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Question 1
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 40-year-old woman who is curious about her eligibility for universal credit. She used to work as a teacher but has been unemployed for the past year.
What is the maximum amount of savings she can have and still qualify for universal credit?Your Answer: £24,000
Correct Answer: £16,000
Explanation:To be eligible for universal credit, your savings must not exceed £16,000.
Understanding Universal Credit: Benefits, Eligibility, and Controversies
Universal Credit is a new benefit system in the UK that aims to simplify the welfare system by combining six benefits into one payment. It is designed to help people meet the cost of living and encourage them to work. To be eligible for Universal Credit, a person and their partner must live in the UK, be 18 years old or over, earn a low income or be out of work, have less than £16,000 in savings, and be below the age of receiving the state pension.
The amount of money a person receives from Universal Credit depends on their circumstances. It includes a standard allowance and extra payments for up to two children, disability, or housing costs. However, there is a benefit cap that limits the total amount one can receive. The payment reduces as people earn money, but they have a work allowance of how much they can earn before their payment is decreased.
Universal Credit is supposed to help people learn to budget their money and prepare them for having a job. It also allows people to work and still receive support through a ‘work allowance.’ Applying for Universal Credit is done online, which cuts down the cost of managing benefits to the government.
Despite its supposed benefits, Universal Credit is controversial. Some people take issue with the fact that people have to wait five weeks to receive their first payment and then struggle due to only receiving payments every month. Childcare must be paid by parents upfront and is then refunded by Universal Credit. Many disabled people and households receive less than they did with the old benefits system. Universal Credit will only pay for the first two children for children born after April 2017, whereas the old benefits paid benefits for each child per year. Private tenants find it harder to rent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During her booking appointment, her blood pressure was 112/78 mmHg, but today it has increased to 146/94 mmHg. Upon testing her urine, the results are as follows:
Protein negative
Leukocytes negative
Blood negative
What is the most suitable diagnosis for her current state?Your Answer: Gestational hypertension
Explanation:Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.
After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.
Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has been ongoing for 4 months. She reports a dull ache in both breasts that occurs 1-2 weeks before her period. She has no other medical issues and is not sexually active.
Upon examination, there are no palpable breast lumps or skin changes.
What is the next best course of action in managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Advice on a supportive bra and simple analgesia
Explanation:The initial treatment for cyclical mastalgia is a supportive bra and basic pain relief.
Cyclical breast pain is a common condition that affects up to two-thirds of women, typically beginning two weeks before their menstrual cycle. Breast pain, in the absence of other breast cancer symptoms such as a lump or changes in the nipple or skin, is not linked to breast cancer. Referral to a breast specialist may be considered if the pain is severe enough to impact quality of life or sleep and doesn’t respond to first-line treatment after three months, but there is no need for referral in this case.
Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of cyclical breast pain, as there is no evidence to support their use.
According to current NICE CKS guidelines, the combined oral contraceptive pill or progesterone-only pill should not be used to treat cyclical breast pain, as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness compared to a placebo.
The first-line approach to managing cyclical breast pain involves advising patients to wear a supportive bra and take basic pain relief. This is based on expert consensus, which suggests that most cases of cyclical breast pain can be managed conservatively with a watchful-waiting approach, as long as malignancy has been ruled out as a cause.
Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic for a follow-up on her heart failure management. She is currently on lisinopril 20 mg and carvedilol 25 mg BD. Her main symptoms include shortness of breath on minimal exercise and occasional episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. During the examination, her BP is 136/74, her pulse is 80 and regular. There are bibasal crackles but no other significant findings. The test results show a haemoglobin level of 128 g/L (115-165), white cells count of 7.9 ×109/L (4-11), platelets count of 201 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine level of 149 μmol/L (79-118), and an ejection fraction of 38% on echocardiogram. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Reduce her carvedilol
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone to her regime
Explanation:Treatment Guidelines for Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure can be managed with a combination of medications, including beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. However, if heart failure control is not optimised on this dual therapy, NICE guidelines (NG106) recommend adding an ARB or aldosterone antagonist. For patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors or ARBs, nitrate and hydralazine can be used earlier in the treatment pathway.
