00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 63-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of dizziness and haematemesis...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of dizziness and haematemesis that started 2 hours ago. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus.

      The patient is stabilized after receiving 2 litres of normal saline for fluid resuscitation. The next day, a gastroscopy is performed, revealing a peptic ulcer that is no longer actively bleeding. The CLO test is positive, indicating the presence of the likely organism.

      What is the name of the enzyme secreted by this organism to aid its survival in the stomach?

      Your Answer: Urease

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori uses urease to survive in the stomach by neutralizing gastric acid. This enzyme produces ammonia, which creates a more suitable environment for bacterial growth. The patient’s CLO positive peptic ulcer is consistent with a Helicobacter pylori infection. It is important to note that Helicobacter pylori does not use arginase, beta-lactamase, protease, or trypsin to neutralize stomach acid.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated for an abdominal mass. She delivered her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated for an abdominal mass. She delivered her first child vaginally and without any issues. Biopsy results indicate the presence of differentiated fibroblasts in sheets, which is indicative of a desmoid tumor. What is a potential risk factor for this type of tumor?

      Your Answer: BRCA1

      Correct Answer: APC mutations

      Explanation:

      Desmoid tumours are more likely to occur in individuals with APC mutations.

      Pancreatic and hepatic cancer have been linked to CA-199.

      Breast cancer is strongly linked to BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations.

      Burkitt’s lymphoma, a high-grade B-cell neoplasm, is associated with translocation of the C-myc gene.

      Desmoid tumours are growths that arise from musculoaponeurotic structures and are made up of clonal proliferations of myofibroblasts. They are typically firm and have a tendency to infiltrate surrounding tissue. These tumours are often seen in patients with familial adenomatous polyposis coli, and are most commonly found in women after childbirth in the rectus abdominis muscle. Bi allelic APC mutations are usually present in desmoid tumours.

      The preferred treatment for desmoid tumours is radical surgical resection, although radiotherapy and chemotherapy may be considered in some cases. Non-surgical therapy is generally less effective than surgical resection. In certain cases of abdominal desmoids, observation may be preferred as some tumours may spontaneously regress. However, desmoids have a high likelihood of local recurrence. These tumours consist of sheets of differentiated fibroblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium-potassium exchange in the salivary ducts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which hormone is primarily responsible for sodium-potassium exchange in the salivary ducts?

      Your Answer: Vasopressin

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone

      Explanation:

      The regulation of ion exchange in salivary glands is attributed to aldosterone. This hormone targets a pump that facilitates the exchange of sodium and potassium ions. Aldosterone is classified as a mineralocorticoid hormone and is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland.

      The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man has come in for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has come in for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. However, his faecal calprotectin was slightly elevated, but not high enough to raise suspicion of inflammatory bowel disease.

      He had initially presented with abdominal pain and diarrhoea, along with feelings of discomfort and bloating that were relieved upon defecation. He denied any presence of blood in his stool. You prescribed psyllium husk and scheduled a review in four weeks. He has a medical history of low back pain, migraine, and depression.

      Today, his faecal calprotectin has returned to normal levels. What is the most likely cause of the initial abnormal test result?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Correct Answer: Use of NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome (MWS) is characterized by a rupture in the mucous membrane at the junction of the stomach and oesophagus.

      Faecal Calprotectin: A Screening Tool for Intestinal Inflammation

      Faecal calprotectin is a recommended screening tool for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) by NICE. It is a test that detects intestinal inflammation and can also be used to monitor the response to treatment in IBD patients. The test has a high sensitivity of 93% and specificity of 96% for IBD in adults. However, in children, the specificity falls to around 75%.

      Apart from IBD, other conditions that can cause a raised faecal calprotectin include bowel malignancy, coeliac disease, infectious colitis, and the use of NSAIDs. Therefore, faecal calprotectin is a useful diagnostic tool for detecting intestinal inflammation and can aid in the diagnosis and management of various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following forms the medial wall of the femoral canal?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following forms the medial wall of the femoral canal?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Correct Answer: Lacunar ligament

      Explanation:

      It is important to differentiate between the femoral canal and the femoral triangle, particularly during exams when time is limited.

