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Question 1
Correct
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What immunizations are advised for a child between the ages of 14 and 16?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenza B
Explanation:Recommended Vaccinations for Adolescents
A booster vaccination for tetanus and diphtheria is required for adolescents between the ages of 14 and 16. It is recommended that these boosters be administered every 10 years thereafter. In some countries, a second dose of the MMR vaccine is given at age 12. The BCG vaccine is not routinely given, but is offered to individuals who are at risk. It is important for adolescents to stay up-to-date on their vaccinations to protect themselves and those around them from preventable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review after undergoing a renal transplant three months ago. The GP notes that the patient's medication was changed following the transplant, with the addition of immunosuppressant medication. What is the most probable immunosuppressive drug regimen for this patient?
Your Answer: Mycophenolatemofetil (MMF), prednisolone, tacrolimus
Explanation:After a renal transplant, patients require immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection. There are four classes of maintenance drugs: calcineurin inhibitors, antiproliferative agents, mammalian target of rapamycin inhibitors, and steroids. Mycophenolate mofetil is a cost-efficient antiproliferative agent that reduces the risk of acute rejection by 50%. Prednisolone is a steroid that is typically used in low doses and gradually reduced over several months. Azathioprine may also be used in initial therapy, but a calcineurin inhibitor is necessary. Basiliximab may be used for induction therapy within four days of the transplant. Ciclosporin and prednisolone are both used for maintenance immunosuppression, but require an antiproliferative agent to complete the regimen. Sirolimus may be used with a corticosteroid in patients intolerant of calcineurin inhibitors, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She is in good health otherwise and doesn't show any signs of sepsis. During a urine dip test at the doctor's office, blood, leukocytes, protein, and nitrites are detected. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which is treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers, hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine 10 mg daily and ramipril 5mg daily, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease.
Which antibiotic should be avoided when treating this patient's urinary tract infection?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Patients with CKD stage 3 or higher should avoid taking nitrofurantoin due to the risk of treatment failure and side effects caused by drug accumulation. Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic that requires adequate renal filtration to be effective in treating urinary tract infections. However, in patients with an eGFR of less than 40-60 ml/min, the drug is ineffective and can accumulate, leading to potential toxicity. Nitrofurantoin can also cause side effects such as peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and pulmonary reactions. Amoxicillin and co-amoxiclav are safer options for treating urinary tract infections in patients with renal impairment, while ciprofloxacin may require dose reduction from an eGFR of 30-60 ml/min to avoid crystalluria. Patients taking nitrofurantoin should be aware that it can discolour urine and is safe to use during pregnancy except at full term.
Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure
Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.
On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.
There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.
In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with dizziness when she moves, particularly when she turns her head to the side. She has a past history of numbness affecting both hands and around her peri-oral paraesthesia, which caused her to attend the Emergency Department one year ago, but nil else of note. On examination, her BP is 110/80 mmHg, pulse is 65/min and regular. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems are normal, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and her BMI is 22. There are no cranial nerve palsies. Dix Hallpike test is positive to the left.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Benign positional vertigo
Explanation:Diagnosing Benign Positional Vertigo: Differential Diagnosis
Benign positional vertigo (BPV) is a common cause of vertigo, which occurs when otoliths become detached from the macula and continue to move within the semi-circular canals even when the head has stopped moving. The Dix Hallpike test is used to diagnose posterior canal BPV, which accounts for approximately 90% of cases. Epley’s manoeuvre is an effective treatment for BPV, with a low recurrence rate over a 5-year period.
When considering a differential diagnosis for vertigo, it is important to rule out other conditions. Multiple sclerosis is unlikely in this case, as the Dix Hallpike test is consistent with BPV and the previous history of numbness may represent a panic attack. Acoustic neuroma is also unlikely, as there are no cranial nerve palsies or tinnitus. Labyrinthitis is not a likely diagnosis, as it is associated with vertigo with any movement rather than a movement to one side. Ménière’s disease is also unlikely, as it is characterized by episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and a sensation of aural pressure, which occur in clusters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl has bowed legs, thick wrists and dental caries. Her weight (12 kg) and height (85 cm) are now below the 3rd centile for her age. She has failure to thrive. She is still predominantly breastfed. No problems were reported during the antenatal period, at delivery or at the postnatal stage.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Pediatric Orthopedic Conditions: Rickets, Blount’s Disease, Child Abuse, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Physiological Genu Varum
Rickets, a condition characterized by bony abnormalities such as bowed legs and knock-knees, was once prevalent in the Western world but has since been largely eradicated through vitamin D fortification. However, it still affects some children, particularly those who are black or breastfed. Blood testing can reveal low levels of vitamin D and hypocalcaemia, while X-rays may show cupping, splaying, and fraying of the metaphysis. Blount’s disease, which causes bowed legs due to tibial growth plate disorders, can be difficult to distinguish from physiological genu varum in children under two years old. Child abuse allegations may arise when infants with rickets suffer bone fractures. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis, an autoimmune inflammatory joint disease, is the most common form of arthritis in children and adolescents. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these pediatric orthopedic conditions and to properly diagnose and treat them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache that has been bothering her for about a week. She has been feeling more tired than usual and has been experiencing muscle aches and pains. She has also noticed pain when chewing. Apart from these symptoms, she is in good health.
During the physical examination, an unusual finding is observed.
Which component of the physical examination is most likely to be abnormal?Your Answer: Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries
Explanation:Clinical Examination for Temporal Arteritis
Temporal arteritis is a condition that should be suspected in patients over 50 years of age who present with a new headache. The headache is often persistent, severe, and worse at night. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries may reveal marked tenderness and signs of inflammation, such as erythema, nodularity, and reduced pulsation. Jaw claudication when chewing is also a common feature. Here are some clinical examination techniques that can help diagnose temporal arteritis:
1. Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries: Marked scalp tenderness is common in patients with temporal arteritis. Approximately half of patients exhibit signs of superficial temporal artery inflammation, which can be detected by palpation.
2. Examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness: Neck examination may reveal a limitation in the range of movement of the neck and crepitation, especially in tension-type headaches. However, the history in this patient, including generalised muscle aches, jaw claudication and temporal headache are more suggestive of temporal arteritis.
3. Blood pressure (BP) measurement: Raised BP is very rarely a cause of headache. However, patients often think it is and may expect their BP to be measured. Nevertheless, this would neither confirm nor refute a diagnosis of temporal arteritis, the likely diagnosis here.
4. Examination of the jaw and bite: Routine examination of the jaw and bite is unlikely to contribute to the diagnosis here. The jaw pain here is suggestive of claudication, which is a feature associated with temporal arteritis.
5. Examination of the optic fundi: The optic fundi should always be examined in patients presenting with headache. However, this patient is not exhibiting any features that suggest a raised intracranial pressure.
In conclusion, a combination of clinical examination techniques can help diagnose temporal arteritis in patients presenting with a new headache, especially in those over 50 years of age. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries, examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness, and assessment of jaw claudication are particularly useful in this regard.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 40-year-old patient with epilepsy that is currently managed with phenytoin presents to his General Practitioner. He has recently been taking oral flucloxacillin for a leg injury that was precipitated by a recent fit. The patient occasionally drinks alcohol and has been taking paracetamol for pain relief after his leg injury. Clinical examination reveals jaundice; however, his abdomen is non-tender. Liver function tests are shown below.
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 280 μmol/l 1–22 μmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 440 U/l 45–105 U/l
Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) 320 U/l 11–50 U/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 46 U/l < 35 U/l
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s jaundice?Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:Causes of Jaundice: Identifying the Culprit in a Clinical Case
In this clinical case, a patient presents with jaundice and abnormal liver function tests. The following potential causes are considered:
Flucloxacillin: The patient’s presentation is consistent with cholestatic jaundice, which can be caused by flucloxacillin. Other drugs that can cause a similar picture include chlorpromazine, azathioprine, captopril, ciclosporin, penicillamine, erythromycin, and the combined oral contraceptive.
Ethanol: Although the patient reports occasional alcohol use, ethanol is an unlikely cause of cholestatic jaundice. Ethanol more commonly causes a hepatitic picture with elevated transaminase levels.
Gallstones: Cholecystitis typically doesn’t cause jaundice. If gallstones were the cause, right upper quadrant pain and tenderness would be expected.
Paracetamol: The patient is taking paracetamol, but there is no information about excessive use. Paracetamol overdose typically causes a hepatitic picture rather than cholestatic jaundice.
Phenytoin: Phenytoin typically causes a hepatitic picture with larger elevations in transaminase levels and a smaller rise in ALP levels.
In conclusion, flucloxacillin is the most likely cause of this patient’s cholestatic jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his sister. He has been convinced that aliens are monitoring his every move for 4 months, without any history of substance abuse. He claims to have heard their voices in his head and believes that they are planning to abduct him. His sister is worried that he might harm himself and reports that he has been talking about ways to escape from the aliens. When asked directly, the patient denies having suicidal thoughts but says he will do whatever it takes to avoid being taken by the aliens. He appears to have a blunted affect but is otherwise calm.
What is the percentage of patients with this diagnosis who complete suicide?Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:It is common for individuals with schizophrenia to make statements about doing what it takes to avoid their perceived pursuers, such as taking a cyanide pill. However, these statements may not necessarily indicate overt suicidal plans or thoughts, but rather stem from delusions. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment of their mental state and other risk factors is necessary to accurately evaluate their level of risk for suicide.
The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl still wets the bed most nights. She is dry by day. Her development has been normal and she is otherwise well. She has never had a urinary infection. There are no behavioural problems or family issues.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:Treatment Options for Enuresis: From Simple Measures to Medications
Enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common problem among children. While most children outgrow it, some may need treatment. The first step is to try simple measures such as restricting fluid intake and encouraging regular toilet use. If bedwetting persists, an enuresis alarm may be considered as first-line treatment. Desmopressin, a medication that reduces urine production, can be used for rapid control or in combination with an alarm. However, it should be used second line after an alarm has been tried. Desmopressin with an anticholinergic medication like oxybutynin is another option, but specialist assessment is recommended. Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, may be considered as a last resort after all other treatments have failed and with caution due to potential side effects. Overall, treatment options for enuresis should be tailored to the individual child and their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old overweight woman comes to the surgery seeking guidance on birth control. Her BMI is 38 kg/m^2. What is the appropriate prescription for her?
Your Answer: Norethisterone (Noriday) 5mg tds
Correct Answer: Desogestrel (Cerazette) 75 mcg od (standard dose)
Explanation:Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).
When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.
Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old backpacker returns from a year of travelling in a remote part of South America. She has had diarrhoea for three weeks and the lab confirms that she has giardiasis.
What is the incubation period of giardiasis?Your Answer: Three to four months
Correct Answer: Four to six weeks
Explanation:Giardiasis: A Chronic Diarrhoeal Disease
Giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease caused by the flagellate protozoan parasite, Giardia lamblia. This parasite attaches to the small bowel but doesn’t invade it. The disease is prevalent in tropical regions and is contracted by ingesting cysts present in contaminated water or food.
To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy is used to detect the cysts. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of oral metronidazole or tinidazole. These medications are effective in eliminating the parasite and relieving symptoms.
In conclusion, giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease that can be contracted by ingesting contaminated water or food. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and reduce the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with a 6-month history of fatigue and low back pain has an episode of severe loin pain. Physical examination is unremarkable except for pallor. An X-ray of the lower abdomen shows a ureteric calculus, and lytic lesions and osteoporosis in the lumbar vertebrae. Blood urea, serum creatinine, serum calcium and uric acid levels are raised.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Myeloma
Explanation:Distinguishing Features of Myeloma, Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia, Hyperparathyroidism, Acute Pyelonephritis, and Chronic Renal Failure
Myeloma is a type of plasma cell neoplasm that causes diffuse bone marrow infiltration and localized osteolytic deposits. Patients with myeloma often experience anemia, hypercalcemia, and elevated levels of urea, uric acid, and creatinine. Back pain is a common symptom, and long-term hypercalcemia can lead to the formation of calculi.
