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Question 1
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A 67-year-old man with a history of alcoholism and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency department with a sudden onset of malaise and deterioration. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 37.8°C, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 95/54 mmHg. He is dehydrated with dry mucous membranes. There are no significant findings on respiratory and cardiovascular examinations. However, he has mild suprapubic tenderness and florid erythema, swelling, and blistering of his scrotum and perineum. A repeat examination 30 minutes later reveals spreading of the erythema and crepitations on palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fournier's gangrene
Explanation:Fournier’s Gangrene: A Urological Emergency
Fournier’s gangrene is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. It is a type of necrotising fasciitis that affects the perineum and can quickly spread to the skin of the scrotum and penis. The condition can progress rapidly, with the infection spreading at a rate of 1-2 cm/h. Mortality rates are high, averaging between 20-30%.
There are several risk factors associated with Fournier’s gangrene, including diabetes mellitus, alcohol dependence, immunosuppressive therapy, longstanding steroid therapy, malnutrition, HIV, extremes of age, and low socio-economic status. Early recognition and surgical debridement are crucial for successful treatment.
It is important to differentiate Fournier’s gangrene from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Cellulitis, for example, is a non-necrotising inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues that is related to acute infection but does not involve the fascia or muscles. A scrotal abscess may also present with tenderness and swelling, but there are no signs of rapid spread of infection or necrosis. Epididymo-orchitis is a localised infection of the epididymis and testis, while a hydrocele is a painless collection of peritoneal fluid between the parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis.
In summary, Fournier’s gangrene is a serious urological emergency that requires prompt medical attention. Early recognition and surgical intervention are essential for successful treatment. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to his doctor with complaints of night sweats and unintended weight loss. He has a medical history of axillary lymphadenopathy. The doctor suspects that he may have non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the most probable test to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Full blood count
Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of an enlarged lymph node
Explanation:Diagnostic Investigations for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. There are several diagnostic investigations that can be used to diagnose this condition.
Excisional Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: This is the most common diagnostic investigation for suspected non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It involves removing all of the abnormal tissue from an enlarged lymph node.
Computed Tomography (CT) of the Chest, Neck, Abdomen, and Pelvis: CT scanning can indicate features suggestive of lymphoma, such as lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. However, it cannot provide a tissue diagnosis.
Core Needle Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: If a surgical excisional biopsy is not appropriate, a core needle biopsy can be performed. However, if this does not reveal a definite diagnosis, then an excisional biopsy should be undertaken.
Full Blood Count: A full blood count can be a helpful first-line investigation if a haematological malignancy is suspected, but it is not sufficient to be diagnostic for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Protein Electrophoresis and Urine Bence-Jones Protein: Protein electrophoresis can be helpful in screening for multiple myeloma, but it is not helpful for diagnosing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic investigations can be used to diagnose non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. However, excisional biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 7 week old baby girl is brought to the clinic by her father. He is worried because although the left testis is present in the scrotum the right testis is absent. He reports that it is sometimes palpable when he bathes the child. On examination the right testis is palpable at the level of the superficial inguinal ring. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Re-assess in 6 months
Explanation:At 3 months of age, children may have retractile testes which can be monitored without intervention.
Cryptorchidism is a condition where a testis fails to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. It is a congenital defect that affects up to 5% of male infants at birth, but the incidence decreases to 1-2% by the age of 3 months. The cause of cryptorchidism is mostly unknown, but it can be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions are differential diagnoses that need to be considered.