It is important to note that routine referral for revascularisation is not recommended in patients without symptoms of angina. Additionally, cardiac resynchronisation therapy should not be recommended until the patient’s therapy is further optimised. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl has bowed legs, thick wrists and dental caries. Her weight (12 kg) and height (85 cm) are now below the 3rd centile for her age. She has failure to thrive. She is still predominantly breastfed. No problems were reported during the antenatal period, at delivery or at the postnatal stage.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rickets
Explanation:Pediatric Orthopedic Conditions: Rickets, Blount’s Disease, Child Abuse, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Physiological Genu Varum
Rickets, a condition characterized by bony abnormalities such as bowed legs and knock-knees, was once prevalent in the Western world but has since been largely eradicated through vitamin D fortification. However, it still affects some children, particularly those who are black or breastfed. Blood testing can reveal low levels of vitamin D and hypocalcaemia, while X-rays may show cupping, splaying, and fraying of the metaphysis. Blount’s disease, which causes bowed legs due to tibial growth plate disorders, can be difficult to distinguish from physiological genu varum in children under two years old. Child abuse allegations may arise when infants with rickets suffer bone fractures. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis, an autoimmune inflammatory joint disease, is the most common form of arthritis in children and adolescents. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these pediatric orthopedic conditions and to properly diagnose and treat them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is currently waiting for the results of his recent HIV test. The test has a specificity of 99.6%. What can be said about this test?
Your Answer: 99.6% of patients without HIV are tested negative
Explanation:The sensitivity of 99.6 suggests that almost all patients with HIV are tested positive.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 7
Correct
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A 48-year-old patient has had two borderline smears done abroad. The last one was six months prior to your appointment today.
On the last smear she had they also did an HPV test and found the presence of HPV 18.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:Importance of HPV Testing in Cervical Cancer Screening
The presence of high-risk HPV strains, such as 16 and 18, increases the likelihood of malignant changes in the cervical transmission zone. Therefore, a borderline change in this area is significant and should prompt a referral for colposcopy. In the past, before HPV testing was available, the advice would have been to repeat the smear test in six months. However, repeating the smear test after five years, as recommended for women over 50 in England, doesn’t take into account the abnormal result. It is important to understand that there is no antiviral treatment for HPV, so the use of aciclovir would be inappropriate. Currently, vaccination for HPV is only given to 12-13-year-old girls. Regular cervical cancer screening, including HPV testing, is crucial for early detection and prevention of cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient who has been under your care for four years contacts you over the phone, requesting antibiotics for a suspected UTI. She complains of dysuria and frequency for the past two days and had a confirmed UTI with the same symptoms last year. As per GMC guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibiotics can be prescribed, with normal safeguards and advice
Explanation:GMC Guidelines for Prescribing and Managing Medicines and Devices
Prescribing and managing medicines and devices is a crucial aspect of a doctor’s role. The General Medical Council (GMC) has published guidelines for good practice in prescribing medicines, which were last updated in 2008. The principles of prescribing include only prescribing drugs to meet the identified needs of patients and avoiding treating oneself or those close to them. Doctors with full registration may prescribe all medicines except those in Schedule 1 of the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001.
To ensure that doctors prescribe in patients’ best interests, the guidelines recommend keeping up to date with the British National Formulary (BNF), National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), and Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN). Doctors should also report adverse reactions to medicines to the Committee on the Safety of Medicines through the Yellow Card Scheme. If a nurse or other healthcare professional without prescribing rights recommends a treatment, the doctor must ensure that the prescription is appropriate for the patient and that the professional is competent to have recommended it.