Chronic myeloid leukemia is characterized by massive splenomegaly, but patients typically have normal levels of urea and creatinine. However, uric acid levels may be elevated.
Hyperparathyroidism is associated with increased bone turnover and elevated serum calcium levels. Subperiosteal resorption, especially on hand X-rays, is a common finding. However, lytic lesions are not typically seen.
Acute pyelonephritis is not suggested by the patient’s history or physical exam findings.
Hypocalcemia is a hallmark of chronic renal failure, but urolithiasis is unlikely in this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health check. He is a smoker with a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. His fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l and his estimated 10-year risk of a coronary heart disease event is >30%.
Select from the list the single most suitable management option in this patient.Your Answer: Statin
Explanation:NICE recommends primary prevention for individuals under 84 years old who have a risk of over 10% of developing cardiovascular disease, which can be estimated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. To address modifiable risk factors, interventions such as dietary advice, smoking cessation support, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction should be offered. For lipid management, both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions should be utilized, with atorvastatin 20 mg being the recommended prescription for primary prevention. Lipids should be checked after 3 months, with the aim of reducing non-HDL cholesterol by over 40%. However, excessive drug usage in the elderly should be considered carefully by doctors, as cardiovascular risks exceeding 5-10% may be found in elderly men based on age and gender alone. NICE advises against routinely prescribing fibrates, bile acid sequestrants, nicotinic acid, omega-3 fatty acid compounds, or a combination of a statin and another lipid-modifying drug. First-line treatment for primary hyperlipidaemia is a statin, with other options such as bile acid sequestrants being considered if statins are contraindicated or not tolerated. For primary prevention of CVD, high-intensity statin treatment should be offered to individuals under 84 years old with an estimated 10-year risk of 10% or more using the QRISK assessment tool. Diet modification alone is not recommended for individuals with a risk score over 30%. Ezetimibe can be considered for individuals with primary hypercholesterolaemia if a statin is contraindicated or not tolerated, but it is not the first choice of drug in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A 43-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP. She had been self-isolating at home for several months due to the COVID-19 pandemic and continued to feel anxious about going out even after the lockdown was lifted.
Before the pandemic, she had experienced a traumatic event that left her struggling with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). She had also been dealing with chronic pain and had to quit her job as a result.
During a telephone consultation with her GP 4 weeks ago, she was diagnosed with moderate depression and referred for computerised cognitive behavioural therapy. She was also advised to try to incorporate more physical activity into her routine.
However, her mental health had been worsening and she was now experiencing insomnia, early morning awakening, and occasional thoughts of self-harm. She expressed reluctance to pursue one-to-one therapy, as she found it difficult to engage with.
The GP and patient discussed the next steps in managing her depression.
What treatment options should be considered?Your Answer: Commence citalopram
Explanation:For patients with moderate depression and worsening mental health despite low-level therapy, SSRIs are the recommended first-line antidepressant. In this case, the patient has already received CBT and declined psychological treatments, making an antidepressant necessary. While mirtazapine and venlafaxine are valid options, they are not typically used as first-line treatments due to the likelihood of side effects and higher cost compared to SSRIs. These medications are usually reserved as second-line options if the patient doesn’t respond well to an SSRI. NICE guidelines suggest offering an SSRI first-line due to their effectiveness and lower incidence of side effects. As the patient has not expressed suicidal plans or intent, referral to a crisis team is not necessary at this time.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 8-year-old girl presents generally unwell, with reduced volumes of smoky-coloured urine.
She had a sore throat two weeks previously. Immunisations up to date. There is no FH/SH of note.
On examination her temperature is 37.6°C. She looks quiet and unwell, with slight periorbital oedema. Respiratory rate 15/min, pulse 90/min, blood pressure is 130/100 mmHg. Her JVP is elevated and she has tenderness in both loins.
Urine dipstick show 3+ haematuria and 3+ proteinuria. Red cell casts are seen on urine microscopy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection
Explanation:Understanding Nephritis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Nephritis, also known as acute nephritic syndrome, is a condition characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, and oedema with elevated blood pressure. In most cases, the antecedent throat infection makes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis the most likely cause. While blood tests such as ASOT may be useful in confirming the diagnosis, the clinical picture is usually clear.
The severity of nephritis varies from transient asymptomatic haematuria to severe nephritis with acute renal and heart failure. Treatment is supportive, with close attention to fluid balance. Penicillin is often prescribed, but it may not influence the disease course or spread to family members. Fortunately, 95% of patients recover completely.
In some cases, uraemia may accompany oliguria, but the clinical and dipstick findings are usually enough for a presumptive diagnosis. In children, the prognosis is excellent, with complete recovery in the vast majority of cases. Fewer than 1% of children experience elevated creatinine levels 10-15 years after an episode.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of nephritis is crucial for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?Your Answer: 50-59 years
Correct Answer: 60-69 years
Explanation:Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK
According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.
Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.
It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In which scenario would the heritability score be expected to be the least?
Your Answer: Spina bifida
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Heritability Scores of Different Disorders
Mumps, a contagious viral infection, has the lowest heritability score among the disorders mentioned. This means that the risk of developing mumps is primarily due to exposure to the infective agent rather than genetic factors. On the other hand, the other disorders listed have a genetic component in their development. For instance, cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in a specific gene and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Understanding the heritability scores of different disorders can help in identifying the underlying causes and developing appropriate treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents for her postnatal check at eight weeks. She previously took microgynon 30 for contraception, which she was very happy with as it gave her a lighter regular menstrual cycle. She is mainly breastfeeding with occasional top up formula feed. She is currently using condoms. She had a normal delivery with no perinatal complications. She would prefer to restart microgynon if possible.
According to the latest UKMEC guidance, what is the most appropriate contraception option for her going forward?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be advised to continue with condoms for contraception
Explanation:Contraceptive Options for Breastfeeding Mothers
New UKMEC criteria (2016) state that breastfeeding mothers can use combined hormonal contraceptives from ≥ 6 weeks (UKMEC 2). However, if the mother is not fully breastfeeding, she may not be adequately protected against unwanted pregnancy. In such cases, condoms could be an appropriate option, but if the mother prefers to use CHC, which is not contraindicated, condoms may not be the most appropriate option.
An intrauterine system is a good option for ongoing contraception and managing periods, but if the patient prefers the combined oral contraceptive pill, which is not contraindicated, it should be offered as her preferred method of contraception. While the progesterone-only pill is an option, it may not provide the regular cycle that the patient desires, and her preferred choice (CHC) is not contraindicated. In summary, breastfeeding mothers have several contraceptive options available to them, and the most appropriate option should be offered based on their individual preferences and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has a painful erythematous vesicular rash over the right side of his face. It extends over his right eye and forehead and over his scalp on that side. The left side is unaffected. It started approximately 24 hours ago. He is feeling unwell and has a slight temperature and his eye is painful and red.
Select from the list the single correct statement about this condition.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rash at the tip of the nose is a strong predictor of eye involvement
Explanation:Understanding Ophthalmic Shingles: Eye Involvement and Treatment
Ophthalmic shingles, a type of herpes zoster, can have serious implications for eye health. If a rash appears at the tip of the nose, it is likely that the nasociliary branch of the trigeminal nerve is involved, which supplies the globe and can lead to eye involvement in at least 75% of cases. However, eye involvement is not a feature in nearly all cases, occurring in about half of cases when the ophthalmic branch is affected. Periorbital edema and keratitis are also common features.
Prompt treatment is crucial to reduce the severity and duration of pain, complications, and viral shedding. Systemic antiviral treatment should be started within 72 hours of rash onset and continued for 7-10 days. Urgent ophthalmological referral may be necessary to prevent serious eye damage. Understanding the signs and symptoms of ophthalmic shingles can help ensure timely and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What were the primary care lessons highlighted in the Confidential Enquiry into Maternal Deaths 2018 report?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There has been a significant reduction in deaths from mental & medical causes over the last 10 years
Explanation:Key Points from the MBRRACE-UK Report for Primary Care
The MBRRACE-UK report is an important document that primary care practitioners should be familiar with. It is likely that AKT questions will be set on this report, so understanding the main take-home points is crucial. Here are some key points relating to epidemiology:
– There was a statistically non-significant increase in the overall maternal death rate in the UK between 2011-13 and 2014-16, indicating the need for implementation of the report’s recommendations to reduce maternal deaths.
– Maternal mortality rates are significantly higher among women from black and Asian ethnic backgrounds compared to white women, highlighting the need to address these disparities.
– Thrombosis and thromboembolism remain the leading cause of direct maternal death during or up to six weeks after the end of pregnancy.
– Maternal suicide is the third largest cause of direct maternal deaths, and eliciting any relevant history of mental health problems is essential for appropriate management of risk.
– Women with a high BMI should be given information about the symptoms of VTE, and those with a BMI ≥40 kg/m2 require postnatal thromboprophylaxis regardless of mode of delivery.
– Prescriptions for the entire postnatal course of low molecular weight heparin should be issued in secondary care to ensure women receive the full course without needing to visit their GP for another prescription.By understanding these key points, primary care practitioners can provide better care for pregnant and postnatal women, and help reduce maternal mortality rates in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old lady comes to her GP for a yearly check-up of her heart failure treatment.
She has a blood pressure reading of 165/90 mmHg. At present, she is taking furosemide and aspirin, and she feels short of breath when walking uphill.
What would be the best medication to include in her treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:First Line Treatments for Heart Failure
ACE inhibitors and beta blockers are the primary medications used in the treatment of heart failure. The SOLVD and CONSENSUS trials have shown that ACE inhibitors are a cornerstone in the management of heart failure. It has been proven that higher doses of ACE inhibitors provide greater benefits. These medications are generally well-tolerated, particularly in mild cases. If ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, an ARB can be used as an alternative. Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists are also recommended as a first-line treatment for heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency of his migraines. He used to experience headaches once or twice a month, but over the past four months, he has had to take sumatriptan around 20 days a month. He occasionally combines it with co-codamol, but this doesn't alleviate the pain.
What is the best guidance you can offer this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medication overuse headache must be excluded before starting prophylaxis
Explanation:Understanding Migraine Prophylaxis: Important Considerations
Migraine prophylaxis is a treatment option for individuals who experience frequent and debilitating migraines. However, before starting prophylaxis, it is crucial to rule out medication overuse headache, which can be caused by frequent use of acute drugs. If medication overuse headache is suspected, drug withdrawal is necessary.
It is important to note that prophylaxis is not a substitute for acute treatment. While prophylaxis can reduce the frequency of attacks, acute treatment will still be required when migraines occur. Acute treatment typically involves simple analgesia, triptans, and antiemetics.
When starting prophylaxis, it is essential to titrate the dose slowly to avoid side-effects that may lead to premature discontinuation. This slow dose titration can cause a delay in efficacy, which may trigger discontinuation. Therefore, a careful explanation is necessary.
Prophylaxis is only indicated if migraines are significantly impacting daily function and quality of life, such as occurring more than once per week or being severe despite treatment. Other indications for prophylaxis include the risk of medication overuse headache or if acute treatments are contraindicated or ineffective.
While NICE recommends propranolol, topiramate, or amitriptyline as the first-line approach for prophylaxis, triptans are used to manage acute attacks. Understanding these important considerations can help individuals make informed decisions about their migraine treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to initiating pioglitazone therapy, what is the most important factor to consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fracture risk
Explanation:The risk of osteoporosis and fractures is higher in individuals taking thiazolidinediones.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the most common prodromal symptom of subarachnoid haemorrhage that frequently precedes the rupture of a cerebral aneurysm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Recognizing the Prodromal Signs and Symptoms of a Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
Subarachnoid haemorrhage can be preceded by prodromal signs and symptoms that are often caused by sentinel leaks, an expanding aneurysm, or emboli from an intra-aneurysmal thrombus. These symptoms can occur 10-20 days before the rupture and are present in 10-50% of cases. The most common symptoms are headache, dizziness, orbital pain, diplopia, and visual loss. Physical signs may include sensory and motor changes, fits, ptosis, bruits, and dysphasia.