      Understanding the Femoral Canal

      The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.

      The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa. Upon palpation, the patient experiences pain in the right iliac fossa when pressure is applied to the left iliac fossa. What is the term used to describe this sign?

      Your Answer: McBurney's sign

      Correct Answer: Rovsing's sign

      Explanation:

      Rovsing’s sign is a diagnostic indicator of appendicitis, characterized by pain in the right lower abdomen when the left lower abdomen is palpated. The Psoas sign is another indicator of appendicitis, where flexing the right hip causes irritation of the psoas muscle. The Obturator sign is also a sign of appendicitis, where discomfort is felt in the obturator internus muscle when both the hip and knees are flexed to 90 degrees. However, McBurney’s sign, which refers to pain in the right lower abdomen 2/3 of the way from the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac spine, is not a reliable indicator of appendicitis.

      Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.

      The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.

      Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old female was admitted to the paediatric unit with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female was admitted to the paediatric unit with a history of anorexia nervosa and a body mass index of 16kg/mÂČ. Despite being uncooperative initially, she has shown improvement in her willingness to participate with the team. However, she now presents with complaints of abdominal pain and weakness. Upon blood testing, the following results were obtained:

      Hb 125 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 70 ”mol/L (55 - 120)

      Calcium 2.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.5 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      Magnesium 0.6 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)

      What is the likely cause of the patient's abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: High fat intake

      Correct Answer: Extended period of low calories then high carbohydrate intake

      Explanation:

      Refeeding syndrome can occur in patients who have experienced prolonged catabolism and then suddenly switch to carbohydrate metabolism. This can lead to a rapid uptake of phosphate, potassium, and magnesium into the cells, caused by spikes in insulin and glucose. Patients with low BMI and poor nutritional intake over a long period of time are at a higher risk. Taking vitamin tablets would not affect blood results, but excessive intake can result in hypervitaminosis. While exogenous insulin could also cause this syndrome, there is no indication that the patient has taken it. To reduce the risk of refeeding syndrome, some patients may be advised to follow initial high-fat, low-carbohydrate diets.

      Understanding Refeeding Syndrome

      Refeeding syndrome is a condition that occurs when a person who has been starved for an extended period suddenly begins to eat again. This metabolic abnormality is caused by the abrupt switch from catabolism to carbohydrate metabolism. The consequences of refeeding syndrome include hypophosphataemia, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and abnormal fluid balance, which can lead to organ failure.

      To prevent refeeding syndrome, it is important to identify patients who are at high risk of developing the condition. According to guidelines produced by NICE in 2006, patients are considered high-risk if they have a BMI of less than 16 kg/m2, have experienced unintentional weight loss of more than 15% over 3-6 months, have had little nutritional intake for more than 10 days, or have hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia, or hypomagnesaemia prior to feeding (unless high).

      If a patient has two or more of the following risk factors, they are also considered high-risk: a BMI of less than 18.5 kg/m2, unintentional weight loss of more than 10% over 3-6 months, little nutritional intake for more than 5 days, or a history of alcohol abuse, drug therapy (including insulin, chemotherapy, diuretics, and antacids).

      To prevent refeeding syndrome, NICE recommends that patients who haven’t eaten for more than 5 days should be re-fed at no more than 50% of their requirements for the first 2 days. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent the potentially life-threatening consequences of refeeding syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after vomiting blood. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents to the emergency department after vomiting blood. He had been out drinking heavily with friends and had vomited multiple times, with the last episode containing a significant amount of blood.

