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Question 1
Correct
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A 72-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department during your night shift complaining of severe pain and discoloration in his right leg. He reports feeling pins and needles in the same leg, and the pain is present even when he is at rest. Upon examination, you notice that his right foot is pale, cold, and painful to the touch. You cannot feel any palpable pedal pulses. The patient has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, diabetes mellitus, and is a current smoker. What initial investigation should be performed to aid in the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bedside handheld doppler
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms of acute limb ischaemia, such as pain, pallor, pulselessness, a perishingly cold limb, paresthesia, and paralysis, a handheld arterial Doppler examination should be the first-line investigation. This quick and easy test can be performed at the bedside and can help diagnose acute limb ischaemia by detecting an absent or reduced signal. Other investigations, such as ABPI, CT angiogram, and invasive angiography, may not be as readily available or appropriate for immediate use in an emergency situation. While ABPI is useful for assessing peripheral arterial perfusion in chronic peripheral arterial disease, it does not identify the site of arterial occlusion in acute limb ischaemia. CT angiogram and invasive angiography may be necessary to provide more detailed imaging and locate the arterial occlusion, but they are not the first-line investigation.
Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a 3-month history of worsening dyspepsia, epigastric pain, and drenching night sweats on a background of recurrent gastric ulcers. The GP urgently refers the patient for investigation. Following a gastroscopy with biopsies taken, a low grade gastric MALT lymphoma is diagnosed, and the presence of H. pylori was also noted on the biopsy report. The patient has no significant past medical history. What treatment plan is the doctor likely to recommend?
Your Answer: Partial gastrectomy
Correct Answer: Omeprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin
Explanation:The recommended treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma associated with H. pylori infection is a combination of omeprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin. This is because the majority of cases are linked to H. pylori, as suggested by the patient’s history of gastric ulcers. Low-grade cases can be treated with H. pylori eradication alone, but high-grade or atypical cases may require chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy. The answer choice of lansoprazole, clarithromycin, and doxycycline is incorrect, as doxycycline is not used in H. pylori eradication. Active monitoring may be an option in some cases, but when a clear cause like H. pylori is identified, treatment is recommended. Partial gastrectomy is not a standard treatment for gastric MALT lymphoma.
Gastric MALT Lymphoma: A Brief Overview
Gastric MALT lymphoma is a type of lymphoma that is commonly associated with H. pylori infection, which is present in 95% of cases. The good news is that this type of lymphoma has a good prognosis, especially if it is low grade. In fact, about 80% of patients with low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma respond well to H. pylori eradication.
One potential feature of gastric MALT lymphoma is the presence of paraproteinaemia, which is an abnormal protein in the blood. However, this is not always present and may not be a reliable indicator of the disease. Overall, gastric MALT lymphoma is a treatable form of lymphoma with a high likelihood of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old man sustains 25% partial and full thickness burns in a residential fire, along with an inhalational injury. The medical team decides to provide intravenous fluids to replace lost fluids. What is the recommended intravenous fluid for initial resuscitation?
Your Answer: Hartmann's solution
Explanation:Typically, Hartmann’s (Ringers lactate) is the initial crystalloid administered in most units. However, there is still debate as some units prefer colloid. If colloid leaks into the interstitial tissues, it could potentially heighten the risk of edema.
Fluid Resuscitation for Burns
Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.
The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.
It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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As a caregiver for an elderly gentleman on the acute medical unit, who also suffers from hypertension, he has been admitted with an intracerebral bleed and is awaiting a neurosurgical bed for observation. However, throughout the day, he becomes increasingly unresponsive, only localizing and opening his eyes in response to pain. What investigation is the most crucial in this scenario?
Your Answer: CT scan of the brain
Explanation:When patients with intracranial bleeds become unresponsive, it is crucial to promptly perform a CT scan to detect hydrocephalus. This diagnostic tool can quickly confirm or rule out the presence of hydrocephalus in these patients. CT angiograms are not appropriate for this purpose, as they are typically used to locate the source of subarachnoid bleeds. While arterial blood tests can reveal whether a patient with COPD is retaining carbon dioxide, this is not relevant for a patient without underlying lung pathology. Although hyponatremia is common in patients with intracranial bleeds, it does not present in a way that would warrant urgent investigation. While lumbar punctures can measure intracranial pressure, they should not be performed without first conducting a CT scan in these patients.
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is recovering on the surgical ward two days post-open inguinal hernia repair. He has no other past medical history of note.
He has not opened his bowels or passed wind for the last 48 hours. His abdomen is diffusely distended and tender. There is no rebound tenderness. There are no bowel sounds on auscultation. He is currently nil by mouth with a nasogastric tube placed.
