assessment.

      The RM7 form, which allowed GPs to request an independent medical assessment for patients claiming benefits, is now obsolete. Most patients making a new claim for benefits will have a medical assessment within a short period of making their claim.

      Finally, it is worth noting that telephone consultations and assessments based on written reports from other healthcare professionals are now acceptable forms of assessment, and patients do not necessarily need to be seen in person.

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  • Question 44 - Which one of the following consultation modes may be summarised as a 'meeting...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following consultation modes may be summarised as a 'meeting between two experts'?

      Your Answer: Fraser

      Correct Answer: Tuckett

      Explanation:

      Consultation Models

      The following are various consultation models that healthcare professionals can use to guide their interactions with patients. Each model has its own unique approach and set of steps to follow. The Calgary-Cambridge observation guide focuses on initiating the session, gathering information, building the relationship, giving information, explaining and planning, and closing the session. The Stewart patient-centered clinical method emphasizes exploring both the disease and the illness experience, understanding the whole person, finding common ground, incorporating prevention and health promotion, enhancing the doctor-patient relationship, and being realistic with time and resources. The Pendleton model involves defining the reason for the patient’s attendance, considering other problems, choosing an appropriate action for each problem, achieving a shared understanding of the problems with the patient, involving the patient in the management and encouraging them to accept appropriate responsibility, using time and resources appropriately, and establishing or maintaining a relationship with the patient. The Fraser model includes interviewing and history-taking, physical examination, diagnosis and problem-solving, patient management, relating to patients, anticipatory care, and record-keeping. The Neighbour model, called the Inner Consultation, includes connecting, summarizing, handing over, safety netting, and housekeeping. Finally, the Tuckett model emphasizes that the consultation is a meeting between two experts, doctors are experts in medicine, patients are experts in their own illnesses, shared understanding is the aim, doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs, and doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system. By using these models, healthcare professionals can provide effective and patient-centered care.

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  • Question 45 - You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice....

    Incorrect

    • You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice. Whilst using one of the partners room for a surgery you notice a half-empty bottle of wine in the desk drawer. After discussing this with the partner she states that it was a recent gift from a patient and was simply storing it there prior to taking it home. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Take no further action

      Correct Answer: Discuss this with one of the other partners in the surgery

      Explanation:

      Although you have already raised your concerns about the doctor’s alcohol consumption, he has dismissed them. It is possible that his explanation, which may involve receiving gifts of alcohol, is valid. However, the fact that the bottle is half-empty is worrying and it is important to discuss your concerns with other doctors in the surgery. They may already be aware of the issue and your observation could provide additional evidence for them to take appropriate action. It is also possible that the doctor may be more willing to admit to a problem if approached by a fellow partner rather than a junior colleague like yourself.

      Filling out a clinical incident form is a good way to formally document your concerns, but it doesn’t address the issue immediately. Writing an anonymous letter to the practice manager is unprofessional and could lead to conflict, as the manager may suspect that one of the other partners wrote the letter.

      Removing the bottle doesn’t solve the underlying problem and could potentially put patients at risk. Therefore, taking no further action is not an acceptable option.

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  • Question 46 - You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar...

    Correct

    • You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar age to yourself who you had a consult with earlier that day. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Decline friendship request and write a polite letter to the patient explaining it would be inappropriate

      Explanation:

      The General Medical Council has issued specific guidelines regarding the use of social media by doctors. According to these guidelines, if a patient contacts a doctor through their private profile regarding their care or other professional matters, the doctor should make it clear that they cannot mix social and professional relationships. The text implies that there is a risk of blurring boundaries if a doctor finds a patient attractive and receives a friend request from them. Therefore, it would be appropriate to decline the request. However, this doesn’t warrant removing the patient from the practice list. As long as professional boundaries are maintained, the patient can continue to receive care from the doctor.

      Duties of a Doctor According to the General Medical Council

      The General Medical Council has outlined the duties of a doctor in providing care to patients. The first and foremost duty is to prioritize the care of the patient. This includes protecting and promoting the health of patients and the public, providing a good standard of practice and care, and keeping professional knowledge and skills up to date. Doctors must also recognize and work within the limits of their competence and work with colleagues in the best interest of patients.

      In addition to providing medical care, doctors must treat patients with respect and dignity. This includes treating patients politely and considerately and respecting their right to confidentiality. Doctors must also work in partnership with patients, listening to their concerns and preferences, providing information in a way they can understand, and respecting their right to make decisions about their treatment and care.