The guidelines also address doctors’ interests in pharmacies, emphasizing the importance of ensuring that patients have access to information about any financial or commercial interests the doctor or their employer may have in a pharmacy. When it comes to prescribing controlled drugs for oneself or someone close, doctors should avoid doing so whenever possible and should be registered with a GP outside their family. If no other person with the legal right to prescribe is available, doctors may prescribe a controlled drug only if it is immediately necessary to save a life, avoid serious deterioration in the patient’s health, or alleviate otherwise uncontrollable pain.
Finally, the guidelines provide recommendations for remote prescribing via telephone, email, fax, video link, or a website. While this is supported, doctors must give an explanation of the processes involved in remote consultations and provide their name and GMC number to the patient if they are not providing continuing care. By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that they prescribe and manage medicines and devices in the best interests of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Sophie, a 25-year-old female, attends the GP surgery on a Wednesday afternoon at 14:00 after having had an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse the preceding Saturday night at 23:00. She is not currently using any contraception.
Her last menstrual period was 12 days prior to the episode and she has not had any previous episodes of unprotected sexual intercourse. She has a regular period every 30 days. She has never been pregnant. Her PMH includes Migraines and Eczema. DH - sumatriptan prn, emollients. She has no known drug allergies. She is requesting emergency contraception and wishes to have ongoing contraception.
Which is the single most appropriate management from the options below?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be offered ellaone (ulipristal acetate) and quick started on the combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Emergency Contraception for Naomi
Naomi has presented more than 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI), making Levonelle ineffective. Additionally, she is taking a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) which can reduce the effectiveness of ulipristal acetate. Therefore, the most appropriate management for her is the emergency intrauterine device (IUD), which is the most effective emergency contraceptive and provides ongoing contraceptive cover. It is important to note that progesterone-containing contraception should be delayed until after 5/7 after ellaone (ulipristal acetate) to reduce the risk of it being less effective as an emergency contraceptive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The brother of a 35-year-old woman visits your clinic with concerns about his sister's behavior. He reports that his sister has always had an inflated sense of self-importance and often expresses delusional thoughts about her potential for success as a lawyer, believing she is capable of becoming a partner at a top law firm. She doesn't seem to care about the impact her actions have on others and appears pleased when she talks about others' failures. He recalls that she behaved similarly when they were growing up and was unsympathetic towards him when he struggled with his studies due to a learning disability.
Which personality disorder is being described in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with narcissistic personalities exhibit a lack of empathy, a sense of entitlement, and exploit others to fulfill their own needs. This behavior is indicative of narcissistic personality disorder. While the individual’s brother may not meet the criteria for a personality disorder, his behavior aligns with many of the features of narcissistic behavior. Narcissistic individuals have an inflated sense of self-importance and believe they possess unlimited abilities to succeed, become powerful, or appear attractive. They lack empathy and are willing to take advantage of others to achieve their own goals. These symptoms often manifest in childhood and persist into adulthood.
Antisocial personality disorder also involves a lack of empathy and guilt, as well as deceitful behavior to achieve personal goals. However, individuals with this disorder often disregard rules and laws, leading to criminal behavior and a propensity for violence. Therefore, the individual in the scenario is more likely to have narcissistic personality disorder.
Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a disinterest in sexual relationships, a preference for solitude, and a lack of close friendships. These individuals are indifferent to praise and recognition, making it an unlikely diagnosis for the individual’s brother.
Schizotypal personality disorder involves eccentric beliefs and behaviors, difficulty forming friendships, and paranoid or suspicious thoughts. This disorder doesn’t typically involve a lack of empathy or a sense of entitlement.
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, feelings of emptiness, and recurrent self-harm attempts.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A father brings his 15-month-old daughter into surgery. Since yesterday she seems to be straining whilst passing stools. He describes her screaming, appearing to be in pain and pulling her knees up towards her chest. These episodes are now occurring every 15-20 minutes. This morning he noted a small amount of blood in her nappy. She is taking around 50% of her normal feeds and vomiting 'green fluid' every hour. On examination, she appears irritable and lethargic but is well hydrated and apyrexial. On examination, her abdomen seems distended but no discrete mass is found.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Understanding Intussusception
Intussusception is a medical condition where one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileocecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. Symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and bloodstained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.