A sentinel leak can cause sudden focal or generalized head pain, which may be severe and accompanied by nausea, vomiting, photophobia, malaise, or neck pain. However, these symptoms may be ignored by doctors, so a high index of suspicion is necessary for diagnosis. Sentinel leaks usually do not produce signs of elevated intracranial pressure or meningeal irritation.
Therefore, recognizing the prodromal signs and symptoms of a subarachnoid haemorrhage is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any of these symptoms, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the use of the progesterone only pill for women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast cancer 3 years ago
Explanation:Contraindications for Progestogen Only Pill
The UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC) is used to determine whether a woman is suitable for a particular type of contraceptive. The criteria categorize potential cautions and contraindications into four levels. UKMEC 1 indicates no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the advantages outweigh the disadvantages. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages generally outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk.
Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions that may prevent a woman from taking the progestogen only pill include active liver disease or past tumour, liver enzyme inducers, breast cancer more than 5 years ago, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, and ischaemic heart disease and stroke (initiation = UKMEC2). On the other hand, UKMEC 4 conditions such as pregnancy and breast cancer within the last 5 years are considered unacceptable health risks and would prevent a woman from taking the progestogen only pill. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if the progestogen only pill is a suitable contraceptive option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old teacher suddenly lost her memory after walking her dog. Her husband noticed that she still knew the names of close friends, but she was disorientated in time and place, and seemed perplexed. She could follow complex commands, but was unable to recall something she had been told 5 minutes before. The episode resolved after 10 hours, although she did not remember the event. She has a history of migraine, but the episode of memory loss was not associated with headache.
What is the most probable clinical diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia
Explanation:Transient Global Amnesia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis
Transient Global Amnesia (TGA) is a sudden onset condition that profoundly impairs anterograde memory. Patients are disoriented in time and place, but not in person. Retrograde memory is variably disturbed, lasting for hours to years. Patients recognize their memory deficits and repeatedly ask questions to orient themselves. Immediate and procedural memory are preserved, and patients can perform complex tasks. The attack resolves gradually, with subjective recovery occurring in two-thirds of patients within 2-12 hours. Precipitating events include strenuous exercise, intense emotion, and medical procedures. Differential diagnosis includes migraine, transient epileptic amnesia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You see a 60-year-old man with gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms. He has a previous diagnosis of Barrett's oesophagus. The old notes show he was previously under regular follow up with the local gastroenterology department but he has not been seen for over three years.
Over the last four months his gastro-oesophageal reflux symptoms have become significantly worse. He experiences daily retrosternal burning after meals which is severe and he has been vomiting at least once a week. His swallow is reportedly normal. There is no history of haematemesis or melaena. You weigh him and he has not lost any significant weight.
On examination his abdomen is soft, non-tender and with no palpable masses. He takes omeprazole 20 mg once daily which he has done for many years. Since his symptoms have deteriorated he has increased this himself up to 20 mg twice daily. This has not provided any significant symptomatic benefit.
You refer him urgently for an upper GI endoscopy.
What advice would you give to the patient while waiting for the endoscopy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add in domperidone to the current dose of omeprazole to try and improve symptom control whilst further investigation is awaited
Explanation:Importance of Stopping Acid Suppression Medication Prior to Endoscopy
Acid suppression medication should be discontinued for at least two weeks before undergoing endoscopy. This is crucial because acid suppression medication can conceal serious underlying conditions. It is also essential to consider the patient’s medical history, especially if there is an unexplained deterioration of dyspepsia. This is particularly important for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus, known dysplasia, atrophic gastritis or intestinal metaplasia, or those who have undergone peptic ulcer surgery more than two decades ago. By taking these precautions, doctors can ensure that endoscopy results are accurate and reliable.
Spacing:
Acid suppression medication should be discontinued for at least two weeks before undergoing endoscopy. This is crucial because acid suppression medication can conceal serious underlying conditions.
It is also essential to consider the patient’s medical history, especially if there is an unexplained deterioration of dyspepsia. This is particularly important for patients with Barrett’s oesophagus, known dysplasia, atrophic gastritis or intestinal metaplasia, or those who have undergone peptic ulcer surgery more than two decades ago.
By taking these precautions, doctors can ensure that endoscopy results are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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An 80 year old woman presents to the clinic with a history of progressive dyspnea for the past four months. She reports experiencing left-sided chest pain and dizziness upon exertion, which subside with rest. During the physical examination, you detect an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. What other clinical manifestation might you anticipate observing during the assessment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narrow pulse pressure
Explanation:Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope or presyncope, and a distinct ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, duration of murmur, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The condition can be caused by degenerative calcification, bicuspid aortic valve, William’s syndrome, post-rheumatic disease, or subvalvular HOCM.
Management of aortic stenosis depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are usually observed, while symptomatic patients require valve replacement. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement. If the valvular gradient is greater than 40 mmHg and there are features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, surgery may be considered even if the patient is asymptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:
Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.
Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.
Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.
Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.
Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of feeling off for the past few weeks. His girlfriend is with him and expresses concern that he hasn't been acting like himself. She thinks he may need to see a psychiatrist. The patient has no prior history of mental health issues. What symptom would be the most indicative of depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early morning waking
Explanation:Depression often presents with early morning waking as a somatic symptom, which may occur before general insomnia. Anxiety is often associated with palpitations and nausea. Excessive gambling may indicate a gambling addiction or a hypomanic/manic disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder frequently involves flashbacks.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. He reports difficulty finding tools and has fallen multiple times due to tripping over his own feet. The patient has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health otherwise. He is not taking any medication other than insulin and has no family history of illness. During the examination, the GP notes absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, but sensation is normal. What could be a potential cause for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease
Explanation:Conditions that can present with extensor plantars and absent ankle jerk, along with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs, include motor neuron disease, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and syringomyelia. Other possible conditions to consider are diabetic neuropathy and myasthenia gravis.
Absent Ankle Jerks and Extensor Plantars: Causes and Implications
When a patient presents with absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, it is typically indicative of a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This combination of signs can be caused by a variety of conditions, including subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), and conus medullaris lesion.
The absence of ankle jerks suggests a lower motor neuron lesion, while the presence of extensor plantars indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. This combination of signs can help clinicians narrow down the potential causes of the patient’s symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
It is important to note that absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars are not always present in the same patient, and their presence or absence can vary depending on the underlying condition. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). His parents want to know what is causing these infections.
What is the most common cause of this problem in a child of this age?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)
Explanation:Pediatric Urinary Tract Conditions: Causes and Symptoms
Recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions that lead to urinary stasis. One of the most common causes is vesicoureteric reflux (VUR), which occurs in 41% of cases. VUR is found in about 1% of normal infants and can resolve over several years, but it is a risk factor for pyelonephritis and renal scarring. Other causes of recurrent urinary infections include renal calculi, obstructive uropathy, poor urine flow, impaired immune or renal function, and sexual abuse.
Posterior urethral valves, a less common condition than VUR, can cause urinary tract infections, diurnal enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Bilateral polycystic kidney disease, which rarely causes major symptoms during childhood, can lead to progressive kidney failure and present with loin pain, haematuria, UTIs, and stones. Neurogenic bladder, caused by spina bifida, spinal trauma, or tumour, can cause urine leakage and retention, and is less common than VUR. Renal calculi, caused by metabolic abnormalities or unknown factors, are less common in childhood than VUR and may present with urinary infections.
In summary, recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own set of symptoms and risk factors. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and ensure proper kidney function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A researcher wants to investigate dietary variations between patients aged 50-60 years with impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c 42-47 mmol/mol) and those without impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c <42 mmol/mol). The participants who agree to take part are requested to maintain a food journal for two weeks. The researcher is worried that the participants' eating habits during this observed period may deviate from their regular routine, impacting the accuracy of the study.
What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:The Hawthorne effect refers to a situation where a group alters its behavior because it is aware of being observed. This could manifest in participants in a study eating more healthily during the observation period. A ceiling effect occurs when an independent variable no longer has an impact on a dependent variable because the maximum effect has been reached. Observer bias occurs when a researcher records information that differs from reality due to their expectations or desires. The Gibbons-Hawking effect is a theory of general relativity that may be better suited for discussion in a different forum.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old practice nurse, who is employed by you but is not a patient at your practice, develops contact dermatitis from a chemical used to clean the work surface in a treatment room at your practice.
Which of the following should you do?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a mild steroid
Explanation:Dermatitis and Work-Related Exposure
Dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by work-related exposure to chemicals or biological irritants. According to the Health and Safety Executive (HSE), dermatitis is reportable when associated with exposure to any chemical or biological irritant or sensitizing agent. This includes chemicals with warnings such as may cause sensitization by skin contact or irritating to the skin. Common causes of dermatitis include epoxy resins, latex, rubber chemicals, soaps and cleaners, metalworking fluids, cement, wet work, enzymes, and wood. Corrosive and irritating chemicals can also lead to dermatitis.
Various industries are associated with dermatitis, including construction work, health service work, rubber making, printing, paint spraying, agriculture, horticulture, electroplating, cleaning, catering, hairdressing, and floristry. However, dermatitis can also be caused by exposure to common agents found outside the workplace. If there is good evidence that the condition has been caused solely by such exposure rather than by exposure to an agent at work, it is not reportable.
It is important to note that arranging patch testing, referral, and prescribing are considerations for the patient’s own doctor and not their employer. While most questions in the AKT exam relate to a doctor’s duties to their patients, it is essential to have a basic understanding of employment law and health and safety regulations to ensure the safety and well-being of employees in the workplace.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is having trouble retaining fluids and a urine dipstick reveals ketones ++. Which of the following is not linked to an elevated risk of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:A lower occurrence of hyperemesis gravidarum is linked to smoking.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to clinic by his parents. He had a fever for three days, and as this disappeared he was noted to have a rash.
On examination he is noted to be apyrexial, but has a macular rash on the trunk and lower limbs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Common Rashes and Their Characteristics
Roseola infantum is a viral infection caused by herpesvirus 6. It is known to cause a rash with lymphadenopathy. The rash is macular in nature and is usually seen in infants and young children.
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that causes target lesions with blistering. It is often caused by an allergic reaction to medication or an infection.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a condition that causes a petechial rash. This rash is caused by a low platelet count and can be seen in individuals of all ages.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that causes a purpuric rash on the buttocks and lower limbs. It is often seen in children and is caused by inflammation of the blood vessels.
Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious bacterial infection that can cause a non-blanching purpuric rash. This rash is a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man comes in with weakness in his right upper limb. Upon examination, there is weakness in the right triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus. Sensation is normal. The right triceps jerk is absent, and there is some wasting of the dorsum of the forearm. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right radial nerve
Explanation:The radial nerve is responsible for supplying the back part of the upper limb and originates from the brachial plexus, carrying fibers from spinal nerves C5-8 and T1. It supplies the triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus muscles, with the myotome of the triceps and extensor digitorum being C7 and that of the brachioradialis being C6. Both radial nerve palsy and C7 radiculopathy can result in an absent triceps jerk, and sensory loss in patients with radial nerve palsy is typically at the anatomical snuffbox, although sensation is usually normal. Trauma or entrapment, particularly between muscle heads, can damage the radial nerve, with the extent of muscle power loss depending on the lesion level. The brachioradialis muscle flexes the forearm at the elbow and tends to supinate when the forearm is pronated and pronate when the forearm is supinated. The extensor digitorum muscle extends the medial four digits of the hand. Brachial plexus injuries can cause weak triceps, wrist drop, and possibly median and ulnar nerve involvement. Radiculopathy is a mechanical compression of a nerve root, usually resulting in weakness of elbow flexion and wrist extension, decreased sensation in a dermatomal distribution, and pain in the neck, shoulder, and/or arm. The posterior interosseous nerve is a deep motor branch of the radial nerve that emerges above the elbow between the brachioradialis and brachialis muscles, and compression can result in finger drop, radial wrist deviation on extension, and proximal forearm pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A newly pregnant, but otherwise healthy, patient asks about immunisations required during pregnancy.