It is important to correct cryptorchidism to reduce the risk of infertility, allow for examination of the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testes are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, particularly if the testis is intra-abdominal. Orchidopexy, which involves mobilisation of the testis and implantation into a dartos pouch, is the preferred treatment for cryptorchidism between 6-18 months of age. Intra-abdominal testes require laparoscopic evaluation and mobilisation, which may be a single or two-stage procedure depending on the location. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be necessary in late teenage years to avoid the risk of malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner concerned about excessive hair growth on her face, back, and arms. Despite trying various hair removal methods and bleaching, she is considering treatment to prevent hair growth. Her BMI is 30 kg/m2, and she reports irregular periods, menstruating once every 7-9 months. Her recent blood tests showed elevated levels of testosterone and luteinising hormone. What is the best course of action for this patient, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral combined contraceptive pill
Explanation:Management of Hirsutism in Polycystic Ovary Syndrome: First-Line Options
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition characterized by irregular menstrual cycles, excess hair growth, and raised hormone levels. In patients with PCOS experiencing hirsutism and irregular periods, the first-line management option is the oral combined contraceptive pill. This medication reduces hyperandrogenism by suppressing ovarian androgen secretion and increasing binding of androgens, thereby reducing excess hair growth. Metformin can also be used to improve insulin resistance and aid weight management, but it would not be the first-line choice for managing hirsutism. Eflornithine can be used for hirsutism, but in this patient, starting the contraceptive pill will not only treat her hirsutism but also allow for regular withdrawal bleeds and regulate her menstrual cycle. The progesterone-only pill and topical minoxidil are not recommended as first-line options for managing hirsutism in PCOS patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of low back pain and stiffness that has persisted for over 3 months. He denies any history of injury. The patient reports that his symptoms are worse in the morning but improve with exercise. Routine blood tests were normal except for an ESR of 30 mm/hour (normal range: 0-15) and a CRP of 15 mg/L (normal range: <10). A plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints reveals erosions, sclerosis, and joint space widening, leading to a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exercise and NSAIDs
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is primarily managed through exercise and NSAIDs. NSAIDs are effective in relieving symptoms and preventing functional limitations, while regular exercise, including postural training, range of motion exercises, stretching, and recreational activities like swimming, can help reduce and prevent functional limitations.
To measure disease activity, the Ankylosing Spondylitis Disease Activity Score (ASDAS) is used, which categorizes disease activity as inactive, low, high, or very high. If a patient has persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments with NSAIDs, anti-tumor necrosis factor (TNF) therapy may be considered. However, the disease activity must be at least high (≥2.1) on ASDAS to warrant biologic therapy.
Glucocorticoids are not recommended for patients with ankylosing spondylitis. Methotrexate may be prescribed if conventional treatment with NSAIDs does not control symptoms, specifically for persistent peripheral arthritis.
In severe cases where the disease has progressed, surgery may be necessary. Hip and spine surgery may be beneficial for select patients with persistent pain or severe limitation in mobility, neurologic impairment, or severe flexion deformities.
Investigating and Managing Ankylosing Spondylitis
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are usually elevated, but normal levels do not necessarily rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it can also be positive in normal individuals. The most effective way to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis is through a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints. However, if the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI can be obtained to confirm the diagnosis.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis involves regular exercise, such as swimming, and the use of NSAIDs as the first-line treatment. Physiotherapy can also be helpful. Disease-modifying drugs used for rheumatoid arthritis, such as sulphasalazine, are only useful if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy, such as etanercept and adalimumab, should be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Ongoing research is being conducted to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to a combination of pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the way in which ciprofloxacin works?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interference with DNA replication
Explanation:Antibiotics and their Mechanisms of Action
Antibiotics are drugs that are used to treat bacterial infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms within the bacteria to either kill or inhibit their growth. One example is ciprofloxacin, which disrupts the function of DNA gyrase and interferes with DNA synthesis. However, there are many other antibiotics that act by different mechanisms.
Penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as vancomycin, work by inhibiting the cell wall of bacteria. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole, or co-trimoxazole, inhibit folic acid metabolism. Dapsone also works by inhibiting folic acid metabolism. Rifampicin inhibits transcription, while aminoglycosides and tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis at the 30S subunit. Chloramphenicol, macrolides, and clindamycin inhibit protein synthesis at the 50S subunit.
the mechanisms of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a specific bacterial infection. It also helps in preventing the development of antibiotic resistance, as different mechanisms of action can be used in combination to target bacteria in different ways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presents with a red eye and significant nausea. She has noticed that her right eye was red when she woke up from sleep. She also has a concurrent headache with this and her vision is blurry. When asked, she feels that she can see rings around lights as well. She remains otherwise well.
