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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a follow-up on her Dupuytren's contracture. She has been experiencing more difficulty lately with her job, which involves a lot of typing. Despite taking Naproxen, she has not found much relief. During the examination, the GP observes that the metacarpophalangeal joints on her right hand's little finger and ring finger are bent forward by 30 degrees, and she is unable to place her hand flat on the table. What should be the GP's next appropriate step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Corticosteroid injection
Correct Answer: Make a routine referral to orthopaedics to be seen by a hand specialist
Explanation:When a patient with Dupuytren’s contracture is unable to straighten their metacarpophalangeal joints and place their hand flat on a table, surgical treatment should be considered. This condition occurs when the palmar fascia becomes stiff and fibroses, causing the affected fingers to contract, typically the ring and little finger of the right hand.
The severity of the condition will determine the appropriate management approach. In cases where the condition is severe and impacting the patient’s quality of life, referral to a hand specialist for secondary intervention is recommended. This may involve either surgical intervention or injectable enzyme therapy, which should only be initiated by a specialist.
For minor cases where the condition is not significantly affecting the patient’s quality of life, primary care management may be appropriate. This will involve reassurance that the condition may improve over time, regular reviews, and advice on when to return for referral if necessary.
It is important to note that corticosteroid injections are not effective in treating Dupuytren’s contracture. Additionally, as this is not an acute problem, patients should not be advised to attend the emergency department.
Understanding Dupuytren’s Contracture
Dupuytren’s contracture is a condition that affects about 5% of the population. It is more common in older men and those with a family history of the condition. The causes of Dupuytren’s contracture include manual labor, phenytoin treatment, alcoholic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, and trauma to the hand.
The condition typically affects the ring finger and little finger, causing them to become bent and difficult to straighten. In severe cases, the hand may not be able to be placed flat on a table.
Surgical treatment may be necessary when the metacarpophalangeal joints cannot be straightened.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old mechanic presents with joint pains. He has been experiencing intermittent pain, stiffness, and swelling in his hands and feet for the past few months. Although the stiffness tends to improve during the day, the pain tends to worsen. He has also noticed stiffness in his back but cannot recall any injury that may have caused it. During an acute attack, blood tests were taken and the results are as follows: negative rheumatoid factor, positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody, uric acid level of 0.3 mmol/l (normal range: 0.18 - 0.48), and an ESR of 41 mm/hr. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly linked to the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies, which are highly specific to this condition.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that can be diagnosed through initial investigations, including antibody tests and x-rays. One of the first tests recommended is the rheumatoid factor (RF) test, which detects a circulating antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. This test can be done through the Rose-Waaler test or the latex agglutination test, with the former being more specific. A positive RF result is found in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF result include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population.
Another antibody test that can aid in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody test. This test can detect the antibody up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis and has a sensitivity similar to RF (around 70%) but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends that patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative should be tested for anti-CCP antibodies.
In addition to antibody tests, x-rays of the hands and feet are also recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis. These x-rays can help detect joint damage and deformities, which are common in rheumatoid arthritis. Early detection and treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can help prevent further joint damage and improve overall quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain in her left eye. She reports no sensitivity to light and no vision problems. She denies any past eye injuries or diseases. She has been managing her diabetes through diet alone for the past two years. During the examination, the eye is found to be red and tender to the touch.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Urgent and immediate referral to ophthalmic surgeon
Explanation:Management of a Patient with a Painful Red Eye and Diabetes
When managing a patient with a painful red eye and diabetes, it is important to consider the potential causes and appropriate interventions. Urgent referral to an ophthalmic surgeon is necessary if there is suspicion of acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is more common in diabetic patients. Referring the patient back to the diabetic clinic would not be appropriate in this case. Chloramphenicol drops are not indicated unless there is evidence of an infection. Oral flucloxacillin and eye swabs are not necessary unless there is suspicion of skin infection or bacterial conjunctivitis. Reassuring the patient and providing eye lubrication without addressing the underlying cause would be negligent. Prompt and appropriate management is crucial in preventing vision loss in diabetic patients with a painful red eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of increasing lethargy and weight gain over the past year. The GP finds nil of note on examination, but decides to carry out some blood tests, the results of which are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 145 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 263 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 102 fl 76–98 fl
Urea and electrolytes normal, liver function tests (LFTs) normal; thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 10.9 miu/l, free T4 5 pmol/l.
