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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man experiences a severe motorbike injury and is rushed to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man experiences a severe motorbike injury and is rushed to the Resuscitation Department of the Emergency Department. Upon arrival, his vital signs are recorded as follows:
      Blood pressure – 200/120
      Heart rate – 45 bpm
      Saturation – 95% on 4 l of oxygen
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Splenic rupture

      Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Possible Traumatic Injuries and their Manifestations

      Extradural Haematoma, Tension Pneumothorax, Subdural Haematoma, Splenic Rupture, and Bronchial Rupture are possible traumatic injuries that can occur in high-velocity trauma. Each injury has its own unique manifestations that can help identify the injury.

      Extradural Haematoma is a possible injury that can cause a Cushing’s reflex, resulting in severe hypertension and bradycardia. This injury is caused by a tear in the middle meningeal artery, leading to the formation of a haematoma between the skull and dura mater.

      Tension Pneumothorax can cause tachycardia and hypotension due to restricted venous return caused by raised intrapleural pressures. A sympathetic response occurs in an attempt to increase cardiac output.

      Subdural Haematoma can also cause raised intracranial pressure and a Cushing’s reflex, but it is caused by torn bridging veins between the dura and arachnoid layers of the meninges. This injury is more common in the elderly due to cerebral atrophy and can occur with low-velocity injuries.

      Splenic Rupture can cause blood loss, resulting in a sympathetic response that manifests as hypotension and tachycardia.

      Bronchial Rupture is an uncommon injury that would not cause severe hypertension and bradycardia. Additionally, oxygen saturations of 95% would not be likely with bronchial rupture.

      In conclusion, understanding the manifestations of possible traumatic injuries can aid in identifying the injury and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with her husband, reporting that she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with her husband, reporting that she has been experiencing a racing heart for the past year. She also feels sweaty and sometimes has difficulty breathing. Despite seeing a cardiologist, no abnormalities were found in her heart. The patient admits to worrying about various things, which has affected her relationships with her loved ones. She also suffers from insomnia 3-4 nights a week. The patient has no significant medical history, but her cousin has a history of depression. On examination, the patient's heart rate is 89 bpm, and her palms are sweaty. Blood tests show no abnormalities, including normal thyroid function and calcium levels. Which neuroendocrine axis is involved in the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamic–pituitary–somatotropic (HPS)

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal (HPA)

      Explanation:

      The Role of Hypothalamic-Pituitary Axes in Health and Disease

      The hypothalamic-pituitary axes play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis in the body. Among these axes, the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is particularly important in the pathophysiology of anxiety disorders. Overactivation of the HPA axis leads to the release of catecholamines, resulting in the fight or flight response. Environmental factors and genetics may contribute to the development of anxiety disorders, but the final common pathway is the dysregulation of the HPA axis.

      The hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid (HPT) axis is involved in thyroid disorders, such as hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism. However, normal thyroid function rules out this axis as a cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is responsible for the release of sex hormones, such as oestrogen and testosterone. Disorders affecting the HPG axis can impact puberty and sexual development.

      The hypothalamic-pituitary-prolactin (HPP) axis regulates the release of prolactin, which acts on the mammary glands. Medications can cause dysregulation of the HPP axis, resulting in hyperprolactinaemia or hypoprolactinaemia.

      Finally, the hypothalamic-pituitary-somatotropic (HPS) axis is involved in the release of growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1. Dysregulation of the HPS axis can lead to growth hormone deficiency and Laron syndrome.

      Understanding the role of these hypothalamic-pituitary axes is crucial in diagnosing and treating various health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man has been experiencing a gradual decline in his vision in...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has been experiencing a gradual decline in his vision in both eyes. He is struggling to read and recognize faces, and has had multiple falls due to difficulty in perceiving edges of objects such as stairs. Upon examination with a slit-lamp, amber retinal deposits are observed but no signs of neovascularisation are present. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking amlodipine and metformin. He has been a heavy smoker for the past 40 years, smoking 30 cigarettes a day, but does not consume alcohol. What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamins C+E and beta-carotene supplementation

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with antioxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and antioxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with a blood pressure reading of 185/95 mmHg and grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy. She has no known medical history. What clinical or biochemical finding could indicate a potential diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperaldosteronism: A Common Cause of Hypertension

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a prevalent cause of hypertension that typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. However, it is often asymptomatic in its early stages and may not be diagnosed until several decades later. This condition may account for approximately 10% of hypertension cases and is characterized by hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, onset of hypertension at a young age, and hypertension that is difficult to control with more than three medications.

