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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old female patient comes to the rheumatology clinic seeking guidance on starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient comes to the rheumatology clinic seeking guidance on starting a family. She and her partner are both diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and are currently undergoing weekly methotrexate treatment. The patient was informed about the need for pregnancy advice when she began taking the medication. What recommendations should you provide?

      Your Answer: The patient and her partner will both need to wait 3 months after stopping methotrexate before conceiving

      Correct Answer: The patient and her partner will both need to wait 6 months after stopping methotrexate before conceiving

      Explanation:

      To avoid teratogenic effects, both men and women must discontinue the use of methotrexate for at least 6 months before attempting to conceive. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which affects DNA synthesis and can harm the rapidly dividing cells of the fetus. Additionally, methotrexate can damage various semen parameters. It is not enough for only the patient to stop taking methotrexate; both partners must cease use. Taking folic acid during pregnancy does not counteract the harmful effects of methotrexate on folate metabolism and does not address the partner’s use of the drug. Waiting for 3 months is insufficient; both partners must wait for 6 months to ensure that methotrexate will not cause teratogenic effects.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis During Pregnancy

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that commonly affects women of reproductive age, making issues surrounding conception and pregnancy a concern. While there are no official guidelines for managing RA during pregnancy, expert reviews suggest that patients with early or poorly controlled RA should wait until their disease is more stable before attempting to conceive.

      During pregnancy, RA symptoms tend to improve for most patients, but only a small minority experience complete resolution. After delivery, patients often experience a flare-up of symptoms. It’s important to note that certain medications used to treat RA are not safe during pregnancy, such as methotrexate and leflunomide. However, sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe.

      Interestingly, studies have shown that the use of TNF-α blockers during pregnancy does not significantly increase adverse outcomes. However, many patients in these studies stopped taking the medication once they found out they were pregnant. Low-dose corticosteroids may also be used to control symptoms during pregnancy.

      NSAIDs can be used until 32 weeks, but should be withdrawn after that due to the risk of early closure of the ductus arteriosus. Patients with RA should also be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of Atlantoaxial subluxation. Overall, managing RA during pregnancy requires careful consideration and consultation with healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old female attends the antenatal clinic for a booking appointment. What should...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female attends the antenatal clinic for a booking appointment. What should be recognized as a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: History of smoking

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing renal disease

      Explanation:

      Identify the following as potential risk factors:
      – Being 40 years old or older
      – Never having given birth
      – Having a pregnancy interval of over 10 years
      – Having a family history of pre-eclampsia
      – Having previously experienced pre-eclampsia
      – Having a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m^2 or higher
      – Having pre-existing vascular disease, such as hypertension.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old multiparous female at 10 weeks gestation visits her general practitioner to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old multiparous female at 10 weeks gestation visits her general practitioner to book her pregnancy. She has a history of gestational diabetes and returns the next day for an oral glucose tolerance test. Her blood results show a fasting glucose level of 7.2 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 8.9 mmol/L. What is the recommended course of action based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Patient to be started on metformin

      Correct Answer: Patient to be started on insulin

      Explanation:

      If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis, immediate administration of insulin (with or without metformin) is necessary. For patients with a fasting plasma glucose level below 7.0 mmol/L, a trial of diet and exercise with follow-up in 1-2 weeks is appropriate. Within a week of diagnosis, the patient should be seen in a joint antenatal and diabetic clinic. Statins are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential congenital abnormalities resulting from reduced cholesterol synthesis. Sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is also not recommended for use during pregnancy or breastfeeding.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old primigravida woman is 41 weeks pregnant and has been offered a vaginal examination and membrane sweeping at her antenatal visit. Despite these efforts, she has not gone into labor after 6 hours. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, 1 cm dilated, 1.5 cm in length, and in the middle position. The fetal head station is -3, but there have been no complications during the pregnancy. What should be the next appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin gel

      Explanation:

      If the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, the recommended method for inducing labor is through vaginal PGE2 or oral misoprostol. In this case, since the Bishop score was less than 5, labor is unlikely without induction. One option could be to repeat a membrane sweep, but the most appropriate course of action would be to use a vaginal prostaglandin gel.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman who is P1 G2 is 30 minutes post-partum of an...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is P1 G2 is 30 minutes post-partum of an uncomplicated delivery. Suddenly, she starts gasping for breath and appears cyanosed with a blood pressure of 83/65 mmHg, heart rate of 120 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 33/min. She becomes unresponsive. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and time frame mentioned in the question strongly suggest an amniotic fluid embolism, which typically occurs during or within 30 minutes of labor and is characterized by respiratory distress, hypoxia, and hypotension. On the other hand, intracranial hemorrhage is usually preceded by a severe headache, while convulsions are indicative of eclampsia and drug toxicity. The symptoms experienced by the patient during normal labor would not be expected in cases of drug toxicity. Additionally, hypoxia is not a typical symptom of drug toxicity.