Which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: Macrocytosis usually indicates coexistent vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct Answer: Menorrhagia may be a feature
Explanation:Understanding Hypothyroidism: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Hypothyroidism is a condition characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, resulting in low levels of thyroid hormones in the body. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including lethargy, weight gain, depression, sensitivity to cold, myalgia, dry skin, dry hair and/or hair loss, constipation, menstrual irregularities, carpal tunnel syndrome, memory problems, and myxoedema coma (a medical emergency).
Diagnosis of hypothyroidism involves measuring levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4) in the blood. A high TSH level and a low T4 level indicate hypothyroidism. Menorrhagia may be a feature of the condition.
Treatment involves initiating and titrating doses of levothyroxine until serum TSH normalizes and the patient’s signs and symptoms have resolved. The lowest dose of levothyroxine possible to maintain this should be used. If the patient has a goitre, nodule, or changes of the thyroid gland, the patient is suspected to have subacute thyroiditis, or if an associated endocrine disease is suspected, specialist referral is indicated.
While macrocytosis may indicate coexistent vitamin B12 deficiency, it is not always present in hypothyroidism. Anaemia is a frequent occurrence in thyroid disease, which is most commonly normocytic, but can also be macrocytic or microcytic.
Thyroid-stimulating autoantibodies commonly occur in hyperthyroidism, but not in hypothyroidism. Similarly, thyroid eye disease is a common feature in hyperthyroidism, but not in hypothyroidism.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of hypothyroidism is crucial for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with severe breathlessness which started this morning and has become gradually worse. The patient denies coughing up any phlegm. He has a history of essential hypertension. On examination, the patient has a blood pressure of 114/75 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. His temperature is 37.1°C. His jugular venous pressure (JVP) is 8 cm above the sternal angle. On auscultation there are fine bibasal crackles and a third heart sound is audible. The patient is an ex-smoker and used to smoke 5–10 cigarettes a day for about 10 years.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:Differentiating Pulmonary Oedema from Other Cardiac and Respiratory Conditions
Pulmonary oedema is a condition characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the lungs due to left ventricular failure. It presents with symptoms such as shortness of breath, raised jugular venous pressure, and a third heart sound. Bi-basal crackles are also a hallmark of pulmonary oedema. However, it is important to differentiate pulmonary oedema from other cardiac and respiratory conditions that may present with similar symptoms.
Tricuspid regurgitation is another cardiac condition that may present with a raised JVP and a third heart sound. However, it is characterized by additional symptoms such as ascites, a pulsatile liver, peripheral oedema, and a pansystolic murmur. Pneumonia, on the other hand, is a respiratory infection that presents with a productive cough of yellow or green sputum and shortness of breath. Bronchial breath sounds may also be heard upon auscultation.
Pulmonary embolus is a condition that presents with chest pain, shortness of breath, and signs of an underlying deep vein thrombosis. Pericardial effusion, on the other hand, is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac surrounding the heart. It may eventually lead to cardiac tamponade, which presents with hypotension, shortness of breath, and distant heart sounds. However, bi-basal crackles are not a feature of pericardial effusion.
In summary, it is important to consider the specific symptoms and characteristics of each condition in order to accurately diagnose and differentiate pulmonary oedema from other cardiac and respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman reports that her left ring finger frequently gets stuck in a bent position. She finds it challenging to extend it without using her other hand, and occasionally hears a clicking sound when she does so.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Trigger finger
Explanation:Common Hand Conditions: Trigger Finger, Dupuytren’s Contracture, and Osteoarthritis
Trigger Finger: A common cause of hand pain and disability, trigger finger occurs when the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This results in a fixed flexion of the finger, which pops back suddenly when released. It may be due to trauma or have no obvious cause. Treatment may include corticosteroid injection or tendon release surgery.
Dupuytren’s Contracture: This condition causes a fixed flexion contracture of the hand, making it difficult to straighten the affected fingers.
