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  • Question 1 - A senior citizen is inquiring about the power of a statistical test.
    Which statement...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen is inquiring about the power of a statistical test.
      Which statement best describes the power of a statistical test?

      Your Answer: The probability of not committing a type 1 error

      Correct Answer: The probability of not committing a type 2 error

      Explanation:

      Understanding Type 1 and Type 2 Errors in Scientific Studies

      When conducting a scientific study, it is important to determine whether there is a difference between two populations. A statistical test is used to analyze the results and determine if the difference is significant. However, there are two types of errors that can occur in this process.

      Type 1 errors occur when the null hypothesis is rejected, in favor of the alternative hypothesis, even though the null hypothesis is true. This is also known as a false positive and is typically set at a 5% or 1% probability level.

      Type 2 errors occur when the null hypothesis is accepted, in favor of the alternative hypothesis, even though the alternative hypothesis is true. This is also known as a false negative and is undesirable as it means that the study failed to detect a significant difference.

      The power of a test is the probability of not making a type 2 error. It depends on the sample size, effect size, and statistical significance criterion used. The p-value is the lowest level of significance at which the null hypothesis is rejected. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence is in favor of the alternative hypothesis.

      Understanding these types of errors is crucial in scientific research as it helps researchers to interpret their results accurately and avoid making false conclusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
    Which...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
      Which of the following conditions would be suitable for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions and Oxygen Therapy: Guidelines for Treatment

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), opiate toxicity, asthma, croup, and myasthenia gravis are respiratory conditions that may require oxygen therapy. The British Thoracic Society recommends assessing the need for home oxygen therapy in COPD patients with severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturation of 92% or below when breathing air. Opiate toxicity can cause respiratory compromise, which may require naloxone, but this needs to be considered carefully in palliative patients. Asthmatic patients who are acutely unwell and require oxygen should be admitted to hospital for assessment, treatment, and ventilation support. Croup, a childhood respiratory infection, may require hospital admission if oxygen therapy is needed. Myasthenia gravis may cause neuromuscular respiratory failure during a myasthenic crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring intubation and ventilator support and not amenable to home oxygen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is least characteristic of polymyalgia rheumatica in patients?

      Your Answer: Morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles

      Correct Answer: Elevated creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arthritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15 mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old patient presented to the general practitioner with complaints of bloody diarrhoea that has persisted for the past 6 months. The patient also reported experiencing fever, weight loss, abdominal pain, and a painful, erythematosus rash on the anterior surface of the leg. A positive faecal occult blood test was obtained, and colonoscopy revealed crypt abscesses. What type of skin lesion is frequently observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

      Erythema Nodosum: A subcutaneous inflammation, erythema nodosum is often associated with inflammatory bowel disease, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, or a recent streptococcal infection. It is characterized by raised nodules on the lower extremities.

      Morbilliform Rash: A mild hypersensitivity skin reaction, the morbilliform rash is a maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. It is caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulfonylurea, thiazide, allopurinol, and phenytoin.

      Erythema Multiforme: A target-like lesion that commonly appears on the palms and soles, erythema multiforme is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs, or sulfa drugs. It can also be caused by Mycoplasma or herpes simplex.

      Tinea Corporis: A fungal infection, tinea corporis is characterized by ring-shaped, scaly patches with central clearing and a distinct border.

      Urticaria: A hypersensitivity reaction that results in wheals and hives, urticaria is most often associated with drug-induced mast cell activation. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and phenytoin are common culprits.

      Understanding Common Skin Conditions and Their Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the...

    Correct

    • A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the outpatient clinic. She has no facial weakness, and examination of the eyes reveals a full range of movement. She reports no difficulties with vision, smell, taste, hearing or balance, and facial and pharyngeal sensation is normal. Her gag reflex is present and normal, and she can shrug her shoulders equally on both sides. Her speech is slurred and indistinct, and on protruding her tongue, it deviates to the right side and there is notable fasciculation and atrophy of the musculature on the right.
      With what are these findings most likely to be associated?

      Your Answer: Lower motor neurone lesion of the right cranial nerve XII

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lesions of Cranial Nerves Involved in Tongue Movement and Sensation

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      Fasciculation and atrophy indicate a lower motor neurone lesion. In this case, the tongue deviates to the side of the damage due to unopposed action of the genioglossus of the opposite side. The cranial nerve involved in motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is the hypoglossal cranial nerve (XII).

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage, in this case to the left.