Examination reveals significant conjunctival injection around the right eye. Sarah is very photophobic when testing her right eye. The pupil appears to be dilated at 5 mm and does not respond to light. Her left eye has a pupil size of 3mm and is reactive to light.
What is the likely cause for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute closed angle glaucoma
Explanation:Acute closed-angle glaucoma is a rare but serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. It is more likely to occur in individuals who are long-sighted, have a shallow anterior chamber, or are female. Symptoms include sudden visual loss, a red eye, pain when moving the eye, and the appearance of halos around light. The pupil will be fixed and dilated, and the cornea may appear hazy. Treatment involves reducing intraocular pressure with topical drops.
Anterior uveitis is another possible cause of an acutely red eye with visual loss, but it is not typically associated with halos. The pupil will be normal-sized or small, and there may be precipitates or a hypopyon visible on slit-lamp examination. Uveitis may be a sign of an underlying inflammatory or autoimmune condition.
Primary open-angle glaucoma has a more gradual onset and is often asymptomatic, but may cause peripheral vision loss. Pupillary changes are not typically seen.
Cluster headaches can cause a severe headache, conjunctival injection, and blurry vision, but should not cause any pupillary defects.
Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, halos around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old patient presents with recurrent chest infections and green sputum production. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals ring shadows and bronchial wall thickening in both lung bases. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Recurrent Chest Infections and Bronchiectasis: A Possible Sign of Cystic Fibrosis
Patients who have a history of recurrent chest infections and x-ray appearances that suggest bronchiectasis may be showing signs of cystic fibrosis. Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways in the lungs become damaged and widened, leading to a build-up of mucous and bacteria. This can cause recurrent chest infections, which can be difficult to treat. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that affects the production of mucous, leading to thick and sticky secretions that can block the airways and cause infections.
If a patient is showing signs of bronchiectasis, it is important to consider cystic fibrosis as a possible cause. Early diagnosis and treatment of cystic fibrosis can help to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Testing for cystic fibrosis may involve a sweat test, genetic testing, or other diagnostic tests. Treatment may include medications to help clear mucous from the airways, antibiotics to treat infections, and other therapies to manage symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are evaluating the accuracy of a new blood test to diagnose ulcerative colitis in elderly patients and come across a study that analyzed its use in 200 individuals, ten of whom were histologically diagnosed with the condition. According to the study, the blood test correctly identified seven patients as positive and 188 patients as negative. What is the sensitivity of this blood test for diagnosing ulcerative colitis in elderly patients in this study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Medical Testing
Medical testing is an essential tool for diagnosing and treating various conditions. However, it is crucial to understand the accuracy of these tests to make informed decisions about patient care. Two important measures of accuracy are sensitivity and specificity.
Sensitivity refers to a test’s ability to correctly identify patients who have a particular condition. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives (patients with the condition who test positive) by the sum of true positives and false negatives (patients with the condition who test negative). For example, if a test correctly identifies 7 out of 10 patients with ulcerative colitis, its sensitivity is 70%.
On the other hand, specificity refers to a test’s ability to correctly identify patients who do not have a particular condition. It is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives (patients without the condition who test negative) by the sum of true negatives and false positives (patients without the condition who test positive).
Understanding sensitivity and specificity can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care and treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Who among the following prospective blood donors would be ineligible to donate whole blood or plasma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 32-year-old lady whose sister was diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease three years ago
Explanation:Blood Donation Guidelines
Blood donation guidelines set by the National Blood Service UK state that individuals who have a family member (parent or sibling) with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease cannot donate blood. This is due to the risk of transmitting the disease through blood transfusion.
Other factors that may exclude individuals from donating blood include hepatitis or jaundice within the last 12 months, acupuncture within the last four months (unless performed by a registered professional), body piercing or tattoos within the last six months, any infection within the preceding two weeks, or a course of antibiotics within the last seven days.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. By excluding individuals who may have a higher risk of transmitting diseases or infections, the blood supply can remain safe and effective for those in need of transfusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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