Which of the following immunisations are specifically recommended from 20 weeks gestation - to be administered at any time of year?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumococcus
Explanation:Immunisations in Pregnancy
Pregnant women are advised to get immunised against influenza and pertussis, but there are some differences to note. The influenza vaccine is recommended during flu season and can be taken at any stage of pregnancy. On the other hand, the pertussis vaccine is recommended from 16 weeks and can be taken at any time of the year.
It is important for candidates to understand these differences and advise their patients accordingly. While there is no specific recommendation to immunise healthy pregnant women against HPV, MenACWY or pneumococcus, it is always best to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual case. By staying informed and up-to-date on immunisation recommendations, candidates can provide the best care for their patients during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon reviewing his records, you discover that he was recently admitted to the hospital due to a possible seizure. His wife witnessed unusual jerking movements while he was asleep, and he is currently undergoing investigations to rule out epilepsy. The consultant neurologist has advised him not to drive, but you saw him driving his bus just three days ago. When confronted, he admits to still driving and refuses to inform DVLA as he has not received a definite diagnosis and believes there is no issue. Despite informing him of his legal duty to inform DVLA, he still refuses. As a doctor, what is your duty in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You should contact DVLA immediately disclosing the situation to them in confidence situation without the patient's knowledge
Explanation:DVLA Guidance and Doctor’s Duties in Cases of Seizures
This case highlights the importance of following DVLA guidance when it comes to seizures. If a driver experiences a seizure, they have a duty to inform DVLA and refrain from driving until a diagnosis is made. Depending on the diagnosis, they may be required to not drive for a further period.
According to GMC guidance, if a doctor advises a patient that they may not drive, they should suggest and arrange a second opinion for the patient. In this case, the doctor is the second opinion and a third opinion is not necessary.
If the patient refuses to inform DVLA of their condition, the doctor has a duty to disclose the information. However, they must inform the patient prior to the disclosure and confirm in writing that the disclosure has been made. It is important for doctors to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman brings in her 4-year-old son. She explains that she and her husband have a history of familial hypercholesterolaemia and are worried about their son's health. She asks if he can be screened for the condition.
What would be the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an LDL cholesterol test and refer to a specialist for diagnostic testing and further management
Explanation:It is recommended by NICE guidelines that children with both parents affected by familial hypercholesterolaemia should undergo testing before the age of 5 or as soon as possible thereafter. This is because children can develop cardiovascular disease without any visible symptoms. It is important to investigate the child regardless of whether or not they display any symptoms and to refer them to a specialist if they are thought to be at risk of familial hypercholesterolaemia.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with a three-month history of weight loss, night sweats, and painful lumps in his neck that worsen with alcohol consumption. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Painful Lymphadenopathy
Painful lymphadenopathy can be a rare but significant symptom in the diagnosis of certain conditions. In Hodgkin’s lymphoma, pain on alcohol ingestion in involved lymph nodes is a strong indication of the disease, although the reasons for the pain are unknown. On the other hand, glandular fever, lymph node metastases from laryngeal cancer, recurrent tonsillitis, and tuberculosis are incorrect differential diagnoses for painful lymphadenopathy.
Glandular fever, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis, rash, and periorbital edema. However, lymphadenopathy is always bilateral and symmetrical, and the disease is usually self-limiting. Lymph node metastases from laryngeal cancer may present with a lump in the neck, but chronic hoarseness is the most common early symptom, and systemic symptoms are not present. Recurrent tonsillitis may cause anterior cervical lymph nodes to enlarge and become tender, but it is usually accompanied by a sore throat. Finally, while cervical nodes are commonly affected in tuberculous lymphadenitis, they may present as abscesses with discharging sinuses, and lymph node pain on drinking alcohol doesn’t occur in tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old smoker visits her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue, abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss. She reports having a cough for three months and experiencing night sweats in recent weeks. Blood tests reveal anaemia and a corrected calcium level of 3.06 mmol/l (normal value 2.2–2.6 mmol/l).
What is a recognized cause of hypercalcaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Causes and Symptoms of Calcium Imbalance
Calcium imbalance can be caused by various factors, including primary hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, milk-alkali syndrome, and sarcoid. Hypercalcaemia, or high calcium levels, can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, abdominal pain, depression, psychosis, bone pain, renal stones, fatigue, cardiac dysrhythmias, and renal tubular damage. On the other hand, hypocalcaemia, or low calcium levels, can be caused by prolonged chronic renal failure, hypoparathyroidism, and vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms of the underlying cause may also be present. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of calcium imbalance to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female is six weeks pregnant. She has had some vaginal bleeding and RIF pain.
On examination she is pyrexial 37.6°C and tender in the RIF, her urine contains blood ++ and protein +. Her past history includes pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a miscarriage and two terminations. Her urine pregnancy test is still positive.
What is the most suitable next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange an emergency admission
Explanation:Possible Ectopic Pregnancy: A Gynaecological Emergency
If you have a history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), previous terminations, and a positive pregnancy test, you should be aware of the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. This condition occurs when the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate admission to a hospital. If left untreated, it can lead to severe complications, such as internal bleeding and infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man complains of pain and numbness extending from the buttocks down the legs when he walks about 200 metres. His legs become weak and he has to stop. To obtain relief, he has to sit down. His femoral, posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses are easily palpable in both legs. He has type 2 diabetes.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Neurogenic Intermittent Claudication
Neurogenic intermittent claudication is a condition that produces fatigue, weakness, leg numbness, and paraesthesiae. The narrowing of the spinal canal or neural foramina is the primary cause of this condition. Lumbar spinal stenosis is the most common cause of neurogenic intermittent claudication, which results from the loss of disc space, osteophytes, and a hypertrophic ligamentum flavum. The symptoms of this condition can be relieved by sitting, leaning forward, putting the foot on a raised stool or step, or lying supine rather than prone.
However, other conditions can also cause neurogenic intermittent claudication. Diabetic neuropathy, fibromyalgia, mechanical low back pain, and peripheral vascular disease are some of the differential diagnoses that need to be considered. Diabetic neuropathy can cause peripheral sensorimotor or proximal motor neuropathy, but there is no indication of sensory or motor changes in this case. Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder that affects multiple sites and can cause various symptoms, including fatigue, sleep disturbance, paraesthesia, memory disturbance, restless legs, problems with bladder and bowel, and psychological problems. Mechanical low back pain usually occurs after a precipitating event that produces immediate low back pain, which can radiate to the buttocks and thighs. Peripheral vascular disease can cause intermittent claudication, but the presence of palpable pulses makes it an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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The mother of a 4-year-old, newly diagnosed with coeliac disease, is seeking advice on her child's diet.
Which of the following foods is suitable for a gluten-free diet?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Soy sauce
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease and the Importance of a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease affects 1 in 100 people, with a higher prevalence of 1 in 10 for those with a first-degree relative who has the condition. Patients with Coeliac disease must adhere to a strict gluten-free diet to avoid an increased risk of other diseases, such as small bowel lymphoma. Non-compliance with the diet is common, which can lead to symptoms and an increased risk of morbidity.
It is important to understand the general principles of a gluten-free diet, including the risk of contamination from cross-contamination and food additives. Some items that may contain gluten, such as baking powder, stock cubes, and soy sauce, may not be obvious and should be avoided. On the other hand, there are many safe, naturally gluten-free cereals, such as rice flour, tapioca flour, and cornmeal.
Checking a patient’s diet, compliance, and understanding is as important as checking inhaler technique in an asthmatic. While a detailed knowledge of a gluten-free diet is not expected, a broad understanding of the general principles is necessary to provide proper care for patients with Coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset weakness of the muscles on the left side of his face. He is unable to wrinkle his forehead and has difficulty closing his eye. Additionally, he reports loss of taste on the anterior part of his tongue and discomfort with loud noises. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bell’s palsy
Explanation:Understanding Facial Paralysis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Facial paralysis can be caused by a variety of factors, including lower motor neurone lesions, upper motor neurone lesions, herpes zoster, Lyme disease, and sarcoidosis. In cases of lower motor neurone lesions, patients may be unable to wrinkle their forehead due to the destruction of the final common pathway to the muscles. However, in upper motor neurone lesions, the forehead muscles may be partially spared due to alternative pathways in the brainstem.
Bell’s palsy, also known as idiopathic facial paralysis, is the most common cause of unilateral facial paralysis. While further testing or referral is not usually required, it’s important to assess patients to exclude other possible identifiable causes. Symptoms of Bell’s palsy may include the inability to close the eye, pain, and vesicles in the ear, hard palate, and anterior two thirds of the tongue.
Steroids, such as prednisolone, are an effective treatment for Bell’s palsy and should be started within 72 hours of onset. This treatment option can also be used in children. Full recovery occurs in approximately 80% of cases. If the failure to close the eye is endangering the cornea, further intervention may be necessary.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for facial paralysis is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.
Whilst examining himself he noticed that he had a hard nodule in the shaft of his penis and has been concerned. His erectile function is normal but he is aware of some discomfort in his penis during intercourse.
On examination you note that he has a firm fibrous nodule in the mid-shaft of his penis with no other abnormalities noted.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma
Explanation:Peyronie’s Disease: A Common Condition with Asymptomatic Presentation
This otherwise healthy man has recently discovered a nodule in the middle of his penis shaft, with no other abnormalities. This finding is suggestive of Peyronie’s disease, a common condition that affects approximately 1-3% of the population. Interestingly, many individuals with Peyronie’s disease are initially unaware of any deviation in their penis, as the condition is often asymptomatic.
Despite its asymptomatic presentation, Peyronie’s disease can be associated with erectile dysfunction or painful intercourse due to curvature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has just arrived from Bangladesh and presents with sudden onset of nausea and vomiting associated with watery diarrhoea. The diarrhoea intensified and is now 'rice watery' character.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Cholera: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Cholera is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. The incubation period for cholera is typically 2-5 days. The initial signs of cholera include vomiting and watery diarrhea. At first, the diarrhea may be modest and consist of faecal matter and watery stool. However, in some patients, the diarrhea becomes profound and can exceed 200 ml/kg body weight per day. The stool in these cases becomes ‘rice-watery’ in character, resembling the opaque white water discarded after rice has been washed. The diarrhea is painless, and patients are often incontinent of stool. Without antimicrobial treatment, the total stool volume during the illness can exceed total body weight.
Cholera is rarely imported from abroad, with an average of only 10 cases of cholera in the UK annually. The most common serotype is V. cholerae El Tor, and most infections are acquired on the Indian subcontinent. The risk of cholera for most travelers to endemic areas is very low, particularly in short-term travelers. However, the risk increases for those staying in areas of outbreaks. An oral cholera vaccine is now available in the UK and may be suitable for those who are unable to take adequate precautions in highly endemic or epidemic areas, such as disaster relief workers and adventurous backpackers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 49
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old man with psoriasis. As part of his treatment plan, you prescribe topical Betnovate (Betamethasone valerate 0.1%) cream for a psoriasis flare-up on his leg. He inquires about the duration for which he can use this cream on his leg.
According to NICE guidelines, what is the maximum duration for which this type of corticosteroid can be used?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines on the Use of Potent Corticosteroids
Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids. Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.
Spacing:
Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.
It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids.
Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Choose the option that would be the LEAST probable reason for referring a patient with atrial fibrillation for rhythm control (cardioversion) if they were elderly.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Longstanding atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Cardioversion for Atrial Fibrillation: NICE Guidelines and Considerations
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends referral to a cardiologist for rhythm-control treatment (cardioversion) in certain cases of atrial fibrillation. These include atrial fibrillation with a reversible cause, heart failure primarily caused or worsened by atrial fibrillation, and new-onset atrial fibrillation. If onset is known to be within 48 hours, referral to an acute medical unit is recommended for immediate cardioversion without anticoagulation treatment. Pharmacological cardioversion is often used as a first-line therapy, with electrical cardioversion reserved for non-responders. However, cardioversion may be less successful or not recommended in cases of long-standing atrial fibrillation, significant valve problems, cardiomegaly, or multiple recurrences of atrial fibrillation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 51
Incorrect
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At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to construct a tower using three blocks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 18 months
Explanation:Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones
Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.