      The primary cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is either adrenal adenoma or adrenal hyperplasia, which preferentially affects the zona glomerulosa. Adrenal adenomas are usually unilateral, but bilateral adenomas can occur in a minority of cases. On the other hand, adrenal hyperplasia typically causes bilateral disease. Despite the decreased occurrence of hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis in primary hyperaldosteronism, it remains a significant contributor to hypertension and should be considered in patients with uncontrolled hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 33-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation presents to out-of-hours care with a...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation presents to out-of-hours care with a 4-week history of nausea and vomiting. She has vomited 5 times in the past 24 hours but can still drink water. She denies any abdominal pain, bowel habit changes, dizziness, dysuria, or vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are stable with a temperature of 37.2ºC, heart rate of 80 bpm, and blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg. Her abdomen is non-tender. She has lost 5 kg since her pre-pregnancy weight of 70 kg. Urine b-hCG is positive and a dipstick shows no blood, nitrates, or ketones. Despite trying oral cyclizine, she has not found any relief. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Admission or urgent assessment is needed for a pregnant patient experiencing severe nausea and vomiting with weight loss. Routine referral to obstetrics, prescribing oral domperidone, or prescribing oral prochlorperazine are all incorrect options. An obstetric assessment may consider the use of IV anti-emetics. Delaying assessment increases the risk of complications.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are working in the pediatric unit and examine a 6-month-old infant. On...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the pediatric unit and examine a 6-month-old infant. On examination, you observe a small left-sided hematoma over the parietal bone. The hematoma is soft to touch and does not extend beyond the margins of the parietal bone. The infant is otherwise healthy. The infant was born at term via spontaneous vaginal delivery, and there were no prenatal or labor complications. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Caput succedaneum

      Correct Answer: Cephalhaematoma

      Explanation:

      Medical students may mistake a cephalhaematoma for a caput succedaneum, but there are distinguishing features. Cephalhaematomas typically develop after birth and do not cross the skull’s suture lines, as the blood is contained between the skull and periosteum. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is an extraperiosteal collection of blood that can cross over the suture lines and may be present at birth. Subaponeurotic haemorrhages are a serious condition caused by bleeding in the potential space between the periosteum and subgaleal aponeurosis. They typically present as a boggy swelling that grows insidiously and is not confined to the skull sutures. In severe cases, the neonate may experience haemorrhagic shock. Chignons are birth traumas that occur after the use of a ventouse device during delivery, while a cranial abrasion usually occurs after a caesarean section or instrumental delivery.

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty and not having started her menstrual cycle. She reports feeling generally well and has no significant medical history. During the examination, it is noted that she has a slender build and underdeveloped breasts. There is no pubic hair present. Upon palpation, marble-sized swellings are felt in both groins. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of androgen insensitivity is primary amenorrhoea, with the key symptom being groin swellings. When combined with the absence of pubic hair, this points towards a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity, also known as testicular feminisation syndrome. This condition occurs in individuals who are genetically male (46XY) but appear phenotypically female due to increased oestradiol levels, which cause breast development. The groin swellings in this case are undescended testes. While non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma could also cause groin swellings, it is less likely as it would typically present with systemic symptoms and is not a common cause of delayed puberty.

      Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.

      Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after injuring his knee while...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department after injuring his knee while playing basketball. He reports hearing a loud 'pop' and experiencing severe pain in his right knee, causing him to fall to the ground. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee and feels like it may give out. Upon examination, the knee is visibly swollen. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ruptured anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The sudden popping sound that occurred during athletic activity followed by knee pain, swelling, and instability is indicative of an ACL injury. This is the most likely answer based on the given information. A ruptured patella tendon would result in a high riding patella, while a ruptured medial meniscus would cause catching or locking of the knee. A ruptured posterior cruciate ligament is less common and would require further testing to differentiate from an ACL injury. However, based on the scenario described, an ACL injury is the most probable cause.

      The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is a knee ligament that is frequently injured, with non-contact injuries being the most common cause. However, a lateral blow to the knee or skiing can also cause ACL injuries. Symptoms of an ACL injury include a sudden popping sound, knee swelling, and a feeling of instability or that the knee may give way. To diagnose an ACL injury, doctors may perform an anterior draw test or a Lachman’s test. During the anterior draw test, the patient lies on their back with their knee at a 90-degree angle, and the examiner pulls the tibia forward to assess the amount of anterior motion in comparison to the femur. An intact ACL should prevent forward translational movement. Lachman’s test is a variant of the anterior draw test, but the knee is at a 20-30 degree angle, and it is considered more reliable than the anterior draw test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A person in their mid-30s has been taking an anti-psychotic medication for a...