Osteoarthritis: A degenerative joint disease, osteoarthritis may cause deformity and pain in the affected joint, but not the symptoms of trigger finger.
Other possible hand conditions include cramp and tetany, which may cause muscle spasms and tingling sensations. It is important to seek medical attention for any persistent hand pain or discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of these factors does NOT contribute to the development of osteoporosis?
Your Answer: Heparin
Correct Answer: Oestradiol
Explanation:Drug Therapies Associated with Osteoporosis and Treatment Options
Osteoporosis is a condition that is linked to various drug therapies, including corticosteroids, heparin, cyclosporin, methotrexate, and cytotoxic therapy. These medications can increase the risk of developing osteoporosis, which is characterized by weakened bones and an increased likelihood of fractures. However, hormone replacement therapy with small doses of estrogen can be an effective treatment option for osteoporosis when other therapies are not suitable or do not work.
Systemic estrogen given during the perimenopausal and postmenopausal period can help reduce the risk of postmenopausal osteoporosis. This treatment option is particularly useful for women who cannot tolerate other therapies or have not responded well to them. By replenishing the body’s estrogen levels, hormone replacement therapy can help maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures. It is important to discuss the potential benefits and risks of hormone replacement therapy with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl walks with a limp due to right hip pain, which is relieved by rest and made worse by walking or standing. Her vital signs are normal. The Trendelenburg sign presents when she stands on her right leg.
X-rays reveal periarticular right hip swelling in soft tissue. A bone scan reveals reduced activity in the anterolateral right capital femoral epiphysis.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: A slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Correct Answer: Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Explanation:Understanding Legg-Calvé-Perthes Disease and Differential Diagnoses
Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease is a condition that occurs due to vascular compromise of the capital epiphysis of the femur. The exact cause of this self-limiting disease is unclear, but it may be related to developmental changes in the hip’s blood supply. The compromised blood flow leads to ischaemic necrosis of the epiphysis. The retinacular arteries and their branches are the primary source of blood to the head of the femur, especially between the ages of 4 and 9 when the epiphyseal plate is forming. During this time, the incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is highest.
Differential diagnoses for this condition include a slipped capital femoral epiphysis, septic arthritis, and epiphyseal dysplasia. A slipped capital femoral epiphysis would be visible on hip radiography, which is not the case in this scenario. Septic arthritis would cause systemic inflammatory responses, which are not present in this case. Epiphyseal dysplasia is a congenital defect that would typically present when the child starts to walk.
In addition to Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, there is radiological evidence of synovitis and hip joint effusion in this scenario. However, synovitis is a non-specific sign and not a specific diagnosis. Understanding these differential diagnoses can help healthcare professionals provide accurate diagnoses and appropriate treatment plans for patients with hip joint issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of alcoholism and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency department with a sudden onset of malaise and deterioration. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 37.8°C, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 95/54 mmHg. He is dehydrated with dry mucous membranes. There are no significant findings on respiratory and cardiovascular examinations. However, he has mild suprapubic tenderness and florid erythema, swelling, and blistering of his scrotum and perineum. A repeat examination 30 minutes later reveals spreading of the erythema and crepitations on palpation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epididymo-orchitis
Correct Answer: Fournier's gangrene
Explanation:Fournier’s Gangrene: A Urological Emergency
Fournier’s gangrene is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. It is a type of necrotising fasciitis that affects the perineum and can quickly spread to the skin of the scrotum and penis. The condition can progress rapidly, with the infection spreading at a rate of 1-2 cm/h. Mortality rates are high, averaging between 20-30%.
There are several risk factors associated with Fournier’s gangrene, including diabetes mellitus, alcohol dependence, immunosuppressive therapy, longstanding steroid therapy, malnutrition, HIV, extremes of age, and low socio-economic status. Early recognition and surgical debridement are crucial for successful treatment.
It is important to differentiate Fournier’s gangrene from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Cellulitis, for example, is a non-necrotising inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues that is related to acute infection but does not involve the fascia or muscles. A scrotal abscess may also present with tenderness and swelling, but there are no signs of rapid spread of infection or necrosis. Epididymo-orchitis is a localised infection of the epididymis and testis, while a hydrocele is a painless collection of peritoneal fluid between the parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis.