In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.
It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently taking salbutamol and formoterol-beclomethasone (Fostair) for his asthma, but he informs you that he is not experiencing any relief from either medication. He was diagnosed with asthma through spirometry testing recently. He claims to be using the inhalers as prescribed but has some doubts about how to use them correctly. Both of his inhalers are pressurised metered-dose inhalers.
What is the most suitable advice to give to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After inhaling a dose of the medication, he should ideally hold his breath for 10 seconds
Explanation:To ensure effective use of an inhaler, it is important to follow proper technique. Asthma UK provides helpful guidance on inhaler usage for different types of inhalers.
For a pressurised metered dose inhaler, it is advised to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows sufficient time for the medication to reach the airways, rather than being exhaled prematurely.
To use the inhaler, breathe in slowly and steadily while pressing down on the canister in one smooth motion. If a second dose is needed, wait for about 30 seconds before repeating to avoid any interference with the delivery of the medication.
Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers
Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:
1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.
2. Breathe out gently.
3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.
4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.
5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.
6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.
It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive hair growth on her arms. She has a slim build and olive skin with dark brown hair. The patient shaves the hair to remove it. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 33 days, and she reports no heavy bleeding or pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Genetic phenotype
Explanation:Excessive hair growth on the arms may be noticeable in this woman due to her genetic makeup, as she has olive skin and dark hair. However, hirsutism, which is characterized by excessive hair growth on the face and body, is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. Although her menstrual cycle is regular at 33 days, it is important to note that a normal cycle can range from 24 to 35 days. A cycle variation of 8 days or more is considered moderately irregular, while a variation of 21 days or more is considered very irregular. Additionally, this patient has light periods and a slim physique.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dizziness. She experiences sudden onset dizziness and nausea when she rolls over in bed in the morning, which goes away after about 20 seconds if she keeps her head still. After these episodes, she feels unsteady and light-headed for several hours. The patient has a history of recurrent otitis media and her family has a history of otosclerosis.
What is the most crucial initial test that needs to be done?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre
Explanation:The presence of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss are key indicators for the diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which is a common cause of dizziness. Other factors such as recurrent otitis media and family history of otosclerosis may be misleading. Audiometry is a recommended test for Meniere’s disease, while CT head is useful for otosclerosis and MRI scan is the preferred diagnostic tool for acoustic neuroma.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 55
Incorrect
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You are assessing a patient at home with metastatic colon cancer. She is receiving symptom relief through a syringe driver and is being given diamorphine and cyclizine continuously via the device. In the past 24 hours, she has become increasingly restless and agitated. Her family is present and asks if there is a medication that can alleviate her symptoms without causing excessive sedation.
What medication would you recommend to be administered via the syringe driver?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Restlessness and Agitation in Palliative Care
Restlessness and agitation are common symptoms in palliative care patients, and they can be distressing for both the patient and their caregivers. One option for managing these symptoms is through the use of a syringe driver, which delivers medication continuously over a 24-hour period. The three main medications used in this context are haloperidol, levomepromazine, and midazolam.
Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication that has minimal sedative properties and is effective in managing restlessness and confusion. Levomepromazine, on the other hand, is more sedating than haloperidol and may be more appropriate for patients who require greater sedation. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that has both sedative and antiepileptic effects and is often used in combination with an antipsychotic for very restless patients.
It is important to note that diazepam should not be used in a syringe driver as it can cause injection site reactions. Phenobarbital and propofol are also not typically used in this context and should only be considered under the guidance of a specialist palliative care physician and pharmacist. Propranolol is not administered via subcutaneous injection and is not typically used for managing restlessness and agitation.
In summary, haloperidol is the preferred medication for managing restlessness and agitation in palliative care patients via a syringe driver. The appropriate dose ranges from 5-15 mg over a 24-hour period. However, the choice of medication and dose should always be made in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents to you with complaints of vision problems in his right eye. He has been experiencing crooked edges on his door and occasional blurring of his vision. He has noticed that he tends to turn slightly while driving, but his peripheral vision remains unaffected. He denies any pain in his eye. Upon examination, his visual acuity is normal and his fundi appear unremarkable. However, when asked to look at a lined piece of paper, he reports seeing breaks in the lines. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:Understanding Eye Conditions: A Guide for General Practitioners
Ophthalmology is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s work, yet it is often under-taught. It is essential to be aware of diagnoses and to categorize routine and urgent eye conditions. This guide aims to provide a brief overview of some common eye conditions.
Age-related macular degeneration is a condition that can often be asymptomatic, and visual loss is usually mild. Patients may experience visual distortions, blurring of vision, and difficulty reading. There may also be a difference in size and color between both eyes.
Retinal vein occlusion causes sudden, painless unilateral visual loss. Primary closed-angle glaucoma and uveitis usually present with severe and progressive eye pain, along with blurred vision. Amaurosis fugax refers to transient retinal ischemia and symptoms include rapid onset of blindness developing over seconds, as if a curtain was drawn across the eye, and lasts seconds or minutes.
It is important for general practitioners to be familiar with these conditions and to refer patients to ophthalmologists when necessary. By understanding these eye conditions, general practitioners can provide better care for their patients and ensure that they receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A concerned mother of a toddler attends your clinic seeking advice on how to reduce the risk of accidents in her child.
Which of the following pieces of advice is supported by the best evidence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid soft mattresses
Explanation:Best Evidence for Reducing the Risk of SIDS
Cot death, also known as Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS), is a rare but devastating occurrence that affects approximately 1 in 1500 babies per year. It is more common in male infants and during the winter months. While there are several risk factors for SIDS, including multiple pregnancies, low birth weight, and lower social class, the best evidence suggests that avoiding prone sleeping is the most effective intervention.
Other interventions that have been suggested to reduce the risk of SIDS include using a dummy (pacifier) and ensuring a smoke-free environment. However, the evidence for these interventions is not as strong as the evidence for avoiding prone sleeping.
It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the risk factors for SIDS and to take steps to reduce the risk. By following the best available evidence, we can help to prevent this tragic and heartbreaking event from occurring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male with stable angina complains of muscle aches and pains. He has been on simvastatin 40 mg daily, atenolol 50 mg daily, and aspirin 75 mg daily for two years. He was recently hospitalized for acute coronary syndrome and additional therapies were added. His CPK concentration is 820 IU/L (50-200). What is the most probable cause of his statin-related myopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Omega-3 fatty acids
Explanation:Statin-Associated Myopathy and Drug Interactions
Statin-associated myopathy is a potential side effect that affects up to 5% of individuals taking statins. This condition can be exacerbated by the co-prescription of certain drugs, including calcium channel blockers, macrolide antibiotics, fibrates, amiodarone, and grapefruit juice. Even patients who tolerate statins well may experience myopathy or rhabdomyolysis when these agents are added to their treatment regimen.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential drug interactions and to monitor patients closely for signs of myopathy. Additionally, NICE guidance on Myocardial infarction: secondary prevention (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules to prevent another MI. By staying informed and following evidence-based guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and well-being of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding visual impairment is inaccurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patients registered GP needs to make an application to social services for blind registration
Explanation:To apply to social services, it is necessary for a consultant ophthalmologist to do so instead of a GP.
Visual impairment, specifically blindness, is characterized by having a vision of less than 3/60 in the better eye. In England, registration for this condition is not mandatory. However, individuals who are considered blind can avail of extra benefits such as a disabled parking badge, reduced television license fee, and talking books. To apply for these benefits, a consultant ophthalmologist must submit an application to social services.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old girl is referred to you by the health visitor after her mother noticed that she ‘looked yellow’. On examination, she is jaundiced, with dark urine and pale stools. Examination is otherwise normal. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy and birth, and the baby has had vitamin K.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Neonatal Jaundice: Differential Diagnosis
Biliary atresia is a congenital condition that causes obstructive jaundice due to the obliteration of the extrahepatic biliary system. It presents soon after birth with persistent jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine. Physiological jaundice, which appears after 2-3 days of age, is a different condition that doesn’t cause changes in stool and urine color. Gallstones and Rhesus incompatibility can also present with obstructive jaundice, but they are less likely. Vitamin K deficiency is not a likely cause of neonatal jaundice if the child has received vitamin K soon after birth. Any term infant who is still jaundiced after 14 days (or preterm infants after 21 days) should be investigated for the underlying cause of their jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 61
Incorrect
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Samantha is an 85-year-old with colorectal cancer receiving palliative care. She contacts the surgery seeking guidance on the DS1500 form. What benefits does this form provide for Samantha?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Entitlement to high rate of attendance allowance if prognosis less than 6 months and priority in processing application.
Explanation:If the patient’s prognosis is less than 6 months due to a terminal illness, she is entitled to apply for attendance allowance (AA) using the DS1500 form. Her application will be given priority and processed quickly under special provisions. Additionally, she will receive the benefit at the highest rate.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Which of the following side-effects is often overlooked in individuals undergoing ciclosporin treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Ciclosporin usage leads to an increase in various bodily functions such as fluid retention, blood pressure, potassium levels, hair growth, gum health, and glucose levels. Interestingly, hyperkalaemia is more commonly observed than hypokalaemia with the use of ciclosporin.
Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug
Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.
Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it doesn’t affect the bone marrow.
Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.
In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 63
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of switching to dabigatran to eliminate the requirement for regular INR testing.
What would be a contraindication to prescribing dabigatran in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mechanical heart valve
Explanation:Patients with mechanical heart valves should avoid using dabigatran due to its increased risk of bleeding and thrombotic events compared to warfarin. The MHRA has deemed it contraindicated for this population.
Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications
Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran doesn’t require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female presents with tender, erythematous nodules over her thighs. Blood tests reveal:
Calcium 2.78 mmol/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum
Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body, such as the forearms and thighs. Fortunately, erythema nodosum usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.
There are several potential causes of erythema nodosum. Infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis can trigger the condition. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s syndrome may also be responsible. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be linked to malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs, including penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also cause erythema nodosum.
Overall, understanding the potential causes of erythema nodosum can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment. While the condition can be uncomfortable, it typically resolves on its own within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking assistance in quitting alcohol after a prolonged period of heavy drinking. He reports experiencing moderate withdrawal symptoms in the past, but has never had seizures or delirium tremens. His wife is supportive and he is in good health. What is the most suitable medication to use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal program?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Medications for Alcohol Withdrawal: Types and Uses
Alcohol withdrawal can be a challenging process, and medications are often used to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some common medications used for alcohol withdrawal:
Chlordiazepoxide: This long-acting benzodiazepine is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in people with moderate alcohol dependence.
Lorazepam: For people with liver impairment, lorazepam is suggested as it requires limited liver metabolism. It is also used intravenously for alcohol withdrawal seizures.
Acamprosate: This medication is effective in preventing relapse in patients with alcohol dependence.
Clomethiazole: While licensed for use in acute alcohol withdrawal, benzodiazepines are preferred. Clomethiazole should only be used in an inpatient setting and not prescribed if the patient is likely to continue drinking alcohol.
Haloperidol: Antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be prescribed as adjunctive therapy to benzodiazepines for patients with marked agitation or hallucinations and those at risk of delirium tremens.