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage. Even though the tongue does deviate to the right in this case, the presence of atrophy is seen in LMN and not in UMN.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      This would cause lower motor neurone symptoms (weakness and flaccidity) on the left side.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Glossopharyngeal Nerve:
      The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) provides the posterior third of the tongue with taste and somatic sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 9-month history of rectal...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 9-month history of rectal bleeding and pain. Her physician decides to perform a proctoscopy. The results show an erythematous ulcerated plaque near the pectinate line, and biopsy results suggest squamous cell carcinoma. What is the most significant risk factor for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Correct Answer: HPV infection

      Explanation:

      The strongest risk factor for anal cancer is HPV infection, specifically the HPV16 or HPV18 subtypes that cause SCCs of the anus. While HIV infection, immunosuppressant drugs, and a past medical history of cervical cancer are also risk factors, HPV infection is the most significant.

      Understanding Anal Cancer: Definition, Epidemiology, and Risk Factors

      Anal cancer is a type of malignancy that occurs exclusively in the anal canal, which is bordered by the anorectal junction and the anal margin. The majority of anal cancers are squamous cell carcinomas, but other types include melanomas, lymphomas, and adenocarcinomas. The incidence of anal cancer is relatively rare, with an annual rate of about 1.5 in 100,000 in the UK. However, the incidence is increasing, particularly among men who have sex with men, due to widespread infection by human papillomavirus (HPV).

      There are several risk factors associated with anal cancer, including HPV infection, anal intercourse, a high lifetime number of sexual partners, HIV infection, immunosuppressive medication, a history of cervical cancer or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, and smoking. Patients typically present with symptoms such as perianal pain, perianal bleeding, a palpable lesion, and faecal incontinence.

      To diagnose anal cancer, T stage assessment is conducted, which includes a digital rectal examination, anoscopic examination with biopsy, and palpation of the inguinal nodes. Imaging modalities such as CT, MRI, endo-anal ultrasound, and PET are also used. The T stage system for anal cancer is described by the American Joint Committee on Cancer and the International Union Against Cancer. It includes TX primary tumour cannot be assessed, T0 no evidence of primary tumour, Tis carcinoma in situ, T1 tumour 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, T2 tumour more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, T3 tumour more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, and T4 tumour of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).

      In conclusion, understanding anal cancer is crucial in identifying the risk factors and symptoms associated with this type of malignancy. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man is tackled during a rugby game and lands on his outstretched arm, resulting in a heavy fall. The team doctor examines him and notices a loss of contour in his right shoulder. Additionally, the man experiences numbness in the C5 dermatome of his right shoulder, which is commonly referred to as the regimental badge area. Which nerve is the most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in Upper Limb Trauma

      The upper limb is susceptible to various nerve injuries following trauma. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries that can occur in the upper limb:

      Axillary nerve: Shoulder dislocation can cause injury to the axillary nerve, which innervates the deltoid muscle. Sensation in the skin innervated by the superior lateral cutaneous nerve can be tested as an alternative.

      Radial nerve: Mid-humeral shaft fractures can damage the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the dorsum of the hand and innervates the extensor compartment of the forearm.

      Ulnar nerve: Cubital tunnel syndrome and fracture of the medial epicondyle can cause ulnar nerve injury, leading to weakness in wrist flexion and a claw hand deformity.

      Median nerve: Supracondylar humerus fractures, wearing a tight forearm case, wrist laceration, or carpal tunnel syndrome can injure the median nerve, causing sensory loss and motor deficits such as loss of pronation in the forearm, weakness in wrist flexion, and loss of thumb opposition.

      Musculocutaneous nerve: The musculocutaneous nerve gives rise to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm, while the cutaneous distribution of the median and ulnar nerves is located more distally to the hand.

      In conclusion, understanding the common nerve injuries that can occur in upper limb trauma is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements about hCG is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about hCG is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is secreted by syncytiotrophoblasts

      Explanation:

      The syncytiotrophoblast secretes human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) into the maternal bloodstream to sustain the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum during the initial stages of pregnancy. HCG can be identified in the maternal blood as soon as day 8 following conception.

      Understanding Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone that is initially produced by the embryo and later by the placental trophoblast. Its primary function is to prevent the disintegration of the corpus luteum. During the first few weeks of pregnancy, hCG levels double approximately every 48 hours. These levels peak at around 8-10 weeks gestation. As a result, hCG levels are used as the basis for many pregnancy testing kits.