In summary, Fournier’s gangrene is a serious urological emergency that requires prompt medical attention. Early recognition and surgical intervention are essential for successful treatment. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-week-old neonate has been born with an abdominal defect described as 7 cm of herniated bowel through the abdominal wall. The bowel is exposed without a covering. The patient is hypotensive (50/30), tachycardic (220 bpm) and hypothermic (35.2 °C). Bloods were taken, which showed the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 190 g/l Female: 115–155 g/l
Male: 135–175 g/l
White cell count 30 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 25 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Incubate, fluid-resuscitate, pass NG tube, surgery immediately
Correct Answer: Incubate, fluid-resuscitate, pass nasogastric (NG) tube, surgery within a few hours
Explanation:Management of Gastroschisis in Neonates
Gastroschisis is a condition in which the abdominal contents herniate through the abdominal wall, without the covering of a sac of amniotic membrane and peritoneum. This poses a higher risk to the neonate than exomphalos, which has a covering. The management of gastroschisis involves incubation to maintain body temperature, fluid-resuscitation to prevent dehydration and hypovolaemia, and surgical intervention within a few hours, unless there is evidence of impaired bowel perfusion. Elective surgery is not appropriate for gastroschisis. Restricting fluids would result in organ hypoperfusion and death. Abdominal X-rays are not necessary, and surgical review is obviously appropriate, but surgical intervention is the priority.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with G4P3 at 39 weeks gestation presents to the labour ward following a spontaneous rupture of membranes. She delivers a healthy baby vaginally but experiences excessive bleeding and hypotension. Despite attempts to control the bleeding, the senior doctor decides to perform a hysterectomy. Upon examination, the pathologist observes that the chorionic villi have deeply invaded the myometrium but not the perimetrium.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Placenta increta
Explanation:The correct answer is placenta increta, where the chorionic villi invade the myometrium but not the perimetrium. The patient’s age and history of multiple pregnancies increase the risk of this abnormal placentation, which can be diagnosed through pathological studies. Placenta accreta, percreta, and previa are incorrect answers, as they involve different levels of placental attachment and can cause different symptoms.
Understanding Placenta Accreta
Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches to the myometrium instead of the decidua basalis, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. This condition is caused by a defective decidua basalis. There are three types of placenta accreta, which are categorized based on the degree of invasion. The first type is accreta, where the chorionic villi attach to the myometrium. The second type is increta, where the chorionic villi invade into the myometrium. The third type is percreta, where the chorionic villi invade through the perimetrium.
There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing placenta accreta, such as having a previous caesarean section or placenta previa. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and monitor patients closely during pregnancy and delivery. Early detection and management of placenta accreta can help prevent complications and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following presentations has the highest morbidity and mortality rate?
Your Answer: Footling presentation at delivery
Explanation:During the term of pregnancy, there is ample space for the fetus to reposition itself and move towards the head-down position. However, in cases of occipitoposterior presentation, the posterior fontanelle is located in the back quadrant of the pelvis, which requires more rotation and often results in a longer labor. Additionally, there is a higher likelihood of medical intervention, with a rate of 22.
Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent negative outcome of nicotinic acid therapy in the management of dyslipidemia patients?