It is important to note that these medications should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and in conjunction with other forms of treatment, such as therapy and support groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A new mother delivered a baby with ambiguous genitalia. She mentioned that she and her spouse have a family history of sex hormone disorders, but neither of them have been impacted. What is the probable cause of hormone disorder in this case, considering the diagnosis of 5 alpha-reductase syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to convert testosterone to 5α-dihydrotestosterone
Explanation:Disorders of Sex Development: Common Conditions and Characteristics
Disorders of sex development refer to a group of conditions that affect the development of an individual’s reproductive system. The most common disorders are androgen insensitivity syndrome, 5-α reductase deficiency, male and female pseudohermaphroditism, and true hermaphroditism. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that results in end-organ resistance to testosterone, causing genotypically male children to have a female phenotype. 5-α reductase deficiency, on the other hand, is an autosomal recessive condition that results in the inability of males to convert testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, leading to ambiguous genitalia in the newborn period. Male and female pseudohermaphroditism are conditions where individuals have testes or ovaries but external genitalia are female or male, respectively. Finally, true hermaphroditism is a very rare condition where both ovarian and testicular tissue are present. Understanding the characteristics of these conditions is crucial in providing appropriate medical care and support for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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When is it suitable to give a pertussis vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To a child who is HIV positive
Explanation:Reasons to Withhold Vaccination
Vaccination is an important aspect of healthcare, but there are certain situations where it may be necessary to withhold it. For example, pertussis immunisation should not be given to individuals with a history of prolonged seizures and encephalopathy within seven days of the first vaccine. However, a history of convulsions or a family history of epilepsy doesn’t warrant withholding immunisation. It is important to seek specialist opinion if an individual has an evolving neurological condition or poorly controlled epilepsy.
In general, any vaccination should be postponed if an individual is suffering from a significant acute illness with fever or systemic upset. However, HIV-infected infants should still receive all appropriate killed vaccines according to the usual schedule. They should also receive polio, measles, mumps, and rubella vaccines, as the risk of these infections outweighs the risks of immunisation. The inactivated polio vaccine may be preferable in this case.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these reasons to withhold vaccination to avoid unnecessary missed opportunities for vaccination and to ensure the safety and effectiveness of immunisation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 68
Incorrect
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You receive a discharge summary for a middle-aged patient who was admitted with back pain and diagnosed with vertebral wedge fractures. The patient has been prescribed high dose vitamin D replacement due to a proven vitamin D deficiency found during the work-up for the fractures. What monitoring should be arranged?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium
Explanation:It is important to monitor calcium levels when starting vitamin D as it can reveal any underlying hyperparathyroidism and lead to hypercalcaemia. Therefore, patients with renal calculi, granulomatous disease, or bone metastases may not be suitable for vitamin D. The National Osteoporosis Society recommends checking serum calcium after one month. However, there is no need to regularly check vitamin D levels once replacement therapy has begun.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presented with bloody discolouration of his urine over the past few days, following a recent respiratory tract infection. Urine testing confirmed haematuria and proteinuria, which had also been noted on two previous occasions after respiratory tract infections. He was referred for renal opinion and a biopsy revealed a focal proliferative glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy is a common type of glomerulonephritis that is characterized by the presence of mesangial IgA deposits. This condition is often triggered by an abnormal immune response to viral or other antigens, resulting in the formation of macromolecular aggregates that accumulate in the glomerular mesangium. IgA nephropathy typically presents with macroscopic hematuria and may be associated with upper respiratory or other infections. It is more common in men and tends to affect children over 10 years of age and young adults. Treatment may involve high-dose prednisolone or immunosuppressive drugs, but some patients may eventually develop end-stage renal failure.
Goodpasture’s syndrome is an autoimmune disease that can cause diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage, glomerulonephritis, acute kidney injury, and chronic kidney disease. With aggressive treatment, the prognosis has improved, with a one-year survival rate of 70-90%.
Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that shares similarities with IgA nephropathy and may be a variant of the same disease. About 20% of patients with IgA nephropathy develop impaired renal function, and 5% develop end-stage renal failure.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults and may present as nephritic syndrome or hypertension. It is characterized by widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane and may be idiopathic or due to systemic lupus erythematosus, hepatitis B, malignancy, or the use of certain medications. About 30-50% of patients with membranous glomerulonephritis progress to end-stage kidney disease.
Minimal change nephropathy is responsible for most cases of nephrotic syndrome in children under 5 years of age and can also occur in adults. It is called minimal change because the only detectable abnormality is fusion and deformity of the foot processes under the electron microscope. Prognosis is generally good for the majority of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has appeared over the past few weeks in both axillae. The rash is itchy but not painful, and Sophie is otherwise healthy.
During the examination, you observe a lesion in both axillae that appears slightly red and glazed. Upon further examination, you discover another smaller lesion at the gluteal cleft. There are no joint abnormalities or nail changes.
Based on your observations, you suspect that Sophie has flexural psoriasis. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence a moderately potent topical steroid for 2 weeks
Explanation:Flexural psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes itchy lesions in areas such as the groin, genital area, axillae, and other folds of the body. In this case, the erythema is mild and the lesions are not extensive, indicating a mild case of flexural psoriasis. According to NICE guidelines, a short-term application of a mild- or moderately-potent topical corticosteroid preparation (once or twice daily) for up to two weeks is recommended. Therefore, starting a potent topical steroid or using a mildly potent topical steroid for four weeks is not appropriate.
To reduce scale and relieve itch, an emollient can be used. However, vitamin D analogues are not prescribed for flexural psoriasis in primary care. After four weeks, the patient should be reviewed. If there is a good initial response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids can be used to maintain disease control.
If treatment fails or the psoriasis is at least moderately severe, referral to a dermatologist should be arranged.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the appearance is atypical and so you want to send skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture.
Which of the following forms part of best practice with regards the sample?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient should be informed that microscopy and culture results should be available within 1-2 days
Explanation:Obtaining Skin Samples for Fungal Microscopy and Culture
To obtain skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture, it is recommended to scrape the skin from the advancing edge of the lesion(s) using a blunt scalpel blade. This area typically provides a higher yield of dermatophyte. It is important to obtain at least 5 mm2 of skin flakes, which should be placed into folded dark paper and secured with a paperclip. Alternatively, commercially available packs can be used.
The sample should be kept at room temperature as dermatophytes are inhibited at low temperatures. Microscopy results typically take 1-2 days, while culture results take 2-3 weeks. By following these steps, accurate and timely results can be obtained for the diagnosis and treatment of fungal infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer presents for review. He has heard he may be eligible for benefits to help with personal care. What is the most appropriate form to fill in?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DS1500
Explanation:The DS1500 form is completed for individuals with a life expectancy of less than 6 months, which enables them to receive benefit payments quickly. In this case, the patient’s attendance allowance application (not Personal Independence Payment since she is over 65 years old) should be expedited using the DS1500 form due to her poor prognosis. On the other hand, the SF300 form is utilized by those seeking a Community Care Grant.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss for the past three months. She has been on a gluten-free diet for the last four weeks and feels better. She wants to confirm if she has coeliac disease. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing
Explanation:Before undergoing testing, patients need to consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks. Failure to do so may result in negative results for serological tests and jejunal biopsy, especially if the patient is adhering to a gluten-free diet. To ensure accurate results, patients should consume gluten in multiple meals every day for at least 6 weeks before undergoing further testing.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.
To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.
In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with primary open angle glaucoma. He inquires about the potential impact on his vision if the condition is left untreated.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impairs peripheral visual fields
Explanation:The main impact of glaucoma is on the patient’s visual field, as it causes an optic neuropathy. This typically starts with peripheral vision loss and can progress to tunnel vision if left untreated. While visual acuity may also be affected, it is not as commonly impacted as the visual field.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris doesn’t cover the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals, with up to 10% of those over 80 years of age affected. Genetics, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, myopia, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and corticosteroid use are all risk factors for POAG. POAG may present with peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping, which can be detected during routine optometry appointments.
Fundoscopy signs of POAG include optic disc cupping, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, and cup notching. Optic disc cupping occurs when the cup-to-disc ratio is greater than 0.7, indicating a loss of disc substance. Optic disc pallor indicates optic atrophy, while bayonetting of vessels occurs when vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and reappear at the base. Cup notching usually occurs inferiorly where vessels enter the disc, and disc haemorrhages may also be present.
The diagnosis of POAG is made through a series of investigations, including automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy. If POAG is suspected, referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for further evaluation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about her risk for familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Her father and older brother have been diagnosed with the condition, and she previously declined testing but is now reconsidering. Her mother's side of the family has no history of illness. What is the probability that she has FAP? Select ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance Probability of Autosomal-Dominant Traits
Autosomal-dominant traits are genetic conditions that only require one affected gene to be inherited in order for the trait to be displayed. In the case of a patient whose father has Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP), a rare autosomal-dominant condition, there is a 50% chance that she has inherited the affected gene from her father. This is because her father has one affected gene and one unaffected gene, and there is an equal chance of either gene being passed down to his offspring.
It is important to note that there is no 100% chance of being affected by an autosomal-dominant condition unless the parent is homozygous, meaning they carry two affected genes and no unaffected genes. This is unlikely in the case of FAP.
On the other hand, a 25% chance of being affected is associated with autosomal-recessive conditions, but only if both parents are carriers of the affected gene. In the case of autosomal-dominant traits, there is always some risk of inheriting the condition if one parent is affected.
To determine a more specific probability of inheritance, a Punnett square can be used to calculate the possible outcomes. In the case of FAP, the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the affected gene from her father. Therefore, understanding the inheritance probability of autosomal-dominant traits is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on the condition to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing fatigue and has not had a regular period for the past 5 months. She previously had a consistent 28-day cycle. A pregnancy test is negative, her pelvic exam is normal, and routine blood work is ordered:
Complete blood count - normal
Electrolyte panel - normal
Thyroid function test - normal
Follicle-stimulating hormone - 40 iu/l ( < 35 iu/l)
Luteinizing hormone - 30 mIU/l (< 20 mIU/l)
Oestradiol - 75 pmol/l ( > 100 pmol/l)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premature ovarian failure
Explanation:Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flashes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, and elevated FSH and LH levels. Hormone replacement therapy or a combined oral contraceptive pill is recommended until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT doesn’t provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
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According to NICE guidance on the diagnosis of asthma in children, which of the following results constitute a positive THRESHOLD for diagnosing asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peak flow variability of less than 20%
Explanation:Diagnostic Thresholds for Asthma Tests
FeNO tests, which measure nitric oxide levels in breath, are used to detect lung inflammation and asthma. The positive test threshold for adults is 40 ppb, while for children and young people it is 35 ppb or more. Obstructive spirometry, which measures FEV1/FVC ratio, has a positive test threshold of less than 70% for all age groups. Peak flow variability, which measures the difference between the highest and lowest peak flow readings, has a positive test threshold of over 20% for all age groups. While a peak flow variability of 50% is indicative of asthma, a threshold of 20% is used for diagnosis. It is important to note that some GP practices may not have access to FeNO testing equipment, which is a relatively new development in asthma diagnosis. Familiarizing oneself with these diagnostic thresholds is crucial in the context of NICE guidance, as the RCGP may test changes to guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.
On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.
What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice
Explanation:Managing Gastroenteritis in Children
Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.
Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Can carbon monoxide poisoning cause pink skin and mucosae?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blue skin and mucosae
Explanation:Pink skin and mucosae are indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning.
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis comes to the clinic with abrupt onset of intense pleuritic chest pain. There is no record of hemoptysis. During the examination, he has a normal body temperature but an elevated respiratory rate and reports sharp chest pain with every inhalation. The pain is localized to the right side of his chest. Auscultation reveals breath sounds on both sides. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax
Explanation:Pneumothorax in Children with Cystic Fibrosis
Pneumothorax is a known complication of cystic fibrosis, and sudden onset of severe pleuritic chest pain is a common symptom. However, only large pneumothoraces give the classic reduced breath sounds and hyperresonant percussion note. Children with congenital lung disease like cystic fibrosis may develop small pneumothoraces, which can be difficult to diagnose due to airflow limitation.
If a child with cystic fibrosis presents with sudden onset of severe pleuritic chest pain, they should be referred to the hospital for a chest X-ray to confirm the diagnosis and assess the need for drainage. Pneumothoraces can also occur due to chest trauma or pneumonia infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has started to experience episodes of pallor in the distal parts of the middle three digits of her hands. A feeling of pain and numbness and cyanosis follows this. Finally, the digits become red and feel warm. This first occurred around six months ago.