      Upon examination, the patient appeared intoxicated and had a pulse of 96 bpm and a blood pressure of 120/74 mmHg. Abdominal examination revealed no abnormalities.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Mallory Weiss Tear and Alcoholic Gastritis

      Repeated episodes of vomiting due to alcohol consumption can lead to a Mallory Weiss tear, which is a mucosal tear in the esophagus. This tear can cause hematemesis, which is vomiting of blood. This is a common occurrence in habitual drinkers who suffer from alcoholic gastritis. Along with upper abdominal pain, this condition can cause a rise in esophageal pressures, leading to mucosal tears. However, most patients only lose small amounts of blood, and symptoms can often be resolved with minimal intervention. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient with a history of diverticular disease presents to the surgical assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of diverticular disease presents to the surgical assessment unit with abdominal pain and a fever. Her white blood cell count is elevated, but she is otherwise stable. The diagnosis is diverticulitis. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Analgesia and antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Antibiotics, a liquid diet and analgesia

      Explanation:

      The initial management approach for mild diverticulitis typically involves a combination of oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia.

      Understanding Diverticulitis

      Diverticulitis is a condition where an out-pouching of the intestinal mucosa becomes infected. This out-pouching is called a diverticulum and the presence of these pouches is known as diverticulosis. Diverticula are common and are thought to be caused by increased pressure in the colon. They usually occur in the sigmoid colon and are more prevalent in Westerners over the age of 60. While only a quarter of people with diverticulosis experience symptoms, 75% of those who do will have an episode of diverticulitis.

      Risk factors for diverticulitis include age, lack of dietary fiber, obesity (especially in younger patients), and a sedentary lifestyle. Patients with diverticular disease may experience intermittent abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits. Those with acute diverticulitis may experience severe abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, changes in bowel habits, and urinary symptoms. Complications may include colovesical or colovaginal fistulas.

      Signs of diverticulitis include low-grade fever, tachycardia, tender lower left quadrant of the abdomen, and possibly a palpable mass. Imaging tests such as an erect chest X-ray, abdominal X-ray, and CT scan may be used to diagnose diverticulitis. Treatment may involve oral antibiotics, a liquid diet, and analgesia for mild cases. More severe cases may require hospitalization for intravenous antibiotics. Colonoscopy should be avoided initially due to the risk of perforation.

      In summary, diverticulitis is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and complications. Understanding the risk factors, symptoms, and signs of diverticulitis can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old woman is undergoing a challenging cholecystectomy with significant bleeding. The surgical...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman is undergoing a challenging cholecystectomy with significant bleeding. The surgical team decides to place a vascular clamp horizontally across the front edge of the epiploic foramen. What structure will be blocked by this action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The portal vein, hepatic artery, and common bile duct are blocked.

      The Epiploic Foramen and its Boundaries

      The epiploic foramen is a small opening in the peritoneum that connects the greater and lesser sacs of the abdomen. It is located posterior to the liver and anterior to the inferior vena cava. The boundaries of the epiploic foramen include the bile duct to the right, the portal vein behind, and the hepatic artery to the left. The inferior boundary is the first part of the duodenum, while the superior boundary is the caudate process of the liver.

      During liver surgery, bleeding can be controlled by performing a Pringles manoeuvre. This involves placing a vascular clamp across the anterior aspect of the epiploic foramen, which occludes the common bile duct, hepatic artery, and portal vein. This technique is useful in preventing excessive bleeding during liver surgery and can help to ensure a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 20-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 5-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 5-month history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. He reports passing fresh red blood in his stool and having up to 7 bowel movements a day in the last month. He has lost 6kg in weight over the last 5 months.

      The patient is referred for various investigations.

      What finding would support the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goblet cell depletion

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease has the potential to impact any section of the digestive system, including the oral mucosa and peri-anal region. It is common for there to be healthy areas of bowel in between the inflamed segments. The disease is characterized by deep ulceration in the gut mucosa, with skip lesions creating a distinctive cobblestone appearance during endoscopy.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 20-year-old woman currently completing her exams presents to her GP with fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman currently completing her exams presents to her GP with fatigue and generalised weakness. She has also noted that her skin and the whites of her eyes appear yellow. The GP suspects the patient may have Gilbert’s syndrome and orders liver function tests to determine the patient’s baseline liver function. The GP advises the patient that no treatment is necessary for this condition.