Your Answer: Myalgia
Correct Answer: Facial flushing
Explanation:Common Side Effects of Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation. However, they can also cause side effects. The most common side effects of NSAIDs include facial flushing, which is caused by changes in prostaglandin metabolism. NSAIDs can also cause gastritis, peptic ulcer formation, hepatitis, gout, hyperglycemia, and rhabdomyolysis, especially when combined with statins. These side effects can be serious and should be monitored closely by a healthcare provider. It is important to discuss any concerns or questions about NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before taking them. Proper use and monitoring can help minimize the risk of side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with her mother, complaining of right iliac fossa pain for the past 2 days. She has no significant medical history, except for a recent cold and sore throat. She has had a high fever for the past 2 days and has lost her appetite, but denies any other symptoms. On examination, her temperature is 38.9 °C and her heart rate is 130 bpm. She has palpable and slightly tender submandibular and cervical lymph nodes on both sides. Her chest is clear, with transmitted sounds from the upper airways. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness in the right iliac fossa without guarding. A urine dipstick shows 2+ ketones and 1+ protein. Her FBC results are as follows: haemoglobin 145 g/l (normal range 135–175 g/l), WCC 14.3 × 109/l (normal range 4–11 × 109/l), and platelets 425 × 109/l (normal range 150–400 × 109/l). What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retroperitoneal appendix abscess
Correct Answer: Mesenteric adenitis
Explanation:When a child presents with right iliac fossa pain, a previous and recent history of a viral upper respiratory tract infection, along with enlarged neck nodes and high temperature, may indicate mesenteric adenitis. This condition is caused by mesenteric lymphadenopathy and can cause abdominal pain. Appendicitis is another possible diagnosis, but it tends to present with a low-grade fever and involuntary muscle spasms in the abdominal wall. A urinary tract infection is unlikely if there are no nitrites or leukocytes on urine dipstick. Meckel’s diverticulitis is a rare complication of Meckel’s diverticulum and is difficult to diagnose without considering appendicitis. Retroperitoneal appendix abscess is another uncommon type of infection that presents with non-specific symptoms such as fever, back pain, and abdominal pain. High temperatures may also be present, but they usually fluctuate in abscesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 16-year-old presents with pain in the right iliac fossa. She reports that the pain began a few hours ago while she was playing soccer and has been getting worse. The patient is negative for Rovsing's sign. An ultrasound reveals the presence of free pelvic fluid with a whirlpool sign. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ovarian torsion
Explanation:The whirlpool sign is indicative of an ovarian torsion or a volvulus caused by the twisting of the bowel. An enlarged ovary located in the midline and free pelvic fluid may also be observed on the ultrasound scan. Additionally, a doppler scan may reveal little or no ovarian venous flow with absent or reversed diastolic flow. On the other hand, Rovsing’s sign is characterized by increased tenderness in the right iliac fossa upon palpation of the left iliac fossa. This sign is often associated with cases of appendicitis.
Causes of Pelvic Pain in Women
Pelvic pain is a common complaint among women, with primary dysmenorrhoea being the most frequent cause. Mittelschmerz, or pain during ovulation, may also occur. However, there are other conditions that can cause pelvic pain, which can be acute or chronic in nature.
Acute pelvic pain can be caused by conditions such as ectopic pregnancy, urinary tract infection, appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion. Ectopic pregnancy is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in women with a history of 6-8 weeks of amenorrhoea. Urinary tract infection may cause dysuria and frequency, while appendicitis may present with pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa. Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause pelvic pain, fever, deep dyspareunia, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and menstrual irregularities. Ovarian torsion, on the other hand, may cause sudden onset unilateral lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a tender adnexal mass on examination.
Chronic pelvic pain, on the other hand, may be caused by conditions such as endometriosis, irritable bowel syndrome, ovarian cysts, and urogenital prolapse. Endometriosis is characterized by chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, deep dyspareunia, and subfertility. Irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition that presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and change in bowel habit. Ovarian cysts may cause a dull ache that is intermittent or only occurs during intercourse, while urogenital prolapse may cause a sensation of pressure, heaviness, and urinary symptoms such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency.
In summary, pelvic pain in women can be caused by various conditions, both acute and chronic. It is important to seek medical attention if the pain is severe or persistent, or if there are other concerning symptoms present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the most frequent primary cancer that leads to bone metastases?
Your Answer: Breast
Explanation:Bone Metastases: Common Tumours, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Bone metastases are a common occurrence in patients with malignant disease, affecting approximately 30% of cases. The most frequent tumours that cause bone metastases are breast, prostate, bronchus, kidney, and thyroid, with breast and prostate cancers accounting for the majority. Symptoms of bone metastases typically include bone pain, the presence of a lump, pathological fractures, hypercalcaemia, or cord compression. Pathological fractures occur in about 10% of patients with bone metastases. Radiological changes usually occur late, and bone scintigraphy is the most sensitive diagnostic tool available to detect metastatic spread. Most metastases are osteolytic, but some tumours, such as prostate carcinoma, cause osteosclerotic lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 70-year-old man, with a history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye that lasted for a few minutes. He describes the loss of vision as a curtain coming into his vision, and he could not see anything out of it for a few minutes before his vision returned to normal.