Which of the following features is most suggestive that these symptoms occur secondary to an underlying disorder, rather than occurring in isolation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her age
Explanation:Characteristics of Primary Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition characterized by recurrent vasospasm of the fingers and toes, typically triggered by stress or cold exposure. Here are some key characteristics that can help distinguish primary Raynaud’s phenomenon from secondary disease:
Age of onset: Symptoms that develop before age 30 are more likely to be primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while later onset may suggest an underlying autoimmune disorder.
Gender: Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is more common in females than males.
Digital ulceration: Absence of digital ulceration is more likely to indicate primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while secondary disease is associated with more severe symptoms.
Antinuclear antibody: The presence of an antinuclear antibody may suggest an underlying condition, while its absence is more associated with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Symmetry: Symmetrical involvement of digits is more indicative of primary Raynaud’s phenomenon and the absence of an underlying disorder.
By considering these characteristics, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage patients with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet which feel as though he is walking on pebbles. He has been generally very well and the only thing that he can recall was that he returned from holiday in Corfu about 3 weeks ago and had a diarrhoeal illness whilst there.
He takes no medication but admits to taking ecstasy infrequently.
On examination he has some painful limitation of movement at the sacroiliac joints and has painful soreness over the soles of the feet on deep palpation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Sacroiliitis and Plantar Fasciitis
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which connects the spine to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain in the heel and arch of the foot.
After experiencing a diarrhoeal illness, the most likely diagnosis for these conditions is reactive arthritis. This is a type of arthritis that occurs as a reaction to an infection in another part of the body, such as the gut. It can cause joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, as well as other symptoms like fever and fatigue.
It is important to note that reactive arthritis is less likely to be associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) in this case, as the individual only experienced one acute episode of diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to a neurology clinic after experiencing a sudden episode of falling to the ground and becoming unresponsive. She describes becoming stiff and blue before shaking for approximately two minutes, followed by drowsiness for 30 minutes. She has no significant medical history and both an MRI and EEG were normal. What recommendations should be made regarding her ability to drive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop driving for 6 months and inform the DVLA
Explanation:After experiencing a first unprovoked or isolated seizure with normal brain imaging and EEG, patients are not allowed to drive for a period of 6 months. It is their responsibility to inform the DVLA and they may reapply for a license after the 6-month period if no further seizures occur. The incorrect options include stopping driving for one year and informing the DVLA, stopping driving until established on anti-epileptic medication, and stopping driving for 6 months and informing the DVLA only in the event of any further seizures.
The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.
For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) on routine review. The physician notes that there are no visual symptoms or headaches and on examination, there are no visual field defects demonstrated. The optic disc appears normal and specifically, there is no cupping or pallor.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient in primary care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to ophthalmology
Explanation:Management of Raised Intraocular Pressure
Raised intraocular pressure (IOP) is a common finding in adults over 40 years of age, with up to 2% having an IOP > 21 mmHg without signs of glaucoma. While chronic glaucoma is usually asymptomatic, it can cause deterioration in visual fields and peripheral sensitivity, leading to tunnel vision. Patients with raised IOP require lifelong follow-up and should be referred to an ophthalmologist.
In cases of acute angle closure glaucoma, patients may experience pain and nausea due to a rapid increase in IOP. This condition requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent permanent visual loss. However, if the patient is asymptomatic and there are no signs of acute angle closure glaucoma, reassurance may be provided.
Treatment of glaucoma and intraocular hypertension is typically initiated and monitored by specialists. Topical latanoprost and timolol are commonly prescribed medications for glaucoma management. However, these medications should only be prescribed by specialists in secondary care.
In summary, patients with raised IOP require lifelong follow-up and referral to an ophthalmologist. Acute angle closure glaucoma requires urgent ophthalmology review, while chronic glaucoma is usually asymptomatic and requires specialist management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been discharged from hospital after having her tonsils removed.
Which of the following is typical after a tonsillectomy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Halitosis and ear pain temporarily
Explanation:Misconceptions about Tonsillectomy Recovery
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, there are several misconceptions about the recovery process that patients should be aware of.
Firstly, some patients may experience ear pain and halitosis after the surgery. This is due to referred pain from the tonsils and infection of the raw tissue areas, respectively.
Secondly, coughing up small amounts of blood ten days postoperatively is not normal and should be referred to secondary care for possible admission. Secondary bleeds are most common after about 5-10 days, and minor bleeding may be a precursor of a major bleed.
Thirdly, removal of the tonsils doesn’t guarantee a complete cessation of throat infections. Patients may still experience laryngitis or pharyngitis.
Fourthly, a temporary rise in the pitch of the voice is common after tonsillectomy due to swelling in the oropharynx. However, a permanent change in voice is not expected.
Lastly, it is normal to have moderate-to-severe discomfort for up to two weeks after the surgery, including pain while swallowing and pain in the throat. Adequate analgesia is needed, and children may become dehydrated if they do not take in adequate liquids after the surgery.
In conclusion, understanding the misconceptions about tonsillectomy recovery can help patients better prepare for the surgery and manage their expectations during the healing process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of difficulty in sustaining an erection. He had a heart attack 3 years ago and has been experiencing depression since then. Additionally, he has a history of uncontrolled hypertension. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is often caused by beta-blockers like bisoprolol, which are commonly prescribed to patients who have had a previous myocardial infarction (MI). While amlodipine can also cause ED, it is less common than bisoprolol. Isosorbide mononitrate doesn’t typically cause ED, but patients taking it should avoid taking sildenafil at the same time due to the risk of hypotension. Mirtazapine is a less common cause of sexual dysfunction, and sertraline is generally the preferred antidepressant for post-MI patients.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man has undergone some blood tests and X-rays for bilateral hand pain. He reports he is in good health and takes regular vitamin and mineral supplements. He is taking lisinopril 10 mg for hypertension and his blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. The only blood test abnormality is a serum calcium concentration of 2.96 mmol/l (2.25–2.5 mmol/l) and hand X-ray demonstrates subperiosteal bone resorption in the majority of his phalanges.
What is the single most likely cause of the hypercalcaemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia, an abnormally high level of calcium in the blood, can have various causes. One of the most common is hyperparathyroidism, which results from overactivity of the parathyroid gland. Primary hyperparathyroidism is usually due to a benign adenoma, while secondary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism can occur in the context of renal failure or transplant. The hallmark radiological feature of hyperparathyroidism is subperiosteal bone resorption, which can be seen in the phalanges.
High dietary vitamin D intake is unlikely to cause hypercalcaemia, as most vitamin D is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to sunlight. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor treatment may lead to hyperkalaemia, but not hypercalcaemia. High dietary calcium intake is also unlikely to be a significant factor, as the body has mechanisms to regulate calcium absorption and excretion. However, iatrogenic hypercalcaemia can occur from excessive calcium and vitamin D supplementation.
Malignancy is another important cause of hypercalcaemia, especially in breast, lung, renal, and multiple myeloma. Therefore, occult malignancy should always be considered in the differential diagnosis of hypercalcaemia. However, in the case of subperiosteal bone resorption, hyperparathyroidism is more likely, and further investigation such as parathyroid hormone measurement and imaging studies may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 14 week old bottle fed baby is brought in by Mum due to concerns of unsettled behavior after feeds, vomiting, loose stools, and perianal redness. The baby has mild to moderate infantile eczema, but otherwise, the examination is normal. The baby's growth is following the 50th centile. Mum suspects Cow's milk protein allergy. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula
Explanation:If there is a suspicion of cow’s milk protein allergy mediated by IgE, it is recommended to refer the child to secondary care for skin prick or IgE specific antigen blood testing. However, non-IgE mediated cow’s milk protein allergy can be managed in primary care. To begin with, a trial of cow’s milk exclusion for 2-4 weeks should be attempted. In the case of exclusively breastfed babies, the mother should exclude cow’s milk from her diet. For bottle-fed babies, the first line of treatment is a trial of extensively hydrolysed formula.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensively hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. Her General Practitioner visits her at home. Until her diagnosis five years ago, she had no significant medical history. She is known to have liver metastases and is quite breathless. Her oxygen saturations are 92% in air, and her respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. She is alert, but very frail.
Which of the following treatments is most likely to be of benefit for this patient’s dyspnoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Managing Dyspnoea in Terminally Ill Patients: Treatment Options
Dyspnoea is a common symptom in terminally ill patients and can significantly impact their quality of life. When managing dyspnoea, it is important to identify and treat any reversible causes, such as cardiac failure or pneumonia. However, in cases where the cause cannot be reversed, there are several treatment options available.
One such option is the use of opioids, such as morphine, which can reduce breathlessness at rest and in the end-of-life phase. A therapeutic trial should be given, and the patient should be monitored for response and side-effects. If morphine is not tolerated, alternative opioids can be used.
Dexamethasone is another option, particularly in cases of lymphangitis carcinomatosis and superior vena cava airway obstruction. It reduces inflammatory oedema and can also be used post-radiotherapy.
Furosemide is not likely to be of benefit unless there is evidence of cardiac failure.
Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, may relieve anxiety and panic associated with severe breathlessness, but it is less effective than opioids and should be considered a second-line treatment.
Finally, if oxygen saturations are below 92%, a trial of oxygen can be considered for symptom relief. However, it is important to note that there may be a poor relationship between hypoxaemia, dyspnoea, and response to oxygen.
In conclusion, managing dyspnoea in terminally ill patients requires a multi-faceted approach, including identifying and treating reversible causes and utilizing appropriate medications for symptom relief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 91
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman has short history of bone pain. Serum biochemistry reveals plasma calcium concentration 2.08 mmol/l, phosphate 0.70 mmol/l, alkaline phosphatase activity twice the upper limit of what is normal. The concentration of parathyroid hormone is elevated.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes and Diagnosis
Osteomalacia is a condition that is often caused by a lack or impaired metabolism of vitamin D. This can lead to hypocalcaemia, although it may not be immediately noticeable due to increased parathyroid hormone secretion, which can also increase renal phosphate excretion. As a result, alkaline phosphatase levels may be elevated due to increased osteoblastic activity. To diagnose osteomalacia, it is important to measure vitamin D levels and supplement when low levels are confirmed.
Other conditions may present with similar symptoms, but can be ruled out based on specific markers. Osteolytic metastases, for example, may also cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but calcium concentrations are typically normal or elevated. Osteoporosis may also cause elevated calcium levels, but bone markers are typically normal in uncomplicated cases. Renal osteodystrophy, on the other hand, is characterized by increased plasma phosphate concentration due to underlying kidney disease. Primary hyperparathyroidism may also cause hypophosphataemia, but plasma calcium concentration is usually elevated, unless there is concomitant vitamin D deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old car driver seeks guidance. He's an insulin-dependent diabetic who frequently drives long distances. He monitors his blood sugars regularly while driving but needs advice on when to take action. In the absence of hypoglycemia symptoms, what is the minimum blood glucose level for safe driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 mmol/litre
Explanation:DVLA Guidance for Drivers with Diabetes
The DVLA provides guidance for drivers with diabetes, which is summarized by the BNF. For insulin-treated drivers, it is recommended to check blood glucose levels every two hours while driving. If the blood glucose level is 5 mmol/litre or less, a snack should be taken. However, if the level is less than 4 mmol/litre, driving should be stopped. After the blood sugar level has returned to normal, drivers should wait at least 45 minutes before driving again. It is crucial for insulin-treated drivers to carry a supply of fast-acting carbohydrate with them at all times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Parents of a 7-year-old boy present concerned that their son may be carrying the gene for Huntington's disease.
The father was diagnosed with the disease at age 32. The mother has been genetically screened and is not a carrier of the gene.
What is the probability of their son developing Huntington's disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:Understanding the Genetics of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease (HD) is a degenerative neurological disease that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that only one copy of the faulty gene is required for an individual to develop the disease. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother with no copies of the gene, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the faulty gene and develop the disease.