      In summary, hCG is a hormone that plays a crucial role in pregnancy. Its levels increase rapidly during the early stages of pregnancy and peak at around 8-10 weeks gestation. By measuring hCG levels, pregnancy testing kits can accurately determine whether a woman is pregnant or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old male is brought into the emergency department unconscious after a motorcycle...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is brought into the emergency department unconscious after a motorcycle accident. He was the rider of the motorcycle and there is suspicion that he was under the influence of drugs at the time of the accident. His girlfriend is present and unharmed. The police are requesting a blood sample for drug testing, but the patient is unable to provide consent and there is no forensic physician available. As a healthcare worker in the emergency department, what is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Inform the police that you may only take blood samples on medical grounds

      Correct Answer: Draw a blood sample for later analysis when the patient is competent to consent

      Explanation:

      The BMA has provided guidance on taking blood specimens from incapacitated drivers. The law allows for a blood specimen to be taken without consent if a police constable believes the person is incapable of giving valid consent due to medical reasons. A forensic physician or another doctor must take the sample, and the doctor in charge of the patient’s care must be notified beforehand. The specimen cannot be tested until the person regains competence and gives valid consent. Refusal to allow testing may result in prosecution. The new law recognizes the duty to justice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Miscellaneous
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the mechanism of action of denosumab in the management of osteoporosis?...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of denosumab in the management of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of the RANK ligand (RANKL)

      Explanation:

      Denosumab and its Mechanism of Action in Osteoporosis Treatment

      Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody therapy used to treat osteoporosis. It is typically used as a second- or third-line agent due to its higher cost compared to bisphosphonate therapy. Bone is a dynamic tissue that undergoes continuous changes through the processes of bone formation by osteoblasts and bone resorption by osteoclasts. Many bone diseases are associated with an imbalance in this process.

      The interaction between osteoblasts and osteoclasts is complex. Both cell types originate from the same precursor cell, and certain signals can favor the development of one cell type over the other. For example, inflammation promotes osteoclast development. Another interaction between these cells is through the RANK-RANKL system. RANK is a receptor present on osteoclasts that binds to a ligand on osteoblasts. This binding promotes osteoclast activity and reduces osteoblast activity.

      Denosumab works by preventing the binding of RANKL to RANK, thereby inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting bone formation. This mechanism of action makes it an effective treatment option for osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man had a gastric endoscopy to investigate possible gastritis. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man had a gastric endoscopy to investigate possible gastritis. During the procedure, the endoscope passed through the oesophagogastric junction and entered the stomach.
      Which part of the stomach is situated closest to this junction?

      Your Answer: Pyloric antrum

      Correct Answer: Cardia

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Stomach: Regions and Parts

      The stomach is a muscular organ located in the upper abdomen that plays a crucial role in digestion. It is divided into several regions and parts, each with its own unique function. Here is a breakdown of the anatomy of the stomach:

      Cardia: This region surrounds the opening of the oesophagus into the stomach and is adjacent to the fundus. It is in continuity with the body of the stomach.

      Fundus: The fundus is the uppermost region of the stomach that is in contact with the inferior surface of the diaphragm. It is located above the level of the cardial orifice.

      Body: The body is the largest region of the stomach and is located between the fundus and pyloric antrum. It has a greater and lesser curvature.

      Pyloric antrum: This region is the proximal part of the pylorus, which is the distal part of the stomach. It lies between the body of the stomach and the first part of the duodenum.

      Pyloric canal: The pyloric canal is the distal part of the pylorus that leads to the muscular pyloric sphincter.

      Understanding the different regions and parts of the stomach is important for diagnosing and treating various digestive disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old gravida 4, para 3 undergoes an assisted delivery with mid-cavity forceps...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old gravida 4, para 3 undergoes an assisted delivery with mid-cavity forceps following a prolonged second stage. After a couple of weeks, the patient visits her GP complaining of difficulty walking. Upon examination, she displays a limp in her left leg, a numb thigh, weak knee extension, and the absence of patellar reflex. Her right leg appears normal. What nerve has been affected by the forceps delivery?

      Your Answer: Sciatic nerve

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The observed symptoms indicate that the femoral nerve has been affected. Although nerve damage during instrumental delivery is uncommon, it can occur during challenging deliveries and mid-cavity forceps use. The table below outlines the nerves that may be impacted by forceps and the corresponding clinical manifestations.
      Nerve Clinical features
      Femoral nerve Weakness in extending the knee, absence of the patellar reflex, and numbness in the thigh
      Lumbosacral trunk Weakness in dorsiflexing the ankle and numbness in the calf and foot.

