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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis is experiencing deteriorating respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis is experiencing deteriorating respiratory symptoms and is subsequently diagnosed with aspergillus infection. What is a common pulmonary manifestation of Aspergillus infection?

      Your Answer: Prominent mediastinal lymphadenopathy

      Correct Answer: Allergic asthma

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis

      Aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus. It can affect various organs in the body, including the lungs. The pulmonary manifestations of aspergillosis include allergic reactions, bronchocentric granulomatosis, necrotising aspergillosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, aspergilloma, and bronchial stump infection.

      Allergic reactions can manifest as allergic asthma or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). Patients may experience recurrent wheezing, fever, and transient opacities on chest X-ray. In later stages, bronchiectasis may develop.

      Bronchocentric granulomatosis is characterised by granuloma of bronchial mucosa with eosinophilic infiltrates. Chest X-ray shows a focal upper lobe lesion, and there may be haemoptysis.

      Necrotising aspergillosis is usually found in immunocompromised patients. Chest X-ray shows spreading infiltrates, and there is invasion of blood vessels.

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis, also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis, may occur in certain professions like malt workers. Four to 8 hours after exposure, there is an allergic reaction characterised by fever, chill, malaise, and dyspnoea. Serum IgE concentrations are normal.

      Aspergilloma is saprophytic colonisation in pre-existing cavities. Haemoptysis is the most frequent symptom. Chest X-ray shows Monod’s sign, and gravitational change of position of the mass can be demonstrated.

      Bronchial stump infection is usually found in post-surgery cases when silk suture is used. If nylon suture is used, this problem is eliminated. This can also occur in lung transplants at the site of anastomosis of bronchi.

      Understanding the Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis

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      • Respiratory
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical history of asthma and has been hospitalized in the past due to asthma and two recent cases of pneumonia. On examination, he has bilateral wheeze and a mild fever. His sputum is thick and sticky. Blood tests reveal an ESR of 72 mm/hr (1-10) and elevated IgE levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

      Explanation:

      Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count. Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count.

      Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

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      • Respiratory
      67.5
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  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with left upper-lobe cavitating consolidation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with left upper-lobe cavitating consolidation and sputum samples confirm the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is fully sensitive. There is no prior history of TB treatment. What is the most suitable antibiotic regimen?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin/isoniazid/pyrazinamide for four months

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin/isoniazid/pyrazinamide/ethambutol for two months, then rifampicin/isoniazid for four months

      Explanation:

      Proper Treatment for Tuberculosis

      Proper treatment for tuberculosis (TB) depends on certain sensitivities. Until these sensitivities are known, empirical treatment for TB should include four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Treatment can be stepped down to two drugs after two months if the organism is fully sensitive. The duration of therapy for pulmonary TB is six months.

      If the sensitivities are still unknown, treatment with only three drugs, such as rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide, is insufficient for the successful treatment of TB. Initial antibiotic treatment should be rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for two months, then rifampicin and isoniazid for four months.

      However, if the patient is sensitive to rifampicin and clarithromycin, treatment for TB can be rifampicin and clarithromycin for six months. It is important to note that treatment for 12 months is too long and may not be necessary for successful treatment of TB.

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      • Respiratory
      19.8
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  • Question 4 - A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and has been brought to the Emergency Department. Upon regaining consciousness, she reports experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and reduced exercise capacity for the past 3 days. During auscultation, a loud pulmonary second heart sound is detected. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals right axis deviation and tall R-waves with T-wave inversion in V1-V3. The chest X-ray appears normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple pulmonary emboli

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Collapse and Reduced Exercise Capacity

      A patient presents with collapse and reduced exercise capacity. Upon examination, there is evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension (loud P2). The following are potential diagnoses:

      1. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: This is the most likely cause, especially given the patient’s underlying cancer that predisposes to deep vein thrombosis. A computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the investigation of choice.

      2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): While HCM could present with collapse and ECG changes, it is less common and not known to cause shortness of breath. The patient’s risk factors of malignancy, symptoms of shortness of breath, and signs of a loud pulmonary second heart sound make pulmonary embolism more likely than HCM.