His observations are as follows:
Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute
Heart rate 110 beats per minute
Blood pressure 100/60 mmHg
Temperature 37.3ºC
Which of the following investigations is most likely to identify factors which are contributing to this patient's postoperative complication?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Correct Answer: U&Es
Explanation:The patient is experiencing postoperative paralytic ileus, which is evident from her inability to pass gas or have a bowel movement, as well as the absence of bowel sounds during abdominal auscultation. There are several factors that could contribute to the development of an ileus after surgery, including manipulation of the bowel during the procedure, inflammation of the intra-abdominal organs, medications used during and after surgery, and intra-abdominal sepsis. It is likely that a combination of these factors is responsible for the patient’s condition.
Although there are no signs of intra-abdominal sepsis in this patient, it is important to rule out other potential causes, such as electrolyte imbalances or underlying medical conditions. Without more information about the patient’s medical history and medication use, it is difficult to determine the exact cause of the ileus. However, it is recommended that patients with paralytic ileus receive daily monitoring of their electrolyte levels to ensure that any imbalances are promptly corrected.
Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.
The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of goserelin in treating prostate cancer in elderly patients?
Your Answer: GnRH antagonist
Correct Answer: GnRH agonist
Explanation:Zoladex (Goserelin) is an artificial GnRH agonist that delivers negative feedback to the anterior pituitary.
Management of Prostate Cancer
Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.
For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has been referred to the Surgical Assessment Unit by her doctor after an ultrasound scan revealed biliary dilation and subsequent imaging confirmed the presence of gallstones. She woke up this morning with severe pain in the right upper quadrant, accompanied by sweating and her husband noticed her skin appeared more yellow than usual. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:The presence of fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain in this patient indicates Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which strongly suggests the possibility of ascending cholangitis, particularly given the history of confirmed gallstones. The recommended course of action is to administer intravenous antibiotics.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman is scheduled for a Caesarean section due to fetal distress. She expresses concern about the healing of her wound, as she had a previous surgical incision that became infected and resulted in abscess formation.
Which of the following underlying medical conditions places her at the highest risk for poor wound healing?Your Answer: Diabetes
Explanation:Factors Affecting Wound Healing: Diabetes, Hypertension, Asthma, Inflammatory Bowel Disease, and Psoriasis
Wound healing is a complex process that can be affected by various factors. Among these factors are certain medical conditions that can increase the risk of poor wound healing and post-surgical complications.
Diabetes, for instance, is a well-known risk factor for impaired wound healing. Patients with poorly controlled diabetes are particularly vulnerable to delayed wound healing and increased risk of infection. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure good diabetic control before and after surgery and closely monitor patients for any signs of infection or wound breakdown.
Hypertension, on the other hand, is not a common cause of poor wound healing, but severely uncontrolled hypertension that affects perfusion can increase the risk of wound breakdown. Asthma, unless accompanied by regular oral steroid use or persistent cough, is also unlikely to affect wound healing. Similarly, inflammatory bowel disease itself does not cause impaired wound healing, unless the patient is malnourished or on regular oral steroids.
Finally, psoriasis is not a common cause of impaired wound healing, but care should be taken to avoid any affected skin during surgery. Overall, understanding the impact of these medical conditions on wound healing can help healthcare providers optimize patient care and improve surgical outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset epigastric pain that radiates to his back. He has vomited multiple times and admits to heavy drinking in the past two weeks. The patient is admitted and blood tests are taken. After receiving supportive treatment with intravenous fluids, he reports that the pain has subsided and he no longer feels nauseous or vomits.
What is the initial step to be taken regarding nutrition for this patient?Your Answer: Allow patient to eat orally as tolerated
Explanation:Patients with acute pancreatitis should be encouraged to eat orally as tolerated and should not be routinely made nil-by-mouth. Acute pancreatitis is typically caused by gallstones or alcohol abuse, but can also be caused by other factors. Symptoms include severe epigastric pain that radiates to the back and signs of shock. Treatment is supportive, and a low-fat diet should be encouraged following an episode of acute pancreatitis. Feeding via gastrostomy or nasogastric tube is not necessary unless there is a specific indication. Total parenteral nutrition may be considered if the patient is unable to tolerate enteral feeding.
Managing Acute Pancreatitis in a Hospital Setting
Acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires management in a hospital setting. The severity of the condition can be stratified based on the presence of organ failure and local complications. Key aspects of care include fluid resuscitation, aggressive early hydration with crystalloids, and adequate pain management with intravenous opioids. Patients should not be made ‘nil-by-mouth’ unless there is a clear reason, and enteral nutrition should be offered within 72 hours of presentation. Antibiotics should not be used prophylactically, but may be indicated in cases of infected pancreatic necrosis. Surgery may be necessary for patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones or obstructed biliary systems, and those with infected necrosis may require radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are consulting with a 30-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a committed relationship for 3 years, but this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.
Before providing advice, you proceed to gather a complete psychosexual history. What information from the following list would indicate a physical rather than psychological origin for his condition?Your Answer: A sudden onset
Correct Answer: A normal libido
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, or mixed, and can also be caused by certain medications. Symptoms that suggest a psychogenic cause include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, problems or changes in a relationship, major life events, and psychological problems. On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause include a gradual onset, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history (cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological), operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs recognized as associated with ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.
For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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