    Correct

    • A person in their mid-30s has been taking an anti-psychotic medication for a few years. They have also recently begun taking fluoxetine. During a visit to their general practitioner, they reported experiencing troubling symptoms such as lip smacking, difficulty swallowing, and excessive blinking. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect that occurs after taking antipsychotics for an extended period of time. The patient’s recent use of fluoxetine is not relevant to this condition. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome and acute dystonia typically manifest within the first few days or weeks of starting an antipsychotic medication, making them unlikely in this case. Malignant hyperthermia, on the other hand, is a potential side effect of anaesthetic drugs.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At...

    Incorrect

    • You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At 5 minutes, the baby's heart rate is 120 bpm, the baby is crying vigorously with active movement in all extremities. The baby is coughing and sneezing. The body is pink but the hands and feet are slightly blue and cool to the touch. Determine the APGAR score.

      Your Answer: 10

      Correct Answer: 9

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with wheezing and a respiratory rate of 35/min, a pulse of 120 beats per min, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and a peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% predicted. He has received back-to-back nebulisers of salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 0.5 mg for the past 45 minutes and is currently on face mask oxygen. Additionally, he has been given hydrocortisone 100 mg IV, and the intensive care team has been notified.

      An arterial blood gas test was performed on high-flow oxygen, revealing a pH of 7.42 (7.36-7.44), PaCO2 of 5.0 kPa (4.7-6.0), PaO2 of 22 kPa (11.3-12.6), base excess of -2 mmol/L (+/-2), and SpO2 of 98.

      What is the recommended next step in therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium 1-2 g IV

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Life Threatening Asthma

      This patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, which requires immediate treatment. A normal PaCO2 in an asthmatic can indicate impending respiratory failure. The initial treatment involves administering β2-agonists, preferably nebuliser with oxygen, and repeating doses every 15-30 minutes. Nebulised ipratropium bromide should also be added for patients with acute severe or life threatening asthma. Oxygen should be given to maintain saturations at 94-98%, and patients with saturations less than 92% on air should have an ABG to exclude hypercapnia. Intravenous magnesium sulphate can be used if the patient fails to respond to initial treatment. Intensive care is indicated for patients with severe acute or life threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy. Steroids should also be given early in the attack to reduce mortality and improve outcomes.

      It is important to note that chest radiographs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of pneumothorax or consolidation, or if the patient is experiencing life threatening asthma, a failure to respond to treatment, or a need for ventilation. Additionally, all patients who are transferred to an intensive care unit should be accompanied by a doctor who can intubate if necessary. In this case, if the patient fails to respond to magnesium, intubation and ventilation may be necessary. It is crucial to discuss the patient’s condition with ITU colleagues during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing chest pain. The patient reports feeling pain in his neck and jaw as well. He has no significant medical history, but he does smoke occasionally and consumes up to 60 units of alcohol per week. An ECG is performed, revealing widespread ST elevation indicative of an acute coronary syndrome. At what point do the microscopic changes of acute MI become visible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12-24 hours after the infarct

      Explanation:

      The Pathological Progression of Myocardial Infarction: A Timeline of Changes

      Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The pathological progression of myocardial infarction follows a predictable sequence of events, with macroscopic and microscopic changes occurring over time.

      Immediately after the infarct occurs, there are usually no visible changes to the myocardium. However, within 3-6 hours, maximal inflammatory changes occur, with the most prominent changes occurring between 24-72 hours. During this time, coagulative necrosis and acute inflammatory responses are visible, with marked infiltration by neutrophils.

      Between 3-10 days, the infarcted area begins to develop a hyperaemic border, and the process of organisation and repair begins. Granulation tissue replaces dead muscle, and dying neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Disintegration and phagocytosis of dead myofibres occur during this time.

      If a patient survives an acute infarction, the infarct heals through the formation of scar tissue. However, scar tissue does not possess the usual contractile properties of normal cardiac muscle, leading to contractile dysfunction or congestive cardiac failure. The entire process from coagulative necrosis to the formation of well-formed scar tissue takes 6-8 weeks.