      Selected Facts about Lower Limb Anatomy

      The lower limb anatomy is a complex system that is often tested in medical examinations. One of the important aspects of this system is the nerves that control the motor and sensory functions of the lower limb. The femoral nerve, for example, controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and is responsible for the sensation in the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. This nerve is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds.

      Another important nerve is the obturator nerve, which controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. Injuries to this nerve can occur in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, on the other hand, does not control any motor function but is responsible for the sensation in the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh. Compression of this nerve near the ASIS can lead to meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by pain, tingling, and numbness in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve.

      The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. This nerve is not commonly injured as it is deep and well-protected. The common peroneal nerve, which controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, is often injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and is commonly injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve results in a positive Trendelenburg sign. Finally, the inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve results in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as an inability to jump or climb stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old HIV positive woman has been experiencing occasional headaches for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old HIV positive woman has been experiencing occasional headaches for the past 6 months but has not received any treatment. Recently, she started vomiting frequently and developed diplopia and a stiff neck. She was taken to the accident and emergency department for treatment. What are the possible treatment options for this woman?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: CSF drainage

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcal Meningitis in HIV-Infected Individuals

      HIV-infected individuals are susceptible to various opportunistic infections, including meningitis caused by viruses, mycobacteria, or fungi. Cryptococcal meningitis is a common infection in these individuals and can present insidiously, leading to much morbidity. This infection is notorious for causing raised intracranial tension, which can result in vomiting and altered consciousness.

      Treatment for cryptococcal meningitis involves periodic drainage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), as steroids and mannitol have not been found to be effective in lowering CSF pressure. The mainstay of treatment is Amphotericin B, with 5-flucytosine or fluconazole added. Diagnosis may be delayed as overt signs of meningism, such as neck stiffness, may be absent.

      Tubercular meningitis may present similarly, but it progresses faster than cryptococcal meningitis. Steroids are used in tubercular meningitis but not in isolation, so they are not a good choice for cryptococcal meningitis. Acute bacterial meningitis is treated with ceftriaxone and vancomycin, but this case was slowly evolving over six months and is unlikely to be bacterial meningitis. acyclovir is used for viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight loss. He has a smoking history of 25 pack years.
      A focal mass is seen peripherally in the left lower lobe on chest X-ray (CXR).
      Serum biochemistry reveals:
      Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+): 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Corrected Ca2+: 3.32 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
      Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–6.5 mmol/l)
      Creatinine: 76 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l)
      Albumin: 38 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Bronchial Carcinoma and Hypercalcemia

      Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a type of non-small cell lung cancer that can cause hypercalcemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of calcium in the blood. This occurs because the cancer produces a hormone that mimics the action of parathyroid hormone, leading to the release of calcium from bones, kidneys, and the gut. Focal lung masses on a chest X-ray can be caused by various conditions, including bronchial carcinoma, abscess, tuberculosis, and metastasis. Differentiating between subtypes of bronchial carcinoma requires tissue sampling, but certain features of a patient’s history may suggest a particular subtype. Small cell bronchial carcinoma, for example, is associated with paraneoplastic phenomena such as Cushing’s syndrome and SIADH. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is linked to asbestos exposure and presents with pleural thickening or malignant pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Overall, a focal lung mass in a smoker should be viewed with suspicion and thoroughly evaluated to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are advising a 35-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who is contemplating...

    Incorrect

    • You are advising a 35-year-old woman with major depressive disorder who is contemplating electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
      What is a temporary side effect of this treatment?

      Your Answer: Mania

      Correct Answer: Cardiac arrhythmias

      Explanation:

      Knowing the side effects of ECT is crucial as it is a treatment that is often viewed with apprehension by the public. ECT is typically used to treat depression that is resistant to other treatments, as well as severe mania and catatonic schizophrenia. While it was once a feared treatment due to its use of high strengths and lack of anesthesia, it is now considered to be a relatively safe intervention. Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, memory problems, and cardiac arrhythmias. There are few long-term effects, although some patients may experience long-term memory issues. ECT is used to treat mania and is being studied as a potential treatment for Parkinson’s disease. It induces a generalized seizure but is not associated with epilepsy or glaucoma.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old woman suffers a deep cut to her right hand while cleaning...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman suffers a deep cut to her right hand while cleaning up broken glass. After being evaluated in the Emergency Department and determined to have no nerve damage, the wound is stitched up with the assistance of local anesthesia. What is the primary mode of action for local anesthetics?