      Reference range
      Bilirubin 3 - 17 ”mol/L
      ALP 30 - 100 u/L
      ALT 3 - 40 u/L
      ÎłGT 8 - 60 u/L
      Albumin 35 - 50 g/L
      LDH 100 - 190 U/L

      What set of results would be expected from this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilirubin 40 umol/l, ALT 15 U/L, LDH 160 U/L, GGT 25 U/L

      Explanation:

      Jaundice becomes visible when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Therefore, the correct option is the one with a bilirubin level of 40 umol/l, as this is typically the range where jaundice becomes visible. Furthermore, all other liver function values in this option are within the normal range. The other options are incorrect because they have bilirubin levels that are too low to cause visible jaundice, and the liver function results are usually normal in cases of Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Understanding Bilirubin and Its Role in Jaundice

      Bilirubin is a chemical by-product that is produced when red blood cells break down heme, a component found in these cells. This chemical is also found in other hepatic heme-containing proteins like myoglobin. The heme is processed within macrophages and oxidized to form biliverdin and iron. Biliverdin is then reduced to form unconjugated bilirubin, which is released into the bloodstream.

      Unconjugated bilirubin is bound to albumin in the blood and then taken up by hepatocytes, where it is conjugated to make it water-soluble. From there, it is excreted into bile and enters the intestines to be broken down by intestinal bacteria. Bacterial proteases produce urobilinogen from bilirubin within the intestinal lumen, which is further processed by intestinal bacteria to form urobilin and stercobilin and excreted via the faeces. A small amount of bilirubin re-enters the portal circulation to be finally excreted via the kidneys in urine.

      Jaundice occurs when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin may occur due to haemolysis, while hepatocyte defects, such as a compromised hepatocyte uptake of unconjugated bilirubin and/or defective conjugation, may occur in liver disease or deficiency of glucuronyl transferase. Raised levels of conjugated bilirubin can result from defective excretion of bilirubin, for example, Dubin-Johnson Syndrome, or cholestasis.

      Cholestasis can result from a wide range of pathologies, which can be largely divided into physical causes, for example, gallstones, pancreatic and cholangiocarcinoma, or functional causes, for example, drug-induced, pregnancy-related and postoperative cholestasis. Understanding bilirubin and its role in jaundice is important in diagnosing and treating various liver and blood disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. After thorough investigation, including mesenteric angiography, it was found that the left colic flexure was experiencing ischemia. Which artery provides direct supply to this region through its branches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon, while the proximal two thirds are supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA. The left colic artery, a branch of the IMA, supplies the remaining distal portion. Although the left colic artery is the primary supplier, collateral flow from branches of the middle colic artery also contributes. The left colic flexure, located between the end of the SMA and the start of the IMA’s blood supply, is a watershed region that can be susceptible to ischemia due to atherosclerotic changes or hypotension.

      The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and also has branches that supply the stomach and pancreas. There is no such thing as the AMA or PMA.

      The Transverse Colon: Anatomy and Relations

      The transverse colon is a part of the large intestine that begins at the hepatic flexure, where the right colon makes a sharp turn. At this point, it becomes intraperitoneal and is connected to the inferior border of the pancreas by the transverse mesocolon. The middle colic artery and vein are contained within the mesentery. The greater omentum is attached to the superior aspect of the transverse colon, which can be easily separated. The colon undergoes another sharp turn at the splenic flexure, where the greater omentum remains attached up to this point. The distal 1/3 of the transverse colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The transverse colon is related to various structures. Superiorly, it is in contact with the liver, gallbladder, the greater curvature of the stomach, and the lower end of the spleen. Inferiorly, it is related to the small intestine. Anteriorly, it is in contact with the greater omentum, while posteriorly, it is in contact with the descending portion of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, convolutions of the jejunum and ileum, and the spleen. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the transverse colon is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure...

    Incorrect

    • During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure is most vulnerable to damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left ureter

      Explanation:

      The left ureter is the structure that is most commonly encountered and at the highest risk of damage by a careless surgeon, although all of these structures are at risk.

      The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.

      The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.