      3. Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: This condition can present with reduced exercise capacity, chest pain, and syncope, loud P2, and features of right ventricular hypertrophy. However, it is less common, and the patient has an obvious predisposing factor to thrombosis, making pulmonary emboli a more likely diagnosis.

      4. Angina: Angina typically presents with exertional chest pain and breathlessness, which is not consistent with the patient’s history.

      5. Ventricular Tachycardia: While ventricular tachycardia can cause collapse, it does not explain any of the other findings.

      In summary, multiple pulmonary emboli are the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered.

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      • Respiratory
      67.4
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  • Question 5 - A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a baby, visit a Fertility Clinic to receive the results of their tests. The man's semen sample has revealed azoospermia. Upon further inquiry, the man reports having a persistent cough that produces purulent sputum. What test would confirm the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) genetic screening and sweat test

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: A Case of Azoospermia and Bronchiectasis

      Azoospermia, or the absence of sperm in semen, can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders and respiratory diseases. In this case, a man presents with a longstanding cough productive of purulent sputum and is found to have azoospermia. The combination of azoospermia and bronchiectasis suggests a possible diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF), a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory and reproductive systems.

      CF is diagnosed via a sweat test showing high sweat chloride levels and genetic screening for two copies of disease-causing CFTR mutations. While most cases of CF are diagnosed in infancy, some are diagnosed later in life, often by non-respiratory specialties such as infertility clinics. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, can also cause non-obstructive azoospermia and is diagnosed by karyotyping.

      Computed tomography (CT) thorax can be helpful in diagnosing bronchiectasis, but the underlying diagnosis in this case is likely to be CF. Testicular biopsy and testing FSH and testosterone levels can be used to investigate the cause of azoospermia, but in this case, investigating for CF is the most appropriate next step. Nasal biopsy can diagnose primary ciliary dyskinesia, another cause of bronchiectasis and subfertility, but it is not relevant in this case.

      In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of male infertility should include a comprehensive medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations to identify any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the problem.

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      • Respiratory
      43.5
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency Department with an acute asthma attack. She has previously been admitted to the intensive therapy unit (ITU) with the same problem. Treatment is commenced with high-flow oxygen and regular nebulisers.
      Which of the following is a feature of life-threatening asthma?

      Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate < 50% of predicted or best

      Correct Answer: Normal PaCO2

      Explanation:

      Assessment of Severity in Acute Asthma Attacks

      Acute asthma is a serious medical emergency that can lead to fatalities. To assess the severity of an asthma attack, several factors must be considered. Severe asthma is characterized by a peak flow of 33-50% of predicted or best, a respiratory rate of over 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate of over 110 beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a peak flow of less than 33% of predicted or best, a silent chest, cyanosis, and arterial blood gas showing high or normal PaCO2, which reflects reduced respiratory effort. Additionally, arterial blood gas showing hypoxia (PaO2 <8 kPa) or acidosis is also a sign of life-threatening asthma. Any life-threatening features require immediate critical care and senior medical review. A peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% of predicted or best is a feature of an acute severe asthma attack. However, a pulse rate of 105 bpm is not a marker of severity in asthma due to its lack of specificity. Respiratory alkalosis, which is a condition characterized by low carbon dioxide levels, is actually a reassuring picture on the blood gas. In contrast, a normal carbon dioxide level would be a concern if the person is working that hard. Finally, the inability to complete full sentences is another feature of acute severe asthma.

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      • Respiratory
      28.3
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  • Question 7 - A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with an acute exacerbation. He is experiencing severe shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation levels are at 74% on room air. The medical team initiates treatment with 15 litres of high-flow oxygen and later transitions him to controlled oxygen supplementation via a 28% venturi mask. What is the optimal target range for his oxygen saturation levels?