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy that can result in a high mortality rate. It occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a reaction that leads to various signs and symptoms. While several risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unclear. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases of amniotic fluid embolism occur during labor, but they can also occur during a cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of this condition include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs may include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. Diagnosis is primarily clinical and based on exclusion, as there are no definitive diagnostic tests available.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires a multidisciplinary team and critical care unit. Treatment is mainly supportive, focusing on addressing the patient’s symptoms and stabilizing their condition. Given the high mortality rate associated with this condition, prompt recognition and management are crucial for improving outcomes.

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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant visits her GP complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant visits her GP complaining of intense itching on the soles of her hands and feet, particularly at night, which is disrupting her sleep. Due to abnormal liver function tests (LFTs), she is referred to the obstetric team. The team prescribes medication that greatly alleviates her pruritus symptoms.
      What is the probable medication that the obstetric team has prescribed to this patient based on the given information?

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Ursodeoxycholic acid is the recommended initial medical treatment for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. The patient’s symptoms and abnormal liver function tests, along with her pregnancy status, suggest obstetric cholestasis. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends ursodeoxycholic acid to alleviate pruritus and improve liver function in women with obstetric cholestasis. Cetirizine is not effective for pruritic symptoms during pregnancy, while cholestyramine is the preferred treatment for cholestatic pruritus but is not typically used for obstetric cholestasis. Dexamethasone is not the first-line therapy for obstetric cholestasis. Rifampicin may be used as an alternative treatment for pruritus, but caution should be exercised in patients with pre-existing liver disease due to potential hepatotoxicity, and it is not indicated for obstetric cholestasis.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

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  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-day history of vomiting. She has vomited 6 times a day for the past 5 days. When asked about pregnancy, she states her periods are irregular. On examination, her chest is clear, heart sounds are normal and she has a non-tender but distended abdomen. Her temperature is 37ÂşC, oxygen saturation 98% on air, heart rate 110 beats per minute, respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 110/70 mmHg. Blood results: Hb 118 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160) Platelets 160 * 109/L (150 - 400) WBC 5.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0) CRP 4 mg/L (< 5) βhCG 453,000 mIU/ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Complete hydatidiform mole

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for a patient with a distended abdomen and abnormally high serum βhCG is a complete hydatidiform mole. The serum βhCG level of 453,000 mIU/ml is significantly higher than the upper limit of expected levels in an intrauterine pregnancy during weeks 9-12. Morning sickness may also be more severe in molar pregnancies. An ultrasound scan can confirm the diagnosis by showing a snowstorm appearance, and histology can be performed after evacuation.

      While acute appendicitis is a possibility, the patient’s non-tender abdomen and normal CRP and white cell count make it less likely. Appendicitis would not cause high serum βhCG. Ectopic pregnancy should also be ruled out, as it is a potential diagnosis in any woman of childbearing age with abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or signs of shock. However, the serum βhCG level for an ectopic pregnancy is unlikely to be as high as in a molar pregnancy. An ultrasound scan can differentiate between a normal intrauterine pregnancy and a molar pregnancy.

      Characteristics of Complete Hydatidiform Mole

      A complete hydatidiform mole is a rare type of pregnancy where the fertilized egg develops into a mass of abnormal cells instead of a fetus. This condition is characterized by several features, including vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus size that is greater than expected for gestational age, and abnormally high levels of serum hCG. Additionally, an ultrasound may reveal a snowstorm appearance of mixed echogenicity.

      In simpler terms, a complete hydatidiform mole is a type of pregnancy that does not develop normally and can cause abnormal bleeding and an enlarged uterus. Doctors can detect this condition through blood tests and ultrasounds, which show a unique appearance of mixed echogenicity. It is important for women to seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal symptoms during pregnancy.

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  • Question 9 - You review the blood results taken from a 12-week pregnant woman at her...