      In summary, understanding the timeline of changes that occur during myocardial infarction is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. By recognising the macroscopic and microscopic changes that occur over time, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and lethargy. She is in her 38th week of pregnancy and has never been pregnant before. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced and has a temperature of 37.7ºC. Her blood pressure and heart rate are normal.

      The results of her blood tests are as follows:
      - Bilirubin: 80 µmol/l
      - ALP: 240 u/l
      - ALT: 550 u/l
      - AST: 430 u/l
      - γGT: 30 u/l
      - INR: 1.8
      - Hb: 110 g/l
      - Platelets: 331 * 109/l
      - WBC: 12.5 * 109/l

      An acute viral hepatitis screen comes back negative. An urgent US doppler liver shows steatosis with patent hepatic and portal vessels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Based on the presented symptoms, the most probable diagnosis is acute fatty liver of pregnancy. This is supported by the presence of jaundice, mild fever, elevated liver function tests, increased white blood cell count, coagulopathy, and steatosis on imaging. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy typically presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea, whereas cholestasis of pregnancy is characterized by severe itching. The absence of abnormalities in hemoglobin, platelet count, and viral screening makes the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis unlikely. Additionally, pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria. It is important to note that placental ALP can cause an increase in serum ALP levels during pregnancy.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man presents to the eye clinic with a 12-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the eye clinic with a 12-hour history of flashers and floaters in his left eye. The patient denies any other vision problems and is in good health, except for a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and bilateral cataracts. He lives alone, does not smoke, and wears glasses. On examination of the left eye using a slit lamp, a small tear is observed in the inferior part of the retina, with the surrounding area appearing crinkled. What is the primary risk factor associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myopia

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment can be caused by various risk factors, including diabetes mellitus, ageing, previous eye surgery, eye trauma, and myopia. In this case, a 73-year-old man presented with flashers and floaters in his right eye, which were indicative of retinal detachment. Myopia, which is characterized by an elongated eyeball, can increase the tension on the retina and is therefore a risk factor for this condition. It is important to note that blocked trabecular meshwork, cataract formation, and hyperopia are not associated with retinal detachment.

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the tissue at the back of the eye separates from the underlying pigment epithelium. This can cause vision loss, but if detected and treated early, it can be reversible. Risk factors for retinal detachment include diabetes, myopia, age, previous cataract surgery, and eye trauma. Symptoms may include new onset floaters or flashes, sudden painless visual field loss, and reduced peripheral and central vision. If the macula is involved, visual outcomes can be much worse. Diagnosis is made through fundoscopy, which may show retinal folds or a lost red reflex. Urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary for assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old man with a 20-year history of insulin dependent diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a 20-year history of insulin dependent diabetes mellitus presents with a haemoglobin A1C of 10.3% (89 mmol/mol). He reports experiencing abdominal pain after meals for the past year, which has been gradually worsening. Upon physical examination, his abdomen appears normal. What is the most probable pathological finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesenteric artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Chronic Abdominal Pain

      Chronic abdominal pain can be caused by reduced blood flow to the bowel, which can lead to a pain similar to angina. This condition is more common in patients with diabetes mellitus, as atherosclerosis can affect the major arteries to the bowel. Acute pancreatitis is not a likely cause of this pain, as it would cause acute and severe abdominal pain, unrelated to meals. Aortic aneurysm can also be a consequence of atherosclerosis, and an abdominal mass may be palpated on examination. However, typically there is no pain until the aneurysm ruptures, which is a surgical emergency. Chronic renal failure, which is one of the main causes of diabetes, would not cause meal-related abdominal pain, and we are not told any serum electrolyte values to indicate this. Hepatic infarction, which refers to diffuse hepatic injury from acute hypoperfusion resulting from obstruction of the arterial circulation or more rarely the portal venous circulation, is rare due to the liver’s dual blood supply. Causes of hepatic infarction include atherosclerotic occlusion, embolus, arthritis of the hepatic artery, neoplastic invasion by malignant tumors in the liver hilus, and hypercoagulation states, such as polycythemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after tripping on a rocky...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after tripping on a rocky trail during a hike. He has scrapes on both shins and a heavily soiled deep wound on his right palm. An x-ray of his hand reveals the existence of a foreign object. The patient reports being up-to-date on his tetanus immunization (last vaccination 5 years ago). What measures should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Both a reinforcing dose of vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin should be given immediately

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Tetanus-Prone Wounds

      When a patient presents with a wound that is prone to tetanus, such as one that has come into contact with soil and has a foreign body, immediate treatment is necessary. According to guidance, a fully immunised patient with a tetanus-prone wound should receive both a reinforcing dose of vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin. This treatment should be administered as soon as possible to prevent the development of tetanus, a serious and potentially fatal condition. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 17 - You are asked to obtain consent from a pediatric patient for electroconvulsive therapy...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to obtain consent from a pediatric patient for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).