      Your Answer: Reversible sodium channel blockade in the nerve endings

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of Action of Local Anaesthetics

      Local anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels in nerve fibres, preventing depolarisation and propagation of action potentials. This blockade is reversible and can be enhanced by the addition of adrenaline, which causes vasoconstriction and reduces systemic absorption of the anaesthetic. Local anaesthetics do not block potassium channels or cause irreversible sodium channel blockade. They tend to block smaller pain fibres before larger motor fibres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives...

    Correct

    • A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives birth to a healthy baby girl. What treatment should be provided to the newborn?

      Your Answer: Hep B vaccine and 0.5 millilitres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth with a further hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months and a further vaccine at 6 months

      Explanation:

      When babies are born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen positive or are at high risk of developing hepatitis B, they should receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth. Additionally, babies born to surface antigen positive mothers should receive 0.5 millilitres of hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth. The second and third doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should be given at 1-2 months and 6 months, respectively.

      Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention

      During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a mother is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, it is important that her baby receives a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Currently, studies are being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.

      There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the risk of vertical transmission of hepatitis B. However, it is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. It is crucial for pregnant women to undergo screening for hepatitis B to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby. With proper prevention and treatment, the risk of transmission can be greatly reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the most probable diagnosis for a 56-year-old man who has lethargy,...

    Correct

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for a 56-year-old man who has lethargy, haematuria, haemoptysis, hypertension, and a right loin mass, and whose CT scan shows a lesion in the upper pole of the right kidney with a small cystic centre?

      Your Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The most frequent type of renal tumors are renal adenocarcinomas, which usually impact the renal parenchyma. Transitional cell carcinomas, on the other hand, tend to affect urothelial surfaces. Nephroblastomas are extremely uncommon in this age range. While renal adenocarcinomas can cause cannonball metastases in the lungs that result in hemoptysis, this is not a characteristic of PKD.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma: Characteristics, Diagnosis, and Management

      Renal cell carcinoma is a type of adenocarcinoma that develops in the renal cortex, specifically in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is a solid lesion that may be multifocal, calcified, or cystic. The tumor is usually surrounded by a pseudocapsule of compressed normal renal tissue. Spread of the tumor may occur through direct extension into the adrenal gland, renal vein, or surrounding fascia, or through the hematogenous route to the lung, bone, or brain. Renal cell carcinoma accounts for up to 85% of all renal malignancies, and it is more common in males and in patients in their sixth decade.

      Patients with renal cell carcinoma may present with various symptoms, such as haematuria, loin pain, mass, or symptoms of metastasis. Diagnosis is usually made through multislice CT scanning, which can detect the presence of a renal mass and any evidence of distant disease. Biopsy is not recommended when a nephrectomy is planned, but it is mandatory before any ablative therapies are undertaken. Assessment of the functioning of the contralateral kidney is also important.

      Management of renal cell carcinoma depends on the stage of the tumor. T1 lesions may be managed by partial nephrectomy, while T2 lesions and above require radical nephrectomy. Preoperative embolization and resection of uninvolved adrenal glands are not indicated. Patients with completely resected disease do not benefit from adjuvant therapy with chemotherapy or biological agents. Patients with transitional cell cancer will require a nephroureterectomy with disconnection of the ureter at the bladder.

      Reference:
      Lungberg B et al. EAU guidelines on renal cell carcinoma: The 2010 update. European Urology 2010 (58): 398-406.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a road traffic accident and suffers a displaced femoral shaft fracture. There are no other injuries detected during the primary or secondary surveys. The fracture is treated with closed, antegrade intramedullary nailing. The next day, the patient becomes increasingly confused and agitated. Upon examination, he is pyrexial, hypoxic with SaO2 at 90% on 6 litres O2, tachycardic, and normotensive. A non-blanching petechial rash is observed over the torso during systemic examination. What is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Meningococcal sepsis

      Correct Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      The triad of symptoms for this individual includes respiratory distress, neurological issues, and a petechial rash that typically appears after the first two symptoms. It is suspected that the individual may be experiencing fat embolism syndrome due to a recent injury and physical signs that align with this condition. Meningococcal sepsis is not typically associated with initial hypoxia, and pyrexia is not commonly linked to pulmonary emboli.