Upon examination, his acuity is 6/9 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, there is a small embolus in one of the vessels in the left eye. The rest of the fundus is normal in both eyes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Vision Loss: Amaurosis Fugax, Anterior Ischaemic Optic Neuropathy, CRAO, CRVO, and Retinal Detachment
When a patient presents with vision loss, it is important to differentiate between various causes. In the case of a transient and painless loss of vision, a typical diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. This is often seen in patients with atrial fibrillation and other vascular risk factors, and a small embolus may be present on fundoscopy. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause and treating it as an eye transischaemic attack (TIA).
Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, on the other hand, is caused by giant-cell arthritis and presents with a sudden, painless loss of vision. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient’s history.
Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is another potential cause of vision loss, but it does not present as a transient loss of vision. Instead, it causes long-lasting damage and may be identified by a cherry-red spot at the macula. The small embolus seen on fundoscopy is not causing a CRAO.
Similarly, central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) presents with multiple flame haemorrhages, which are not present in this case.
While the patient did mention a curtain-like loss of vision, this does not necessarily indicate retinal detachment. Retinal detachment typically presents with flashes and floaters, and vision is worse if the detachment is a macula-off detachment.
In summary, careful consideration of the patient’s history and fundoscopic findings can help differentiate between various causes of vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman who has had two Colles fractures in the past three years undergoes a DEXA scan:
T-score
L2-4 -1.4
Femoral neck -2.7
What is the interpretation of the scan results?Your Answer: Osteopaenia in vertebrae, osteoporosis in femoral neck
Explanation:Osteoporosis is a condition that affects bone density and can lead to fractures. To diagnose osteoporosis, doctors use a DEXA scan, which measures bone mass. The results are compared to a young reference population, and a T score is calculated. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, and a score below -2.5 indicates osteoporosis. The Z score is also calculated, taking into account age, gender, and ethnicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after attempting to end her life by jumping from a height. On examination, she is conscious and has significant bruising over the occiput region. She reports that her parents are recently divorced and it has caused significant strain on her current relationship and as a result, is failing to do well at work. She has no significant medical history, apart from an incident when she was 17 where she was admitted to the hospital after intentionally taking too many paracetamol.
Which of the following from the patient’s history is most associated with an increased risk of repeated attempts of self-harm/suicide?Your Answer: Previous attempted suicide
Explanation:Risk Factors for Repeated Self-Harm and Suicide Attempts
Previous suicide attempts or episodes of self-harm are the biggest predictor of future attempts, with 15% of people attempting again within a year and 1% succeeding in committing suicide. Strained relationships with partners or dissatisfaction with work alone have not been linked to repeated attempts. However, significant life events such as parental divorce, bereavement, abuse, or family breakdown may increase the risk. Age alone, particularly for adults in their twenties, has not been associated with repeated self-harm or suicide attempts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is scheduled for a blood glucose check at the antenatal clinic due to her history of gestational diabetes during her first pregnancy. After undergoing the oral glucose tolerance test, her fasting glucose level is found to be 7.2mmol/L and her 2hr glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Insulin
Explanation:The correct answer for the management of gestational diabetes is insulin. If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis, insulin should be initiated. Diet and exercise/lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient for managing gestational diabetes and medication is necessary. Empagliflozin and glibenclamide are not appropriate treatments for gestational diabetes. Glibenclamide may only be considered if the patient has declined insulin.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect?
Your Answer: 10% of cases are bilateral
Correct Answer: Twice as common in girls
Explanation:Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 49-year-old woman during a general practice visit who has recently been diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis. As you review her medication history, you wonder which of the following medications could potentially be a contributing factor to her condition.
Your Answer: Calcium with colecalciferol
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Nitrofurantoin is a drug that may cause pulmonary fibrosis, which is a type of lung disease. Other drugs that can cause this condition include amiodarone, chemotherapy, and methotrexate. Bisoprolol, warfarin, salbutamol, and Adcal-D3 do not cause pulmonary fibrosis.
Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis
Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male with bipolar disorder is currently under the care of his psychiatrist as an outpatient. During the review, the psychiatrist observes that the patient's speech mostly follows a logical sequence, but at times, the patient uses a seemingly inappropriate series of rhyming words. For instance, when asked about his activities the previous day, he responded, I went for a run, had some fun, saw the sun, and then I was done.
What is the most appropriate term to describe the speech abnormality exhibited by the patient?Your Answer: Echolalia
Correct Answer: Clanging
Explanation:Language Disturbances in Mental Illness
Clanging, echolalia, neologism, perseveration, and word salad are all language disturbances that may occur in individuals with mental illness. Clanging is the use of words that sound similar but are not related in meaning. This is often seen in individuals experiencing mania or psychosis. Echolalia is the repetition of words or phrases spoken by others. Neologism is the creation of new words that are not part of standard language. Perseveration is the repetition of a word or activity beyond what is appropriate. Finally, word salad is a completely disorganized speech that is not understandable.
These language disturbances can be indicative of underlying mental illness and can be used as diagnostic criteria. It is important for mental health professionals to be aware of these language disturbances and to assess their presence in patients. Treatment for these language disturbances may involve medication, therapy, or a combination of both. By addressing these language disturbances, individuals with mental illness may be better able to communicate and function in their daily lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the reporting of medication related adverse events using the Yellow Card scheme is accurate?
Your Answer: An allergic rash that develops in an elderly man secondary to co-amoxiclav should be reported
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea occuring after starting a black triangle medicine should be reported
Explanation:The Yellow Card Scheme for Reporting Adverse Reactions to Medications
The Yellow Card scheme is a widely recognized method for reporting adverse reactions to medications. It is managed by the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). The scheme is designed to encourage healthcare professionals and patients to report any suspected adverse drug reactions, including those related to new medicines, off-label use of medicines, and herbal remedies.
The MHRA recommends that all suspected adverse drug reactions for new medicines, identified by the black triangle symbol, should be reported. Additionally, all suspected adverse drug reactions occurring in children, even if a medicine has been used off-label, should be reported. Serious suspected adverse drug reactions for established vaccines and medicines, including unlicensed medicines, should also be reported.
Yellow Cards can be found at the back of the British National Formulary (BNF) or completed online through the Yellow Card website. It is important to note that any suspected reactions, not just confirmed ones, should be reported. Patients can also report adverse events through the scheme.
Once Yellow Cards are submitted, the MHRA collates and assesses the information. The agency may consult with the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM), an independent scientific advisory body on medicines safety, to further evaluate the reported adverse reactions. Reactions that are fatal, life-threatening, disabling or incapacitating, result in or prolong hospitalization, or are medically significant are considered serious.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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You are the Foundation Year doctor on the Gastroenterology ward round. The consultant is reviewing a new patient to the ward. This is a 32-year-old man with active Crohn’s disease. From the medical notes, you are aware that the patient has had a number of previous admissions to the Unit and poor response to conventional therapy. The consultant mentions the possibility of using a drug called infliximab, and the patient asks whether this is an antibiotic.
What is the mode of action of infliximab?Your Answer: Antibody against tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
Explanation:Common Disease-Modifying Agents and Their Targets
Disease-modifying agents (DMARDs) are a group of drugs used to treat various diseases, including rheumatic disease, gastrointestinal disease, and neurological conditions. These agents have different targets in the immune system, and some of the most common ones are discussed below.
Antibody against Tumour Necrosis Factor-alpha (TNF-α)
TNF-α inhibitors, such as infliximab and adalimumab, are used to treat rheumatic disease and inflammatory bowel disease. These agents increase susceptibility to infection and should not be administered with live vaccines.Antibody against CD20
Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody against CD20 and is used to treat aggressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.Interleukin (IL)-1 Blocker
Anakinra is an IL-1 receptor antagonist used to treat rheumatoid arthritis.α-4 Integrin Antagonist
Natalizumab is a humanised monoclonal antibody against α-4-integrin and is used to treat multiple sclerosis.IL-2 Blocker
Daclizumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to the IL-2 receptor and is used to prevent acute rejection following renal transplantation.Targets of Disease-Modifying Agents
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Koplik's spots?