      Which of the following is not a risk associated with ECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induction of dementia

      Explanation:

      Side Effects and Memory Loss Associated with Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a medical treatment that involves passing electrical currents through the brain to induce a seizure. While side effects of ECT are rare, some patients may experience memory loss. During the course of ECT, patients may have difficulty remembering newly learned information, but this typically improves in the days and weeks following treatment. However, some patients may experience partial loss of memory for events that occurred before ECT, which may take longer to recover.

      Despite these potential memory issues, some patients report improved memory ability following ECT, as it can remove the amnesia associated with severe depression. It is important to note that cardiac arrhythmia may be stimulated by the electrical shock of ECT, but musculoskeletal injury is rare with adequate anesthesia.

      It is also important to dispel the myth that ECT can cause dementia. Dementia is an organic illness that is not induced by ECT. Research has not found a link between ECT and dementia, but this remains an area of focus for further study. Overall, while ECT may have some potential side effects, it can be a highly effective treatment for severe depression and other mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman at 37-week’s gestation presents to the labour ward with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman at 37-week’s gestation presents to the labour ward with a history of 4 hours of labour and uterine contractions occurring every 2 minutes. Her 34-week scan revealed grade III placenta praevia. On examination, her cervix is found to be dilated to 8 cm and effaced by 90%. Foetal cartography measurements are normal, and there is no vaginal bleeding. What should be the next course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency caesarean section

      Explanation:

      If a woman with placenta praevia goes into labour, an emergency caesarean section should be performed regardless of whether there is bleeding or not. Placenta praevia is when the placenta is located partially or fully in the lower uterine segment, and it is more common in multiple and multiparous pregnancies. Sometimes it is detected incidentally during routine antenatal scanning, while in other cases, it may present with symptoms such as vaginal bleeding and haemodynamic shock. If placenta praevia is detected on routine imaging, an elective caesarean section should be considered at 37-38 weeks, especially for grade III and IV placenta praevia, due to the higher risk of postpartum haemorrhage. However, in this scenario, the patient has gone into labour spontaneously, and immediate action is necessary. Therefore, an emergency caesarean section is the correct course of action. Anti-D is recommended for pregnant women with negative rhesus status to prevent antibody production to foetal blood cells. Although the mother’s rhesus status is not given, anti-D is a sensible option when in doubt. Inducing labour with oxytocin is not recommended for patients with placenta praevia as it can stimulate vaginal delivery and increase the risk of postpartum haemorrhage. Discharging the patient to continue the pregnancy as normal is not advisable due to the serious risks involved. Tocolytics, such as nifedipine, are not routinely indicated for patients with placenta praevia in labour, and an emergency caesarean section should take priority.

      Management and Prognosis of Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. If a low-lying placenta is detected at the 20-week scan, a rescan is recommended at 32 weeks. There is no need to limit activity or intercourse unless there is bleeding. If the placenta is still present at 32 weeks and is grade I/II, then a scan every two weeks is recommended. A final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks is necessary to determine the method of delivery. For grades III/IV, an elective caesarean section is recommended between 37-38 weeks. However, if the placenta is grade I, a trial of vaginal delivery may be offered. If a woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour before the elective caesarean section, an emergency caesarean section should be performed due to the risk of post-partum haemorrhage.

      In cases where placenta praevia is accompanied by bleeding, the woman should be admitted and an ABC approach should be taken to stabilise her. If stabilisation is not possible, an emergency caesarean section should be performed. If the woman is in labour or has reached term, an emergency caesarean section is also necessary.

      The prognosis for placenta praevia has improved significantly, and death is now extremely rare. The major cause of death in women with placenta praevia is post-partum haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - A five-year-old boy has been brought to the clinic by his worried mother...

    Incorrect

    • A five-year-old boy has been brought to the clinic by his worried mother due to an unusual walking pattern and lower limb weakness. After conducting a thorough medical history, physical examination, and further tests, the child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What is the prevailing cardiac pathology linked to this disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is the most common heart condition linked to Duchenne muscular dystrophy, while acute myocardial infarctions, atrioventricular septal defects, and coronary aneurysms are not associated with this condition. Atrioventricular septal defects are, however, associated with Down syndrome, while coronary aneurysms are a complication of Kawasaki disease. Dilated cardiomyopathy is a rapidly progressive complication that typically starts in adolescence for individuals with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive condition characterized by progressive muscle wasting and weakness.

      Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.

      The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 50-year-old man who visits his GP complaining of fatigue and low mood. Upon further inquiry, he reveals experiencing muscle stiffness, particularly in his shoulders, which can last up to an hour upon waking. During examination, there is no apparent joint swelling, and power is 5/5 in all muscle groups. However, movement is painful during shoulder abduction and elevation. Despite the pain, there is good range of movement, and there are no other neurological symptoms. Liam has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, for which he takes metformin. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by pain, stiffness, and swelling of the joints, particularly in the hands and feet. The patient in this case is experiencing both pain and stiffness simultaneously.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 21 - A 57-year-old accountant presents with an acute onset of widespread blistering of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old accountant presents with an acute onset of widespread blistering of the skin. She is usually healthy but has been taking regular ibuprofen for the past two days due to a headache.
      On examination, the patient has numerous tense bullae across the trunk and limbs. There is no involvement of the mouth. The dermatologist suspects bullous pemphigoid and wonders which adhesive structure is disrupted by autoimmune mechanisms in this condition.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hemidesmosome

      Explanation:

      Cell Junctions: Types and Functions

      Cell junctions are specialized structures that connect adjacent cells and play a crucial role in maintaining tissue integrity and function. There are several types of cell junctions, each with a unique structure and function.

      Hemidesmosome: Hemidesmosomes are structures that anchor cells of the stratum basale of the skin to the underlying epidermal basement membrane. Autoantibodies to hemidesmosome components can cause bullous pemphigoid, a disease characterized by large, fluid-filled blisters.

      Desmosome: Desmosomes bind cells together in the more superficial layers of the epidermis. Desmogleins are important proteins for desmosome integrity. Autoantibodies to desmogleins can cause pemphigus vulgaris and other types of pemphigus.

      Zonula occludens: The zonula occludens is a tight junction that fuses the outer leaflets of the plasma membrane, preventing the passage of small molecules between cells.

      Zonula adherens: The zonula adherens is an intercellular adhesion site that contains small gaps between adjacent plasma membranes in the junctional complex. It is reinforced by intracellular microfilaments.

      Gap junction: Gap junctions create an aqueous channel between adjacent cells, allowing the passage of small signaling molecules for the coordination of various physiological activities.

      In summary, cell junctions are essential for maintaining tissue integrity and function. Each type of junction has a unique structure and function, and disruptions in their integrity can lead to various diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache that has been progressively worsening over the past two to three months. She also reports experiencing blurred vision. The patient has a history of depression, which she attributes to her weight problem and bad skin. However, she has been actively trying to address these issues by joining Weight Watchers and receiving treatment for her acne from her GP for the past four months. On examination, the patient is overweight and has moderately severe acne. She is afebrile, and there are no signs of nuchal rigidity. The oropharynx is benign, and the neurological examination is normal, except for blurred disc margins bilaterally and a limited ability to abduct the left eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), previously known as benign intracranial hypertension or pseudotumour cerebri, is a condition that typically affects young obese women. Other risk factors include the use of oral contraceptive pills, treatments for acne such as tetracycline, nitrofurantoin, and retinoids, as well as hypervitaminosis A. The condition is characterized by a severe headache, loss of peripheral vision, and impaired visual acuity if papilloedema is severe. Patients may also experience a reduction in colour vision and develop a CN VI palsy.

      A CT scan is often normal, and the diagnosis is confirmed by finding an elevated CSF opening pressure of more than 20 cm H2O. CSF protein, glucose, and cell count will be normal. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing permanent vision loss. Therefore, if you experience any of the symptoms mentioned above, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A first-year medical student is participating in a bedside teaching session and is...

    Incorrect

    • A first-year medical student is participating in a bedside teaching session and is instructed to listen to the patient's heart. The student places the stethoscope over the patient's fourth left intercostal space just lateral to the sternum.
      What heart valve's normal sounds would be best detected with the stethoscope positioned as described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid

      Explanation:

      Auscultation of Heart Valves: Locations and Sounds

      The human heart has four valves that regulate blood flow. These valves can be heard through auscultation, a medical technique that involves listening to the sounds produced by the heart using a stethoscope. Here are the locations and sounds of each valve:

      Tricuspid Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard at the left sternal border in the fourth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.

      Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard over the right sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.

      Pulmonary Valve: This valve is located on the right side of the heart and can be heard over the left sternal border at the second intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a high-pitched, clicking noise.

      Thebesian Valve: The Thebesian valve is located in the coronary sinus and its closure cannot be auscultated.

      Mitral Valve: This valve is located on the left side of the heart and can be heard by listening at the apex, in the left mid-clavicular line in the fifth intercostal space. The sound produced by this valve is a low-pitched, rumbling noise.

      In summary, auscultation of heart valves is an important diagnostic tool that can help healthcare professionals identify potential heart problems. By knowing the locations and sounds of each valve, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department after coughing up blood this...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department after coughing up blood this morning. She is a non-smoker and has been feeling fatigued for the past four months, losing 5 kg in weight. She has also experienced joint pains in her wrists and noticed blood in her urine on two separate occasions. Her medical history includes sinusitis and recurrent nosebleeds. The chest X-ray and urinalysis reports reveal bilateral perihilar cavitating nodules and protein +, blood ++, respectively. What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA)

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, joint pain, and systemic features, ANCA associated vasculitis should be considered. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis) is a type of ANCA associated vasculitis that often presents with these symptoms, as well as ENT symptoms. A chest X-ray may show nodular, fibrotic, or infiltrative opacities. The best diagnostic test for granulomatosis with polyangiitis is cANCA. ANA is typically associated with autoimmune conditions like SLE, systemic sclerosis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and autoimmune hepatitis. pANCA is more specific for eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss), which presents with asthma and eosinophilia and is often associated with conditions like ulcerative colitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and anti-GBM disease. If a patient presents with haemoptysis, weight loss, and cavitary lesions on chest X-ray, sputum acid-fast stain would be the appropriate diagnostic test for tuberculosis. However, if the patient also has haematuria, arthralgia, sinusitis, and epistaxis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely.

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management

      Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 25 - A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is conducted on a 32-year-old woman at 39 weeks gestation...

    Incorrect

    • A Cardiotocogram (CTG) is conducted on a 32-year-old woman at 39 weeks gestation who has arrived at the labor ward in spontaneous labor. The CTG reveals a fetal heart rate of 150 bpm with good variability, and it is a low-risk pregnancy. The midwife contacts you with worries about the presence of late decelerations on the CTG trace. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fetal blood sampling

      Explanation:

      When late decelerations are observed on a CTG, it is considered a pathological finding and requires immediate fetal blood sampling to check for fetal hypoxia and acidosis. A pH level of over 7.2 during labor is considered normal, but if fetal acidosis is detected, urgent delivery should be considered. Despite the reassuring normal fetal heart rate and variability, the presence of late decelerations is a worrisome sign that requires prompt investigation and management.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old depressed male is prescribed ciclosporin following a liver transplant. After two...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old depressed male is prescribed ciclosporin following a liver transplant. After two weeks, he experiences flu-like symptoms, a fever of 39ºC, and decreased urine output. What substance is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St John's-wort

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort induces the P450 system, which can result in a decrease in ciclosporin levels and potentially lead to rejection of a transplant. Conversely, the other options listed act as inhibitors of the P450 system and may cause an increase in ciclosporin plasma levels.

      St John’s Wort: An Alternative Treatment for Mild-Moderate Depression

      St John’s Wort has been found to be as effective as tricyclic antidepressants in treating mild-moderate depression. Its mechanism of action is thought to be similar to SSRIs, although it has also been shown to inhibit noradrenaline uptake. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises against its use due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in the nature of preparations, and potential serious interactions with other drugs.

      In clinical trials, the adverse effects of St John’s Wort were similar to those of a placebo. However, it can cause serotonin syndrome and is an inducer of the P450 system, which can lead to decreased levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. Additionally, the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may be reduced.

      Overall, St John’s Wort may be a viable alternative treatment for those with mild-moderate depression. However, caution should be exercised due to potential interactions with other medications and the lack of standardization in dosing and preparation. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - You are interested in determining whether seatbelt use has an impact on the...

    Incorrect

    • You are interested in determining whether seatbelt use has an impact on the severity of injuries incurred following a motor vehicle accident among elderly individuals. You approach a doctor in the Geriatric Department, and he suggests you design a study.
      Which of the following study designs would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Study Design for Assessing Seatbelt Use and Motor Vehicle Accidents

      When it comes to studying the relationship between seatbelt use and the severity of injuries in motor vehicle accidents, choosing the right study design is crucial. While each design has its strengths and weaknesses, some are more appropriate than others for this particular research question.