      Understanding Fat Embolism: Diagnosis, Clinical Features, and Treatment

      Fat embolism is a medical condition that occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and obstruct blood vessels. This condition is commonly seen in patients with long bone fractures, particularly in the femur and tibia. The diagnosis of fat embolism is based on clinical features, including respiratory symptoms such as tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypoxia, as well as dermatological symptoms such as a red or brown petechial rash. CNS symptoms such as confusion and agitation may also be present. Imaging may not always show vascular occlusion, but a ground glass appearance may be seen at the periphery.

      Prompt fixation of long bone fractures is crucial in the treatment of fat embolism. However, there is some debate regarding the benefit versus risk of medullary reaming in femoral shaft or tibial fractures in terms of increasing the risk of fat embolism. DVT prophylaxis and general supportive care are also important in the management of this condition. While fat embolism can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, prompt diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 20 - Which one of the following statements regarding heparin is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding heparin is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LMWH has a longer duration of action than unfractionated, standard heparin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor, reporting a progressive weakness on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor, reporting a progressive weakness on the left side of her face for the past 48 hours. What symptom would be indicative of Bell's palsy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the left-hand side of the tongue

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms and their Causes

      Bell’s palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, causing weakness or paralysis on one side of the face. Here are some common symptoms of Bell’s palsy and their causes:

      1. Loss of taste on the anterior two-thirds of the left-hand side of the tongue: This is due to a unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve lesion, which carries taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

      2. Deviation of the tongue to the left on tongue protrusion: This is caused by a hypoglossal nerve (cranial nerve XII) lesion, which affects the movement of the tongue.

      3. Sparing of function of the forehead muscles and eye closure: This occurs with an upper motor neurone lesion, which affects the muscles of facial expression on the whole of one side of the face.

      4. Weakened voluntary facial movements but normal spontaneous movements: Bell’s palsy affects both voluntary and involuntary movements equally, but some stroke patients may show relative sparing of spontaneous movements.

      5. Inability to close both the right and the left eye: Bell’s palsy refers to a unilateral lower motor neurone facial nerve lesion, which affects the facial muscles on the side ipsilateral to the lesion only.

      Understanding these symptoms and their causes can help in the diagnosis and treatment of Bell’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 57-year-old male presents for his first annual review of type 2 diabetes....

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male presents for his first annual review of type 2 diabetes. He has also been experiencing osteoarthritis in his hips and 2nd/3rd metacarpophalangeal joints. His current medications include aspirin and metformin. Prior to starting a statin, his liver function tests are checked and reveal the following results: AST 78 U/L (5-40), ALT 88 U/L (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 210 U/L (60-110), and Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (0-22). He does not consume alcohol and has a BMI of 24 kg/m2. He has tested negative for hepatitis B and C viruses, ANA, ASMA, LKM, and AMA. His caeruloplasmin levels are normal. What is the probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis

      This patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of haemochromatosis, an iron storage disorder. The presence of diabetes despite a normal BMI, liver function abnormalities, and arthropathy are all suggestive of this condition. To confirm the diagnosis, the recommended investigation is to measure the patient’s serum ferritin levels followed by transferrin saturation. If haemochromatosis is confirmed, the treatment will involve regular venesection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with complaints of severe pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department with complaints of severe pain and decreased vision in her right eye. She experienced sudden onset of symptoms earlier in the evening, accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and a headache. Upon examination, her visual acuity in the right eye is reduced to counting fingers, and there is significant congestion of conjunctival blood vessels. The cornea appears hazy, making it difficult to examine the pupil and fundus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Ocular Conditions

      When it comes to ocular conditions, it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide the appropriate treatment. Acute angle closure glaucoma, for example, typically occurs in the evening and can cause headache, nausea, and vomiting due to high intraocular pressure. This condition can also lead to corneal haze, which is caused by oedema of the cornea. While reduced vision, ocular pain, and conjunctival injection can be seen in other conditions, systemic symptoms are typically only present in acute angle closure glaucoma.

      Anterior uveitis, on the other hand, can have sudden or subacute symptoms. Corneal abrasions are usually accompanied by a history of trauma, while herpes simplex keratitis is associated with dendritic ulcer formation on the corneal surface. Viral conjunctivitis is often bilateral and preceded by a systemic viral episode.