      The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 61-year-old man is having surgery for a cancerous tumor in the splenic...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man is having surgery for a cancerous tumor in the splenic flexure of his colon. During the procedure, the surgeons cut the middle colic vein near its source. What is the primary drainage location for this vessel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric vein

      Explanation:

      If the middle colonic vein is torn during mobilization, it can lead to severe bleeding that may be challenging to manage as it drains into the SMV.

      The Transverse Colon: Anatomy and Relations

      The transverse colon is a part of the large intestine that begins at the hepatic flexure, where the right colon makes a sharp turn. At this point, it becomes intraperitoneal and is connected to the inferior border of the pancreas by the transverse mesocolon. The middle colic artery and vein are contained within the mesentery. The greater omentum is attached to the superior aspect of the transverse colon, which can be easily separated. The colon undergoes another sharp turn at the splenic flexure, where the greater omentum remains attached up to this point. The distal 1/3 of the transverse colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The transverse colon is related to various structures. Superiorly, it is in contact with the liver, gallbladder, the greater curvature of the stomach, and the lower end of the spleen. Inferiorly, it is related to the small intestine. Anteriorly, it is in contact with the greater omentum, while posteriorly, it is in contact with the descending portion of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, convolutions of the jejunum and ileum, and the spleen. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the transverse colon is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy as a daycase, but the surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy as a daycase, but the surgery proves to be more challenging than expected. As a result, the surgeon inserts a drain to the liver bed. During recovery, 1.5 litres of blood is observed to enter the drain. What is the initial substance to be released in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renin

      Explanation:

      Renin secretion is triggered by the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney sensing a decrease in blood pressure.

      Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the...

    Incorrect

    • During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the oesophagus which structure is divided to allow mobilisation of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is divided during oesophagectomy to allow mobilisation. It inserts into the SVC on the right side.

      Treatment Options for Oesophageal Cancer

      Oesophageal cancer is typically treated through surgical resection, with neoadjuvant chemotherapy given prior to the procedure. In situ disease may be managed through endoscopic mucosal resection, while unresectable disease may benefit from local ablative procedures, palliative chemotherapy, or stent insertion. However, resections are not typically offered to patients with distant metastasis or N2 disease, and local nodal involvement is not a contraindication to resection.

      For lower and middle third oesophageal tumours, an Ivor-Lewis procedure is commonly performed. This involves a combined laparotomy and right thoracotomy, with the stomach mobilized through a rooftop incision and the oesophagus removed through a thoracotomy. The chest is then closed with underwater seal drainage and tube drains to the abdominal cavity. Postoperatively, patients will typically recover in the intensive care unit and may experience complications such as atelectasis, anastomotic leakage, and delayed gastric emptying.

      Overall, treatment options for oesophageal cancer depend on the extent of the disease and the patient’s individual circumstances. While surgical resection is the mainstay of treatment, other options such as chemotherapy and local ablative procedures may be considered for unresectable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with left-sided abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with left-sided abdominal pain and rectal bleeding. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation and is on apixaban. He does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol.

      His observations are heart rate 111 beats per minute, blood pressure 101/58 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/minute, oxygen saturation 96% on room air and temperature 37.8ÂșC.

      Abdominal examination reveals tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are sluggish. Rectal examination demonstrates a small amount of fresh red blood but no mass lesions, haemorrhoids or fissures. His pulse is irregular. Chest auscultation is normal.

      An ECG demonstrates atrial fibrillation.

      Blood tests:


      Hb 133 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 444 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 18.1 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 131 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 130 ”mol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 32 mg/L (< 5)
      Lactate 2.6 mmol/L (0.0-2.0)

      Based on the presumed diagnosis, what is the likely location of the pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischaemic colitis most frequently affects the splenic flexure.

      Understanding Ischaemic Colitis

      Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.

      When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman with a three week history of abdominal pain, diarrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a three week history of abdominal pain, diarrhoea and weight loss undergoes a colonoscopy. Biopsies are taken and a diagnosis of Crohn's disease is made.