      Case-control studies are the most suitable for assessing factors associated with rare events, such as motor vehicle accidents. They can quickly and cost-effectively determine if seatbelt use affects injury severity.

      Cross-sectional studies, on the other hand, are descriptive and cannot accurately determine associations. Cohort studies may be able to answer the question, but they require a significant amount of time and expense due to their prospective nature. Randomised controlled trials are not appropriate for this research question as it would be unethical to expose participants to something dangerous like a motor vehicle collision.

      Finally, case series can provide a starting point for other study designs but are most useful for identifying possible relationships that must be explored in a more rigorous manner. In conclusion, a case-control study is the most appropriate study design for assessing the relationship between seatbelt use and the severity of injuries in motor vehicle accidents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old man was diagnosed with prostate cancer two years ago. He had...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man was diagnosed with prostate cancer two years ago. He had radiotherapy. His prostate specific antigen level (PSA) had been normal until it began to rise four months ago.
      He is well informed and asks if he should be on hormone treatment.
      When should hormone treatment be initiated in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If he has a PSA doubling time of less than 3 months

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Therapy for Biochemical Relapse in Prostate Cancer

      According to NICE guidance, a biochemical relapse in prostate cancer, indicated by a rising PSA level, should not always lead to an immediate change in treatment. Hormonal therapy is not typically recommended for men with prostate cancer who experience a biochemical relapse unless they have symptomatic local disease progression, proven metastases, or a PSA doubling time of less than three months. In other words, if the cancer has not spread beyond the prostate and is not causing any symptoms, hormonal therapy may not be necessary. However, if the cancer has spread or is progressing rapidly, hormonal therapy may be recommended to slow down the cancer’s growth and improve the patient’s quality of life. It is important for patients to discuss their individual circumstances with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 29 - An 86-year-old man with a history of osteoporosis and chronic kidney disease was...

    Incorrect

    • An 86-year-old man with a history of osteoporosis and chronic kidney disease was admitted to the hospital after falling at home and experiencing significant lower back pain. An x-ray of his lumbar spine revealed a fractured lumbar vertebra, and an MRI lumbar/sacral scan showed a new L3 burst fracture without cord compression. The neurosurgical team recommended conservative management, including pain control, physiotherapy, and mobilization as tolerated. Due to his chronic renal impairment with a creatinine clearance of 21 ml/min, the patient was started on a Buprenorphine patch. What would be the safest opioid to use for his breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure can safely use oxycodone as an opioid, unlike morphine which can accumulate toxic metabolites in renal failure. Long-term use of morphine is contraindicated in such patients due to the risk of toxicity and overdose. Oxycodone, on the other hand, is primarily metabolized in the liver and can be used with dose reductions in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.

      Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling unwell for a few days. She has been experiencing intermittent fevers and chills and complains of extreme fatigue. Suddenly, half an hour before her admission to the hospital, she lost all vision in her left eye.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale and unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5°C, pulse 120/minute, regular, blood pressure 100/55 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22/minute. A pansystolic murmur is audible at the apex and lower left sternal border. Both lungs are clear.

      The right pupil reacts normally to light, but there is no reaction from the left pupil, which remains fixed and dilated. The patient has complete loss of vision in the left eye, and the left fundus appears paler than the right, without papilloedema. The only additional finding on examination was a paronychia on her right thumb, and light pressure on the nail bed was very uncomfortable.

      Investigations reveal the following results: Hb 109 g/L (115-165), WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7), Lymphocytes 4.8 ×109/L (1.5-4), Monocytes 0.29 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.01 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), and Platelets 550 ×109/L (150-400).

      What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of her illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood cultures

      Explanation:

      Complications of Chronic Paronychia

      Chronic paronychia can lead to serious complications such as osteomyelitis and endocarditis. The most common causative organism for these complications is Staphylococcus aureus. Endocarditis can cause emboli, which are fragments of vegetation that can block or damage blood vessels in any part of the body. This can result in severe consequences such as blindness, stroke, or paralysis.

      To properly assess and manage a patient with chronic paronychia and its complications, several investigations may be necessary. However, the most crucial immediate investigations are blood cultures and echocardiography. These tests can help identify the causative organism and determine the extent of damage to the heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosurgery (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Passmed