      By the unique symptoms and characteristics of each ocular condition, healthcare professionals can provide more effective treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 24 - A young adult is admitted after being rescued from a house fire. They...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult is admitted after being rescued from a house fire. They have sustained significant burns to both upper limbs, as well as the front of their torso.
      Estimate the size of the burn in terms of percentage of body surface area.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 36%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Wallace Rule of Nines for Estimating Burn Size

      The Wallace Rule of Nines is a widely used method for estimating the size of a burn. It involves dividing the body into regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area. According to this rule, each arm represents 9%, each leg represents 18%, the head represents 9%, the front and back of the torso represent 18% each, and the genitals and the area of the patient’s palm represent 1% each.

      Once the percentage of burn is estimated using the rule of nines, it can be used in formulae such as the Parkland formula to calculate the amount of fluid replacement required for the patient. The Parkland formula is used to determine the total amount of fluid required in the first 24 hours following a burn.

      It is important to note that an accurate assessment of the percentage of body surface area affected by burns is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and fluid replacement. Any overestimation or underestimation can lead to inadequate or excessive fluid replacement, which can have serious consequences for the patient’s recovery.

      In conclusion, understanding the Wallace Rule of Nines is essential for healthcare professionals involved in the management of burn injuries. It provides a quick and reliable method for estimating the size of a burn and determining the appropriate fluid replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Plastics
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  • Question 25 - A 63-year-old, non-smoking woman without previous cardiac history, has a total cholesterol of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old, non-smoking woman without previous cardiac history, has a total cholesterol of 9.0 mmol/l. She is overweight and has sleep apnoea. On examination you notice her skin is particularly dry and there appears to be some evidence of hair loss. Her blood pressure is 140/95 mmHg and pulse rate 60 bpm.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4) level

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic and Treatment Options for a Patient with High Cholesterol

      When a patient presents with symptoms such as dry skin, hair loss, obesity, sleep apnea, hypertension, and slow pulse, it is important to consider hypothyroidism as a possible cause. To confirm this diagnosis, checking the patient’s thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (T4) levels is recommended. Hypothyroidism can also cause dyslipidemia, which may be the underlying cause of the patient’s high cholesterol levels. Therefore, treating the hypothyroidism should be the initial step, and if cholesterol levels remain high, prescribing a statin may be appropriate.

      It is also important to consider the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia, especially if the patient’s cholesterol levels are very high (≥8 mmol/l). In this case, screening family members for raised cholesterol may be necessary if cholesterol levels do not decrease with l-thyroxine treatment.

      While diabetes can increase the risk of thyroid disorders, checking the patient’s fasting blood glucose level may not be necessary initially. Additionally, measuring 24-hour urinary free cortisol is not recommended as the patient’s symptoms do not suggest Cushing syndrome as the diagnosis.

      In summary, considering hypothyroidism as a possible cause of high cholesterol levels and checking TSH and T4 levels should be the initial step in diagnosis. Treating the underlying cause and prescribing a statin if necessary can help manage the patient’s cholesterol levels. Screening family members for familial hypercholesterolemia may also be necessary.

      Diagnostic and Treatment Options for High Cholesterol in Patients with Suspected Hypothyroidism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old West Indian diplomat, while on secondment in the United Kingdom, develops an uncomfortable raised rash on the anterior aspects of both her lower legs. She has prided herself with her remarkably good health over the years. She has recently visited Nigeria, Guyana and Vietnam for her work.
      What would be the most appropriate initial investigation to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with erythema nodosum, which may have an unknown cause or could be related to their extensive travel history. While a skin biopsy may provide a definitive diagnosis, the best initial investigation is a chest X-ray to rule out tuberculosis and sarcoidosis. A blood film is not necessary as there is no indication of malaria. An ultrasound of the abdomen is not useful in this case, as the skin lesions are the primary concern. Stool microbiology is not necessary as there is no mention of diarrhea. While a skin biopsy may provide information on the lesions themselves, it does not aid in identifying the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 15-year-old female patient has been referred for primary amenorrhoea. Upon investigation, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old female patient has been referred for primary amenorrhoea. Upon investigation, it is found that she has a 46 XY karyotype. What is a true statement regarding this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The diagnosis is likely to be androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gender-related Disorders and their Causes

      Gender-related disorders can arise due to various factors. Androgen insensitivity syndrome, also known as testicular feminisation syndrome, is caused by an androgen receptor defect that leads to a female phenotype. Stilboestrol therapy, on the other hand, has been linked to the activation of latent tumours and changes in sexual behaviour, but it does not cause any abnormalities in sexual identity.