      What microscopic changes are expected to be observed in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased goblet cells

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is characterized by an increase in goblet cells on microscopic examination. Unlike ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease may have skip lesions and transmural inflammation. Pseudopolyps and shortening of crypts are more commonly seen in ulcerative colitis.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute abdominal pain and diarrhoea that started 3 hours ago. Upon examination, his pulse is 105 bpm, blood pressure is 98/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.5 ÂșC. The abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness with rebound and guarding. The X-ray shows thumbprinting, leading you to suspect that he may have ischaemic colitis. Which specific area is the most probable site of involvement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischemic colitis is a condition where blood flow to a part of the large intestine is temporarily reduced, often due to a blockage or hypo-perfusion. While any part of the colon can be affected, it most commonly affects the left side. The hepatic flexure, located on the right side of the colon, is less likely to be involved as it has a good blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery (SMA). The ileocecal junction is also less likely to be affected as it has a good blood supply from the ileocolic artery, a branch of the SMA. The splenic flexure, located between the left colon and the transverse colon, is the most likely area to be affected by ischaemic colitis as it is a watershed area supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The sigmoid colon, supplied by the sigmoidal branches of the inferior mesenteric artery, is less likely to be affected. The recto-sigmoid junction is also a watershed area and vulnerable to ischaemic colitis, but it is less common than ischaemia at the splenic flexure.

      Ischaemia to the lower gastrointestinal tract can result in acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, and ischaemic colitis. Common predisposing factors include increasing age, atrial fibrillation, other causes of emboli, cardiovascular disease risk factors, and cocaine use. Common features include abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhea, fever, and elevated white blood cell count with lactic acidosis. CT is the investigation of choice. Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism and requires urgent surgery. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia presents with intermittent abdominal pain. Ischaemic colitis is an acute but transient compromise in blood flow to the large bowel and may require surgery in a minority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain that has been ongoing for two days. The pain is diffuse, sudden in onset, and not radiating. She has a medical history of antiphospholipid syndrome but no cirrhosis.

      Upon examination, the patient is visibly jaundiced and her abdomen is noticeably distended. There is painful hepatomegaly and shifting dullness. Abdominal ultrasonography confirms the presence of ascites and venous outflow obstruction.

      Which vessel is the most likely culprit for the occlusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic vein

      Explanation:

      Budd-Chiari syndrome is caused by thrombosis of the hepatic vein, resulting in symptoms such as painful hepatomegaly, jaundice, and ascites. This patient’s antiphospholipid syndrome increases their risk of thrombosis, making Budd-Chiari syndrome more likely than hepatic portal vein thrombosis. Inferior mesenteric vein thrombosis is an unlikely cause of the patient’s symptoms, while inferior vena cava thrombosis would present differently and is associated with lung malignancy.

      Understanding Budd-Chiari Syndrome

      Budd-Chiari syndrome, also known as hepatic vein thrombosis, is a condition that is often associated with an underlying hematological disease or another procoagulant condition. The causes of this syndrome include polycythemia rubra vera, thrombophilia, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The symptoms of Budd-Chiari syndrome typically include sudden onset and severe abdominal pain, ascites leading to abdominal distension, and tender hepatomegaly.

      To diagnose Budd-Chiari syndrome, an ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is usually the initial radiological investigation. This test is highly sensitive and can help identify the presence of the condition. It is important to diagnose and treat Budd-Chiari syndrome promptly to prevent complications such as liver failure and portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old man comes to you with a lump in his testicle. As...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to you with a lump in his testicle. As you take his history, you wonder which of the following factors poses the greatest risk for testicular cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Testicular cancer is more likely to occur in men who have had undescended testis, with a 40-fold increase in risk. Other risk factors include being of white ethnicity, being between the ages of 15-35, and not having had testicular trauma.

      Cryptorchidism: Undescended Testis in Boys

      Cryptorchidism is a congenital condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. Although the cause of this condition is mostly unknown, it may be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis.

      Correcting cryptorchidism is important to reduce the risk of infertility, examine the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testis are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, especially if the testis is intra-abdominal.