To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, which may show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for intussusception is crucial for parents and healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Samantha is an 85-year-old with colorectal cancer receiving palliative care. She contacts the surgery seeking guidance on the DS1500 form. What benefits does this form provide for Samantha?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Entitlement to high rate of attendance allowance if prognosis less than 6 months and priority in processing application.
Explanation:If the patient’s prognosis is less than 6 months due to a terminal illness, she is entitled to apply for attendance allowance (AA) using the DS1500 form. Her application will be given priority and processed quickly under special provisions. Additionally, she will receive the benefit at the highest rate.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.
He was first seen almost two weeks ago by a colleague and diagnosed with a viral upper respiratory tract infection and given simple advice. His parents have brought him back today as his fever doesn't seem to be settling and they have noticed that his eyes have become irritated and his lips are very red and have cracked.
On examination, the child has a temperature of 38.1°C and has dry fissured lips. There is an obvious widespread polymorphous skin rash present. Examination of the mouth reveals pharyngeal injection and a prominent red tongue. Significant cervical lymphadenopathy and conjunctival inflammation is noted. There is palmar erythema bilaterally and his hands and feet appear puffy with peeling of the skin of the fingers and toes.
Which of the following is a complication of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coronary artery aneurysms
Explanation:Kawasaki’s Disease: A Rare but Serious Condition in Children
Kawasaki’s disease (KD) is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children between 6 months to 4 years old. The exact cause of KD is unknown, but it is believed to be caused by a bacterial toxin acting as a superantigen similar to staphylococcal and streptococcal toxic shock syndromes.
The hallmark symptom of KD is a sustained fever lasting more than five days, accompanied by cervical lymphadenopathy, conjunctival infection, rash, mucous membrane signs (such as dry fissured lips, red ‘strawberry’ tongue, and pharyngeal injection), and erythematous and oedematous hands and feet with subsequent peeling of the fingers and toes.
It is crucial to make a clinical diagnosis of KD as about a third of those affected may develop coronary artery involvement, which can lead to the formation of coronary artery aneurysms. Early treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin within the first 10 days can help reduce the risk of this complication. Aspirin is also an important treatment in this condition, used to reduce the risk of thrombosis.
In conclusion, KD is a rare but serious condition that can have severe consequences if not diagnosed and treated promptly. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the symptoms and to consider KD in children presenting with a prolonged fever and other associated symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of Caucasian descent. He was diagnosed with essential hypertension six months ago and was prescribed ramipril, which has been increased to 10 mg daily. He also has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and gout, and he takes atorvastatin 20 mg once nightly.
He provides a set of home blood pressure readings with an average of 140/95 mmHg.
What is the best course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amlodipine
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended medication to add would be either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, since the patient has a history of gout, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the most appropriate choice. Losartan, an A2RB drug, should not be used in combination with ACE inhibitors. The maximum daily dose of ramipril is 10 mg. The target home readings for this patient would be less than 135/85 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hot flashes, night sweats, mood swings, vaginal dryness, and reduced libido. She has not had a period for 12 months and has an intact uterus. Despite being obese, she has no other risk factors and has been informed about the potential risks and benefits of hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transdermal cyclical regimen
Explanation:The appropriate HRT regimen for this patient is a transdermal cyclical one, as she has had a period within the last year. As she has an intact uterus, a combined regimen with both oestrogen and progesterone is necessary. Given her increased risk of venous thromboembolism and cardiovascular disease due to obesity, transdermal preparations are recommended over oral options. Low-dose vaginal oestrogen is not sufficient for her systemic symptoms. An oestrogen-only preparation is not appropriate for women with a uterus. A transdermal continuous combined regimen is not recommended within 12 months of the last menstrual period. If the patient cannot tolerate the transdermal option, an oral cyclical regimen may be considered.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.
HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.
Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been stable since then. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant
Explanation:Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.
Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy
With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming more common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.
For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they also receive an antiplatelet. However, if the patient has an indication for anticoagulant therapy, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.
In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four weeks to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.
If a patient on antiplatelets develops venous thromboembolism (VTE), they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.
Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man wants to talk about Huntington's disease, which affected his father and grandfather. He knows about 'genetic anticipation.' What other conditions show this phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Hereditary diseases can have an earlier age of onset in successive generations due to genetic anticipation, particularly in trinucleotide repeat disorders such as Huntington’s disease and Myotonic dystrophy (which have a CTG repeat sequence). However, genetic anticipation is not observed in Duchenne muscular dystrophy (an X-linked recessive condition), Marfan syndrome (an autosomal dominant condition), or Homocystinuria (inherited in an autosomal recessive manner).
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and doesn’t demonstrate anticipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are a GPST1 working in a general practice. A practice nurse seeks your guidance on a routine ECG performed on a 50-year-old man. Upon examining the ECG, you observe that the patient is in regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 70 beats per minute. However, the patient has a long QT interval and small T waves.
What could be the reason for this distinct ECG pattern?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Long QT syndrome may result from hypokalaemia.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is commonly associated with which type of tumour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung
Explanation:Small-Cell Carcinoma of the Lung and SIADH
Small-cell carcinoma of the lung is a type of lung cancer that has been found to cause SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion) in 18.9% of cases. SIADH is a condition where there is an abnormal release of ADH, leading to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This condition can cause symptoms such as headaches, weakness, confusion, drowsiness, and seizures. While SIADH can also occur in other types of cancer, it is reported as a rare event in breast cancer and occurs in pancreatic cancer, duodenal cancer, and colon cancer. Patients with malignancy-associated SIADH have poor outcomes, making early detection and treatment crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A teenager calls the clinic for guidance and is connected to you as the on-call physician. She had an uncomplicated medical abortion 13 days ago and had unprotected sex last night. She is uncertain if she requires emergency contraception. She has no specific contraception contraindications.
What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and the copper intrauterine device is the only treatment option
Explanation:Emergency Contraception Options Post-Abortion
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends emergency contraception if unprotected sexual intercourse occurs from five days post-abortion. There are three safe options for emergency contraception: oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg, ulipristal acetate 30 mg, and the copper intrauterine device. The copper intrauterine device is the most effective, with a pregnancy rate of approximately 1 in 1000 when used for emergency contraception. However, it carries the same contraindications as when used for regular contraception. It is important to consider all options and consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best choice for individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a follow-up on her Antihypertensive medication. She is currently prescribed bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily and atenolol 50 mg daily for her hypertension, and atorvastatin for her dyslipidaemia. She also has a history of gout. What is a commonly known side effect of bendroflumethiazide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Thiazides: Risks and Adverse Effects
Thiazides are a type of medication commonly used to treat high blood pressure and edema. However, they are associated with several adverse effects. One of the most common is metabolic alkalosis, which occurs when the body’s pH becomes too alkaline. Thiazides can also cause hypokalaemia, a condition where there is a low level of potassium in the blood, and hypercalcaemia, where there is too much calcium in the blood.
Another potential risk of thiazides is an increase in insulin resistance, which can lead to type 2 diabetes. Meta-analyses have shown that combining thiazides with beta-blockers may further increase this risk. Additionally, thiazides are known to precipitate gout, a painful form of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints.
Hypertriglyceridaemia, a condition where there are high levels of triglycerides in the blood, is also associated with hyperuricaemia, which is an excess of uric acid in the blood. Thiazides can exacerbate this condition, leading to an increased risk of gout. It is important to be aware of these potential risks and to discuss them with a healthcare provider before starting thiazide therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The parents of a 4-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis are seeking guidance on whether to have more children. Both parents are non-carriers of the disease. What is the likelihood that their next child will be a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.
Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are assessing a palliative care cancer patient with advanced metastatic disease who is in their 70s.
You have been requested by the palliative care community nurse to attend for a joint home visit as the patient has been experiencing headaches. The patient had a CT head scan four weeks ago that revealed extensive brain metastases.
No further active treatment has been planned, and the patient has chosen to receive home care with community support. You suspect that the headaches are due to increased intracranial pressure.
What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe for symptom relief?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment for Symptoms of Raised Intracranial Pressure in Brain Metastases Patients
This patient is experiencing symptoms of raised intracranial pressure due to brain metastases. Depending on the treatment aims and ceiling of treatment, radiotherapy may be indicated. However, pharmacotherapy can also aid in palliating symptoms. High dose corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone at 16 mg daily for four to five days, followed by a reduced dose of 4-6 mg daily, can help alleviate headaches caused by raised intracranial pressure. Other options may be considered as adjuncts to treatment for pain, nausea, and agitation. Nevertheless, dexamethasone is the best option as it directly targets the underlying problem causing the symptoms in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with flashing lights in his right eye followed by a curtain descending across his vision.
Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is correct?.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may be a sign of malignant melanoma
Explanation:Retinal Detachment: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Retinal detachment is a serious condition that can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. It occurs when the retina, the thin layer of tissue at the back of the eye responsible for transmitting visual information to the brain, separates from its underlying support tissue. Here are some important facts about retinal detachment:
Causes: Retinal detachment can result from a variety of factors, including a posterior vitreous detachment, myopia, severe acute hypertension, inflammation, or neoplastic effusions.
Symptoms: Symptoms of retinal detachment include sudden onset of floaters, flashes of light, and a curtain-like shadow over the visual field. However, some patients may not experience any symptoms at all.
Treatment: Retinal tears and holes are treated with cryotherapy or laser photocoagulation. Most actual detachments require surgery to flatten the retina. Patients who do not have immediate surgery may have strict bedrest and to hold the head in a particular position to prevent progression of the detachment. The retina is successfully reattached in around 85% of cases. In cases where the macula is not involved, 90% of patients have 20/40 vision or better after reattachment surgery.
Understanding Retinal Detachment: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old retiree comes to see you after being found crying by a neighbour. Over the past six months she has lost her husband to cancer and has become increasingly isolated and withdrawn. She has never experienced depression before and her PHQ depression score is 20.
She enjoys gardening and reading, but has lost interest in these activities recently. She has also been experiencing difficulty sleeping and has lost her appetite. She takes medication for high blood pressure and has a history of smoking, but quit 10 years ago.
You decide to initiate treatment with sertraline, but which other drug may be helpful in addition to this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disulfiram
Explanation:Considerations for prescribing medication to an older person
When prescribing medication to an older person, it is important to consider potential interactions and side effects. For example, if the person is already taking a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), gastro protection should be considered when prescribing a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). In this case, omeprazole would be the best option.
It is also important to consider the person’s lifestyle and habits. If they are drinking regularly, but not excessively, there may be no need to add acamprosate or disulfiram. Similarly, if an SSRI has already been prescribed, there may be no need to add dosulepin.
While adding ibuprofen or prednisolone may theoretically reduce inflammation related to arthritis, it poses a significant risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Therefore, taking two NSAIDs at the same time should be avoided.
Finally, it is important to be aware of potential interactions with other medications or supplements the person may be taking. St John’s wort, for example, is often used by those who feel depressed, but can interact with other antidepressants and have varying levels of active ingredient depending on the preparation. Overall, careful consideration and monitoring is necessary when prescribing medication to an older person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents for follow-up. Over the last couple of years, she has experienced approximately six asthma exacerbations that necessitated oral steroid treatment. Her current regimen consists of beclomethasone 200 mcg 1 puff bd and salbutamol 2 puffs prn. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m^2, is a non-smoker, and has demonstrated proper inhaler technique. What is the most suitable course of action for managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add oral montelukast
Explanation:As per the NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, their treatment plan should include the addition of a LTRA instead of a LABA. In this case, since the patient is already taking a short-acting beta-agonist and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid, the recommended course of action would be to offer them an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist. This is in contrast to the previous BTS guidance which would have suggested the use of a long-acting beta-agonist in such a scenario.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE doesn’t follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.