      Your Answer: 88–92%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oxygen Saturation Targets for Patients with COPD

      Patients with COPD have specific oxygen saturation targets that differ from those without respiratory problems. The correct range for a COPD patient is 88-92%, as they rely on low oxygen concentrations to drive their respiratory effort. Giving them too much oxygen can potentially remove their drive to breathe and worsen their respiratory situation. In contrast, unwell individuals who are not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure have a target of 94-98%. A saturation target of 80% is too low and can cause hypoxia and damage to end organs. Saturations of 90-94% may indicate a need for oxygen therapy, but it may still be too high for a patient with COPD. It is vital to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) in hypoxia to check if the patient is a chronic CO2 retainer. Understanding these targets is crucial in managing patients with COPD and ensuring their respiratory effort is not compromised.

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      • Respiratory
      34
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath, unable to speak in complete sentences, tachypnoeic and with a tachycardia of 122 bpm. Severe inspiratory wheeze is noted on examination. The patient is given nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, and IV hydrocortisone is administered. After 45 minutes of IV salbutamol infusion, there is no improvement in tachypnea and oxygen saturation has dropped to 80% at high flow oxygen. An ABG is taken, showing a pH of 7.50, pO2 of 10.3 kPa, pCO2 of 5.6 kPa, and HCO3− of 28.4 mmol/l. What is the next most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Start continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

      Correct Answer: Request an anaesthetic assessment for the Intensive Care Unit (ICU)

      Explanation:

      Why an Anaesthetic Assessment is Needed for a Severe Asthma Attack in ICU

      When a patient is experiencing a severe asthma attack, it is important to take the appropriate steps to provide the best care possible. In this scenario, the patient has already received nebulisers, an iv salbutamol infusion, and hydrocortisone, but their condition has not improved. The next best step is to request an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, as rapid intubation may be required and the patient may need ventilation support.

      While there are other options such as CPAP and NIPPV, these should only be used in a controlled environment with anaesthetic backup. Administering oral magnesium is also not recommended, and iv aminophylline should only be considered after an anaesthetic review. By requesting an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, the patient can receive the best possible care for their severe asthma attack.

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      • Respiratory
      95.6
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight loss. He has a smoking history of 25 pack years.
      A focal mass is seen peripherally in the left lower lobe on chest X-ray (CXR).
      Serum biochemistry reveals:
      Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+): 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Corrected Ca2+: 3.32 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
      Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–6.5 mmol/l)
      Creatinine: 76 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l)
      Albumin: 38 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Bronchial Carcinoma and Hypercalcemia

      Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a type of non-small cell lung cancer that can cause hypercalcemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of calcium in the blood. This occurs because the cancer produces a hormone that mimics the action of parathyroid hormone, leading to the release of calcium from bones, kidneys, and the gut. Focal lung masses on a chest X-ray can be caused by various conditions, including bronchial carcinoma, abscess, tuberculosis, and metastasis. Differentiating between subtypes of bronchial carcinoma requires tissue sampling, but certain features of a patient’s history may suggest a particular subtype. Small cell bronchial carcinoma, for example, is associated with paraneoplastic phenomena such as Cushing’s syndrome and SIADH. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is linked to asbestos exposure and presents with pleural thickening or malignant pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Overall, a focal lung mass in a smoker should be viewed with suspicion and thoroughly evaluated to determine the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      125.1
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  • Question 10 - A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. There was an associated dry cough, but no fever. Examination revealed scattered wheezes and some expiratory high-pitched sounds. C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal. Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry revealed the following report:
      FEV1 51%
      FVC 88%
      FEV1/FVC 58%
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Disorders: Bronchiolitis Obliterans, ARDS, Pneumocystis Pneumonia, COPD Exacerbation, and Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension

      Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a respiratory disorder that may occur after bone marrow, heart, or lung transplant. It presents with an obstructive pattern on spirometry, low DLCO, and hypoxia. CT scan shows air trapping, and chest X-ray may show interstitial infiltrates with hyperinflation. BO may also occur in connective tissue diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic variety called cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP). In contrast, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) patients deteriorate quickly, and pneumocystis pneumonia usually presents with normal clinical findings. Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with a productive cough and raised CRP, while idiopathic pulmonary hypertension has a restrictive pattern and inspiratory fine crepitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      29.1
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Respiratory (5/10) 50%
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