      The treatment for cryptorchidism is orchidopexy, which is usually performed between 6 to 18 months of age. The procedure involves exploring the inguinal area, mobilizing the testis, and implanting it into a dartos pouch. In cases where the testis is intra-abdominal, laparoscopic evaluation and mobilization may be necessary. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be a better option for those presenting late in their teenage years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During a radical gastrectomy for carcinoma of the stomach, if the patient is...

    Incorrect

    • During a radical gastrectomy for carcinoma of the stomach, if the patient is elderly, would the surgeons still remove the omentum? What is the main source of its blood supply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastroepiploic artery

      Explanation:

      The omental branches of the right and left gastro-epiploic arteries provide the blood supply to the omentum, while the colonic vessels do not play a role in this. The left gastro-epiploic artery originates from the splenic artery, and the right gastro-epiploic artery is the final branch of the gastroduodenal artery.

      The Omentum: A Protective Structure in the Abdomen

      The omentum is a structure in the abdomen that invests the stomach and is divided into two parts: the greater and lesser omentum. The greater omentum is attached to the lower lateral border of the stomach and contains the gastro-epiploic arteries. It varies in size and is less developed in children. However, it plays an important role in protecting against visceral perforation, such as in cases of appendicitis.

      The lesser omentum is located between the omentum and transverse colon, providing a potential entry point into the lesser sac. Malignant processes can affect the omentum, with ovarian cancer being the most notable. Overall, the omentum is a crucial structure in the abdomen that serves as a protective barrier against potential injuries and diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with an inguinal hernia. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with an inguinal hernia. During the examination, a small direct hernia is observed along with pigmented spots on his palms, soles, and around his mouth. The patient had undergone a reduction of an intussusception when he was 10 years old. If a colonoscopy is performed, which of the following lesions is most likely to be detected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hamartomas

      Explanation:

      It is probable that he has Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a condition that is linked to the presence of Hamartomas.

      Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.

      While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.

      Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which one of the following statements relating to the pancreas is not true?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the pancreas is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin causes relaxation of the gallbladder

      Explanation:

      The contraction of the gallbladder is caused by CCK.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A different patient undergoes a femoral hernia repair and during the operation, the...

    Incorrect

    • A different patient undergoes a femoral hernia repair and during the operation, the surgeon decides to enter the abdominal cavity to resect small bowel. A transverse incision is made two thirds of the way between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis. Which of the structures listed below will remain intact?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior lamina of the rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      At this level, the incision is situated beneath the arcuate line and there is a lack of posterior wall in the rectus sheath.

      The rectus sheath is a structure formed by the aponeuroses of the lateral abdominal wall muscles. Its composition varies depending on the anatomical level. Above the costal margin, the anterior sheath is made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, with the costal cartilages located behind it. From the costal margin to the arcuate line, the anterior rectus sheath is composed of the external oblique aponeurosis and the anterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis. The posterior rectus sheath is formed by the posterior part of the internal oblique aponeurosis and transversus abdominis. Below the arcuate line, all the abdominal muscle aponeuroses are located in the anterior aspect of the rectus sheath, while the transversalis fascia and peritoneum are located posteriorly. The arcuate line is the point where the inferior epigastric vessels enter the rectus sheath.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man with a carcinoma of the lower third of the oesophagus...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a carcinoma of the lower third of the oesophagus is having an oesophagogastrectomy. During the mobilization of the lower part of the oesophagus, where is the thoracic duct most likely to be encountered by the surgeons?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior to the oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The thoracic duct is situated at the back of the oesophagus and takes a leftward course at the Angle of Louis. It joins the aorta at T12 as it enters the thorax.

      The Thoracic Duct: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The thoracic duct is a continuation of the cisterna chyli located in the abdomen. It enters the thorax at the level of T12 and runs posterior to the esophagus for most of its intrathoracic course. At T5, it passes to the left side of the body. Lymphatics from the left side of the head and neck join the thoracic duct before it empties into the left brachiocephalic vein. In contrast, lymphatics from the right side of the head and neck drain into the right lymphatic duct, which eventually empties into the right brachiocephalic vein via the mediastinal trunk.