Your Answer: Appear as red papules on the palmar surface of the hands
Correct Answer: Diagnostic of measles
Explanation:Koplik’s Spots: A Diagnostic Sign of Measles
Koplik’s spots are a distinctive sign of measles, characterized by small, irregular, bright red spots with blue-white centers. These spots are typically found on the inside of the cheek next to the premolars and are only seen in cases of measles, making them a diagnostic indicator of the disease.
Koplik’s spots usually appear briefly after the onset of fever and a few days before the generalized rash associated with measles appears. In some cases, the spots may disappear as the rash develops. These spots typically start to appear around two days after initial infection.
Overall, the presence of Koplik’s spots is an important diagnostic sign of measles and can help healthcare professionals identify and treat the disease more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman complains of epigastric pain, vomiting and weight loss. The surgeon suspects gastric cancer and sends her for endoscopy. Where is the cancer likely to be located?
Your Answer: Cardia
Explanation:Location of Gastric Cancers: Changing Trends
Gastric cancers can arise from different parts of the stomach, including the cardia, body, fundus, antrum, and pylorus. In the past, the majority of gastric cancers used to originate from the antrum and pylorus. However, in recent years, there has been a shift in the location of gastric cancers, with the majority now arising from the cardia. This change in trend highlights the importance of ongoing research and surveillance in the field of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has a skiing accident and sustains a blow to the occiput, resulting in a 5-minute concussion. Upon arrival at the emergency department, she presents with confusion and a GCS score of 10/15. A CT scan reveals no signs of acute bleeding or fractures, but there is evidence of edema and the early stages of mass effect. What is the optimal course of action?
Your Answer: Burr hole decompression
Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous mannitol
Explanation:Mannitol can be used to decrease the elevated ICP in the acute phase for this woman.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Correct
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A 29-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose 48 hours ago following an argument with his girlfriend. He was intoxicated at the time and cannot recall what he ingested. Recently, his General Practitioner had prescribed him antidepressants. Laboratory tests reveal abnormal results, including elevated liver enzymes and prolonged prothrombin time. Based on these findings, which medication is the most probable cause of his overdose?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Drug Overdose: Identifying the Culprit
One patient presents with a prolonged prothrombin time and elevated ALT, indicating hepatic damage and metabolic acidosis. Among the drugs provided, paracetamol is the most likely culprit, known for causing hepatic injury in overdose. On the other hand, amitriptyline can cause various symptoms but not the prolonged prothrombin time seen in this case. Aspirin overdose can result in mixed acid-base pictures, while benzodiazepine overdose can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest. Fluoxetine overdose can cause hepatotoxicity but is more commonly associated with paracetamol overdose. Identifying the specific drug involved is crucial in managing drug overdose cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You see a 92-year-old gentleman who has been admitted following a fall. He had been discovered lying on the floor of his home by a neighbour. He has a diagnosis of dementia and cannot recall how long ago he had fallen. His observations are normal and he is apyrexial. A pelvic X-ray, including both hips, shows no evidence of bony injury. A full blood count is normal.
His biochemistry results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Creatinine 210 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urea 22.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Sodium 133 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 8 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
What is the most appropriate investigation to request next?Your Answer: Catheter urine specimen
Correct Answer: Creatine kinase
Explanation:Investigating the Cause of Renal Failure: Importance of Creatine Kinase
Renal failure can have various causes, including dehydration, sepsis, and rhabdomyolysis. In this case, the patient’s normal observations and inflammatory markers suggest rhabdomyolysis as the most serious potential cause. A raised creatine kinase would confirm the diagnosis. Elderly patients are particularly at risk of rhabdomyolysis following a prolonged period of immobility. A falls screen, including routine bloods, blood glucose, resting electrocardiogram, urinalysis, and lying-standing blood pressure, would be appropriate. While a catheter urine specimen may be helpful in diagnosing sepsis, it is less likely in this case. Liver function tests and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy are unlikely to provide useful information. A plain chest X-ray is also not necessary for investigating the cause of renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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