      Noonan’s syndrome is a condition where male infants exhibit physical features similar to those found in Turner’s syndrome. However, they are still biologically male. In contrast, neither prednisolone nor maternal thyrotoxicosis can cause gender malassignment problems. It is important to understand the causes of gender-related disorders to provide appropriate treatment and support to those affected. Proper diagnosis and management can help individuals lead fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with back pain. The pain has come on gradually over several weeks and is getting worse. He denies any shooting pain down his legs. He has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He was also diagnosed with localised prostate cancer five years ago and was treated with radiotherapy as he declined surgery. The prostate showed a significant reduction in size following the radiotherapy. On examination, there is a mild reduction in power in his legs and reduced anal tone on digital rectal examination.
      Which imaging modality would be most useful to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spine

      Explanation:

      Importance of Appropriate Imaging in Spinal Cord Compression

      Spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that requires urgent investigation and appropriate management. The choice of imaging modality is crucial in determining the cause and extent of the compression.

      For a patient with a history of malignancy who develops gradual-onset back pain, an urgent MRI spine is required to investigate the possibility of metastatic cancer to the spine. Failure to diagnose this condition promptly could result in severe paralysis.

      In cases of spinal cord compression, a non-urgent (routine) CT scan would be inadequate as it does not allow for detailed soft tissue viewing. Similarly, an X-ray of the spine would only show the vertebrae and not the extent of the compression.

      Delaying investigation of spinal cord compression could result in permanent spinal cord damage. Therefore, appropriate imaging, such as an urgent MRI spine, is crucial in guiding further management and preventing irreversible damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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  • Question 29 - A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled flinging movements of the right arm that ceased during sleep. What could be the probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral subthalamic nucleus infarction

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus and its Causes

      Hemiballismus is a medical condition characterized by involuntary flinging motions of the extremities, which can be violent and continuous. It usually affects only one side of the body and can involve proximal, distal, or facial muscles. The movements worsen with activity and decrease with relaxation. This condition is caused by a decrease in activity of the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia, which results in decreased suppression of involuntary movements.

      Hemiballismus can be caused by a variety of factors, including strokes, traumatic brain activity, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, hyperglycemia, malignancy, vascular malformations, tuberculomas, and demyelinating plaques. In patients with diabetes, it is likely due to a vascular event in the contralateral subthalamic nucleus.

      Treatment for hemiballismus should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause. If pharmacological treatment is necessary, an antidopaminergic such as haloperidol or chlorpromazine may be used. Other options include topiramate, intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin, and tetrabenazine. In cases where other treatments have failed, functional neurosurgery may be an option.

      In summary, hemiballismus is a condition that causes involuntary flinging motions of the extremities and can be caused by various factors. Treatment should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause, and pharmacological and surgical options may be necessary in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 30 - A 17-year-old male comes to the emergency department following a fall on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male comes to the emergency department following a fall on his outstretched hand. He complains of tenderness at the base of his thumb, specifically when pressure is applied to the base of the anatomical snuffbox. An X-ray shows a non-displaced fracture of the scaphoid waist. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cast for 6-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Non-displaced fractures of the scaphoid waist are commonly treated with a cast for a period of 6-8 weeks. These types of fractures often occur as a result of falls on outstretched hands (FOOSH), and may not be visible on an X-ray for up to 7 days. Surgery, such as external fixation or open reduction internal fixation (ORIF), is not typically necessary for non-displaced fractures of the small carpal bones. Splinting and bandaging are also not recommended as they do not provide sufficient stability for proper healing and may result in non-union of the fracture. Conservative care with ice packs and NSAIDs is also not appropriate for this type of injury.

      Understanding Scaphoid Fractures

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that typically occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to recognize this type of fracture due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Interruption of the blood supply can lead to avascular necrosis, which is a serious complication. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically present with pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination is highly sensitive and specific when certain signs are present, such as tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and pain on telescoping of the thumb.

      Plain film radiographs should be requested, including scaphoid views, but the sensitivity in the first week of injury is only 80%. A CT scan may be requested in the context of ongoing clinical suspicion or planning operative management, while MRI is considered the definite investigation to confirm or exclude a diagnosis. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the patient and type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures of the scaphoid waist typically treated with a cast for 6-8 weeks. Displaced scaphoid waist fractures require surgical fixation, as do proximal scaphoid pole fractures. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union, which can lead to pain and early osteoarthritis, and avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Statistics (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (0/3) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (2/2) 100%
Miscellaneous (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Passmed