      The thoracic duct’s location in the thorax makes it vulnerable to injury during oesophageal surgery. To avoid damaging the duct, some surgeons apply cream to patients before oesophagectomy to help identify the cut ends of the duct. Understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the thoracic duct is essential for healthcare professionals involved in thoracic surgery and lymphatic drainage disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man is admitted to the general medical ward with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted to the general medical ward with complaints of abdominal crampy pain and diarrhoea. He has had five loose stools in the past 24 hours. The patient was diagnosed with a lung abscess three days ago and is currently being treated with cefaclor in the ward. His blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 98 beats per minute, and temperature is 38.2 ÂșC. Blood investigations reveal Hb of 135 g/L, platelets of 280 * 109/L, and WBC of 13.4 * 109/L. A stool sample is sent for testing, and the results show the presence of gram-positive bacteria. The consultant prescribes metronidazole along with bezlotoxumab that binds to the toxin B of this bacterium. What is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Bezlotoxumab targets the Clostridium difficile toxin B, making it a monoclonal antibody used for treatment. Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive rod that can cause diarrhoea and abdominal pain when normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics. Bacillus cereus, Campylobacter jejuni, and Escherichia coli are incorrect answers as they are either associated with different symptoms or are gram-negative, making bezlotoxumab ineffective for their treatment.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man presents to the hospital with joint pain, fatigue, unintentional weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the hospital with joint pain, fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and diffuse abdominal pain. He is also complaining of polyuria and polydipsia. He is somewhat of a loner, who lives alone and has never visited a doctor before. He is an orphan who does not know anything about his biological parents.

      Upon examination, tenderness is noticed in the right upper quadrant, and the presence of ascites on percussion. Additionally, this man's skin has a grey-discoloration. He is diagnosed with cirrhosis and chronic pancreatitis resulting in type 1 diabetes mellitus. An investigation is launched to determine the cause of his condition.

      What is the most probable cause of the patient's cirrhosis and chronic pancreatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis can be attributed to genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and hereditary haemochromatosis. In the case of a man with a slate-grey skin tone, it was discovered that he had developed cirrhosis due to untreated hereditary haemochromatosis. Despite being a hereditary condition, the man was never diagnosed earlier as he was an orphan and a recluse. Excessive alcohol consumption can also lead to cirrhosis and pancreatitis, but it would not explain the grey skin. Chronic hepatitis B infection is another cause of cirrhosis, but it would not be the reason for the pancreatitis.

      Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.

      Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.

      Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic for a follow-up of her COPD. She informs the healthcare provider that she has quit smoking, resulting in fewer COPD exacerbations, none of which required hospitalization. However, she has observed a slight increase in her weight and swelling in her ankles.

      During the physical examination, the patient's weight is noted to be 76kg, up from her previous weight of 72kg. The healthcare provider listens to her heart and lungs and detects normal breath and heart sounds. The patient has bilateral edema that extends up to her mid-calves.

      What other examination findings may be evident, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that they have developed cor pulmonale due to COPD, resulting in right-sided heart failure. On examination, signs of fluid congestion such as peripheral edema, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), ascites, and hepatomegaly may be present. Therefore, the most likely finding would be an enlarged liver with a firm, smooth, tender, and pulsatile edge.

      Caput medusae, which refers to the swelling of superficial veins in the epigastric area, is unlikely to occur in a new presentation of cor pulmonale.

      Narrow pulse pressure is a characteristic of aortic stenosis, which causes left ventricular dysfunction. However, this patient only shows signs of right-sided heart failure.

      A palpable thrill, which indicates turbulent flow across a heart valve, may be felt in severe valvular disease that causes left ventricular dysfunction. Murmurs are often present in valvular disease, but not in this patient’s case.

      Reverse splitting of the second heart sound may occur in aortic stenosis or left bundle branch block, which can cause left ventricular dysfunction.

      Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes

      Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.

      Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.

      Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (1/9) 11%
Passmed