    Incorrect

    • You review the blood results taken from a 12-week pregnant woman at her booking visit. In addition to the standard antenatal bloods she also had her rubella status checked as she didn't have the MMR vaccine as a child. She is currently in good health.
      Rubella IgG NOT detected
      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise monthly rubella IgM checks + avoid infectious contacts

      Correct Answer: Advise her of the risks and the need to keep away from anyone who has rubella

      Explanation:

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 20 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in for a routine antenatal check-up at 20 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy and she has had no complications thus far. She has no significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. She is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. During her visit, her blood pressure is measured at 150/94 mmHg, which is higher than her previous readings in early pregnancy. Upon examination, there is no edema and her reflexes are normal. Urinalysis shows no protein, blood, leukocytes, glucose, or nitrites. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Labetalol is the recommended first-line treatment for pregnancy-induced hypertension. This is because the patient in question has developed new-onset stage I hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation, indicating gestational hypertension. As there is no proteinuria present, pre-eclampsia is not suspected. According to NICE guidelines from 2019, medical treatment should be initiated if blood pressure remains elevated above 140/90 mmHg. Nifedipine is a second-line treatment option if labetalol is not suitable or well-tolerated. Methyldopa is also a viable option if labetalol or nifedipine are not appropriate. Amlodipine, on the other hand, lacks sufficient data to support its safety during pregnancy.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman at 36 weeks’ gestation presents with severe abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman at 36 weeks’ gestation presents with severe abdominal pain and a small amount of vaginal bleeding. The pregnancy has been uncomplicated and previous scans have been normal. On examination, she has tenderness over the uterine fundus, plus:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Blood pressure (BP) 90/60 mmHg < 120/< 80 mmHg
      Heart rate 110 beats per minute 60–100 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute 12–20 breaths per minute
      O2 Saturation 98% 95–100%
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placenta accreta

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy Complications: Placental Abruption, Uterine Rupture, Placenta Previa, and Placenta Accreta

      During pregnancy, there are several complications that can occur, including placental abruption, uterine rupture, placenta previa, and placenta accreta.

      Placental abruption happens when part of the placenta separates prematurely from the uterus. Symptoms include abdominal or back pain, vaginal bleeding (although there may be no bleeding in concealed abruption), a hard abdomen, and eventually shock. Treatment involves hospitalization, resuscitation, and delivery of the baby.

      Uterine rupture is rare and usually occurs during labor, especially in women who have had previous uterine surgery. Symptoms include abdominal pain and tenderness, vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate deterioration, and hypovolemic shock. Emergency exploratory laparotomy with Caesarean section and fluid resuscitation is necessary.

      Placenta previa occurs when the placenta attaches to the lower uterine segment and often presents with painless vaginal bleeding after the 28th week. However, severe pain is not a typical symptom. The location of the placenta can be determined through scans.

      Placenta accreta happens when the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of just the endometrium. This can lead to failure of the placenta to separate after delivery, resulting in significant postpartum bleeding.

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  • Question 12 - A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency Department with vomiting and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, the doctor observes that her uterus is larger than expected for her stage of pregnancy. An ultrasound scan shows a snowstorm appearance with numerous highly reflective echoes and vacuolation areas within the uterine cavity.
      What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Septic abortion

      Correct Answer: Trophoblastic disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Pregnancy Complications: Trophoblastic Disease, Ectopic Pregnancy, Threatened Miscarriage, Confirmed Miscarriage, and Septic Abortion

      Pregnancy can be a wonderful experience, but it can also come with complications. Here are some of the common pregnancy complications and their symptoms:

      Trophoblastic Disease
      This disease usually occurs after 14 weeks of pregnancy and is characterized by vaginal bleeding. It is often misdiagnosed as a threatened miscarriage. The uterus may also be larger than expected. High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone can cause clinical thyrotoxicosis, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, and passing of products of conception vaginally. Ultrasound scans can show a snowstorm appearance with multiple highly reflective echoes and areas of vacuolation within the uterine cavity.

      Ectopic Pregnancy
      This type of pregnancy occurs outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the ampullary region of the Fallopian tube.

      Threatened Miscarriage
      This condition can also present with vaginal bleeding, but ultrasound scans would show a gestational sac and fetal heartbeat instead.

      Confirmed Miscarriage
      After a miscarriage is confirmed, the products of conception have passed from the uterus. Sometimes, small fragments of tissue may remain, which can be managed with surgical evacuation or expectant management for another two weeks.

      Septic Abortion
      This condition is characterized by infection of the products of conception and can present with vaginal bleeding and vomiting. Other signs of infection, such as fever and rigors, may also be present.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms during pregnancy. Early detection and treatment can help prevent further complications.