Symptoms of HD typically appear in early middle age and include unsteady gait, involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and progressive dementia. The defective gene responsible for HD is located on chromosome 4, and a phenomenon known as genetic anticipation can occur, where the disease develops earlier in life in subsequent generations.
Fortunately, genetic screening is now available to identify individuals who carry the faulty gene. This can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and allow for early intervention and treatment. Understanding the genetics of HD is crucial in managing the disease and providing support for affected individuals and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 94
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about microalbuminuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual screen for microalbuminuria is indicated in patients with diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Understanding Microalbuminuria in Diabetes: Screening, Diagnosis, and Management
Microalbuminuria is a condition characterized by the excretion of 30-300 mg of albumin per 24 hours in urine. While it is commonly associated with diabetes mellitus, it can also be found in patients with hypertension, renal tract disease, kidney disease, and multisystem diseases. Annual screening for microalbuminuria is recommended in diabetic patients to detect early signs of diabetic kidney disease and initiate aggressive management of risk factors.
Diagnosis of microalbuminuria is typically made through an early-morning urinary albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) test, which offers greater sensitivity and convenience compared to a 24-hour urine collection. While microalbuminuria may be present at the time of diagnosis in type 2 diabetes, it is not common in type 1 diabetes.
Contrary to popular belief, microalbuminuria is not irreversible. Early diagnosis, good diabetic control, and management of hypertension and other risk factors can lead to improvement. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors should be prescribed for all diabetic patients, regardless of hypertension status, to slow the progression of the disease. Blood pressure should also be reduced to below 130/80 mmHg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presents with intermittent chest pain which tends to occur when out walking. He describes the pain as radiating to his neck, jaw, and left arm. He feels dizzy and short of breath. The symptoms tend to last for around five minutes after he stops walking and then resolve.
What feature is most indicative of angina in a patient complaining of chest pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radiation to the throat and jaw
Explanation:Understanding Angina Symptoms: What to Look Out For
Angina is a type of chest pain that occurs when the heart muscle doesn’t receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Here are some common symptoms associated with angina:
Radiation to the throat and jaw: Chest pain that radiates to the throat and jaw is typical of angina.
Prolonged pain: Anginal pain is typically exertional and quickly relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate (GTN spray) within around five minutes. It is not typically prolonged.
Associated dizziness: Pain associated with palpitations or dizziness is less likely to be angina than other attributable causes.
Associated shortness of breath: Shortness of breath can occur in both cardiac and pulmonary causes of chest pain and so is not specific to angina.
Pain associated with taking a breath in: Pain associated with breathing is likely to be associated with pulmonary or musculoskeletal causes of chest pain, rather than angina.
It’s important to note that these symptoms can also be indicative of other health issues, so it’s always best to consult with a healthcare professional if you experience any chest pain or discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient with a known HIV infection. What is the likelihood of the phlebotomist contracting HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.30%
Explanation:Compared to hepatitis B and C, the transmission rate of HIV is relatively low.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A client visits the clinic seeking a 'sick note'. When should you provide a Statement of Fitness for Work?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After they have been off work for more than 7 calendar days
Explanation:Patients have the ability to self-certify for a maximum of 7 consecutive days.
Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work
The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.
Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.
The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.
There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.
It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A depressed, 35-year-old woman presents with confusion, pinpoint pupils and bradycardia.
She has been found in a distressed state at the home of her terminally ill mother where she has access to a number of different analgesics. You suspect an overdose.
Which one of the following is most likely?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Opiate
Explanation:Symptoms of Opiate Overdose
An opiate overdose can lead to confusion, coma, pinpoint pupils, and bradycardia. Other symptoms may include hypotension, hypothermia, and respiratory arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. Despite being on ramipril 10 mg od, amlodipine 10 mg od, and indapamide 2.5mg od, his latest blood pressure reading is 168/98 mmHg. He also takes aspirin 75 mg od and metformin 1g bd for type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has a BMI of 34 kg/m², smokes 10 cigarettes/day, and drinks approximately 20 units of alcohol per week. His most recent HbA1c level is 66 mmol/mol (DCCT - 8.2%). What is the most probable cause of his persistent hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: His raised body mass index
Explanation:A significant proportion of individuals with resistant hypertension have an underlying secondary cause, such as Conn’s syndrome.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is being examined after experiencing excessive bleeding post a tooth extraction. The test results are as follows:
Platelet count: 173 * 109/l
Prothrombin time (PT): 12.9 seconds
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 84 seconds
Based on these results, which clotting factor deficiency is the most probable cause of his bleeding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor VIII
Explanation:Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.
The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.
Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 20-year-old man with cystic fibrosis.
What is the appropriate mode of inheritance for this disorder? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance Pattern of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. To understand the likelihood of inheriting cystic fibrosis, it is important to know its mode of inheritance. Cystic fibrosis follows an autosomal-recessive pattern, which means that a person needs to inherit two affected genes to display the traits. If a person has one affected and one unaffected gene, they are a carrier and do not show the cystic fibrosis phenotype. It is not an X-linked dominant or recessive condition, and it is not caused by a chromosomal abnormality. Knowing the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis can help individuals and families make informed decisions about genetic testing and family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is found to have an eGFR of 65 ml/min/1.73 m2 on routine testing. This is the first time this test has been done.
Select from the list the single correct statement about his management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: His eGFR should be repeated in 2 weeks
Explanation:This man is likely to have stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD). If an initial abnormal eGFR result is detected, it is important to conduct clinical assessment and repeat the test within 2 weeks to evaluate the rate of change in GFR. If CKD is confirmed, at least three eGFR assessments should be made over a period of not less than 90 days to monitor the rate of change in GFR. The frequency of eGFR monitoring will depend on the severity of kidney impairment. Significant progression of CKD is defined as a decline in eGFR of > 5 ml/min/1.73 m² within 1 year or >10 ml/min/1.73 m² within 5 years.
Proteinuria should be assessed by measuring the protein:creatinine or albumin:creatinine ratio, ideally on an early-morning urine specimen. Proteinuria (ACR ≥30 mg/mmol) together with haematuria may indicate glomerulonephritis and is an indication for referral. However, dipstick testing for haematuria is a screening tool that requires microscopy to make a definitive diagnosis. Haematuria is defined as >3 RBC/high power field of centrifuged sediment under the microscope. If there is only a trace, a sample needs to be sent to confirm haematuria. Patients with CKD should have their proteinuria level assessed at least annually.
To manage CKD, systolic blood pressure should be lowered to <140 mm Hg (target range 120-139 mmHg) and diastolic blood pressure to <90 mm Hg. Atorvastatin 20 mg should be offered for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD to people with CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old lady presents to your clinic seeking advice on managing her menopausal symptoms. She reports her last period occurred 12 months ago and is experiencing bothersome hot flashes and vaginal dryness. She has no significant medical or surgical history and is interested in trying hormone replacement therapy (HRT) after a thorough discussion of the risks and benefits.
After counseling, there are no contraindications to hormonal treatment, and she is eager to start a suitable regimen.
What is the most appropriate HRT prescription for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continuous combined HRT
Explanation:Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) Options for Women
Women who have had a hysterectomy can use unopposed oestrogens, but those with a uterus must use regimens with both oestrogen and progestogen to avoid the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and potential malignant transformation. Postmenopausal women can use combined continuous regimens, while those still having periods can use cyclical HRT. Urogenital symptoms can be treated with topical oestrogens or non-hormonal vaginal moisturisers. Low dose combined pills may be an option for under 50s, but careful patient selection is necessary due to contraindications and cautions. It is important to discuss the risks and benefits of each option with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 104
Incorrect
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An active 58-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has a history of asthma and atrial fibrillation (AF) and has been assessed by her Cardiologist, who has diagnosed her with permanent AF. The Cardiologist recommends rate control. Her resting heart rate is 120 bpm.
Which of the following is the correct statement about rate control in these circumstances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil can be used for first-line rate control in asthmatic patients with AF
Explanation:Managing Atrial Fibrillation: Choosing the Right Medication
Patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) are at risk of stroke and require proper management. The initial approach to managing AF involves either rhythm or rate control, depending on the patient’s age, comorbidity, and the duration of AF.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, rate-limiting calcium antagonists or β-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment for many patients requiring rate-control medication. However, β-blockers are contraindicated in patients with asthma.
Rate-limiting calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem are alternative options. Digoxin is only recommended for very sedentary patients as a first-line medication, as it doesn’t control heart rate during exertion. However, it can be used in combination with a first-line drug if rate control is poor. The target for rate control should be a resting heart rate of less than 110 bpm, and lower if the patient remains symptomatic.
Choosing the right medication for managing AF is crucial in reducing the risk of stroke and improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of nausea, headache and difficulty sleeping over the past few days. She has been experiencing moderate symptoms of depression without any suicidal ideation. She is employed as a nurse and resides with her husband and 12-year-old daughter who are supportive. She doesn't consume alcohol. She commenced taking sertraline 50 mg daily five days ago but has not observed any improvement in her mood.
What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue sertraline at 50 mg daily
Explanation:Treatment Options for Depression: Sertraline and Alternatives
When treating depression with sertraline, it is important to understand the common side-effects, which include headache, insomnia, nausea, and diarrhea. These side-effects are usually mild and resolve within three weeks. Improvement in mood is expected 4-6 weeks after starting medication, so not noticing improvement after one week is normal. It is recommended to continue sertraline at the current dose and review in 3-5 weeks, increasing the dose if there has been a partial improvement or considering changing to an alternative antidepressant if there has been no improvement.
If there has been no improvement after 4-6 weeks, switching to an alternative SSRI, such as citalopram, may be indicated. If two SSRIs have failed to achieve a good response, or if there are contraindications for SSRIs, a selective noradrenaline-reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), such as venlafaxine, may be an option. However, it should not be prescribed concomitantly with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor due to the risk of serotonin syndrome.
It is important to counsel the patient about the possibility of increased anxiety, worsening mood, and suicidality in the first two weeks and to instigate an early review after 1-2 weeks if aged under 30 years or at high risk of suicide. Discontinuation of sertraline is not recommended as side-effects are normal and should improve in time. Increasing the dose should not be done more frequently than weekly and would more commonly be increased after 4-6 weeks if there has been a partial response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who is concerned that she has another episode of tonsillitis. A locum sent a throat swab 3 days earlier, which is reported as showing a Group A streptococcus.
Select the single most appropriate management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 days penicillin V
Explanation:Throat Swabs and Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat
Throat swabs are not always reliable in differentiating between infection and carriage, and their results take up to 48 hours to be reported. However, they may be useful in high-risk groups to guide treatment choices in case of treatment failure. Symptomatic treatment and a delayed prescription may be reasonable options for sore throat, but after three days, a prescription for antibiotics may be necessary. Penicillin V is the recommended antibiotic for a 10-day course, while erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given for 5 days if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s condition and risk factors is necessary in determining the appropriate treatment for sore throat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for a lesion on his forearm. The lesion began as a small red bump and has since progressed into a deep, red, necrotic ulcer with a violaceous border. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristics
Shin lesions can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is commonly caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum starts as a small red papule and later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases but may also be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
Understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristics of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man has round erythematous scaly plaques on his limbs. Select from the list the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of discoid eczema rather than psoriasis.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Marked pruritus
Explanation:Comparison of Discoid Eczema and Psoriasis
Discoid eczema is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped plaques that are well-defined and often occur on the extremities, especially the legs. Lesions may also appear on the arms, trunk, hands, or feet, but not on the face or scalp. The plaques are intensely itchy and may clear in the center, resembling tinea corporis. An exudative form of the condition also exists, which is vesiculated.
On the other hand, psoriasis is a skin condition that often affects the extensor surfaces, particularly at the elbows and knees. The scalp is also commonly involved. The scale is thick and silvery, and there may be nail changes, such as pitting. Itching may occur, but it is less severe than in discoid eczema.
In summary, while both conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as itching and skin lesions, they have distinct differences in terms of their location, appearance, and severity of itching. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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