      Finally, doctors must act with honesty, integrity, and without discrimination. They must act without delay if they believe that they or a colleague may be putting patients at risk and never abuse the trust of patients or the public’s trust in the profession.

      Overall, the duties of a doctor are to provide the best possible care to patients while respecting their rights and acting with honesty and integrity.

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  • Question 47 - What are the duties of the Caldicott guardian? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the duties of the Caldicott guardian?

      Your Answer: Practice and practitioner indemnification

      Correct Answer: Complying with the Data Protection Act

      Explanation:

      The Caldicott Report and Patient Confidentiality

      The Caldicott report emphasizes the significance of safeguarding patient confidentiality. It outlines six principles that healthcare professionals must follow to ensure patient data is protected. These principles include justifying the purpose for using patient data, avoiding the use of patient-identifiable information unless necessary, using the minimum necessary patient-identifiable information, limiting access to patient-identifiable information to those who need it, ensuring everyone is aware of their confidentiality responsibilities, and complying with the law, particularly the Data Protection Act.

      By following these principles, healthcare professionals can maintain patient trust and confidence in the healthcare system. It is essential to prioritize patient confidentiality to ensure that sensitive information is not misused or disclosed without consent. The Caldicott report serves as a guide for healthcare professionals to uphold patient confidentiality and protect patient data.

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  • Question 48 - You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients...

    Correct

    • You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients with dermatologic problems and need to refer some of them to hospital. Unfortunately this is a long way away and many elderly patients find it difficult to travel.

      You think about setting up an audiovisual telemedicine clinic. Which one of the following statements is correct about audiovisual telemedicine clinics?

      Your Answer: There will need to be important organisational changes to the way in which you and your colleagues in secondary care work to make telemedicine work

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Implementing Telemedicine in Secondary Care

      There are several important organizational changes that need to be made in order for telemedicine to work effectively in secondary care. However, it is important to note that telemedicine clinics may not necessarily have economic benefits, as the costs of implementing the necessary technology can be expensive. Additionally, while patients may appreciate the convenience of not having to travel to see a specialist, they may still prefer face-to-face consultations. It is also unclear whether clinical outcomes will improve with the use of telemedicine. Finally, it is important to obtain explicit consent from patients before using any video consultations for teaching purposes. These considerations should be taken into account when considering the implementation of telemedicine in secondary care.

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  • Question 49 - A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and requires an antipsychotic medication. You want to choose a drug that is least likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms. Your clinic has recently implemented an electronic clinical decision support tool, so you decide to utilize it to determine the best medication option. You enter the query Antipsychotic/least extrapyramidal side effects into the tool, and it recommends either olanzapine or risperidone. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Get more clinical information and check if there is a guideline in place about whether antipsychotics should be first prescribed in primary or secondary care

      Correct Answer: Ask another Registrar what they think

      Explanation:

      Cautionary Note on Clinical Decision Support Tools

      When it comes to clinical decision making, it’s important to exercise caution and not rely solely on clinical decision support tools. While tools like NIHR can be helpful, they should not be followed blindly. It’s always best to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

      For instance, while olanzapine or risperidone may be the best options for treating schizophrenia, there may be guidelines in place that recommend prescribing antipsychotics in secondary care. Therefore, it’s important to consider all relevant factors before making a decision.

      In summary, clinical decision support tools can be useful, but they should not be the sole basis for decision making. It’s important to gather more information and consider other factors before making a final decision.

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  • Question 50 - What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change?

      Your Answer: Open movement

      Correct Answer: Recirculation

      Explanation:

      The Cycle of Change: Understanding the Stages of Personal Transformation

      The Cycle of Change is a model that illustrates the different stages individuals go through when making changes in their lives. The first stage is precontemplation, where the person is not yet aware that a problem exists. The next stage is contemplation, where the person begins to recognize the issue and considers making a change. The third stage is action, where the person takes steps towards making the change. The fourth stage is maintenance, where the person works to sustain the change. However, it is important to note that relapse can occur, which is a full return to the old behavior.

      Understanding the Cycle of Change can be helpful in personal transformation, as it allows individuals to recognize where they are in the process and what steps they need to take to move forward. By acknowledging the different stages and potential setbacks, individuals can better prepare themselves for the challenges that come with making significant changes in their lives.

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