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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old para 1+0 comes to the clinic at 36 weeks complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old para 1+0 comes to the clinic at 36 weeks complaining of painless vaginal bleeding. She mentions having occasional spotting for the past 4 weeks, but it has become more frequent and heavier. Her blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg, and her heart rate is 85 bpm. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and the fetal head is not engaged and high. What further examination should you conduct to confirm your initial suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The results are typical of placenta praevia, according to the findings.
      The RCOG suggests transvaginal ultrasound as it enhances the precision of placental positioning and is deemed to be safe.

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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  • Question 14 - You are seeing a G3P1 14-weeks pregnant woman in the GP surgery. She...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a G3P1 14-weeks pregnant woman in the GP surgery. She is concerned about the possibility of developing postpartum psychosis again, as she had experienced it in her previous pregnancy and was hospitalized. What is the likelihood of her developing this condition once more?

      Your Answer: 25-50 %

      Explanation:

      To monitor her throughout her pregnancy and postnatal period, this woman requires a referral to a perinatal mental health team due to her increased risk of postpartum psychosis. It would have been preferable for her to receive preconception advice before becoming pregnant. The recurrence rate is not influenced by the baby’s gender.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the antenatal clinic. What should be included in the standard infection screening?

      Your Answer: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that HIV testing be included as a standard part of antenatal screening.

      Antenatal Screening Policy

      Antenatal screening is an important aspect of prenatal care that helps identify potential health risks for both the mother and the developing fetus. The National Screening Committee (NSC) has recommended a policy for antenatal screening that outlines the conditions for which all pregnant women should be offered screening and those for which screening should not be offered.

      The NSC recommends that all pregnant women should be offered screening for anaemia, bacteriuria, blood group, Rhesus status, and anti-red cell antibodies, Down’s syndrome, fetal anomalies, hepatitis B, HIV, neural tube defects, risk factors for pre-eclampsia, syphilis, and other conditions depending on the woman’s medical history.

      However, there are certain conditions for which screening should not be offered, such as gestational diabetes, gestational hypertension, and preterm labor. These conditions are typically managed through regular prenatal care and monitoring.

      It is important for pregnant women to discuss their screening options with their healthcare provider to ensure that they receive appropriate care and support throughout their pregnancy. By following the NSC’s recommended policy for antenatal screening, healthcare providers can help identify potential health risks early on and provide appropriate interventions to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman who is 11 weeks pregnant with twins presents with vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 11 weeks pregnant with twins presents with vomiting. She cannot keep anything down, is dizzy and tired, and is urinating less frequently.

      Her past medical history includes hypothyroidism and irritable bowel syndrome. She smokes 6 cigarettes a day. The foetus was conceived via in-vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      On examination, it is found that she has lost 3.2kg, with a pre-pregnancy weight of 64.3kg. Her blood results show the following:

      Na+ 124 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      pH 7.46 (7.35-7.45)

      What factors in this patient's history have increased the risk of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

      Correct Answer: Multiple pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, can lead to pre-pregnancy weight loss and electrolyte imbalance. Women with multiple pregnancies, such as the patient in this case, are at a higher risk due to elevated levels of the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). Hyperthyroidism and molar pregnancy are also risk factors, while hypothyroidism and irritable bowel syndrome are not associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. In-vitro fertilisation (IVF) indirectly increases the risk due to the higher likelihood of multiple pregnancy.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of blood glucose level testing during her pregnancy.

      Your Answer: Daily fasting, pre-meal, 1-hour post-meal and bedtime tests.

      Explanation:

      It is important for pregnant individuals with type 1 diabetes to closely monitor their blood glucose levels by testing multiple times throughout the day. This is recommended by NICE NG3.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 18 - You are asked to review a 32-year-old woman, who is breastfeeding on day...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a 32-year-old woman, who is breastfeeding on day two post-emergency Caesarean section, because her wound is tender. On examination, you notice that the skin surrounding the wound is erythematosus, with a small amount of yellow discharge. There is no wound dehiscence. The area is tender on examination. Observations are stable, and the patient is apyrexial. You send a swab from the wound for culture. She has an allergy to penicillin.
      Which of the following is the best next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Intravenous antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Cellulitis in Post-Caesarean Section Patient

      Cellulitis around the Caesarean wound site requires prompt treatment to prevent the development of sepsis, especially in postpartum women. The initial steps include wound swab for culture and sensitivities, marking the area of cellulitis, and analgesia. Flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic for cellulitis, but oral erythromycin is recommended for patients with penicillin allergy. The dose of erythromycin is 500 mg four times a day orally for five to seven days, and it is safe during breastfeeding. Topical treatment is not as effective as systemic treatment, and analgesia is necessary to manage pain. Antibiotics should not be delayed until culture sensitivities are available, and intravenous antibiotics are not indicated unless the patient’s condition deteriorates. Close monitoring of symptoms, observations, and inflammatory markers should guide treatment.