The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.
It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a facial rash that has been present for a few weeks. The rash appears erythematous, greasy, and has a fine scale on her cheeks, nasolabial folds, eyebrows, nasal bridge, and scalp. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often the culprit behind an itchy rash that appears on the face and scalp. This condition is characterized by its distribution pattern, which affects these areas. It can be distinguished from acne rosacea, which typically doesn’t involve the nasolabial folds and is marked by the presence of telangiectasia and pustules.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of scalp disease typically involves the use of over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione or tar as a first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole are recommended. Topical steroids can also be used, but only for short periods. However, the condition can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. It is important to seek medical advice if the symptoms persist or worsen despite treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the role of hypothesis testing in the consultation process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exploring the patient's agenda
Explanation:Hypothesis Testing in Clinical Reasoning
Hypothesis testing is a logical process used by doctors to determine the most likely diagnosis based on symptoms and epidemiology. This process involves testing the probability of potential differential diagnoses and identifying any red flag symptoms that may indicate a more serious condition. Knowledge of red flag symptoms is crucial in this style of mental process.
For instance, if a young athlete presents with epigastric pain and no red flag symptoms, the presentation may be more consistent with dyspepsia. However, the doctor may also consider the less likely possibility of a muscle strain. In this case, the patient may be given a proton pump inhibitor instead of an NSAID and then reviewed to note any response. By using hypothesis testing, doctors can make informed decisions about the most likely diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her face over the past 2 days. The child appears unwell and has clustered blisters and punched-out erosions covering her chin and left cheek.
Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency admission to hospital
Explanation:This young boy is suffering from eczema herpeticum, which is a herpes simplex infection that has developed on top of his atopic eczema. If someone with eczema experiences rapidly worsening, painful eczema, along with possible fever, lethargy, or distress, and clustered blisters that resemble early cold sores, they may have contracted herpes simplex virus. Additionally, punched-out erosions that are uniform in appearance and may coalesce could also be present. If eczema that has become infected fails to respond to antibiotic and corticosteroid treatment, patients should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir and same-day dermatological review. For less severely affected individuals, oral aciclovir and frequent review may be an option. This information is based on guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man complains of painless vision loss in one eye. What is the most indicative of a central retinal artery occlusion diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fundoscopy reveals a bright red spot at the centre of the macula
Explanation:Understanding Fundoscopy Findings in Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
Fundoscopy is a diagnostic tool used to examine the retina and its blood vessels. In cases of central retinal artery occlusion, fundoscopy reveals a bright red spot at the center of the macula due to the intact underlying choroid vessels supplying it. Additionally, the retina appears pale and opaque with narrow thread-like arteries, and there may be segmentation of the blood column in the arteries.
Contrary to popular belief, complete loss of vision is not the norm in central retinal artery occlusion. Instead, vision is usually reduced to counting fingers. Complete visual loss would suggest involvement of the ophthalmic artery, while segmental visual loss would indicate only a branch retinal artery is involved.
Furthermore, the pupil on the affected side doesn’t react normally to light. A relative afferent pupillary defect is observed during the swinging flashlight test, where both pupils constrict less when a bright light is swung from the unaffected eye to the affected eye. This indicates differences between the two eyes in the afferent pathway to the brain along the optic nerve due to retinal or optic nerve disease.
Finally, it is important to note that visual loss in central retinal artery occlusion is sudden, occurring over seconds, rather than gradual over several hours. Understanding these fundoscopy findings can aid in the diagnosis and management of central retinal artery occlusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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