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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman attends the Antenatal clinic for a check-up. She is 32...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman attends the Antenatal clinic for a check-up. She is 32 weeks into her pregnancy. Her blood pressure is recorded as 160/128 mmHg. She reports suffering from headaches over the last 2 days. A urine sample is immediately checked for proteinuria, which, together with hypertension, would indicate pre-eclampsia. Her urine sample shows ++ protein. The patient is admitted for monitoring and treatment.

      What is the meaning of proteinuria?

      Your Answer: Persistent urinary protein of >300 mg/24 h

      Explanation:

      Understanding Proteinuria in Pre-eclampsia: Screening and Management

      Proteinuria, defined as urinary protein of >300 mg in 24 hours, is a key indicator of pre-eclampsia in pregnant women. Regular screening for hypertension and proteinuria should take place during antenatal clinics to detect this unpredictable condition. If blood pressure is found to be elevated, pharmacological management with medications such as labetalol, methyldopa, or nifedipine may be necessary. The severity of pre-eclampsia is determined by blood pressure readings, with mild cases requiring monitoring only and severe cases requiring frequent monitoring and medication. Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can lead to complications for both mother and baby, and ultimately, delivery of the baby is the only cure. Understanding proteinuria and its management is crucial in the care of pregnant women with pre-eclampsia.

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  • Question 20 - A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to undergo an oral glucose tolerance test. She has had four previous pregnancies, and her babies' birth weights have ranged from 3.4-4.6kg. She has no history of diabetes, but both her parents have hypertension, and her grandfather has diabetes. She is of white British ethnicity and has a BMI of 29.6kg/m². What is the reason for recommending an oral glucose tolerance test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Previous macrosomia

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that pregnant women with a family history of diabetes undergo an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old woman presents with vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation (gravida 3,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with vaginal bleeding at 34 weeks gestation (gravida 3, parity 2). The patient reports no abdominal pain but is worried about the possibility of a miscarriage. She has a history of two uncomplicated caesarean sections. What is the recommended first step in diagnosing her condition?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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  • Question 22 - A 24-year-old woman, gravidity 2 and parity 1, at 37 weeks gestation presents...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old woman, gravidity 2 and parity 1, at 37 weeks gestation presents with severe abdominal pain after fainting. Her blood pressure is 92/58 mmHg and heart rate is 132/min. Upon examination, she appears cold and her fundal height measures 37 cm. The cervical os is closed and there is no vaginal bleeding. What is the most suitable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 23 - In the Obstetric Outpatient Department, a patient with a history of hypertension and...

    Correct

    • In the Obstetric Outpatient Department, a patient with a history of hypertension and a BMI of 17 comes to you with concerns about pre-eclampsia. She is 28 years old, in her second pregnancy with the same partner, and has a four-year-old child. She has heard about pre-eclampsia from her friends and is worried about her risk. Which factor in her history is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Known hypertension

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a serious disorder of pregnancy that can lead to life-threatening complications if left untreated. It is important to identify risk factors for pre-eclampsia in order to provide appropriate monitoring and care for pregnant women.

      Known hypertension is a significant risk factor for pre-eclampsia. Women with hypertension should be closely monitored throughout their pregnancy.

      Age is also a factor, with women over 40 being at increased risk. However, the patient in this scenario is 28 years old and not at increased risk.

      First pregnancy or first pregnancy with a new partner is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia. However, as this is the patient’s second pregnancy with the same partner, she is not at increased risk.

      A high BMI is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia, particularly if a patient’s BMI is over 35. However, a low BMI, such as the patient’s BMI of 17, is not a risk factor.

      Finally, a period of ten years or more since the last pregnancy is a moderate risk factor for pre-eclampsia. As the patient has a child that is four years old, she is not at increased risk.

      In conclusion, identifying and monitoring risk factors for pre-eclampsia is crucial in ensuring the health and safety of pregnant women and their babies.

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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth to her daughter through normal vaginal delivery 12 hours ago. She asks about contraceptive options as she feels her family is complete. She has a clean medical history and had no complications during her pregnancy or labour. She has previously used the intrauterine system (IUS) and wishes to continue with it. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer: She should wait a minimum of 6 weeks after delivery to have the IUS inserted. In the meantime she may use progesterone only oral contraception

      Correct Answer: She may have the IUS inserted up to 48 hours after delivery if she wishes

      Explanation:

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after a minimum of 4 weeks. However, it is important to note that insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks after delivery should be avoided due to the increased risk of expulsion and lack of data on uterine perforation with newer models. In addition to general contraindications, contraindications to postpartum insertion within 48 hours include peripartum chorioamnionitis, endometritis, puerperal sepsis, or post-partum haemorrhage. Waiting a minimum of 6 weeks or 2 months after delivery is not necessary. If waiting the recommended minimum of 4 weeks, the progesterone-only pill may be used as an interim measure to reduce the risk of pregnancy.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old woman, who is 30 weeks pregnant, reports feeling breathless during a...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman, who is 30 weeks pregnant, reports feeling breathless during a routine prenatal appointment. Upon examination, you observe that everything appears normal except for mild hyperventilation. What is the probable discovery during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Decrease in total lung capacity

      Explanation:

      Changes in Physiological Parameters during Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, various physiological changes occur in a woman’s body to support the growing fetus. One of these changes is a decrease in total lung capacity by approximately 200 ml. This reduction is due to a decrease in residual volume caused by the fetus. However, the basal metabolic rate increases during pregnancy. Additionally, cardiac output can increase by up to 40%, while the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) normally increases. Maternal oxygen consumption also rises during pregnancy to meet the oxygen demands of the fetus, leading to an increase in minute volume. These changes in physiological parameters are essential for the healthy development of the fetus and the mother’s well-being during pregnancy.

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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman had blood tests taken at her 12-week booking appointment with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman had blood tests taken at her 12-week booking appointment with the midwife. This is her first pregnancy and she has no significant medical history. The results of her full blood count (FBC) are as follows:
      - Hb: 110 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelets: 340 x 10^9/L (normal range: 150-400 x 10^9/L)
      - WBC: 7.2 x 10^9/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 x 10^9/L)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action based on these results?

      Your Answer: Start oral iron replacement therapy

      Explanation:

      To determine if iron supplementation is necessary, a cut-off of 110 g/L should be applied during the first trimester.

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.

      If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a previous macrosomic baby and a history of gestational diabetes presents in her second pregnancy. She is at eight weeks’ gestation and attends the midwife booking visit.
      What is the most suitable test to diagnose gestational diabetes in this patient?

      Your Answer: A 2-hour OGTT as soon as possible following the booking visit

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a condition where pregnant women experience high blood sugar levels. It is diagnosed through a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy. Women with risk factors such as a BMI over 30, a previous macrosomic baby, a family history of diabetes, or from an area with high diabetes prevalence should be offered the test. Random serum glucose, fasting serum glucose, HbA1c, and urinalysis are not recommended for diagnosis. Gestational diabetes can have negative effects on both the mother and fetus, including fetal macrosomia, stillbirth, neonatal hypoglycemia, and an increased risk of type II diabetes and obesity in the baby’s later life. Women with pre-existing diabetes should have their HbA1c monitored monthly and at booking to assess pregnancy risk, but HbA1c is not used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Early detection and management of gestational diabetes is crucial to prevent complications.

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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal bleeding and is diagnosed with placenta accreta. What is the primary risk factor associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Previous caesarean sections

      Explanation:

      Understanding Placenta Accreta

      Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.

      There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.

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  • Question 29 - You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What result would suggest the requirement for regular antenatal administration of anti-D prophylaxis at 28 weeks?

      Your Answer: Rhesus negative mothers who are sensitised

      Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mothers who are not sensitised

      Explanation:

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Trial of lifestyle changes for 1-2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Start insulin only

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes with a fasting glucose level of >= 7 mmol/L at diagnosis is to commence insulin. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority according to NICE guidelines. Re-checking glucose in 2 weeks, starting exenatide, or relying on lifestyle changes alone would not be appropriate. Metformin alone may not be sufficient for glucose levels above 7 mmol/L, but it can be used in combination with insulin. If glucose levels are below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be trialed before considering metformin.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (16/30) 53%
Passmed